MH-SSET – 2014 Speciality – Resp. Medicine

Question Booklet Version Question Booklet Sr. No.

(Write this number on your (Write this number on Answer Sheet) your Answer Sheet)

Day and Date : Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

Sunday, 8th June 2014 Total Marks : 150

This is to certify that the entries of MH-SSET Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written andverified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Instructions to Candidates

1. This question booklet contains 150 objective SINGLE BEST RESPONSE Type Questions (MCQs) ; distributedin two Sections viz Section A of 100 MCQs and Section B of 50 MCQs. Each MCQ is of one mark. There isno negative marking.

2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet are issued separately at the start of theexamination.

3. Section ‘A’ contains 100 questions covering all the subjects of I, II and III MBBS course. Section B contains50 questions in the subject of Broad Speciality in which the candidate has done postgraduation (MD or MS).

4. Candidate should check that correct question paper as per the speciality is received.

5. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.6. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and

make correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARKREADER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark correct entries. Special care should be takento fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION and SERIAL NO. and MH-SSET Roll No. accurately. The correctnessof entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet andQuestion Booklet.

7. Read each question carefully. Read the serial order of four options i.e. A, B, C & D of the MCQs carefully,including those which are ‘fill in the blank’ type of MCQs, while marking the answer.

8. Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given under each question.

9. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question only.

10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answer once marked.

11. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.

12. No mark shall be awarded for the particular question if the examinee has marked two or more answers to it orhas done overwriting or scratching etc. in the Answer Sheet.

13. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work shouldnot be done on the Answer Sheet.

14. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer Sheet and the Question Booklet is tobe returned to the invigilator after both the candidate and invigilator have signed.

15. No candidate is allowed to leave the Examination Hall till the examination session is over.

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11MH-SSET Roll No.

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Answer Sheet No.

P.T.O.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION – A

1. The treatment of choice for phobic disorder is

A) Psychotherapy B) Benzodiazepines

C) Behavioural therapy D) 5 HT reuptake inhibitors

2. Sweating, palpitations, shaking, chest pain and intense fear developing within

minutes, the clinical diagnosis is

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Acute Psychosis

C) Schizophrenia D) Panic Attack

3. Cluster C includes which of the following personality disorder ?

A) paranoid B) histrionic C) borderline D) avoidant

4. Schneider’s FRS (First Rank Symptoms) of Schizophrenia include all of the

following EXCEPT

A) Thought insertion B) Delusional perception

C) Thought blocking D) Somatic passivity

5. The Local Anaesthetic which has more cardiovascular toxicity in case of accidental

intravascular injection is

A) Lidocaine B) Bupivacaine

C) Ropivacaine D) Levobupivacaine

6. Local Anaesthetics act on

A) Open Na+ channel B) Closed Na+ channel

C) Open K+ channel D) Closed K+ channel

7. The ultra short acting opioid is

A) Fentanyl B) Alfentanil C) Sufentanyl D) Remifentanil

8. Following all are benzyl isoquinolinium compounds EXCEPT

A) Mivacurium B) Rocuronium

C) Atracurium D) Doxacurium

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9. The Blood/Gas partition co-efficient of sevoflurane at 37°C is

A) 0.42 B) 2.4 C) 0.65 D) 0.47

10. Psig stands for

A) Pounds per square inch gauge B) Pressure per square inch gauge

C) Pressure per square inch goal D) Pounds per square inch goal

11. Chalazion is a chronic granulomatous inflammation of a

A) Zeis gland B) Wolfring gland

C) Meibomian gland D) Moll gland

12. The type of laser employed for treating posterior capsule thickening after cataract

surgery is

A) Krypton laser B) Excimer laser

C) Argon laser D) YAG laser

13. Blood supply to the parietal pleura is by the

A) Bronchial circulation

B) Pulmonary arteries

C) Subclavian, internal mammary and intercostal arteries

D) Pulmonary veins

14. Active tuberculosis during pregnancy should be treated with following regimen

A) Isoniazid (INH) + Ethambutol

B) Isoniazid + Ethambutol + Streptomycin

C) Isoniazid + Pyrizinamide + Streptomycin

D) Isoniazid + Ethambutol + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide

15. Maximum dose of radiation per year in a human which is safe

A) 5 rads B) 1 rad C) 10 rads D) 20 rads

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16. Most radiosensitive brain tumor is

A) Ependymoma B) Medullo blastoma

C) Astrocytoma D) Craniopharyngioma

17. In x-ray chest PA view left atrial enlargement causes all EXCEPT

A) Left hilar enlargement B) Left lower lobe collapse

C) Double density shadow D) Widening of carina

18. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for

evaluating

A) Interstial lung disease B) Lung mass

C) Pleural effusion D) Mediastinal lymphademapathy

19. There is a possibility of unilateral disease in kidney when there is a difference in

length of kidney by

A) 0.5 cm or less B) 1 cm

C) 1 to 1.5 cm D) 2 cm or more

20. Bilirubin level causing kernicterus in a term infant is

A) 10 mg/dl B) 8 mg/dl

C) More than 20 mg/dl D) 10 – 12 mg/dl

21. Urinary incontinence in uterovaginal prolapse is mostly due to

A) Truecontinence B) Urge incontinence

C) Detrusor instability D) Stress incontinence

22. Which of the following genital infection is associated with preterm labour ?

A) Human papilloma virus B) Monilial vaginitis

C) Bacterial vaginosis D) Trichomonas vaginitis

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23. Normal vaginal pH during pregnancy is

A) increased B) unchanged

C) decreased D) none of the above

24. In semen analysis normal sperm concentration is

A) > 10 million/mL B) > 15 million/mL

C) > 20 million/mL D) > 25 million/mL

25. “McMurray’s Test” is done for integrity of

A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Posterior cruciate ligament

C) Meniscus D) Medial collateral ligament

26. Usually the first joint to get involved in Ankylosing spondylitis is

A) Sacroiliac joint B) Hip joint

C) Knee joint D) Facet joints of spine

27. Commonest cause of early onset paraplegia in TB of the spine is

A) Granulation tissue B) Tubercular Abscess

C) Infective thrombosis D) Sequestrum in the spinal canal

28. Hollowing between metacarpals is seen in

A) Radial nerve injury B) Ulnar nerve injury

C) Median nerve injury D) Ant. interosseus nerve injury

29. In fracture healing, stage of callus lasts for about

A) 2-3 weeks B) 4-8 weeks C) 4-12 weeks D) 8-16 weeks

30. Following air sinuses open in middle meatus of nose, EXCEPT

A) Frontal B) Maxillary

C) Middle ethmoidal D) Posterior ethmoidal

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31. A paralyzed vocal cord under stroboscopy

A) Seen to vibrate more B) Seen to vibrate less

C) Does not vibrate at all D) Vibrates with normal amplitude

32. Mickulicz cell and Russel bodies are characteristic of

A) Rhinoscleroma B) Rhinosporidiosis

C) Plasma cell disorder D) Midline granuloma

33. Highest density of goblet cells seen in

A) Ethmoid sinus B) Maxillary sinus

C) Frontal sinus D) Sphenoid sinus

34. Fordyce’s granules (spots) in oral cavity arise from

A) Mucous glands B) Taste buds

C) Sebaceous glands D) Minor salivary glands

35. Antihistone Antibodies are associated with

A) Neonatal Lupus Erythematosus

B) Discoid Lupus Erythematosus

C) Drug induced Lupus Erythematosus

D) Systemic Sclerosis

36. Prolonged use of a potent topical steroid ointment on the skin can cause

A) Lichenification B) Photosensitivity

C) Striae D) Pigmentation

37. Condyloma lata are seen in this stage of syphilis

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Late latent D) Tertiary

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38. Heliotrope rash is seen in

A) Lupus Erythematosus B) Scleroderma

C) Dermatomyositis D) Rheumatoid Arthritis

39. In most cases irregularity in the curvature of the cornea leads to

A) Astigmatism B) Myopia

C) Hyperopia D) Anisometropia

40. According to WHO classification of Xerophthalmia, X2 is

A) conjunctival xerosis B) corneal xerosis

C) corneal ulceration D) corneal scarring

41. Which of the following is NOT component of Moro’s reflex ?

A) Abduction of arm B) Crying

C) Blinking of eye D) Opening of fists

42. What should be internal diameter of endotracheal tube for neonatal resuscitation

of 1700 gm baby ?

A) 2.5 mm B) 3 mm C) 3.5 mm D) 4 mm

43. Most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in pediatric age group is

A) Minimal change disease

B) Membranous glomerulonephritis

C) Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

D) Mesangio proliferative glomerulonephritis

44. Neuroblastoma presents as Horner’s syndrome when arising from

A) adrenal glands B) paraspinal sympathetic ganglia

C) superior cervical ganglion D) inferior cervical ganglion

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45. In neonatal resuscitation, the chest compression to ventilation ratio is

A) 2 : 1 B) 3 : 1 C) 4 : 1 D) 5 : 1

46. In experienced units the percentage of intussusceptions which can be reduced

hydrostatically without surgery is

A) 50% B) 10% C) 30% D) 70%

47. Sistrunk’s operation is done for

A) Brachial cyst B) Thyroglossal cyst

C) Cystic hygroma D) Laryngocele

48. Polyglyconate suture material gets absorbed in

A) 21 days B) 60 days C) 90 days D) 180 days

49. Most common variety of intussusception in children is

A) Retrograde B) Ileoilial C) Ileocolic D) Colocolic

50. The relative contraindication for PEG (Percuteneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy) is

A) Ascites B) Facial trauma

C) Debilitated D) Impaired swallowing

51. Most common type of gastric polyp is

A) Inflammatory polyp B) Malignant polyp

C) Metaplastic polyp D) Pseudopolyp

52. Minimum score in Glasgow coma scale is

A) 0 B) 5 C) 3 D) 1

53. All are the following features of systemic inflammatory response EXCEPT

A) Hyperthermia B) Tachycardia

C) Hypothermia D) Bradycardia

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54. Fresh frozen plasma which is rich in coagulation factors and stored at – 40 to –

60°C has

A) 7 days shelf life B) 2 weeks shelf life

C) Two years shelf life D) 1 years shelf life

55. The main disabilities of drooping of shoulder is seen in which of following classical

radical neck dissection ?

A) Crile B) Howard C) Clarke R D) Hibbett J

56. Peau D’orange appearance of mammary skin is due to

A) Intra-epithelial B) Sub-epidermal cancer

C) Lymphatic permeation D) Vascular embolisation

57. All are resected in Whipple’s operation EXCEPT

A) Duodenum B) Head of pancreas

C) Portal vein D) Common bile duct

58. FNAC is useful in all the following types of thyroid carcinoma EXCEPT

A) Papillary B) Follicular C) Anaplastic D) Medullary

59. Electrical alternans in ECG is a sign of

A) Left ventricular failure B) Cardiac tamponade

C) Myocardial infarction D) Constrictive pericarditis

60. Empirical treatment for a patient of viral encephalitis is

A) Acyclovir B) Ganciclovir

C) α -interferon D) Ribavarin

61. Treatment of choice in patients having atrial fibrillation of less than 48 hrs duration is

A) Digoxin B) Verapamil

C) DC cardioversion D) Flecainide

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62. Contralateral hemiplegia with ipsilateral 6th and 7th cranial nerve palsy is seen in

A) Webers syndrome B) Claudes syndrome

C) Perinaud syndrome D) Millard Gubler syndrome

63. In which of the following condition eradication of H. Pylori is NOT indicated ?

A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

B) Maltoma

C) Peptic ulcer

D) H. Pylori positive dyspepsia

64. Hasford system used for prognosis of CML include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Spleen size B) Platelet count

C) Cytogenetic clonal evaluation D) Percentage of circulating blast

65. Corticosteroids are indicated in patients with alcoholic hepatitis if calculated

discriminant function is

A) > 50 B) > 32 C) > 20 D) > 62

66. Traction bronchiectasis refers to dialated airways due to

A) Pulmonary fibrosis

B) Congenital bronchiectasis

C) ABPA (Allergic bronchopulmonary asperagillosis)

D) Community acquired pneumonia

67. Sinus node dysfunction is present if sinus node recovery time (SNRT) is

A) > 500 millisecond B) > 1000 millisecond

C) > 1500 millisecond D) > 300 millisecond

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68. Most common intracranial neoplasm in adults is

A) Astrocytoma B) Meningioma

C) Vestibular schwanoma D) CNS lymphoma

69. Fresh Frozen plasma contains all EXCEPT

A) Fibrinogen B) Prothrombin

C) Antithrombin D) Protein C and S

70. Major criteria for Rheumatic fever are all EXCEPT

A) Migrating arthralgia B) Subcutaneous nodules

C) Rheumatic chorea D) Erythema marginatum

71. Histopathological Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion in kidney biopsy of patients with

diabetic nephropathy is

A) Thickened glomerular basement membrane

B) Expanded melangial matrix

C) Nodular glomerulosclerosis

D) Hyaline arteriosclerosis

72. A pictorial diagram which shows the broad features of the area and the cases

shown as points is called as

A) Gantt chart B) Spot map

C) Epidemic curve D) Forest plot

73. In which of the following method of pasteurization, ‘milk is rapidly heated to a

temperature of nearly 72 deg. C, and is held at that temperature for not less than

15 seconds, and is then rapidly cooled to 4 deg. C’ ?

A) Holder B) HTST

C) UHT D) VAT

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74. Which is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community ?

A) General Fertility Rate (GFR) B) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

C) Couple Protection Rate (CPR) D) Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)

75. To diagnose which type of leprosy given below, histamine test is recommended ?

A) Pure neuritic type B) Lepromatous type

C) Borderline type D) Indeterminate type

76. The shape of wound produced by double edged knife is

A) Wedge shape B) Elliptical

C) Triangular D) Oval

77. Which poisoning shows dark brown colour postmortem lividity ?

A) Hydrocyanic acid B) Carbon monoxide

C) Nitrobenzene D) Phosphorus

78. The fungus commonly causing meningitis is

A) Penicillium marneffei B) Candida krusei

C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Aspergillus flavus

79. Aspergillus species has

A) Septate hyphae B) Pseudo hyphae

C) Metachromatic hyphae D) No hyphae

80. The peripheral lymphoid organ in humans is

A) Thymus B) Lymph nodes

C) Bone marrow D) Bursa of fabricus

81. Selective alpha-one adrenergic receptor blocker is

A) Phentolamine B) Labetolol

C) Prazosin D) Yohimbine

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82. An immunosuppressant drug that acts by preferentially inhibiting antigen triggered

signal transduction pathway in T-cells is

A) Leflunomide B) Cyclosporine

C) Mycophenolate mofetil D) Cyclophosphamide

83. Zileuton is a

A) Mast cell stabilizer B) Inhaled steroid

C) 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor D) Leukotrine receptor antagonist

84. Dales vasomotor reversal is seen with

A) Adrenaline B) Noradrenaline

C) Ephedrine D) Dopamine

85. CD-95 has a major role in

A) Apoptosis B) Cell necrosis

C) Interferon activation D) Proteolysis

86. Psammoma bodies are seen in all EXCEPT

A) Follicular Ca thyroid B) Meningioma

C) Papillary Ca thyroid D) Serous carcinoma of ovary

87. Carcinoid tumour of intestinal tract arises from

A) Columnar cells B) Neuroendocrine cells

C) Smooth muscle cells D) Lymphoid cells

88. Labile cells include all the following types of cells EXCEPT

A) Surface epithelial cells of skin B) Hemopoietic cells

C) Hepatocytes D) Endometrial cells

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89. Fever in inflammation is produced by all EXCEPT

A) IL – 1 B) TNF

C) Prostaglandin D) Leukotrine

90. The nitrogen base present in lecithin is

A) Choline B) Ethanolamine

C) Serine D) Inositol

91. Asparginase is an enzyme useful in the treatment of

A) Ovarian cancer B) Hepatoma

C) Prostate cancer D) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

92. The neurotransmitter formed by decarboxylation of glutamate is

A) Gamma-aminobutyric acid B) Histamine

C) P-aminobenzoic acid D) Serotonin

93. Activation of proto-oncogene to oncogene occurs by all of the following mechanisms

EXCEPT

A) Promotor insertion B) Gene amplification

C) Transduction D) Chromosomal translocation

94. Short chain fatty acids produced by bacteria get absorbed maximally in the

A) Ileum B) Jejunum

C) Colon D) Duodenum

95. In kidney, glucose reabsorption occurs in the

A) proximal tubule B) loop of henle

C) distal tubule D) collecting duct

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96. Which one of the following area is protected by blood-brain barrier ?

A) Posterior pituitary

B) Area postrema

C) Thalamus

D) Organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis

97. Visual accommodation involves

A) increased tension on lens ligaments

B) a decrease in curvature of lens

C) relaxation of sphincter muscle of iris

D) contraction of ciliary muscle

98. ‘Bare area’ of liver includes following regions, EXCEPT

A) Groove for inferior vena cava B) Porta hepatis

C) Fossa for gall-bladder D) Caudate lobe

99. Telencephalon of developing brain gives rise to

A) Pons B) Cerebellum

C) Cerebrum D) Medulla oblongata

100. Ligamentum teres is remnant of

A) Ductus venosus B) Umbilical arteries

C) Umbilical vein D) Ductus arteriosus

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SECTION – B

RESP. MEDICINE

101. The Revised Geneva score is a clinical prediction score used for

A) COPD B) Pulmonary Embolism

C) Pneumonia D) Byssinosis

102. Double cardiac shadow on chest X-ray is suggestive of

A) Ventricular Aneurysm B) Pneumopericardium

C) Hiatus Hernia D) Collapse of left lower lobe

103. ABPA is virtually always related to

A) Aspergillus niger B) Aspergillus fumigatus

C) Aspergillus flavus D) Aspergillus terreus

104. The most important expiratory muscle of the rib cage is

A) Triangularis Sterni B) Levator Costae

C) External Intercostal D) Scalenus Anterior

105. The Gold standard treatment for obstructive sleep Apnoea is

A) Position Therapy B) Intraoral devices

C) CPAP D) Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

106. Best method of administering bronchodilators to mechanically ventilated patient is

A) MDI B) MDI c- chamber device

C) Nebulisation D) Parenteral

107. Pulmonary hypertension occurs most often in

A) S. L. E. B) Systemic Sclerosis

C) Sjogren’s syndrome D) Polyarteritis

108. The Apnoea/Hypoapnoea Index (AHI) greater than following indicative of OSA is

A) 1 – 5 events/hr B) 5 – 10 events/hr

C) 10 – 15 events/hr D) 15 – 20 events/hr

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109. Objective measures of sleepiness are all EXCEPT

A) Multiple sleep latency test

B) Multiple wakefulness test

C) OSLER scores (Oxford Sleep Resistance Scores)

D) Epworth sleepiness score

110. The following statements about diffusion across alveolar capillary membrane aretrue EXCEPT

A) DLCO is 5 to 15% greater in the supine position than erect position

B) Increased alveolar pressure will increase measured DLCO

C) DLCO decreases with reduction in alveolar volume

D) DLCO can increase as much as two fold during exercise

111. The following spirometric parameter will not be affected in patients with severekyphoscoliosis

A) TLC B) VC

C) FEV1 D) FEV1/FVC

112. Which antituberculous drug has suicidal thoughts as a side effect ?

A) Cycloserine B) Fluoroquinolones

C) Ethambutol D) PAS

113. The initial treatment in the management of asthma exacerbation in an acute caresetting includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) Oxygen supplementation to achieve SaO2 > 90%

B) Inhaled rapid acting β 2 agonist for 15 min

C) Inhaled rapid acting β 2 agonist for 1 hour

D) Systemic glucocorticosteroid

114. A patient of bronchiectasis presents with a pleural effusion. The pleural fluidanalysis reveals -LDH - 400 IU/L, glucose - 38 mg/dl, pH - 6.7, gram stain – positivefor staphylococcus aureus. The next appropriate step would be

A) Therapeutic thoracocentesis

B) Intercostal drain insertion and appropriate antibiotics

C) Serial thoracocentesis and appropriate antibiotics

D) Initiating appropriate antibiotics

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115. Programmatic management of drug resistant TB services

A) are supplementary services under the expanded framework of DOTSpackage

B) includes only treatment services

C) was first endorsed by WHO and began in India in 2000

D) is not an integral part of national TB programme

116. A patient of COPD has to undergo an Arterial Blood Gas analysis (ABG). Whileperforming the modified Allen’s test, it is noted that the patient’s hand repurfusesafter 30 sec. The next step is

A) use 23-G or smaller size needle for puncture

B) proceed to obtain the specimen

C) draw blood from alternate site

D) check patient’s blood pressure before proceeding

117. The causative organism for swimming pool granuloma is

A) M. fortuitum B) M. chelonge

C) M. abscessus D) M. marinum

118. On Chest radiography ‘water lily sign’ is seen in infection with

A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Echinococcus granulosus

C) Wuchereria bancrofti D) Strongyloides stercoralis

119. The following organism can cause pneumonia in persons exposed to contaminatedair-conditioning cooling towers

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

C) Legionella pneumophilia D) Staphylococcus aureus

120. Methotrexate-induced toxicity includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) Acute chest pain syndromes

B) Pulmonary fibrosis

C) Hypersensitivity type lung disease

D) Acute bronchospasm

121. The drug used as first line treatment for acute mountain sickness is

A) Acetazolamide B) Hydrochlorothiazide

C) Frusemide D) Spironolactone

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122. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is consistent with the following findings EXCEPT

A) Decreased DLCO

B) Precipitating antibodies to causative antigens

C) Granuloma on lung biopsy

D) Eosinophilic alveolitis

123. All are the diagnostic criteria for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis EXCEPT

A) Asthma

B) Central bronchiectasis

C) Immediate cutaneous reactivity to aspergillus skin test antigen

D) Serum total IgE concentration greater than 300 ng/ml

124. First line pharmacotherapy for smoking cessation includes all EXCEPT

A) Bupropion B) Nicotine

C) Nortriptyline D) Varenicline

125. Cholesterol crystals in pleural fluid is a diagnostic feature of

A) Chylothorax

B) Pseudochylothorax

C) Chronic pancreatic pleural effusion

D) Bilious pleural effusion

126. The following are the causes of metabolic alkalosis EXCEPT

A) Vomiting B) Loop or thiazide diuretics

C) Cushing syndrome D) Chronic aldosterone deficiency

127. An episode of hypopnea may be characterised by all of the following EXCEPT

A) Decrement in airflow of 50 percent or more

B) Cessation of respiration for atleast 10 seconds

C) 4 percent fall in oxygen saturation

D) Electro Encephalo Graphic (EEG) arousal

128. For diagnosis of Acute Lung Injury, PaO2/FiO2 should be less than or equal to

A) 150 mm Hg B) 200 mm Hg

C) 300 mm Hg D) 450 mm Hg

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129. As per recent WHO guidelines, wherever feasible, the optimal dosing frequencyof anti TB drugs for new patients with pulmonary TB is

A) Daily throughout the course of therapy

B) Daily during intensive phase followed by three times weekly duringcontinuation phase

C) Three times weekly throughout the course of therapy

D) Three times weekly regimen in atleast HIV-TB co-infection

130. During routine ward rounds, one of your patients suffering from pulmonary TBwith right upper lobe cavity suddenly starts having bouts of hemoptysis. As aninitial bed side manoeuvre, you will position the patient in

A) Supine position

B) Prone position

C) Right lateral decubitus position

D) Left lateral decubitus position

131. Individuals with null mutation in an enzyme are less likely to become smokersand if they do smoke, then they are at a less risk for smoking related disease.Which is the enzyme ?

A) CYP2A4 B) CYP2A5

C) CYP2A6 D) CYP2A7

132. Most common pulmonary complication of scleroderma is

A) Interstitial lung disease B) Pleural disease

C) Lung nodule D) Chest wall nodule

133. During closed needle biopsy of the pleura, the biopsy samples are taken from

A) Visceral Pleura only

B) Parietal pleura only

C) Either Visceral pleura or parietal pleura but never both

D) Both visceral pleura and parietal pleura

134. MONGE’s disease represents

A) Acute Mountain Sickness

B) High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)

C) Chronic Mountain Sickness

D) High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)

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135. The recommended initial management of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax is

A) Observation B) Aspiration

C) Tube Thoracostomy D) VATS

136. “RUST COLOURED SPUTUM” is most commonly seen in pneumonia caused by

A) Klebsiella B) Staphylococcus

C) Pneumococcus D) H. influenza

137. “HAIRLINE SHADOWS” on chest radiograph is seen in

A) Bullae B) Cavity

C) Pneumothorax D) Interstitial lung disease

138. Pulmonary function abnormalities following thoracic and abdominal surgery is

A) Obstructive B) Mixed

C) Restrictive D) No change in pulmonary function

139. Decompression sickness commonly presents with neurological symptoms or signs,in

A) Military Divers B) Commercial Divers

C) Caisson Workers D) Sport Divers

140. Kleine-Levin syndrome associated with following EXCEPT

A) Intermittent episodes of intense hypersomnia

B) Increased appetite

C) Overt sexual behaviour

D) Intermittent episodes of insomnia

141. Direction in which the cilia beat is determined by the orientation of the

A) Nine peripheral doublet microtubules

B) Left five peripheral microtubules

C) Central two microtubules

D) Right five peripheral microtubules

142. Sildenafil is a selective inhibitor of cyclic GMP specific

A) Phosphodiesterase II B) Phosphodiesterase III

C) Phosphodiesterase IV D) Phosphodiesterase V

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143. Which of the following nontuberculous mycobacteria is slowly growing (visible

growth in more than seven days from dilute inoculum) ?

A) M. abscessus B) M. fortuitum group

C) M. mucogenicum D) M. avium complex

144. Modafinil is used in treatment of

A) Insufficient sleep syndrome B) Narcolepsy

C) Delayed sleep syndrome D) Restless leg syndrome

145. In Meig’s syndrome, after the removal of Pelvic tumor, the pleural fluid disappearswithin

A) 1 week post operatively B) 2 weeks post operatively

C) 3 weeks post operatively D) 4 weeks post operatively

146. Airflow obstruction in COPD is especially associated with structural abnormalitiesin

A) Large airways B) Larynx

C) Small airways D) Trachea

147. Most common cause of elevated DLCO is

A) Obesity B) Pulmonary haemorrhage syndrome

C) Emphysema D) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

148. Surfactant in Lungs is secreted by

A) Type I alveolar cells B) Goblet cells

C) Type II alveolar cells D) Mast cells

149. Flattening of only expiratory loop of flow-volume curve is seen in

A) Variable intrathoracic obstruction

B) Variable extrathoracic obstruction

C) Fixed obstruction

D) Neuromuscular disorder

150. Most common presentation of Extrapulmonary TB in both HIV seronegative and

HIV infected patients is

A) Tubercular pleural effusion B) Tuberculous lymphadenitis

C) Genitourinary tuberculosis D) Bones and joint tuberculosis

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

11 -24- ����

DM Resp. Medi

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK