midterm exam hc1 skills seta

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    SET AARELLANO UNIVERSITY

    Jose Abad Santos Campus, Pasay City

    College of Nursing

    MIDTERM EXAMINATIONHEALTHCARE I SKILLS

    NAME_____________________________________ DATE_______________COURSE / YEAR & SEC____________________ SCORE__________

    S I T U A T I O N : A

    MR. CHRISTOPHER L. CALNEA, 45 years old, married, was admitted to the hospital due to fever,productivecough and rapid, labored breathing. His wife who went with him said that 2 weeksago, he had colds and frequent, dry cough which resulted to shortness of breath on exertion.

    Yesterday, one day after admission, the health care provider reported that Mr. Calnea had highfever (38 degrees Celcius) and had began to experience pain in his chest during inspiration. But,his temperature dropped to 36 degrees Celcius 3 hours after he took 500 mgs of PARACETAMOLthat was administered by the health care provider.

    1. The underlined data in the paragraph above comprise what component ofHealth History?a. Social Data c. Biographic Datab. Lifestyle d. Past History

    2. Which of the following data is/are also included in the category mentioned in number 1?

    a. Ethnic Affiliation c. Personal Habitsb. Occupation d. a & c

    3. In the paragraph, thephrases in bold letters is/are the

    a. Chief Complaints c. History of Present Illnessb. Past History d. a & c

    4. The answer/s in number 3 is/are

    a. signs c. components ofHealth Historyb. symptoms d. b & c

    5. Which of the following statements about the paragraph above is/are true?a. It contains information on History of Present Illnessb. There are Psychologic Datac. There is information on Patterns of Health Cared. a & c

    6. The fact that Mr. Calnea has taken PARACETAMOL for his fever form part of the data on hisa. History of Present Illness c. Past Historyb. Patterns of Health Care d. all of the above

    7. The PARACETAMOL given to Mr. Calnea by the health care provider is a form of

    a. relief from discomfort c. cureb. ease from discomfort d. a & c

    8. Other data included in the answer/s in number 6 is/are except:

    a. allergiesb. hospitalization for serious illnessc. factors that worsen his health problemd. childhood illnesses

    9. The health care provider should assess the intensity of the pain that Mr. Calnea experiencesin the chest during respiration because it is included in what sub-component ofHealthHistory?

    a. Psychologic Datab. History of Present Ilnessc. Past History

    d. Chief Complaint

    GENERAL INSTRUCTION:

    MULTIPLE CHOICE.Choose the best answer from among the options provided. Shade

    the circle that corresponds to your answer on a separate answer sheet.

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    10. The Components of Health Historyis a tool which can ensure thata. the health problem of a client/patient is accurately defined & effectively resolvedb. the health care provider will not have a difficult time taking care of the client/patientc. health care provider will not earn the anger of a client/patient and his significant othersd. b & c

    S I T U A T I O N : B

    The health care provider decides to do further Interview and conduct a thorough Physical HealthAssessment of Mr. Calnea.

    11. The health care provider should start the physical assessment bya. preparing the client physically and psychologically for the procedureb. preparing all the equipment and materials neededc. ensuring that the environment is well-lit, quiet, private, well-ventilatedd. all of the above

    12. Physical Health Assessmentin this situation is done toa. obtain a baseline data about Mr. Calneas functional abilitiesb. to establish rapport with the clientc. to evaluate the progress of the clients health problemd. a & c

    13. In general, the other purpose/s of the said assessment include/sa. to supplement and confirm data found in the clients Health Historyb. to evaluate the physiologic outcomes of health care the client receivesc. to identify areas for health promotion and disease preventiond. all of the above

    14. The health care provider remembers that preliminary examination requires General Survey.This survey includes all of the following except:

    a. taking Mr. Calneas vital signsb. taking his height and weightc. describing his general appearance and behaviord. none of the above

    15. Mr. Calneas physical health assessment will begina. at the skullb. at the posterior thoraxc. at the upper extremitiesd. anterior thorax

    16. The health care provider understands that the best position for the clients assessment isthe

    a. sims positionb. sitting positionc. dorsal recumbentd. prone position

    17. The answer in number 16 is properly done whena. client is made to lie on his abdomen with head turned to the side; with or without a

    small pillowb. client is made to lie on her back with legs extended; with or without a pillow under

    the headc. client is made to sit, back unsupported and legs hanging freelyd. client is made to sit, back and legs supported

    18. The client requested that Mrs. Calnea stay with him in the room during the PhysicalAssessment. The health care provider should

    a. not grant this request and explain that he (the health care provider) cantconcentrate if Mrs. Calnea was inside the examination room

    b. allow Mrs. Calnea to stay while the assessment is donec. not allow Mrs. Calnea to stay and explain that the client needs utmost privacyd. ignore the request as the health care provider knows what is best for the client

    19. If Mr. Calneas chest shape and size is considered normal,a. its anteroposterior diameter is half its transverse diameterb. its transverse diameter is half its anteroposterior diameterc. the thorax is ovald. a & c

    20. Mr. Calneas posterior chest is palpated for respiratory excursion (thoracic expansion).When the client took a deep breath, the health care providers thumbs separated 2 inchesand at the same time. The result of the test is

    a. full and asymmetric expansion of the lungs

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    b. decreased and asymmetric expansion of the lungsc. full and symmetric expansion of the thoraxd. decreased and symmetric expansion of the thorax

    21. Palpation of vocal (tactile) fremitus is done. The health care provider, discovered bilateralsymmetry of vocal fremitus immediately. He says to himself that it is so much easier to doso in men than women because

    a. women have more adipose tissues underneath their skinsb. males have low-pitched voicesc. males usually have larger body surfacesd. b & c

    22. The health care provider auscultates Mr. Calneas posterior thorax. Proper use of thistechnique requires listening to a total of how many areas/sites with a stethoscope?

    a. 13b. 15c. 10d. 7

    S I T U A T I O N : C

    Having examined the part of Mr. Calneas anatomy which the health care provider decided had tocome ahead because of the presenting complaints, he continues to assess the other parts.

    23. Palpation of the skull should result to findings abouta. proportionality to the size of the bodyb. presence of prominencesc. symmetry in of its planesd. all of the above

    24. The health care provider wishes to describe the hair distribution, thickness, and lubrication.He has to use what technique?

    a. palpationb. inspectionc. auscultationd. a & b

    25. The health care provider is wrong if he classifies the hair on Mr. Calneas scalp asa. vellus hairb. terminal hairc. a combination of vellus and terminal hairsd. a & c

    26. But, he is correct if he classifies the hair on Mr. Calneas armpit asa. vellus hairb. terminal hairc. a combination of vellus and terminal haird. a & c

    27. The care provider examines Mr. Calneas eyes. He should be finished with inspection of thegeneral appearance of this part if he has observed for

    a. placement, symmetry, protrusion, clarity,b. placement, symmetry, protrusion, clarity, lacrimationc. placement, symmetry, protrusion, clarity, movementd. placement, symmetry, protrusion, clarity, movement, visual field

    28. Mr. Calneas pupils were normally reactive to light. This means thata. they constricted when light was flashed; dilated when light was removedb. they dilated when light was flashed; constricted when light was removedc. they constricted when eyes were focused on objects near; dilated when focused on

    objects fard. a & c

    29. Mr. Calnea cannot read. What would the health care provider use to test his visual acuity?a. eye chartb. Snellen Standard chartc. Snellen E chartd. Progress chart

    30. The visual acuity of Mr. Calneas left eye is 20/40. This means that his left eyea. is able to see at 40 feet what an individual with normal vision can see at 20 feet.b. has good visual acuityc. is able to read at 20 feet what an individual with normal vision can see at 40 feetd. a & b

    31. The health care provider plans to refer Mr. Calnea to an optalmologist after the assessment.

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    This intervention isa. correctb. not correct as the visual acuity of his left eye is expected of people who are 45 years

    old and abovec. not correct as giving opinions is not therapeuticd. b & c

    32. Mr. Calnea was made to cover his right eye and to look directly at the health care providersnose. The care giver covered his left eye and looked directly to the clients nose, extendedhis arm and moved into the visual field from various points in the periphery. The test doneis meant to

    a. assess peripheral visionb. assess visual fieldsc. determine astigmatismd. determine presbyopia (loss of elasticity of the lens of the eyes) which normally starts

    at 45 years old

    33.The result for the test done in number 46 will be accurate ifclient sat directly in front of caregiver at a distance of 4 feet

    a. when the arm of the care giver was moved 60 degrees superiorly, 90 degreestemporally, 70 degrees inferiorly

    b. when then care givers arm was moved 70 degrees superiorly, 90 degreestemporally, 60 degrees inferiorly

    c. a & b

    34. Mr. Calneas ear canal was inspected. The canal should be straightened if the care giver willa. pull the pinna down and backb. pull the pinna up and backc. requests the client to open his mouthd. b & c

    35. Care giver declared that Mr. Calneas gums are retracted. This means thata. his gums are pulling away from the teethb. his gums are covering the teethc. his gums have swellingd. b & c

    36. Mr. Calnea shrugged his shoulders against the resistance of the care givers hand. Thisprocedure

    a. determined the strength of the sternocleidomastoid musclesb. determined the strength of the trapezius musclesc. determined the presence of reflexesd. a & c

    37. Physical Examination is done when?a. client is admitted to the hospital or long term care facilityb. routine screening to promote preventive health carec. determination of eligibility for health insuranced. a and b

    38. During assessment of the eyes the equipments needed are the following except?a. penlight c. tongue depressorb. Snellens chart d. ophthalmoscope

    39. The general appearance of a client would include all of the following except:a. signs of distress c. posture and gaitb. thought process d. type of clothing

    40. The correct sequence of examining the head should be:a. scalp, face , eyes, ears c. scalp , hair, face , eyesb. skull, hair , scalp, eyes d. eyes, ears, nose, face

    41. It refers to a persons feeling as they appear to others:a. mood c. emotionb. affect d. posture and gait

    42. In inspecting the eye, you should observe for the following except:a. placement c. symmetryb. formation d. acuity

    43. To test the pupils for accommodation, you would need to:a. use snellens chartb. use a penlight and shine light directly to the clients pupilsc. use a penlight and move it in an H formation

    d. use your finger and position it 4-6 inches from the clients nose, then move the

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    finger away

    44. The normal vision isa. 10 / 10 c. 30 / 30b. 20/20 d. 40 / 40

    46. The numerator in the visual acuity measure refers to:a. distance that the normal person can read the lineb. distance from the chartc. age at which the client can read the lined. none of the above

    47. Descriptor for a percussion sound that is moderate in intensity, moderate in duration, ofhigh pitch, thudlike and normally located over organs.

    a. deep palpation c. durationb. dullness d. intensity

    48. The description for a percussion sound that is loud in intensity, long in duration, of highpitch, drumlike and normally located over a gastric bubble is:

    a. flatness c. palpationb. hyperresonance d. tympany

    49. The use of ones own sense to consciously observe the patient in the physical assessment ofvision, hearing, smell and touch refers to:

    a. direct auscultation c. inspectionb. direct percussion d. none of these

    50. Using the plexor to strike the pleximeter in order to elicit sound refers toa. direct fist percussion c. palpationb. direct percussion d. indirect percussion

    51. Touching the patient in a diagnostic manner to elicit specific information refers to:a. duration c. auscultationb. palpation d. indirect percussion

    52. It is an assessment by active listening to body sounds via amplification or mechanical device

    such as stethoscope or Doppler ultrasound:a. Auscultation c. plexorb. direct percussion d. pleximeter

    53. Percussion sound that is loud in intensity, moderate to long in duration, low in pitch, hollowand normally located in healthy lungs is classifieds as:

    a. duration c. resonanceb. hyperresonance d. dullness

    54. A time or period over which sound is hearda. duration c. qualityb. intensity d. pitch

    55. A stationary finger of the non-dominant hand used in indirect percussion is known as:a. plexor c. pleximeterb. fremitus d. plexus

    56. A percussion sound that is soft in intensity, short in duration, and of high pitch and isnormally located over a muscle or bone:

    a. flat c. resonanceb. dullness d. tympany

    57. The healthcare worker documents that there is a hyperresonance upon percussion of theclients lungs. A hyper-resonant is described as:

    a. A musical or drumlike sound produced in an air-filled organ.b. An extremely dull sound produced by a very dense tissue.

    c. Described as a booming and can be heard over an abnormal lungd. A thudlike sound produced by a very dense tissue

    58. To palpate for tactile fremitus, the healthcare provider should:a. ask the patient to cough while palpatingb. do a deep palpation for any abnormal lung movementc. palpate the anterior and posterior chest while asking the client to take a deep

    breathd. Ask the client to repeat words such as ninety nine or tres- tres while palpating

    the posterior thorax.

    59. In what sites should the healthcare provider auscultate the heart?a. apical, sternal , costal, mitral

    b. aortic , pulmonic, tricuspid, mitral

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    c. lateral, anterior, posterior, apicald. carotid,aortic,jugular, coronary

    60. In inspection, the following principles shall be observed except:a. provide for adequate lightingb. exposed all the body parts whether it is going to be assessed or notc. use additional light to expose the body cavitiesd. inspect each area for size, shape, symmetry, color , position and abnormalities

    61. The pal mar surface of the hand is best used to assess the following, except:a. texture c. vibrationb. pulsation d. temperature

    62. The part of the stethoscope used for assessing bowel sound is:a. bell c. Y pipesb. diaphragm d. earpiece

    63. In assessing the abdomen the client is placed in a dorsal recumbent position, This position isbest described as:

    a. sittingb. lying flat on bedc. lying with a small pillowd. lying with small pillow and knees flexed

    64. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is best used for assessinga. heart sound c. lung soundb. bowel sound d. both a and c

    65. In the examination of the normal skull, prominences should be noted in the following areas:a. frontal and parietalb. parietal and occipitalc. temporal and occipitald. frontal and occipital

    66. During the inspection of the scalp, the healthcare worker should note for the followingexcept:a. lice c. dandruff

    b. nits d. areas of tenderness

    67. Examination of the eyes includes the following except:a. eye movement c. vision questb. visual acuity d. field of vision

    68. When inspecting the ear canal of an adult client, the examiner should pull the ear:a. downward and forward c. upward and forwardb. downward and backward d. upward and backward

    69. PERRLA stands fora. Pupils equal remain reactive to light and accommodationb. Pupils equilateral round reactive to light and accommodationc. Pupils equal ,round ,reactive to light and accommodationd. Pupils equal round reactive to light and alteration

    70. Visual acuity is tested bya. Determining the smallest line of print from which the client is able to correctly

    identify all figures.b. determining the smallest line of print from which the client is able to correctly

    identify more than half of the figuresc. determining the largest line of print from which the client is able to correctly

    identify more than half of the figures

    d. determining the largest line of print from which the client is able to correctlyidentify all figures

    71. Accommodation is best described as:a. the ability of the eye to identify the figures from a distanceb. the ability of the eye to adjust to objects at varying distancesc. the ability of the eye to react to light and darknessd. the ability of the eye to blink

    72. In inspecting the iris, the examiner should note for the following, except:a. texture c. symmetryb. color d. shape

    73. In examining the client for eye movement, the client should be instructed to:

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    a. face the direction opposite the objectb. look straight aheadc. not to move the headd. turn the head to the direction of the object

    74. When eliciting for tactile fremitus, the normal findings should be:a. vibrations should be bilaterally symmetricalb. vibrations are most intense at the 5th ICS at the sternal borderc. vibrations are equal at the upper and lower portion of the thoraxd. none of the above

    75. Palpation of the breast is best done during what time?a. during menstruationb. a week before menstruationc. a week after menstruationd. during ovulation

    76. Before concluding that the bowel sound is absent, the examiner should listen for at leasta. 1 minute c. 1 minuteb. 3 minutes d. 7 minutes

    77. All of the following are normal sounds produced through percussion except:a. flat c. tympanicb. dull d. bruits

    78. Vesicular sounds are heard over:a. peripheral lungs c. abdomenb. 2nd left ICS along the sternal borders d. temporal area

    79. Abnormal lung sounds produced by rubbing together of inflamed and roughened pleural

    spaces are known as:a. ronchi c. ralesb. wheezes d. friction rub

    80. When palpating the breast you should move your fingers along concentric circles following

    a:a. Counter clockwise direction c. segmental directionb. clockwise direction d. both a and b

    GOODLUCK AND GOD BLESS!

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