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SBLC, TIRUPATI, MISSION PROMOTION 2017

2017

STATE

BANK

LEARNING

CENTRE,

TIRUPATI

MISSION PROMOTION .


My dear colleagues,

Benjamin Franklin is right in averring that an Investment in Knowledge pays the

best interest.

For many of the hesitant starters to invest time in upgradation their knowledge

quotient, Les Brown’ s advice may act like a catalyst: “Life has no limitations,

except the ones you make!”

Trust the current edition of “Mission Promotion” propels the promotion

aspirants to break the barriers of initial inertia, complacence and the self

imposed limitations and make a conscientious decision to make effort to

prepare well for the ensuing promotion exercises.

The content developed by our team members focused more on the current

developments based on circulars/instructions/guidelines. The book is intended

to supplement, not substitute, the individual and unique efforts of the

competent aspirants.

When we wake up in the morning, we have two simple choices:

Go back to sleep and dream,

Or wake up and chase those dreams.

Choice is yours. The taste of success in the form of promotion, will be special !!

Focus on right now !

Wishing you all the best in your endeavour.

G.V.Yashwanth Ram,

Assistant General Manager,

SBLC, Tirupati-517507

[email protected]

mailto:[email protected]


INDEX

Sl No Category Contributed by (Faculty) Page

No

1 KYC & AML J.P. Raja Sekhar, Manager (Trg) 4

2 Forex, Financial Reporting and Taxation

J.P. Raja Sekhar, Manager (Trg) 6

3 Accounting System, General Instructions and Cash Department

J.P. Raja Sekhar, Manager (Trg) 7

4 Human Resources T. Bharadwaj, Manager (Trg) 11

5 Legal aspects of Banking T. Bharadwaj, Manager (Trg) 11

6 Takeover norms- Agriculture T. Bharadwaj, Manager (Trg) 14

7 Loan Against Property T. Bharadwaj, Manager (Trg) 15

8 Xpress- Credit T. Bharadwaj, Manager (Trg) 16

9 Agri Products Sodam Prakash Reddy, Chief Manager (Trg)

17

10 General Banking ( Organisation & Business)

U. Veeradas, Manager ( Trg) 33

11 Safe Custody, Security & Safe Deposit Lockers


12 Remittance, Collection, Purchase & Discount


13 Govt Business U. Veeradas, Manager ( Trg) 43

14 SME – Priority Sector Advances

Vadlamani Sarma, Manager ( Trg) 46

15 Loan Policy Guidelines Vadlamani Sarma, Manager ( Trg) 49

16 SME Products Vadlamani Sarma, Manager ( Trg) 55

17 PMEGP, Stand Up India, Start Up India and Mudra

Vadlamani Sarma, Manager ( Trg) 58

18 General Banking J.P. Raja Sekhar, Manager ( Trg) 61

19 FATCA & CRS T. Bharadwaj, Manager (Trg) 72

20 PER SEG: Liability and Asset Products

M. Srinivasa Rao, Manager (Trg) 75

21 Anytime channels D. Sudhakar, Manager ( Trg) 92

22 SME Products T. Bharadwaj, Manager ( Trg) 105


23 Stand up India G.V. Yashwanth Ram, AGM 113

24 Takeover norms - SME G.V. Yashwanth Ram, AGM 115

25 Trade Finance G.V. Yashwanth Ram, AGM 117

26 Policy Guidelines F.Y 2017-18 G.V. Yashwanth Ram, AGM 124


KYC & AML

1. URL for reporting Online Reporting of instances of detection of counterfeit currency notes by designed officials

B

a) https://ccr.sbi.co.in b) https://ccr.statebanktimes.in

c) https:// counterfeit.co.in d) https:// currency.sbi.in

2. For restricting opening money mule accounts, KYC/AML/CFT Policy based on guidelines issued by RBI which stipulates:

B

a) Dispose off records b) Monitoring of transactions at various levels on the basis of threshold limit fixed by the branch.

c) ROC search

d) None of these

3. The foreign NGOs, which have been put under ―Prior approval category (PAC)‖, can receive foreign contribution only after taking prior permission from

D

a) IRDA b) Reserve Bank of India

c) SEBI d) Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

4. After the launch of National Voters‘ Service Portal, genuineness of a voter ID card can be ascertained by visiting

A

a) http://electoralsearch.in/. b) http://election.ind

c) http://voterid.co.in d) http://voteforindia.co.in

5. UAPA means C

a) Unusual Activities Prevention Act b) Unsuspectful Activities Protection Act

c) Unlawful Activities Prevention Act

d) Unauthorised Activities Prevention Act

6. Reserve Bank of India guidelines on KYC / AML CFT measures stipulate that transactions of suspicious nature should be monitored and should be filed as Subjective STRs with the

B

a) Finance Intellectual Unit- India b) Financial Intelligence Unit – India

c) Financial Inclusion Unit- India d) Financial Tech Unit- India

7. OBSERVANCE OF ―AML – CFT DAY‖ ON D

a) 2nd October b) 2nd July

c) 2nd May d) 2nd November


8. ―Suspicious transaction‖ means a transaction whether or not made in cash which, to a person acting in good faith –

D

a) gives rise to a reasonable ground of suspicion that it may involve the proceeds of crime

b) appears to made in circumstances of unusual or unjustified complexity

c) a or b d) a & b

9. KYC compliance and fraud prevention day observes on ______ A

a) 1st Aug b) 1st Oct

c) 1st Dec d) 1ST Sept

10. The decision to open an account for a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) is taken by an official not below the grade of _________________.

C

a) JMGS b) MMGS

c) Senior Management Grade (SMG). d) All of the above

11. Risk categorization of Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan a/cs are A

a) Low b) Medium

c) High d) None of the above

12. Risk categorization of Salary Package a/cs of all Govt Depts are A

a) Low b) Medium

c) High d) None of the above

13. Time intervals for periodic updation of KYC for existing low risk customers D

a) 2 b) 6

c) 8 d) 10

14. Time intervals for periodic updation of KYC for existing medium risk customers C

a) 2 b) 6

c) 8 d) 10

15. Time intervals for periodic updation of KYC for existing high risk customers A

a) 2 b) 6

c) 8 d) 10


FOREX , FINANCIAL REPORTING AND TAXATION

1. EDPMS means D

a) Export Debt Processing and Monitoring System

b) Export Debenture Processing and Management System

c) Export Debt Process Management System

d) Export Data Processing and Monitoring System

2. Deduction of tax at source from salary/pension u/s 192 filed under TDS return A

a) Form 24 Q b) Form 26 Q

c) Form 27 Q d) None of the above

3. Deduction of tax at source in respect of deductee who is a non-resident filed under TDS return

C

a) Form 24 Q b) Form 26 Q

c) Form 27 Q d) None of the above

4. In terms of the provision of Finance Act 2016, Bank is liable to deduct at the rate ___%, the equalisation levy from the amount paid or payable to a non-resident in respect of the specified service provided

C

a) 4 b) 5

c) 6 d) 8

5. Bank‘s PAN No : C

a) AAADS7577K b) AAACS8677K

c) AAACS8577K d) AAAES9577K

6. Remittances by a resident individual up to____________ are allowed per financial year for any permitted current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

B

a) USD 1,00,000 b) USD 250,000

c) USD 3,00,000 d) USD 10,00,000

7. Rational for SWIFT Cyber Security Initiative, third level of authorisation for High Value Swift Message

C

a) Preventive vigilance alert on Cyber Security

b) Prevention of Cyber-attack on SWIFT platform

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

8. FIEO means B

a) Federation of International Export Organizations

b) Federation of Indian Export Organizations

c) Federation of Indian Exempt Organizations

d) Federation of Indian Entity Organizations

9. Rupee Prepaid Cards can be issued to C

a) Indian tourist b) foreign tourist


10. ‗Pricing of Forex transactions & Margin Matrix, Bank‘s customers are currently authorized to obtain rates from Dealing Room, Mumbai directly, if the turnover is over Rs _______ crs

D

a) 250 b) 500

c) 750 d) 1000


Accounting System, General Instructions and Cash Department

1 Small Coin depot transactions are reported to -------- c

a) Link Branch b) Focal Point Branch

c) FSLO d) LHO

2 Branch Documents Register consists of -------------sections a

a) 7 b) 6

c) 9 d) 8

3 The Fidelity Insurance cover for Single Window Operator is Rs.--------lacs d

a) Rs1.00 lac b) Rs2.00 lac

c) Rs3.00 lac d) Rs5.00 lac

4 Audit Note submitted by the Concurrent Auditor should be disposed of within------

days ordinarily

b

a) 5 days b) 7 days

c) 10 days d) 15 days

5 The minimum score to be obtained by a branch for Well Controlled rating under RFIA .

a

a) 850 b) 800

c) 750 d) 1000

6 Market Related Fund Transfer Price Mechanism (MRFTP) is applicable for b

a) RACPC/CPC b) Branch

c) LHO d) Corporate Centre

7 Lease deed entered into with the owner of the Bank premises is entered in -----

Register

d

a) Miscellaneous Documents b) Sundry Register

c) Power of Attorney d) Branch Document

8 Branches should conduct customer service committee meeting at intervals irrespective of

a

a) Monthly b) Quarterly

c) Half Yearly d) Yearly

9 Emergency arrangements in case of sudden incapacitation of Branch Manager

are reviewed at

d




10 Management audit is conducted for c

a) Branches b) ATMs

c) Administrative Offices d) None of these

11 Bank provides Bonus to staff @ 8.33% for a salary ceiling of Rs. 10,000 with bonus ceiling of Rs

b

a) Rs.2500 b) Rs.3500

c) Rs.4500 d) Rs.5500

12 What is the rate of interest levied as penalty for delayed remittances to Govt A/c c

a) BR b) BR+1%

c) BR+2% d) BR+3%

13 Entries relating to excess cash found in cash balance is transferred to Commission A/c at-------------intervals.

b



14 When the unused cheque leaves are not surrendered the details should be entered in -----------------------Register

d

a) Unused Cheque Book Register b) Cheque Book returned Register

c) Broken Cheque Book Register d) Lost document Register

15 Customer relations programmes are held at branches at-------------intervals b



16 The yearly entry relating to staff welfare fund is passed on-------------- a

a) 28th / 29th Feb b) 31st March

c) 2nd April d) 30th September

17 Cost of curtains provided at the residence of an officer is debited to---------A/c

c

a) Fixed Assets b) Suspense

c) Charges d) Sundry Deposit a/c

18 Maximum penalty for giving false compliance certificates in the rectification of

irregularities in RFIA is-------------marks

b

a) 20 b) 50

c) 60 d) 70


19 Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) and Business Continuity Plan (BCP) are prepared in the first week of-------------every year for approval by Controller

a

a) January b) March

c) July d) December

20 KYC compliance and fraud prevention Day is observed on the first of-------- every year

b

a) January b) August

c) September d) December

21 Payment of Bonus to eligible staff is made by consolidated debit to latest by 31 st October

d

a) Zonal office b) LHO

c) Corporate Office Mumbai d) CAU,Kolkata

22 For prompt submission of compliance remarks for RFIA report, marks are awarded in the same RFIA Report as an incentive to the branch

c

a) 20 b) 30

c) 15 d) 40

23 One rupee coin forms part of ---------- b a) Small coin depot b) Currency chest

c) Branch cash balance d) Govt of India

24 When the remittance is sent from a Currency chest branch to a non currency chest branch, the risk is covered under

c

a) Life Insurance Policy b) Deposit Insurance

c) Transit Insurance d) Fidelity Insurance

25 Remittances received from RBI/other chests should be examined at the earliest but not later than----------days.

a

a) 15 b) 7

c) 20 d) 30

26 What is a repository ? b

a) Same as currency chest b) Part of currency chest

c) Balance held in non currency chest branch

d) None of these

27 The upper limit for a Currency Transfer at any one time is

d

a) Rs. 10 lac b) Rs. 10 Crores

c) Rs. 100 Crores d) No limit

28 Small coin depot is the property of ---------- a a) Central Govt b) RBI

c) Bank d) Master Mint


29 The minimum deposit that can be made into small coin depot is------- b

a) Rs. 50/- b) Rs. 100/-

c) Rs. 500/- d) Rs. 1000/-

30 The safe custody receipt of duplicate keys of the branch is held ------- c

a) By the accountant b) By the cashier

c) By the Branch Manager outside the strong room

d) By any one of above

31 One rupee coin is issued under--------------Act.

d

a) RBI b) Coinage Act 2011

c) BR Act 1949 d) Contract Act 1872

32 Penalty for violating Clean Note Policy is up to Rs. ___ lac fine and fore cancellation of chest license.

c

a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.3.00 lac

c) Rs.5.00 lac d) Rs.10.00 lac

33 The minimum amount that can be withdrawn from a small coin depot is------ a

a) Rs.100/- b) Rs.200/-

c) Rs.500/- d) Rs.1000/-

34 Minimum amount that can be deposited into / withdrawn from the chest is Rs------- and in multiples of Rs------------thereafter

b

a) Rs.50,000/- and Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.1.00 lac and Rs.50,000/-

c) Rs.1.00 lac and Rs.1.00 lac d) Rs.1.00 lac and Rs2.00 lacs

35 Under Prevention of Money Laundering Act-2002 banks have to report suspicious transactions to-----------New Delhi

d

a) RBI b) CBI

c) LHO d) FIU-IND

36 Forensic Audit is applicable only for high value units with exposures of Rs.-----Crores and above

c

a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.1 Crore

c) Rs.100 Crores d) Rs.50 Crores

37 Currency Notes are printed at , , ,

d

a) Nasik b) Dewas, Salboni

c) Mysore d) All of these

38 The certificate of chest balance as on---- is submitted to RBI by the Chest branch

b

a) 31st March b) 31st May

c) 30th June d) 30th Sept


HUMAN RESOURCES

1 The portal for training and management system made available in statebanktimes is known as

a

a) Mybankleaming b) Elearning

c) Etest d) None of these

2 What is the minimum I maximum cash award that can be sanctioned under the Scheme for recognition and reward of alertness in staff in prevention / detection / foiling of frauds?

c

a) Rs.100/-/ Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.1000/-/ Rs.100,000/-

c) Rs.500/-/ Rs.50,000/- d) Rs.200/-/ Rs.20,000/-

3 The Strategic Training Unit (STU) is now situated at---------- d

a) Delhi b) Hyderabad

c) Chennai d) Mumbai

4 When an employee is deemed to have vacated his office (i.e., left the service of the Bank) If he is absent unauthorisedly for------------ days and more

b

a) 30 days b) 90 days


5 What is the salary eligibility for payment of bonus? What is the maximum amount of bonus payable to an employee ?

a

a) Salary up to Rs. 10,000/-; Rs. 3500/-.

b) Salary up to Rs. 15,000/-; Rs. 5000/-.

c) Salary up to Rs. 20,000/-; Rs. 7500/-.

d) None of these

6 What is the value of memento that is given to award staff under Silver Jubilee Award?

c

a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-

c) Rs.7,500/- d) Rs.15,000/-

7 What is the minimum and maximum reward granted under the Staff Suggestion Scheme ?

b

a) Rs. 500/- (under category A); Rs.50,000

b) Rs. 1000/- (under category A); Rs.20,000

c) Rs. 100/- (under category A); Rs.10,000

d) Rs. 1000/- (under category A); Rs.20,000

LEGAL ASPECTS OF BANKING

1 Which one of the following documents will become invalid by over stamping?

d

a) Indemnity b) DPN

c) Hypothecation agreement d) None of these

2 Which one of the following is a class II legal heir of a Hindu?

b

a) Son b) Father

c) Widow d) Mother


3 What is the minimum and maximum SLR to be maintained by banks as per BR Act?

a

a) Min: NIL; Max: 40% b) Min: 3%; Max: 25%

c) Min: 25%; Max: 40% d) Min: 5%; Max: 20%

4 Mr. X has an OD of Rs. 10,000 which is time barred. He signs a revival letter and also credits Rs. 500 into the account. Does this revive the OD a/c?

b

a) Yes b) No

c) Cannot say d) None of these

5 In a JHF carrying on an ancestral business an outsider is included as a partner. The JHF becomes

d

a) Partnership firm b) Pvt Ltd Co.

c) Proprietorship firm d) d) none of these (JHF cannot join as a partner in a firm)

6 Father of a Minor is sentenced to jail for a criminal offence. Who will be his guardian?

c

a) Mother b) Legal guardian

c) Father d) Brother

7 Bank‘s Lien is----------- a

a) General lien b) Particular lien

c) Contingent lien d) Special lien

8 Mr.A availed a car loan on 20/7/2012 and issued a post dated cheque bearing the date 26/11/2012 on 21/07/2012. The cheque was returned unpaid on presentation. The Bank can file a suit within

b

a) three years from 20/07/2012 b) three years from 26/11/2012

c) three years from 21/07/2012 d) None of these

9 Unstamped document cannot be rectified in case of d

a) Mortgage deed b) Demand Promissory Note

c) Partition deed d) None of these

10 Within how many days the CPIO has to provide information under RTI Act ?

c



11 To which of the following Consumer Protection Act is not applicable?

a

a) Sanction of loans b) failure to issue a draft

c) failure to open a deposit a/c d) ill-treat the customer

12 Who has to attest the Xerox copies of paid cheques /instruments that are produced as evidence in the proceedings of a criminal case?

d

a) Regional Manager or CM Admn b) Branch Manager or Dy BM/Div Mgr

c) Acctt and Cash Officer Acctt d) Branch Manager or Principal Acctt


13 Inchoate instrument means------------------- c

a) Out dated instrument b) Post dated instrument

c) Incomplete instrument d) Altered instrument

14 Issue of probate of a will is governed by which Act? b

a) Indian contract Act 1872 b) Indian Succession Act

c) NI Act 1881 d) None of these

15 Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per N.I.Act ? c

a) Promissory Note b) Draft

c) TDR d) Cheque

16 Who is the Appellate Authority under RTI in SBI ? a

a) CGM b) GM

c) DGM d) AGM

17 A banker‘s lien is governed by----------- b

a) NI Act 1881 b) Indian Contract Act 1872

c) BR Act 1949 d) None of these

18 Which legal document is required for settlement of deposit a/c if a person dies without executing a will?

d

a) Succession Certificate b) Nomination

c) Power of Attorney d) Letters of Administration

19 Which of the following is not correct in respect of issue of CP c

a) It can now be issued as a stand alone facility

b) Minimum issue is Rs.5 lakh

c) CPs can be underwritten by a bank

d) None of these

20 The maximum period for which a CD can be issued is------------- d

a) 1 month b) 3 months

c) 6 months d) 1 year

21 Who is the regulator of money market ? a

a) RBI b) SEBI

c) IBA d) Govt of India


TAKEOVER – NORMS AGRICULTURE

1 The minimum loan amount to be takeover for agricultural cash credit is b

a) 0.50 lakh b) 1 lakh

c) 2 lakhs d) 10 lakhs

2 The minimum loan amount to be takeover for agricultural term loan (allied acitivity) d



3 The minimum loan amount to be takeover for agricultural term loan ( other than allied acitivity)

c



4 The maximum loan amount eligible for takeover in agricultural segment without administrative clearance

c

a) 0.50 crores b) 1 crore

c) 2 crores d) Upto 5 crores

5 The agricultural segment account to be standard with the other bank for the preceeding ___________ months

d

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

6 The hurdle CRA rating for takeover of agriculture loans c

a) SB-5 b) SB-6

c) SB-7 d) SB-9

7 The minimum score to be achieved in CRA rating in financial parameters for takeover of agriculture loans

c

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) No minimum requirement

8 The unit should have earned net profits post tax in preceeding ____years b

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) No profit restriction


LOAN AGAINST PROPERTY

1 LAP cannot be sanctioned for which of the following items a

a) For Business Purpose b) For acquisition/ development of land

c) No documents for end use is required

d) Speculation on capital market

2 The minimum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under LAP b

a) 5 lakhs b) 10 lakhs


3 Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned in Rural & Semi Urban area under LAP

a

a) No loan b) 1 crore

c) 2 crore d) 5 crore

4 Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned other BPR centres area under LAP

c



5 Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned in Non BPR urban centres under LAP

b



6 Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned in Metros area under LAP d



7 The maximum LTV ratio permitted under LAP upto 1 crore d

a) 50% b) 55%

c) 60% d) 65%

8 The maximum LTV ratio permitted under LAP above 1 crore and upto 5 crores c



9 The minimum net monthly income required to be eligible under LAP d

a) 5,000 b) 10,000

c) 20,000 d) 25,000

10 The maximum EMI/NMI permitted under LAP of NAI 10 lakhs and above c

a) 50% b) 55%

c) 60% d) 65%

11 LAP should be liquidated before eldest borrower attains the age of ____ years b

a) 65 b) 70

c) 75 d) 80


12 The maximum loan tenor that can be permitted in LAP d

a) 5 years b) 7 years

c) 10 years d) 15 years

13 Which of the following type of collateral security not acceptable under LAP d

a) Open land b) Commercial/ industrial property

c) Building under construction d) All of the above

14 Which of the following type of collateral security not acceptable under LAP d

a) Property located outside municipal area

b) Property located in RUSU area with population of 1 lakh

c) Pari- Passu charge properties d) All of the above

15 The maximum EMI/NMI permitted under LAP of NAI upto 5 lakhs a

a) 50% b) 55%

c) 60% d) 65%

XPRESS- CREDIT

1 The maximum EMI/NMI permitted under LAP of NAI 5 lakhs to 10 lakhs

a) 50% b) 55%

c) 60% d) 65%

2 In Xpress credit, the weightage was accorded to individual sub-parameters of ‗Repayment Modes‘. The Repayment Modes are i)PDC ii)Cash iii)Check-off iv)SI/ECS, please identify them in ascending order

A i,ii,iii,iv B iii,ii,i,iv

C iv,iii,ii,i D ii,i,iv,iii

3 A new category was incorporated in Personal Loan Unsecured Risk Scoring Model, the new category is

A Gurantor details B Personal Characteristics

C Capacity to repay D CIBIL score

4 Minimum loan amount under ―Xpress credit – IT Employees‖ is

A Rs.25000 B Rs.50000

C Rs.100000 D Rs.20000

5 Maximum loan amount under ―Xpress credit – IT Employees‖ is

A Rs.15 lakhs B Rs.12 lakhs

C Rs.25 lakhs D Rs.10 lakhs

6 Maximum repayment period under ―Xpress credit – IT Employees‖

A 36 months B 48 months

C 60 months D 24 months


STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE, TIRUPATI

AGRI PRODUCTS

1. Which of the following is one of SBI‘S initiatives under ―Bonding with Farmers‖ c

a) Apka Gaon b) Hamara Gaon

c) SBI Ka Apna Gaon d) ApnaGaon

2. Maximum limit under KCC is ----- Lakhs d

a) 15 b) 20

c) 75 d) No Limit

3. State Bank Kisan Card, which is a debit card functioning under which platform c

a) Visa b) Master

c) Rupay d) Maestro

4 Revival Letter to be obtained from the borrowers under c

a) Section 25(1) of Indian Contract Act

b) Section 25(2) of Indian Contract Act

c) Section 25(3) of Indian Contract Act

d) Section 25(4) of Indian Contract Act

5. Credit balances lying in the KCC account will be eligible for interest at c

a) 7% b) KCC rate

c) Base Rate d) SB Rate of Interest

6. FARMERS EASY EMPOWERED LOAN (FEEL) also known as c

a) Kisan Credit Card b) Kisan Gold Card

c) KRISHI KALYAN d) Krishak Uthaan Yojana

7. Loan under Krishi Kalyan comprising of d

a) Product Credit b) Contingency credit

c) Produce Marketing loan d) a & b & c

8. Expand NRLM d

a) NATIONAL RURAL LIVELIHOOD MECHANISM

b) NATIONAL RURAL LIFE MISSION

c) NATIONAL RURAL LIABILITY MECHANISM

d) NATIONAL RURAL LIVELIHOOD MISSION

9. What is the maximum limit under General Credit Card (GCC) a

a) Rs.25,000/- b) Rs.10,000/-

c) Rs.30,000/- d) Rs.50,000/-

10. To finance for combine harvester the borrowers should have minimum ______ acres of irrigated land

c

a) 8 b) 6

c) 4 d) 10


11. What is the name of the SCHEME FOR FINANCING COMISSION AGENTS d

a) Kisan Gold Card b) Commission Plus

c) Kisan Credit Card d) ARTHIAS PLUS

12. D.C.B register is to be prepared as on what date every year? c

a) 31st May b) 30th April

c) 30th June d) 31st July

13. Produce Marketing Loan should be repaid within a period of maximum, b

a) 6 months b) 12 months

c) 9 months d) 24 months

14. The maximum permissible loan limit under Produce Marketing Loan per borrower is Rs

c


c) 50 lakhs d) No Maximum limit

15. In PML, Valuation of produce stored is d

a) Price at the time of harvesting b) Market Price

c) Minimum Support Price (MSP) wherever declared

d) Lowest of Market Price or Price at the time of harvesting or MSP, which ever is lower

16. What is the nature of facility extended under General Credit Card c

a) Demand loan b) Cash Credit

c) Term loan d) Savings Bank

17. While sanctioning Gold Loans at the branch, Joint custodian(Accountant) of gold ornaments is responsible for

d

a) Purity b) Value

c) Weight d) b and c

18. Under Krishi Kalyan scheme the borrower should submit stock statements for the stocks at ___________ intervals

c

a) bi-montly b) Monthly

c) No need to submit d) Half yearly

19. Under Arthia plus Scheme, hypothecation of book debts should not be older than

b

a) 1 month b) 6 month

c) 3 month d) 12 month

20. What is the maximum loan can be sanctioned under Dairy plus without collateral c

a) Rs.5 lakhs b) Rs.1 lakh

c) Rs.50,000/- d) Rs.3 lakhs

21. A working capital @ Rs.________- per animal per year may be sanctioned for purchase of feed, fodder and medicine along with the term loan under Dairy Plus

b

a) Rs.2,500/- b) Rs.5,000/-

c) Rs.7,500/- d) Rs.3,000/-


22. Maximum repayment period under Dairy Plus a

a) 7 years + 6 months gestation b) 5 years + 12 months gestation

c) 5 years + 6 months gestation d) 5years without any gestation

23. What is the Margin under Dairy Society plus d

a) 20% b) 10%

c) 5% d) 15%

24. BROILER PLUS scheme for financing a

a) Poultry b) Rice Mill

c) Factory Machinery d) Sheep

25. Maximum loan with out collateral security under Agri clinics & Agri Business centres

b

a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs.25 lakhs

c) Rs.5 lakhs d) Rs.3 lakhs

26 Now SHG loans can be sanctioned as a

a) Cash Credit b) Term loan

c) Demand loan d) a or b

27 Cash Credit facility may be sanctioned to SHG for a period of subject to annual review

a

a) 3 to 5 years b) 2 to 5 years

c) 1 to 3 years d) 2 to 6 years

28 SHG CC annual review to see at least ___% of the principal drawls and total interest paid

c

a) 20 b) 10

c) 30 d) 40

29 Inspection charges for SHG loan accounts above Rs.2 lakhs a

a) Rs.250/- per lakh b) Rs.125/- per lakh

c) Rs.500/- per lakh d) No Charges

30 Gramina Bandaran Yojana is financing for construction of a

a) Rural Godown b) Market yard

c) Rice Mill d) Rural poultry

31 Minimum Margin under Gramina Bandaran Yojana d

a) 20% b) 30%

c) 25% d) 15%

32 Subsidy under Gramina Bandaran Yojana is provided by

b

a) RBI b) NABARD

c) SBI d) IDFC

33 The capital investment subsidy is released for construction of cold storage by

a

a) National Horticulture Board b) NABARD

c) RBI d) Rural Mission


34 The concept of SHG originated from b

a) India b) Bangladesh

c) Japan d) China

35. Maximum amount of loan to Joint Liability Groups is restricted to……………..per individual

d

a) Rs.25,000/- b) Rs.10,000/-

c) Rs.1 lakh d) Rs.50,000/-

36 Expand PMEGP

a) PRIME MINISTER‘S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME

b) PRIME MINISTER‘S EMPLOYMENT GUARANTEE PROGRAMME

b

c) PRIME MINISTER‘S EMPLOYEES GUARANTEE PROGRAMME

d) PRIME MINISTERS EMPLOYMENT GOING PROGRAMME

37 SHG financing is based on which committee ?

a) Kalia Committee b) Narasimham Committee a

c) Ghosh Committee d) Rangarajan Committee

38 What is the Land Holding criteria for Small Farmer ?

a) 2.5 acres of Wet land and 4 acres of dry land

b) 2.5 acres of wet land and 5 acres of dry land

b

c) 4 acres of wet land and 2.5 acres of dry land

d) None of the above

39 The Document AB 3 refers to what in agriculture advances? d

a) Hypothecation Agreement b) Gurantee Agreement

c) Simp Hypothecation Agreement d) Mortgage Deed

40 What is the validity of KCC Card as per the revised KCC Scheme guidelines? d

a) 4 Years b) 6 Years

c) 2 Years d) 5 Years

41 Under the KCC Scheme, consumption expenses can be included in the over all limit to a maximum extent of ----% of the original limit

a

a) 10% b) 20%

c) 30% d) 25%

42 Processing Charges are waived upto what limit in Kisan Credit Card Scheme ? d

a) 2 Lac b) 1 Lac

c) 3 Lac d) 0.50 Lac

43 Personal Accident Insurance Scheme to KCC Borrowers can be covered upto Maximum Age ?

a

a) 70 Year b) 72 Years

c) 75 Years d) 65 Years


44 As per the Supreme Court ruling, no advance should be granted to ------- type of agricultural activity

d

a) Sericulture b) Advances for cold storages

c) Pisci culture d) Brackish Water Aquaculture

45 Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) replaced

c

a) USEP b) SHG Linkage

c) SGSY d) DWACRA

46 DAY-NRLM has a provision for interest subvention, to cover the difference between the Lending Rate of the banks and 7%, on all credit from the banks availed by women SHGs, for a maximum of

a

a) Rs.3.00 Lac b) Rs.2.00 Lac

c) Rs.1.00 Lac d) No Maximum

47 No collateral and no margin will be charged up to --------- limit to the SHGs. a

a) Rs. 10.00 lakhs b) Rs. 15.00 lakhs

c) Rs. 5.00 lakhs d) Rs. 25.00 lakhs

48 The maximum loan that can be sanctioned under Agri Asset Backed Loan d

a) Rs 2.00 Cr b) Rs 4.00 Cr

c) Rs 1.00 Cr d) Rs 3.00 Cr

49 While sanctioning Agri Asset Backed Loan, immovable Property (Land and Building) for value not less than ---------- of the loan amount by way of first charge.

b

a) 200% b) 170%

c) 250% d) 225%

50 Type of facility while sanctioning loan in ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN (PREMIUM KISAN GOLD CARD)

a

a) Drop line- Overdraft facility (OD) b) Term Loan

c) Demand Cash Credit d) Any of the above

51 The permissible LTV in Agri Asset Backed Loan against the securities i.e. immovable property

b

a) 60% b) 70%

c) 50% d) 80%

52 Interest subvention -------- of p.a. will be available to PSBs for short-term crop loans up ------------ to per farmer provided the lending institutions make available short term credit at the ground level at 7% p.a. to farmers.

a

a) 2%, Rs 3.00 lacs b) 2%, Rs 2.00 lacs

c) 3% , No Maximum d) 3%, Rs 3.00 lacs


53 NABARD providing grant assistance to Banks for formation, nurturing and financing of new JLGs

a

a) @ Rs.2, 000 per JLG. b) @ Rs.3, 000 per JLG.

c) @ Rs.4, 000 per JLG. d) @ Rs.5, 000 per JLG.

54 While sanctioning JLGS , Activities to be financed

a) Production and investment credit ( KCC/ATL)

b) CC/TL a

c) Only KCC d) Only ATL

55 Loans sanctioned under Bhoomi Heena Kisan will be classified under a

a) Direct Agriculture b) Indirect Agriculture

c) Both d) None of the above

56 JLG-3, the document used in JLGs for a

a) Letter of undertaking b) Mutual Guarantee.

c) Introduction form d) Application-cum appraisal form

57 Loans disbursed under the scheme ― Bhoomi Heena Kisan‖ will be eligible for 100% refinance assistance under investment credit by.

a

a) NABARD b) SIDBI

c) RBI d) GOI

58 To finance Power Tiller, eligibility criteria a

a) Farmers or a group of not more than 3 farmers owning 1 acre of perennially irrigated land (contiguous / nearby)or corresponding acreage of semi irrigated / dry land prescribed in the Land Ceiling Act

b) Farmers or a group of not more than 4 farmers owning 1 acre of perennially irrigated land (contiguous / nearby)or corresponding acreage of semi irrigated / dry land prescribed in the Land Ceiling Act

c) Farmers or a group of not more than 3 farmers owning 2 acre of perennially irrigated land (contiguous / nearby)or corresponding acreage of semi irrigated / dry land prescribed in the Land Ceiling Act

d) Farmers or a group of not more than 4 farmers owning 2 acre of perennially irrigated land (contiguous / nearby)or corresponding acreage of semi irrigated / dry land prescribed in the Land Ceiling Act

59 The minimum stipulated margin , while sanctioning Power Tillers

a) Minimum 10% margin on the total cost of power tiller plus accessories. The sanctioning authority will have the discretion to selectively reduce the margin to 5%.

b) Minimum 15% margin on the total cost of power tiller plus accessories. The sanctioning authority will have the discretion to selectively reduce the margin to 5%.

a


c) Minimum 10% margin on the total cost of power tiller plus accessories. The sanctioning authority will have the discretion to selectively reduce the margin to Nil.

d) Minimum 15% margin on the total cost of power tiller plus accessories. The sanctioning authority will have the discretion to selectively reduce the margin to 10%.

60 Maximum amount can be sanctioned to a farmer under SBI Krishak Uthaan Yojana ?

a

a) 1 Lac b) 2 Lac

c) 0.50 Lac d) 1.50 Lac

61 What is the minimum land holding should a borrower possess to become eligible for finance under New Tractor Loan Scheme ?

b

a) 4 Acre b) 2 Acre

c) 1 Acre d) 3 Acre

62 What Flexible Limit can be sanctioned to KCC borrowers(Marginal Farmers), to meet post harvest expenses, consumption needs, storage cost and small means of investment etc as per the revised KCC Scheme

c

a) Rs.50000/- b) Rs.10000/-

c) Rs.10000/- to Rs.50000/- d) None of the above

63 RBI has directed the banks that the shortfall in Agricultural credit of 18% and shortfall in priority sector lending target of 40% should be invested in

b

a) RBI b) RIDF

c) PM's Relief Fund d) Agriculture Development Fund

64 Banks are eligible for commission / service charges ---------- of the premium collected under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bhima Yojana from farmers from Insurance Company.

a

a) @4% b) @5%

c) @6% d) @8%

65 Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna‘ (PMFBY) replaced a

a) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) & Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS)

b) Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS)

c) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS)


66 SBI Krishak Uthaan Youjana aims to provide short term production and consumption credit to-----

d

a) Small and Marginal Farmers who own agri land

b) Agriculture Labour

c) Tenant farmers, oral lessees and share croppers

d) All of the above


67 What is the minimum hours of work per annum required to get finance under Tractor Loan Scheme ?

a

a) 600 hours b) 1000 hours

c) 800 hours d) 500 hours

68 What is the maximum loan limit that can be sanctioned under Arthias Plus Scheme

a

a) Rs. 50 lacs b) Rs. 25 lacs

c) Rs. 20 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs

69 What is the document executed by all the group members of SHG while financing SHG ?

c

a) Hypothecation Agreement b) Guarantee Agreement

c) Inter Se Agreement d) Articles of Agreement

70 Certificate for end use of funds to be obtained from Agricultural borrowers for loans of Rs _______ and above

c

a) Rs.10.00 Lac b) Rs 20.00 Lac

c) Rs 50.00 Lac d) Rs.1.00 Cr

71 Scale of Finance in KCC will be decided by ? d

a) NABARAD b) RBI

c) Regional Manager of the Region d) District Level Technical Committee

72 The limit in KCC depends on the following c

a) Farmer, Area, Crop b) Farmer, Security, Cropping

c) Operational Land Holding, Cropping Pattern

d) Area of the farmer

73 While sanctioning a loan under New Broiler under tieup,the unit should score at least ---marks for existing farmer under Poultry Credit Scoring Model

a

a) 25 b) 50

c) 56 d) 71

74 Under New Broiler under tie-up,for new farmers the recommended starting flock size is

a

a) 6000 poultry birds. b) 5000 poultry birds.

c) 10000 poultry birds. d) 8000 poultry birds.

75 Under New Broiler under tie-up Scheme , which Insurance to be made mandatory for all loan applicants

a

a) Personal Accidental Insurance b) Health Insurance

c) Endowment Policy d) Not Required

76 Under New Broiler under tie-up Scheme, Turn Around Time (TAT) is a

a) 7 days b) 3 days



77 In KCC upto ------------ limit no collateral security is obtained? b

a) 0.50 lac b) 1.00 Lac

c) 1.50 lac d) 3.00 Lac

78 In Agriculture Term Loans where movable assets are not created out of bank finance what is the limit above which collateral security is obtained ?

a

a) 1 lac b) 0.20 lac

c) 0.50 lac d) 2.00 lac

79 In personal accident insurance what is the time limit within which the nominee of the injured has to report to the concerned bank ?

d

a) Within 1 week b) Within 10 days

c) Within 15 days d) Within 30days

80 Government of India is providing Interest Subvention to Short term agriculture advances to

c

a) Only commercial banks b) Commercial banks, RRBs

c) Commercial Banks, RRBs, Coop Banks

d) all financial institutions

81 RIDF stands for d

a) Rural India Development Fund b) Rural Integrated Deposit Fund

c) Rural Industrial Development Fund

d) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund

82 Inspection charges for advances to weaker sections ? a

a) No charges b) 25% of actual charges

c) 75% of actual charges d) 50% of actual charges

83 In agriculture advances, detailed opinion is compiled on borrowers whose aggregate credit limits are more than Rs________

b

a) 1 lac b) 3 lac

c) 0.50 lac d) 0.25 lac

84 The minimum amount in ATLfor take over -------

a

a) 2 lac b) 1 lac

c) 3 lac d) 4 lac

85 Demand Collection Balance Register is maintained for

d

a) CC & ACC accounts b) KCC Accounts

c) ATL Accounts and Agri Gold Loans d) ACC/KCC/ATL accounts


86 In terms of the extant instructions, operating units have to obtain Credit Information Reports for secured Loans for limit greater than Rs.3.00 lac

a

a) from two Credit Bureaus b) from one Credit Bureaus

c) from three Credit Bureaus d) No need to obtain

87 Every ------------- of the month, to be observed as ‗gold auction day‘ to resolve and recover NPA gold loans.

a

a) 3rd Saturday b) 3rd Friday

c) 3rd Monday d) 3rd Tuesday

88 Who is empowered to conduct Agri Gold auction a

a) Branch Manager b) Regional Manager

c) Chief Manager(Cr & NPA) d) Manager(NPA)

89 To avail loan under Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme, the Woman Borrower( or Co -Borrower) should possess a minimum land holding of

a

a) 2 acres b) 4 acres

c) 8 acres d) 6 acres

90 To avail loan under Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme EMI/NMI shall not exceed

a

a) 60% b) 50%

c) 25% d) 40%

91 The Margin in SSTL without collateral security, for tractor alone a

a) 25% b) 50%

c) 15% d) 10%

92 The Margin in SSTL without collateral security, for Tractor plus accessories a

a) 50% b) 25%

c) 15% d) 10%

93 The Margin in SSTL with collateral security, for Tractor a

a) 10% b) 25%

c) 50% d) 15%

94 Maximum of loan amount in Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme a

a) No Ceiling b) 7.50 Lac

c) 5 Lac d) 10.00 Lac

95 Number of Post dated cheques (PDC)/ECS to be obtained from the borrower in Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme,

a

a) 6 b) 48

c) 36 d) 24


96 Credit Score of -------- are considered ‗Good Loans‘ for sanction, in Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme,

a

a) 56 & above b) 26 & above

c) 71 & above d) None of the above

97 In Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme, the Minimum DSCR should be a

a) 1.5 b) 1.75

c) 2.00 d) 2.25

98 The Maximum Repayment allowed in SSTL with collateral security a

a) 48 Months b) 36 Months

c) 24 Months d) 60 Months

99 The moratorium period allowed in Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme a

a) 1 Month b) 2 Month

c) 3 Month d) No Moratorium allowed

100 In Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme Branches should ensure by verifying the RC book within a period of ------ days from the date of disbursement of the loan

a

a) 30 b) 15

c) 45 d) 60

101 Turn Around Time in Stree Shakthi Tractor Loan Scheme is, --------- from the date of submission of all the required documents/papers

a

a) 3 Days b) 7 Days

c) 6 Days d) 10 Days

102 In Agriculture, Document AB 6 refers to

a) Revival Letter – borrower b) Revival Letter Guarantor d

c) Guarantee Deed d) Letter sent to Borrower by Bank if the loan is not repaid on due date

103 Under New Dairy Product Under Tie-up scheme, the minimum number of milch animals to be financed

a

a) 4 b) 6

c) 8 d) 10

104 Under New Dairy Product Under Tie-up scheme, mandatory ----- years insurance of new cattle to be purchased by

a) 5 years b) 1 years a

c) 3 years d) No need to take Insurance for Cattle


105 Under New Dairy Product Under Tie-up scheme, Personal accidental insurance is mandatory for the borrower for Rs.

a) 2 lac b) 5 lac a

c) 10 lac d) For full loan amount

106 Under New Dairy Product Under Tie-up scheme, Repayment to start from the beginning of the --------- month of disbursal of loan amount

a) 2nd b) 3rd a

c) 1st d) Immediately

107 The Turn Around Time to sanction a loan under New Dairy Product Under Tie-up scheme is ------------- days from the date of submission of all the required documents/papers

a) 7 b) 10 a

c) 3 d) 15

108 The minimum DSCR required under Combine Harvester Loan Scheme

a) 1.75 b) 1.50 a

c) 2.00 d) No Min and No Max

109 Under Combine Harvester Loan scheme, Farmers should own a tractor of not less than

a) 50 HP b) 35 HP a

c) 40 HP d) 60 HP

110 Under Combine Harvester Loan scheme, Loan should be made available for purchase of ------ Combine Harvester only.

a) new b) Old a

c) New or Old d) None of the above

111 Under Combine Harvester Loan scheme, stipulated Minimum margin is

a) 25% cost of combine harvester excluding insurance and registration charges.

b) 25% cost of combine harvester including insurance and registration charges.

a

c) 10%cost of combine harvester excluding insurance and registration charges.

d) 10%cost of combine harvester including insurance and registration charges.

112 Under Combine Harvester Loan scheme, failure to get the vehicle registered within one month from the date of delivery attracts penal interest rate -------- of for the period of default of the borrower.

a) 2% b) 4% a

c) 3% d) No penal Interest to be charged


113 Branch should obtain a certificate from a local jeweler for the loans above the limit ---------? ( For Hyderabad Circle)

a) Rs.50000/- b) Rs.100000/- b

c) Rs.10000/- d) None of the above

114 Service Area is applicable for_________.

a) All agricultural loans b) Only for crop loans c

c) Only for Government sponsored Schemes

d) Only for Agricultural Term Loan schemes.

115 Black revolution relates to_____________.

a) Black water b) Rubber production b

c) Oil seed production d) Forest tree production.

116 No fresh minor irrigation loan can be sanctioned in b

a) Green area b) Dark area

c) Grey area d) White area

117 Agriculture labour means

a) Person having up to 0.5 acres b) Not having home and steady income

d

c) More than 50% of income is from agricultural wages

d) All of these.

118 Debeaking relates to

a) Sheep rearing b) Poultry b

c) Fisheries d) Duck rearing

119 7% interest subvention loans to Women SHGs under

a) National Rural Livelihoods Mission scheme(NRLM)

b) NABARD Scheme a

c) IRDA scheme d) PMEGP scheme

120 Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institute is located at

a) Hosur b) Hisar b

c) Hospet d) Kanpur

121 Under Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme, tractor loan can be given to

a) New/Existing Farmers b) Group of farmers i.e., JLGs/SHGs

d

c) Good Borrowers banking with others

d) a or b or c


122 Applications for tractor loan under Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme can be Sourced through

d

a) Business Correspondents b) Tractor Dealers

c) Bank Channel d) Any of a or b or c

123 Maximum repayment period in case of loan under Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme

a) 5 year b) 3 year a

c) 7 year d) 10 year

124 Maximum Loan that can be given under Joint Liability Groups, is restricted to ----

-- per Member

d

a) Rs.15,000/- b) Rs.10,000/-

c) Rs.1 lakh d) Rs.50,000/-

125 Maximum risk coverage in case of natural death under PAIS is a

a) Rs. 50,000/- b) Rs 60,000/-

c) Rs. 75,000/- d) Nil

126 Gas produced in the gobar gas plant is

a) Methane b) Sulphur a

c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen

127 Mulberry cultivation is necessary for production of

a) Silk b) Honey a

c) Mushroom d) Fish

128 'Annewari' is declared for ...............

a) Revenue Village wise b) District as a whole a

c) Block/Taluka as a whole d) none of the above

129 GM seed refers to

a) Seeds manufactured in Germany b) Genetically manufacturing seed c

c) Genetically modified seed d) None of the above

130 Bio diesel in our country is extracted from

a) Jatropha b) Sugar cane a

c) Neem d) None of the above

131 Agariculture refers to

a) Manufacturing of Agarbatti b) Agriculture Production c

c) Cultivation of Mushrooms d) None of the above


132 Cage system is ideal for rearing

a) Broilers b) Layers b

c) Breeding Stock d) Turkeys

133 Agri Gold loan is sanctioned as

a) Demand Loan b) Term loan d

c) Cash Credit d) All of these

134 The objectives of introducing financing of joint liability groups of Tenant Farmers:

a) To augment flow of credit to tenant farmers, share croppers

b) To build mutual trust and confidence between bank and tenant farmers.

d

c) To extend collateral free loans to target clients through JLG scheme

d) All of these

135 Revised Scoring Model for tractor loans was introduced w.e.f

a) 01.01.2011 b) 01.01.2013 a

c) 01.01.2012 d) 01.01.2014

136 What is Olericulture?

a) Cultivation of Vegetables b) Cultivation of Flower a

c) Cultivation of Fruits d) Cultivation of Oleoresin

137 Highest Area under floriculture is in the State of

a) Karnataka b) Andhra Pradesh a

c) Tamilnadu d) Uttaranchal

138 Agricultural Term Loan is repaid out of?

a) Sale proceeds b) Cash Accruals d

c) Sale of Assets d) Net Incremental income

139 Foot & mouth disease relates to _________

a) Poultry b) Dairy b

c) Fishery d) Piggery

140 Most popular breed of buffalo in the world is

a) Mehasana b) Surthi c

c) Murrah d) Jersey

141 Document AB-2 in case of Agri Finance is _______.

a) Hypothecation Agreement b) Guarantee Agreement b

c) Mortgage Deed d) Revival Letter


142 Crop Insurance Scheme covers _______

a) Loanee farmers b) Tenant farmers d

c) Non-loanee farmers d) All of these

143 Document AB 6 is:

a) Demand Notice for repayment of Loan

b) Request letter by the borrower for conversion of loan

a

c) Revival Letter to AB 2 d) Confirmation letter of EM

144 Interest on crop loans is applied

a) Annually b) Half - Yearly d

c) On 31st May and 30th November d) On due date of payment

145 Purity of the gold can be assessed by using methods

a) Touch Stone Method b) Nitric Acid Test d

c) Specific Gravity Method d) All of these


GENERAL BANKING (ORGANISATION AND BUSINESS)

1. The Bank‘s registered office is at — b

a) Mumbai b) Kolkata

c) Hyderabad d) Delhi

2. Who is in charge of Information Technology at the Corporate Centre ? a

a) DMD and CIO(Chief Information

Officer)

b) CIO(Chief Information Officer)

c) CGM IT d) MD Risk Management

3. Who are the members of the Circle Management Committee ? c

a) Chairman, MDs and DMDs b) CGM,GMs(Network) and CDO DGM

c) CGM and GMs(Network) d) None

4. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) consists of ---------------- a

a) Chairman, MDs and DMDs b) Chairman and MDs

c) Chairman, MDs, DMDs, CGMs of all Circles

d) None

5. What is an SBU ? c

a) Strategic Business Unit b) Small Business Unit

c) It is a profit centre; accountable to make profit

d) None of these

6. Who is heading ALCO at the Corporate Centre ?

b

a) DMD (ALM Department) b) CFO at corporate centre

c) MD (Risk Management) d) None of these

7. SMECCC (Since renamed SMEC) is functioning under the control of

.a

a) DGM (Business & Operation) b) DGM SMEBU

c) GM on Net Work d) ZCC

8. Which of the following is not a Business Group? c

a) NBG b) CBG

c) IM&A d) IBG & Associates and subsidiaries

9. ALM is part of

d

a) Inter-branch Reconciliation b) Nostro Reconciliation

c) MIS of Corporate Centre d) Risk Management

10. WBCC (Wholesale Banking Credit Committee) is established at ---------------- b

a) Zonal Office b) Corporate centre

c) LHO d) CAG Branches


11. The budgeted growth for May is Rs. 50 lakhs; the actual levels for April and May were Rs. 100 lakhs and Rs. 80 lakhs. The branch has shown in the month of May

c

a) Negative Variance of Rs. 20 lakhs b) a growth of Rs. 20 lakhs

c) Negative growth of Rs. 20 lakhs d) None of these

12. Which among the following is not a profitability ratio? a

a) Capital adequacy ratio b) GRR

c) Return on Equity d) Return on Assets

13. Which consultancy organization is associated with the Bank‘s BPR? c

a) Boston Consultancy b) GITC

c) McKinsey &Co d) None of these

14. Environmental data of a branch is available in the --------------- d

a) State Bank Times b) RFIA Report

c) Verification Audit d) Branch Dossier

15. In respect of the proposals considered by SMEC, who is responsible for compliance of KYC norms ?

b

a) CM of RASMACC b) BM/CM/AGM of the Branch handling the account

c) AGM of SMECE d) None of these

16. What are owned branches in the Mid Corporate Group ? c

a) High Value SME Units b) Branches having limits more than 10 Crores

c) These are branches under the direct control of GM(MC Region)

d) None of these

17. What are Non-owned branches in the Mid Corporate Group ? a

a) All branches having MCG a/cs in the Circle other than Owned branches of GM(MC Region)

b) High Value SME Units

c) Branches having limits more than 10 Crores

d) None of these

18. ‗Kubera‘ software developed by BPR Team is used by c

a) RACPC b) GITC

c) Currenct Administration Cell. d) None of these

19. A Mid-Corporate is defined as a unit with an annual turn-over between----- and b

a) Rs 10 crore and Rs 100 crore b) Rs 50 crore and Rs 500 crore

c) Rs 1 crore and Rs 10 crore d) Rs 100 crore and Rs 500 crore

20. The GM (MC Region) will report to ------------- d

a) CGM of the Circle b) MD-NBG

c) DMD (NB and CS) d) CGM(MC) at the Corporate Centre

21. SBI has established SBI custodial services Pvt Ltd in collaboration with…. ; SBI has…..% share

a

a) Society Generate, France; 65% b) SBI General, Australia 75%

c) GE Capital, India 74% d) BNP Paribus, Fance 76%


22. The Statutory Auditors submit their report on the annual accounts of SBI to

c

a) Corporate Centre b) LHO

c) President of India d) RBI Governor

23. The country‘s first state-of-art ‗Currency Administration Branch* opened by SBI is christened as

a

a) ―Cash factory‖ b) ―Cash on Wheels‖

c) ―Cash at Home‖ d) ―Cash at Door step‖

24. Which is the only Indian bank listed in the World‘s biggest 2000 Companies by Forbes ?

b

a) HDFC b) SBI

c) ICICI Bank d) Axis Bank

25. State Bank freedoM is the name of ----------------------- a

a) Mobile Banking b) Internet Banking

c) State Bank Buddy d) SBI Quick

26. What is SBI Life scheme for SBI staff members ---------- c

a) Swarna Ganga b) ULIP

c) Super Suraksha d) Smart Wealth Builder

27. Where are the customer contact centres of the Bank located ? d

a) Delhi & Chandigarh b) Chennai & Bangalore

c) Mumbai & Nagpur d) Bangalore & Baroda

28. Basel-III will be implemented by the Bank w.e.f.------------ b

a) 31.3.2018 b) 31.3.2019

c) 31.3.2017 d) 31.3.2020

29. Which is the New Strategic Business Unit (SBU) created under NBG ? a

a) Real Estate, Habitat and Housing Development.

b) Real Estate, and Housing Development.

c) PBU d) None of these

30. The DMD (Retail Strategy) at the Corporate Centre reports to------------ b

a) Chairman b) Managing Director (National Banking Group)

c) MD CBG d) None of these

31. The No. of Foreign Subsidiaries of the Bank d

a) 8 b) 6

c) 9 d) 7

32. The Heads of Apex Training Institutes of the Bank report to --------

c

a) CGM of respective Circles b) DMD and CDO of Corporate Centre

c) CGM (Strategic Training Unit) Mumbai

d) Chairman


33. SBI inaugurated first sbi INTOUCH branch on 01.01.2016 at which centre-------- a

a) Cusrow Baug, Coloba, Mumbai b) Navi Mumbai

c) Redfort, Delhi d) Nungambakkam, Chennai

34. SBI will replicate its home loan model, where it includes the wife as an owner-borrower, in----------------------loan also.

b

a) SHG loan b) Tractor loan

c) Car loan d) Xpress Credit loan

35. SBI is awarded -----------------2015 for promoting equal employment opportunities

for people with desabilities.

c

a) Henrey Kellar Awards b) Ascar Award

c) Hellen Kellar Awards d) None of these

36. SBI was awarded, in 2015 for India‘s Best Technology Initiatives in the areas of Self Service Kiosk (SSK), Green Remit Card (GRC), SBI InTouch, Financial inclusion-Banking Correspondents Channel, SBI ePay and Direct Benefit Transactions LPG by ----------------

d

a) IDRBT Award b) Global Excellent Award

c) Global Technology Award d) Skotch Smart Technology Award

37. SBI received Socially Responsible Bank-Magna Awards in 2015 by-------- c

a) Top Business World b) Forbs Magazine

c) Business World Magazine d) None of these

Safe Custody, Security and Safe Deposit Lockers

1 The relationship between the Bank and the customer in the case of Locker is a

a) Licensor and Licensee (SBI) b) Lessor and Lessee

c) Bailor and Bailee d) Principal and Agent

2 Safe custody/security accounts are balanced once in a d

a) Yearly b) Monthly

c) Quarterly d) Half Yearly

3 The safe custody receipt in respect of Branch duplicate keys is kept in the

b

a) Sole Custody of the B.M. in his hand-safe

b) Joint custody of the B.M. and the Manager (Cash)

c) Joint custody of the B.M. and the Acct

d) Joint Custodians of Acctt and CO

4 The seal affixed on the packet of the duplicate keys of the Branch is--------

c

a) The personal seal of B.M b) The personal seals of all officials

c) Branch metallic seal d) Bank‘s Common Seal


5 When the contents of Safe Deposit Locker of a deceased customer is delivered to the legal representative against production of legal documents is obtained

d

a) Probate of a Will b) Succession certificate

c) Letters of Administration d) B & C

6 The relationship of the Bank and the customer in the case of a Safe Custody and Safe deposit a/c is that of

d

a) Lessor and Lessee b) Bailor and Bailee

c) Licensor and Licensee d) None of these

7 When a Govt. Security is sent to PDO for collection of interest, it will be entered in the

a

a) Interest Realised on Securities Register

b) Miscellaneous Security Register

c) Sundry Register d) None of these

8 LIC Policies/Life Insurance Policies accepted as security are recorded in

c

a) Branch Document Register b) Safe Custody Register

c) Miscellaneous Security Register d) Sundry Register

9 When a safe deposit article is delivered to a third party at the request of the depositor, the depositor should give acquittal to the Bank in Form

a

a) COS-49 b) COS-92

c) COS-59 d) COS-37

10 The minimum period for which rental for a locker will be recovered in advance is c

a) 3 Years b) 2 Years

c) 3 Years As per RBI, 1 Year as per SBI

d) 1 Year

11 A safe custody a/c in the name of a minor can be opened only in respect of b

a) Company shares b) Only Bank‘s term deposit receipt

c) Govt, securities d) None of these

12 In the case of ‗E‘ or ‗S‘ Locker Accounts, the locker termination endorsement a

a) must be signed by both the a/c holders

b) may be signed by either of the a/c holders

c) A & B d) None of these

13 In which of the following cases is hiring of a locker not possible?

c

a) By Visually impaired persons b) By illiterate persons

c) Minor d) NRI

14 In which of the following Locker A/cs nomination is allowed?

d

a) E or S b) B or S

c) Any one or Survivor d) Both to operate with no survivorship


15 Service Charge for breaking open the locker besides the actual expenses charged by the locker company is:

d

a) Rs.102/- plus Service Tax b) Rs.204/- plus Service Tax

c) Rs.306/- plus Service Tax d) Rs.750/- plus Service Tax

16 In which of the following account nomination is not allowed ?

a

a) HUF b) SDL

c) Individual d) Proprietorship

17 If a Safe Deposit Receipt is lost, what should be obtained for delivering the receipt ?

c

a) duplicate receipt issued and delivered

b) an indemnity without stamp

c) A stamped indemnity d) None of these

18 If locker rent is overdue for more than __ the locker should be broken open and

the articles sold for recovery of rent after due notice

b

a) Two years b) One year

c) Three years d) Four years

19 The Keys of the Box kept in safe deposit will be kept by the a

a) Customer b) Bank

c) Joint Custodians of Acctt and CO d) BM

20 Which of the following statements are true in relation to the power of the income tax department to carry on search under Section 132 of the IT Act?

c

a) search is to be carried-out during business hours only

b) No search can be carried-out the search can be carried out at night only

c) the search can be carried-out any time

d) None of these

21 For closing the locker account --------days notice should be given to the Bank by the customer

b

a) 15 days b) 7 days (SBI)

c) 10 days (SBI) d) 30 days

22 The no of times a locker can be operated without fee in a year is----------, thereafter Rs.lOO+ST per visit is recovered

c

a) 10 b) 15

c) 12 d) 20

23 One time registration charges for opening a locker account is Rs.---------- a

a) Rs.500+ST b) Rs.509+ST

c) Rs.102+ST d) Rs.204+ST

24 Safe Custody charges for a sealed cover is Rs. per cover (plus service tax) d a) Rs.102/- b) Rs.204/-

c) Rs.509/- d) Rs.300/- (With minimum )


25 Scrips accepted under Safe Custody are entered in Ledger/Register c

a) Safe Custody Register b) Safe Deposit Ledger

c) Safe Custody Ledger d) None of these

26 At the time of deposit of scrips by the depositor COS is given to him/her as receipt

b

a) COS-59 b) COS-79

c) COS-49 d) COS-139

27 Memorandum of Securities (for Safe Custody) is issued on COS---- d

a) COS-59 b) COS-79

c) COS-139 d) COS-339

28 A receipt on COS is issued to the depositor of articles (in Safe Deposit)------- a

a) COS-138 b) COS-79

c) COS-49 d) COS-59

29 In the event of non-payment of rental for a locker, the locker can be broke open effectively after-----------from the due date

b



30 In the event of the death of a customer who has kept securities in safe custody with the Bank, the bank should

b

a) Continue to collect Interest b) Stop collection of Interest

c) Advise legal heirs to collect Interest

d) Advise the company to stop payment of Interest

31 Banks can exercise their right of set-off to recover outstanding dues of a loan a/c by breaking open locker and auctioning the contents

b

a) Yes b) No

c) Yes only after giving notice d) None of these

32 If the memorandum of securities is lost by the customer, can duplicate memorandum is issued

c

a) After obtaining indemnity b) Duplicate is not issued

c) is issued against a simple letter. d) None of these

33 JEEVAN PRAMAAN is a

a) Digital Life Certificate for Pensioners

b) Any Time Channel Product



Remittance, Collection, Purchase and Discount

1 Section 31 of RBI Act prohibits---------

c

a) Issuance of Travellers Cheques b) Issuance of Currency Notes

c) Issuance of draft payable to bearer

d) None of these

2 RBI interest warrant lapses----------months after issue d



3 M I C R cheques must be cleared within------- b



4 1. A Usance bill when presented for acceptance has to be accepted/ dis-honoured within----------------hours.

c



5 The validity of a revalidated draft is limited to-----------months from the date of revalidation

a



6 2. At the time of discounting an usance bill, the unexpired usance period of the bill shall not exceed--------days

c


c) 180 days d) 360 day

7 3. What is the maximum amount of remittance permitted under Money Transfer Service Scheme ?

b

a) US $ 1000 per individual transaction ( 30 times a year)

b) US $ 2500 per individual transaction ( 30 times a year)

c) US $ 1500 per individual transaction ( 30 times a year)

d) US $ 3000 per individual transaction ( 30 times a year)

8 4. A draft reported lost is presented for payment before the duplicate is paid, what action you will take ?

b

a) Duplicate draft can only be paid b) The title of the presenter has to be ascertained carefully and the draft is paid if it is in order

c) The Original draft can only be paid

d) None of these

9 5. What is the maximum amount permitted per single transaction under Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) / ECS ?

6.

a

a) Now, no ceiling b) Rs.2.00 lacs

c) Rs.1.00 lacs d) Rs.15.00 lacs


10 The Bank‘s position vis-a-vis the customer in respect of collection of bills is------- b

a) Principal b) Agent

c) Bailee d) Trustee

11 The maximum number of endorsements which can appear on a draft is------ d

a) 4 b) 8

c) 10 d) No limit

12 7. What is the penalty payable for extra-ordinary delay in respect of collections in a deposit a/c ?

c

a) 1% above the applicable TD Rate b) 3% above the applicable TD Rate

c) 2% above the applicable TD Rate d) 5% above the applicable TD Rate

13 Interest paid to customers on the overdue period in case of delays in collection of cheques is debited to

b

a) Commission A/c b) Charges A/c (Sundries)

c) Interest A/c d) SB Interest A/c

14 8. The Relationship between the banker and purchaser of a DRAFT d

a) Creditor and debtor b) (a) Principal and agent

c) Agent and principal d) Debtor and creditor

15 9. What is the period within which collection cheques between two SBI branches in Metros / Major ‗A‖ Class cities have to be realized ?

a

a) 6 days b) 3 days

c) 1 day d) 2 days

16 10. What is the validity period of a RBI draft ? c



17 A B/E drawn ―2 months after sight‖ on 24.12.2016 and accepted on 30.12.2016 will be due on-------------------

b

a) 28.02.2017 b) 03.03.2017

c) 04.03.2017 d) 24.02.2017

18 11. A duplicate draft can be issued by the bank at the request of the payee: a) with the purchaser‘s consent only b) without the consent of the purchaser

a

a) with the purchaser‘s consent only b) without the consent of the purchaser

c) with the consent of both d) None of these

19 12. What is the maximum amount of Cheque for which immediate credit can be given to satisfactorily conducted individual accounts ?

13.

b

a) Rs 15000/- (SBI) b) Rs 30000/- (SBI)

c) Rs 20000/- (SBI) d) Rs 25000/- (SBI)

20 Bill drawn on 25.09.16 payable 40 days after sight was presented on 30.09.16 for acceptance. It was accepted on 01.10.16; it will be due on--------

d

a) 12 Nov 2016 b) 03 Nov 2016

c) 11 Nov 2016 d) 13 Nov 2016


21 14. What is the limitation period of a usance bill/promissory note ? 15.

c

a) 1/2 year from due date b) 1 year from due date

c) 3 years from due date d) 2 years from due date

22 16. The relationship of banker and payee in case of a draft after it is delivered to the payee is

17.

c

a) Debtor and Creditor b) Creditor and debtor

c) Trustee and beneficiary d) Agent and Principal

23 18. Payment of a cheque can be stopped by the drawer. In the case of a draft, it can be stopped by--------------

19.

a

a) can‘t be stopped b) the issuing branch

c) the applicant & payee jointly d) the applicant

24 20. What is the charge to be recovered for putting through a cheque for Rs.2 lakhs in Speed clearing?

21.

c

a) Rs.50/- per instrument plus ST b) Rs.100/- per instrument plus ST

c) Rs.150/- per instrument plus ST d) Rs.250/- per instrument plus ST

25 IOI is issued by credit to a new BGL Head-------------- b

a) IOI Issued A/c b) IOI Account

c) IOI Balance A/c d) IOI Branch Account

26 IOI forms have a unique digit running Serial Number

d

a) 10 digit b) 8 digit

c) 6 digit d) 12 digit

27 BIAK in IOI denotes b

a) Built - in Authentication Key b) Built - in Authorisation Key

c) Bank Internal Authorisation Key d) Branch Internal Authorisation Key

28 Cut off limit for double signature in IOI is

a

a) Rs.l,50,000/- b) Rs.l,00,000/-

c) Rs.50,000/- d) Rs.2,00,000/-

29 Minimum amount that can be transferred in NEFT is c

a) Rs.25,000/- b) Rs.10,000/-

c) Rs.1,000/- d) No minimum

30 Indian Financial System (IFS) has how many digits c

a) 10 b) 09

c) 11 d) 06

31 Ceiling for maximum amount in NEFT Transaction is d

a) Rs.l,00,000/- b) Rs.2,00,000/-

c) Rs.5,00,000/- d) No Maximum


Government Business

1 SBI conducts Government Business on hehalf of -------------- b

a) Government b) RBI

c) IBA d) State Government

2 Charges for issuing of a duplicate pass book for PPF a/c is credited to ----- c

a) Charges a/c (Sundries) b) Commission a/c

c) Government a/c d) None of these

3 What is the rate at which the Govt. Commission id paid to the Bank for Govt Receipt----

a

a) Rs.50/- per transaction for physical receipts and Rs.12 for e-receipt

b) Rs.100/- per transaction for physical receipts and Rs.6 for e-receipt

c) Rs.0.05- Paise per trxn for physical receipts and Rs.1 for e-receipt

d) None of these

4 Premature closure of of PPF a/c needs permission of ----------- d

a) Controlling Authority b) RBI

c) CBDT d) Govt of India

5 Who can not invest in PPF a/c c

a) Resident Indians b) Joint a/c with minor

c) HUF, Trust and NRI d) Joint a/c with unsound person on their behalf

6 Pension for the month of March is payable on --------- b

a) 1st working day of February b) 1st working day of April

c) 1st working day of March d) last working day of March

7 In case of excess payment of pension the maximum recovery which can be effected from future pension every month is -----------

a

a) 1/3rd of pension b) 1/2th of pension

c) 1/4th of pension d) 1/10th of pension

8 Penalty for delayed settlement of funds----------- d

a) Bank Rate puls 3% b) Bank Rate puls 1%

c) Bank Rate puls 1.5% d) Bank Rate puls 2%

9 The Govt. commission is shared by Receiving Branch and Focal Point Branch in the ratio of -----------------

c

a) 50 : 50 b) 25 : 75

c) 75 : 25 d) 80 : 20

10 Minimum and Maximum subscription in financial year in PPF a/c is Rs.------& Rs.--

b

a) Rs.100/- and Rs.1,00,000/- b) Rs.500/- and Rs.1,50,000/-

c) Rs.50/- and Rs.50,000/- d) Rs.1000/- and Rs.2,00,000/-

11 What is the validity period of a Govt. Bill passed for payment by a Treasure Officer

c




12 The PPF Scheme can be extended after 15 years ------------ d

a) 2 five-years terms b) 1 five-years terms

c) 3 five-years terms d) In five years block with no limit on number of extensions

13 The rate of interest charged for a loan against PPF is -------% for normal case and ---------% in case of default. (not paid within 36 months)

a

a) 2%; 6% b) 3%; 9%

c) 5%; 8% d) 1%; 3.%

14 First loan can be obtained against PPF in the 3rd financial year from the financial year in which account was opened, up to -------% of the amount at credit at the end of Ist financial year.

b

a) 20% b) 25%

c) 33% d) 50%

15 Loan against PPF cannot be given after the end of ----------th financial year from the financial year in which account was opned.

c

a) 3rd b) 2nd

c) 4th d) 5th

16 Maximum amount of withdrawal from PPF account I linked to -------% of the balance at the credit at the end of 4th year immediately preceding the year in which the amount is withdrawn or at the end of the preceding year whichever is lower.

d

a) 25% b) 75%

c) 100% d) 50%

17 First withdrawal is permitted in PPF account after expiry of -------year from the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made

b



18 Enfacement of Govt. Challan means a

a) Passing of Challan by Treasury officer/ Head of Department

b) Passing of Challan by BM

c) Passing of Challan by Acctt/ Cash Officer

d) None of these

19 ITRO is valid for ------------months b



20 The validity period of RBI draft---------------- d



21 Pension account can be opened in ---------------style

c

a) E or S b) F or S

c) a or b d) both of them


22 Pension Adalats were held across the country in----------- to give impetus to opening of New Pension Accounts

a

a) 18th December (World pension day) b) 28th December (World pension day)

c) 8th December (World pension day) d) 1st December (World pension day)

23 Income Tax deduction register is to be preserved for at least ---------year d



24 How many PPF accounts an individual can open in the name his/her minor children in addition to his/her PPF ?

b

a) Two each in the name of minor b) One each in the name of minor

c) Three each in the name of minor d) No limit in the name of minor

25 SWO can accept Govt. Receipts up to Rs.-----------and issue receipt. Receipt is not signed by Manager (Cash)

c

a) Rs.2,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-

c) Rs.3,000/- d) Rs.10,000/-

26 EASIEST stands for ----------- a

a) Electronic Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax

b) Election Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax

c) Electronic And Systematic in Excise and Service Tax

d) None of these

27 Tax Information Network is maintained by ------------- c

a) TATA Consultancy b) Wipro

c) NSDL d) None of these

28 Pensioner‘s complaints received on line should be acknowledged within---- days d

a) 2 days b) 3 days

c) 5 days d) Same day

29 Migration of Non-Individual AOFs from Branches to LCPC b

a) 01.10.2016 b) 01.01.2017

c) 01.04.2017 d) 01.06.2017


SME- Priority Sector Advances

1. The overdraft in PMJDY accounts can be considered under c

A PMJDY-OD B Start up India

C Sishu D Stand up India

2. Which committee recommended Priority Sector Lending? c

A Narasimham B Ojha

C Gadgil D Kalia

3. What are all the facilities that can be sanctioned under ArtisanCredit Card Scheme?

c

A Cash Credit B Term Loan

C Composite Term Loan D Demand Loan

4. What are the three pillars of Basel-III? d

A Minimum Capital requirement for

credit risk, market risk and

operational risk.

B Supervising Review

C Market Discipline D All of these

5. Loans to Medium Enterprises engaged in manufacturing as per MSMED act up to

Rs. __________covered under Priority Sector Advances.

b

A Loans to Medium Enterprises not

covered under Priority Sector

Advances.

B No limit

C 5 cr D 10 cr

6. Certificate of Commencement Business is to be obtained from d

A Private Ltd Company B Limited Liability partnership

C One person company D Public ltd co

7. Under Priority Sector Advances the sub target for Micro Enterprises for the year 2016-17 is

c

a 7 b 8

c 7.5 d 10

8. What is the priority sector target for foreign banks which have more than 20 branches

d

a 32 b 34

c 36 d 40


9. Foreign banks which have less than 20 branches have to achieve the priority sector targets on par with other Indian Banks by the year

c

a 2016-17 b 2017-18

c 2019-20 d 2018-19

10. The priority sector limit for loans to Small Enterprises which are engaged in Services______ crores

b

a 10 b 5

c 2 d 15

11. The priotiry sector limit for loans to Medium Enterprises which are engaged in Services ______ crores

a

a 10 b 5

c 2 d 15

12. For SRTO finance the eligibility for priority sector advances are d

a Up to 10 vehicles b Investment cost up to Rs. 2 cr

c Investment cost up to Rs. 5 cr d Loan amount up to Rs. 10 cr.

13. The priority sector target will be assessed by RBI on ___________basis c

a Fortnightly b Monthly

c Quarterly d Yearly

14. A rice mill with investment in Plant and Machinery is above Rs. 10 crores. What is true regarding priority sector definition?

c

a It will not be covered under Priority Sector

b Loan amount up to Rs. 10 crores

c Loan amount up to Rs. 100 crores d Loan amount up to Rs. 15 crores

15. Loans up to Rs._____________for construction of storage facilities (warehouses, market yards, godowns and silos) including cold storage units/ cold storage chains designed to store agriculture produce/products, irrespective of their location are considered for priority sector purpose.

b




16. Bank loans up to a limit of Rs._____ crore per borrower for building social infrastructure for activities namely schools, health care facilities, drinking water facilities and sanitation facilities in Tier II to Tier VI centres are covered under Priority Sector.

d




17. Bank loans to food and agro based industries are part of c

a MSMED b SSI

c Agri d C&I


18. Loans up to Rs. _______ Renewable energy like solar based power generators, biomass based power generators, wind mills, micro-hydel plants and for non-conventional energy based public utilities viz. street lighting systems, and remote village electrification are covered under Priority Sector Lending.

c

a 10 lacs b 15 lacs

c 15 crores d 10 crores

19. For individual households, the loan limit to Renewal Energy (like solar etc) will be Rs._________ lakh per borrower

b

a 10 lacs b 15 lacs

c 25 lacs d 5 lacs

20. Priority Sector guidelines for housing loans dependant on population of the city. What is the criteria for a metropolitan city?

a

a Population above Rs. 10 lacs b Population above Rs. 5 lacs

c Population above Rs. 50 lacs d Population above Rs. 20 lacs

21. The loans sanctioned by banks for housing projects exclusively for the purpose of construction of houses for economically weaker sections and low income groups, the total cost of which does not exceed ` __________ lakh per dwelling unit.

c

a 20 b 5

c 10 d 15

22. Priority Sector guidelines for housing loans in Metropolitan Cities is. d

a Loan: 28 lacs Project Cost: 40 lacs b Loans up to Rs. 25 lacs irrespective of the Project Cost

c Loans up to Rs. 15 lacs d Loan: 28 lacs Project Cost: 35 lacs

23. Priority Sector guidelines for housing loans in other centres is. a

a Loan: 20 lacs Project Cost: 25 lacs b Loans up to Rs. 25 lacs irrespective of the Project Cost

c Loans up to Rs. 15 lacs d Loan: 20 lacs Project Cost: 28 lacs

24. The income criteria for identifying the families covered under Weaker Sections is up to Rs. ______ lacs

d

a 4.5 b 6.5

c 1.60 d 2

25. Bank loans to any governmental agency for construction of dwelling units or for slum clearance and rehabilitation of slum dwellers subject to a ceiling of Rs. ____ lakh per dwelling unit.

b

a 15 b 10

c 25 d 20

26 Loans for repairs to damaged dwelling units of families up to Rs ____ lakh in metropolitan centres and up to Rs_____ lakh in other centres.

c

a 2 and 5 b 3 and 6

c 5 and 2 d 6 and 3


Loan Policy Guidelines

1. The Latest Approved Loan Policy is dated d

a 31.03.2013 b 31.03.2014

c 01.01.2015 d 01.01.2016

2 The Loan Policy memorandum will be submitted by c

a MD (CBG) b MD (NBG)

c DMD (Chief Credit Officer) d DMD (Chief Credit Risk Officer)

3 Normally NBG branches handle SME proposals up to Rs. __________ Crores c

a 10 b 25

c 50 d 100

4 As per Loan Policy Guidelines waiver of collateral security in agricultural segment is generally permitted up to Rs._________ lac, though scheme specific ceilings have been prescribed

b

a 3 b 1

c 0.50 d 2

5 Waiver of Collateral Security is applicable to ACC/KCC accounts up to Rs. 2 lacs

subject to the following conditions.

1. Farmers having legal ownership of agricultural land with good repayment track record for last 3 years.

2. Those are not covered under ADWDRS-2008 are excluded; 3. In case of existing loans other than the loans up to Rs. 1 lac available

security may not be released

c

a Only 1 and 2 b Only 1

c 1,2 and 3 d Only 1 and 3.

6 Under Contract farming and Tie-up loans the collateral security waiver is applicable

up to Rs._________ lacs for ACC/KCC accounts.

a

a 3 b 5

c 2 d 1

7 SBI is the convenor of SLBC in __________ no of states.

a 5 b 16

c 11 d 18

8 For declaring a account as willful default the following conditions to be applicable.

1. Outstandings should be Rs. 25 lacs and above. 2. Diversion and Siphoning of Funds. 3. Who are having the capacity to repay and not paying the dues.

b

a Only 1 b 1, 2 and 3.

c Only 1 and 3 D 1 and either 2 or 3.


9 Rs. 25 lacs and above loans to Directors of other Banks can be sanctioned by c

a Chairman b Loans cannot be sanctioned to other Bank directors.

c Board of Directors d WBCC

10 Substantial interest in a company means holding of a beneficial interest by an individual or his spouse or minor child, whether singly or taken together, in the shares thereof, the amount paid up on which exceeds Rs. _____ lacs or _________ per cent of the paid-up capital of the company, whichever is less;

a

a 5 lacs and 10% b 10 lacs and 5%

c 25 lacs and 10% d 25 lacs and 5%

11 Bank shall not extend finance for setting up of new units consuming/producing (ODS) and to small/medium scale units engaged in the manufacture of aerosol units using chlorofluorocarbons (CFC). What is meant by ODS

a

a Ozone Depleting Substances b Ozone Deduction Source

c Ozone Depleting Source d Ozone Deduction Substances

12 In case of advance against Levy Sugar, a minimum margin of ______% will apply. b

a 25 b 10

c 40 d 15

13 ECR is not mandatory for exposures less than Rs. _______ crores. b

a 5 b 10

c 25 d 50

14 In the case of Takeovers, for exposure from Rs. 25 lacs and above to less than Rs. 10 crores the CRA should be minimum

a

a SB-7 b SB-8

c SB-3 d SB-9

15 For exposure from Rs. 10 cr to Rs. 50 cr takeover norms the minimum CRA should be

d

a SB-7 b SB-8

c SB-3 d SB-9

16 As per the Loan Policy Guidelines, if the Audited Balance Sheet is more than 9 months old, the proposal may be

b

a Rejected b Considered if the provisional balance sheet is less than 6 months old.

c Sanctioned d Sanctioned but after obtaining ABS CRA validation to be completed.

17 Stock and Receivables Audit is to be conducted prior to disbursement of any credit facilities above Rs.________ crores except for units having ECR of ―A-‖ and better.

b

a 10 b 5

c 2 d 15

18 The maximum amount of takeover for Agricultural Advances without Administrative Clearance.

b

a 50 lacs b 2 crores

c 1 crore d 5 crores


19 RBI exposure norms in case of single borrower is c

a 50 crores b 100 crores

c 15% of Bank‘s Capital Funds, plus an additional 5% for credit to infrastructure projects.

d 40% of Bank‘s Capital Funds, plus an additional 50% for credit to infrastructure projects.

20 Exposure to Oil Companies that have been issued oil bonds (which do not have SLR status) by Govt. of India.

a

a 25% of Bank‘s Capital Funds, plus an additional 5% for credit to infrastructure projects.

b 15% of Bank‘s Capital Funds, plus an additional 5% for credit to infrastructure projects.


d 100 crores

21 Aggregate exposure to the capital markets shall not exceed a

a 40 % of Bank‘s Net Worth b 40 % of Company‘s Net Worth

c 30 % of Bank‘s Net Worth d 40 % of Company‘s Net Worth

22 SBI exposure norms applicable to individual Borrower a

a 50 crores b 100 crores


d 25% of Bank‘s Capital Funds, plus an additional 5% for credit to infrastructure projects.

23 Norms for State Bank Group Exposure and sharing of exposure with other banks up to Rs. 500 crores is

b

a 50% b Nil

c 35% d 40%

24 Norms for State Bank Group Exposure and sharing of exposure with other banks above Rs. 2000 crores is

c

a 50% or 1000 crores whichever is less

b Nil

c 35% or 1000 crores whichever is less

d 40% or 1000 crores whichever is less

25 Bank may extend finance to employees for purchasing shares of their own companies under ESOP/reserved by way of employees' quota under IPO. The maximum finance under the Scheme

c

a Banks should not finance for purchase of its own shares.

b 10 lacs

c 20 lacs d It is equivalent to depletion of the capital. Hence restricted.

26 Bank may grant advances to individuals for subscribing to IPOs up to Rs. ______ a

a 10 lacs b 20 lacs

c 20 lacs if they are in the d mat form

d 50 lacs


27 No new connections or enhancements in credit limits are to be considered in respect of accounts rated worse than SB-10 subject to exceptions

c

a Availability of Central Govt. guarantee

b Corporate guarantee of parent / group company with SB-9 and above.

c Either a or b d No fresh exposures/enhancements can be considered.

28 Dynamic Review of Internal Rating of borrowers who are enjoying aggregate limits of Rs.___________ Crores and above in all Business Groups

a

a 500 a 1000

c 200 d 100

29 How many models in CRA simplified and CRA regular?

a

a 3 & 5 b 3 & 3

c 5 & 3 d 2 & 3

30 Bank Exposure Model (BEM) model is applicable for c

a Risk Assessment Model for

Infrastructure Project

b Regional Rural Banks model

c International banks. d Mutual Fund rating model for credit

31 The following are ECR (External Credit Rating) agencies d

a CARE, CRISIL b India Ratings and Research Private Limited (India Ratings)

c ICRA, Brickwork and SMERA d All

32 The turnover method is also called a

a Naik Committee b ABF

c PAT d a and c.

33 PAT is method should be used for d

a All MSMED industries b MSMED for FBWC limits up to Rs. 500 lacs

c C&I subject certain terms and conditions

d b and c

34 Cash Budget method is applicable for units d

a Seasonal b Construction

d Adhoc limit d All of the above

35 The validity of sanction for working capital limits if not availed. b

a 6 months b 3 months

c 12 months d 1 month


36 As per the Loan Policy Guidelines, what is the minimum acceptable Current Raio for manufacturing units

b

a 1.33 b 1

c 1.2 d 1.25

37 As per the Loan Policy Guidelines, what is the desired TOL/TNW Ratio for Trade and Service units

a

a 5 b 4

c 3 d 7

38 As per the Loan Policy Guidelines, what is the minimum acceptable DSCR for manufacturing units

c

a 1.75 b 1.5

c 1.2 d 2

39 The maximum maturity of a Term Loan is c

a 8 years b 7 years

c 10 years d 30 years

40 The ideal D/E ratio is d

a 67/30 b 2/1

c 3/1 d a or b

41 The validity period of Term Loan sanction if not availed is limited to b


c 1 month d 1 year

42 What is true regarding Bank Guarantees? 1. Normally BGs issued for 18 months. 2. No BG should normally have a maturity of more than ten years 3. If the maturity period is beyond 10 years it should be against 100% cash

margin with the approval from the competent authority.

a

a All 1,2, 3. b Only 1

c Only 1 &2. d Only 2 &3.

43 Unsecured Bank Guarantees issued for a period _______ and up to limit of Rs. ____.

b

a Unsecured Bank Guarantees should not be issued.

b 1 year and 5 crores.

c 18 months and 5 crores d 3 years and 5 crores.

44 The minimum Current Ratio for financing to NBFCs?

b

a 1.2 b 1.33

c 1 d 1.25

45 Countries have been placed in ________________ risk categories as per the risk perception

a

a 11 b 4


c 5 d 3

46 Deferred exports are those where the realization period is more than _____

c

a 21 days b 90 days

c 180 days d 360 days

47 As per the World Trade Organization (WTO), services can be divided into _____different sectors:

b

a 10 b 12

c 21 d 20

48 Credit Audit is applicable for exposores (FB + NFB) above b

a 5 cr b 10 cr

c 2 cr d 25 cr

49 Loan Review Mechanism is applicable to a

a Above 5 crores b Above 10 crores

c Above 50 crores d Above 1 cr

50 ESR is applicable to limits a

a Rs. 50 lacs to Rs. 5 crores b Rs. 1 cr to Rs. 5 cr

c Above 5 cr d Above Rs. 25 cr

51 The Bank may appoint nominee directors in the board of borrower companies if 1. Where Bank‘s credit exposure to the company exceeds Rs.500 crores. 2. Where Bank‘s credit exposure exceeds Rs.50 crores and the account has

become SMA/NPA. 3. Where mismanagement or inefficient / recalcitrant management has been

observed. 4. Available evidences indicate that the unit / management is functioning in a

manner detrimental to the interest of the Bank.

d

a 1 and 4 b 2 and 4

c 1,2 and 3 d 1,2,3,4

52 In terms of RBI guidelines, Bank is to submit the quarterly return on borrowers‘ exposure of Rs. 5 crores and above to RBI-CRILIC. What is the full form of CRILC?

a

a Central Repository of Information on Large Credits

b Central Reporting of Information on Large Credit

c Common Repository of Information on Large Credit

d Common Reporting of Information on Large Credit


SME PRODUCTS

1. What is the facility under the New Scheme ―SME Dost‖ d

a WC b DL

c TL d WCDL

2 The limit sanctioned under SME Dost is valid for a period of a

a 1 year b 6 months

c 2 years d 3 months

3 The maximum limit eligible under SME Dost is d

a 1 cr b 2 cr

c 20% of FBWC limits d B or d whichever is lower

4 What are the facilities offered under Doctor Plus Scheme d

a TL b CC

c Both TL and CC d Only TL

5 For Non-Allopathic doctors (Unani, Ayurvedic, Homeopathic) the maximum loan amount is

c

a 10 lacs b 10% of the Total loan amount

c Nil. d Either a or b whichever is lower

6 What is the minimum loan amount under Doctor Plus Scheme in Metro centres. a

a 10 lacs b 25 lacs

c 50 lacs d 15 lacs

7 What is the maximum loan amount under Doctor Plus Scheme in Rural Areas. d

a Corporates 10 cr b 5 crores for other than Corporates

c 10 crores for all d 5 crores for all

8 What are the concessions in interest rate under Doctor Plus Scheme?

c

a For borrowers, availing one or more personal loans (Home loan/Car oan) from SBI, with no default history for the previous 2 years, 15 bps concessions in pricing will be given.

b In case the collateral security offered by the borrower is 40% and above, 25 bps concession in pricing will be given

c Both a and b d No concessions.

9 Under Doctor Plus Scheme, Collateral Security is waived for loans up to Rs. c

a 100 lacs b 25 lacs

c 200 lacs d 50 lacs.


10 What is the Collateral Security requirement under Doctor Plus Scheme for loans above Rs. 2 crores.

a

a 25% b 40%

c 50% d 60%

11 What is the maximum repayment period under Doctor Plus Scheme? d

a Maximum period up to 5 years (including moratorium period): For buying equipments and expansion /renovation/ modernization of existing premises

b Maximum period upto 7 years (including moratorium period): For setting up clinic, nursing home, pathology labs, drug store and other infrastructure.

c Both a and b d 7 years for all purposes.

12 What is the hurdle rate under Doctor Plus Scheme b

a CRA-8 b CRA-9

c CRA-10 d CRA-7

13 What is the stipulated margin under Doctor Plus Scheme?

a Upto Rs. 10 lacs: 15% b Above Rs. 10 lacs upto Rs. 5 crs: 20%

c Margin at 15% uniformly d Both a and b

14 What are the disbursement instructions under Doctor Plus Scheme? d

a Operating units can make multiple disbursements over a period of 24 months from date of sanction based on requirements.

b For buying equipment and expansion /renovation/ modernization of existing premises: Over a period of 12 months from the date of sanction.

c For setting up clinics, nursing homes, pathology labs, drug stores and other infrastructure: Over a period of 24 months from the date of sanction

d Both b and c

15 What is the concession available for inspection charges under Doctor Plus Scheme?

c

a No concession b Rs. 500/- per lac S Tax

c 50% concession on card rates d 25% concession on card rates.

16 The minimum and maximum quantum of loan under SBI Medical Equipment Scheme.

b

a No minimum and maximum 20 cr b Minimum 10 lac and maximum 20 cr

c Minimum 100 lac and maximum 20 cr

d Minimum 2 crores and maximum 20 cr

17 What is the collateral security requirement under SBI Medical Equipment Scheme?

d

a Up to Rs. 50 lacs nil b Above Rs. 50 lacs 15%

c a and b d 25%


18 What are the facilities available under the Scheme Commidity backed Ware House Receipt Finance for limits up to Rs. 1 crore.

c

a CC b WCDL

c Both CC and WCDL d Revolving Demand Loan

19 What are the facilities available under the Scheme Commodity backed Ware House Receipt Finance for limits above Rs. 1 crore.

a

a CC, Revolving Demand Loan and WCDL

b WCDL

c CC d Revolving Demand Loan

20 Maximum repayment period under Commodity backed Ware House Receipt Finance?

b


c 24 months d 36 months

21 Margin top up period under Commodity backed Ware House Receipt Finance? c

a Weekly b monthly

c Fortnightly d Quarterly

22 The Campaign, ―NAYI KOSHISH NAYE MUKAM‖ related to the product d

a ABL & ABL-CRE b Doctors Plus Scheme

c Medical Equipment Finance Scheme

d b and c.

23 The campaign, ―Make it Big‖ related to d

a ABL & ABL-CRE b Doctors Plus Scheme

c Medical Equipment Finance Scheme

d SBI Credit Cards to SME Units.

24 The Campaign, ―Udyami Tara‖ related to b

a Mudra Loans b Stand up India

c PMEGP d All of these.

25 On account of demonetization and to encourage the MSME units to shift to digital mode or cashless transactions, it has been decided that WC limits of MSME units (availing Fund Based Working Capital requirement upto Rs. 5 crores) will be assessed at____________

c

a 25% b 20%

c 31.25% d 15%


PMEGP, Stand Up India, Start Up India and Mudra

1. What is the nodal agency for implementing PMEGP Scheme at National level? b

a KVIB b KVIC

c DIC d MSMED

2 The performance of the Banks under PMEGP has been reviewed by d

a Ministry of MSME b Parliamentary Committees

c RBI d a & b

3 Under PMEGP Scheme who are not part of Special Category?(subsidy is high) d

a SC/ST/OBC/PH b Minorities/Women/North Eastern Region/Hill and Boarder areas

c Ex-Serviceman d None

4 The margin for under PMEGP for general category. a

a 10% b 5%

c 15% d 25%

5 The margin for under PMEGP for Special Categories. b

a 10% b 5%

b 15% d 25%

6 Rate of Subsidy for Ex-Serviceman in North Eastern Region rural area is c

a 15% b 25%

c 35% d 10%

7 Rate of Subsidy for women SC category in urban areas is b

a 15% b 25%

c 35% d 10%

8 The maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under manufacturing sector is Rs. _____________ under PMEGP Scheme

d

a 100 lacs b 50 lacs

c 200 lacs d 25 lacs

9 The maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under business/service sector is Rs. ------------ lakh.

b

a 25 b 10

c 35 d 50

10 For setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakh in the manufacturing sector and above Rs. 5 lakh in the business /service sector, the beneficiaries should possess at least ___________ pass educational qualification

c

a X th standard b Graduation

c VIII th Standard d IX th Standard


11 Who are not eligible under PMEGP Scheme? b

a SHG b Existing units

c Societies d Trusts

12 Projects costing more than Rs._________ lakh, which do not require working capital, need clearance from the Regional Office or Controller of the Bank‘s Branch

c

a 10 b 25

c 5 d 15

13 What is the population limit for classifying as Rural under PMEGP? d

a 50000 b 25000

c 10000 d 20000

14 For classifying a industry as Village Industry in a rural area, Capital Expenditure on workshop/ workshed, machinery and furniture divided by full time employment created by the project does not exceed Rs. _____ lakh in plain areas and Rs.______lakh in hilly areas

a 2 and 5 b 1 and 2

c 1 and 1.5 d 5 and 10

15 The following is one of the activity to be covered under PMEGP Scheme. b

a Any industry/ business connected with Meat(slaughtered), i.e. processing, canning and/or serving items made of it as food, production/manufacturing

b Hotel or Dhaba without serving liquor

c plantation like Tea, Coffee d Animal Husbandry like Pisciculture, Piggery, Poultry, etc.

16 The objective of Stand up India is to facilitate Bank loans between Rs. _____ lacs to Rs. ______ lacs.

c

a 10 and 25 b 10 and 50

c 10 and 100 d 1 and 10

17 What is the target group for Stand up India? d

a SC and ST b PWD

c Women d a and c

18 What are the activities covered under Stand up India? a

a Trading, Services and Manufacturing

b Manufacturing and Services

c Manufacturing and Trade d Trade and Services

19 The following are not covered under Prime Minister Mudra Yojana Scheme? d

a Manufacturing and Services b Trade

c Overdraft upto Rs. 5000/- under PMJDY

d Farm activities

20 What is Tarun Category under Mudra Loans?

c

a Loans upto Rs. 50000/- b Above Rs. 50000/- to Rs. 5 lacs

c Above Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 10 lacs d Above Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 25 lacs


21 What is Kishore Category under Mudra Loans? b

a Loans upto Rs. 50000/- b Above Rs. 50000/- to Rs. 5 lacs

c Above Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 10 lacs d Above Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 25 lacs

22 What are the enterprises which are covered under Start up India Scheme?

a Greenfield enterprises b Manufacturing and Services

c Services d Greenfield enterprises which are engaged in b and c

23 What are the eligibility conditions for an enterprise will be classified under Startup India Scheme?

d

a Up to 5 years from establishment/incorporation.

b If its turnover for any of the financial years has not exceeded Rs. 25 crores.

c It is working towards innovation, development, deployment or commercialization of new products processes or services driven by technology.

d All of these

24 What is the rate of penal interest to be paid by the Large corporate in case of

delayed payment to MSME units?

a

a 3 times of Bank rate i.e. for payments made after 45 days

b 2 times of Bank rate i.e. for payments made after 45 days

c 3 times of Bank rate i.e. for payments made after 60 days

d 2 times of Bank rate i.e. for payments made after 60 days

25 In the case of entitites what is the eligibility condition to be covered under Stand up India Scheme?

a

a 51% of the stake should be held by SC/ST/Women entrepreneur.

b 60% of the stake should be held by SC/ST/Women entrepreneur.

c 75% of the stake should be held by SC/ST/Women entrepreneur.

d 100% of the stake should be held by SC/ST/Women entrepreneur.


GENERAL BANKING

1. Pension grievances appropriate response to be given in

A

a) Within a period of three days receipt of the grievance in case of physical dak and same day in case it is an online application

b) Within a period of seven days receipt of the grievance in case of physical dak and three days in case it is an online application

c) Within a period of ten days receipt of the grievance in case of physical dak and seven days in case it is an online application


2. Pensioners help line number B

a) 1800112211 b) 1800110009

c) 1800221188 d) 1800112233

3. Compensation for Delay- Reserve Bank of India has stipulated w.e.f. 1st October 2008 that Pension Paying Branches should compensate the pensioner @___ % fixed for any delay in crediting the pension/ arrears.

D

a) 4 b) 6

c) 10 d) 8

4. Timeline for reporting of the incident of fire to Controlling office, immediately maximum within ___ days of incident by Branch.

C

a) 4 b) 7

c) 3 d) 6

5. Verification of report of incident of fire, immediately on receipt of information / Branch report , maximum within __ days of the incident by competent authority.

B

a) 4 b) 7

c) 3 d) 6

6. Whistle Blower portal for lodging complaints by staff D

a) https://whistle.sbi.co.in b) https://whistleblowertimes.co.in

c) https://whistletimes.co.in d) https://whistleblower.sbi.co.in

7. Jeevan Pramaan‖ is an ― __________ ‖based Digital Life Certificate initiative launched by Government of India for convenience of pensioners

B

a) VoterID b) Aadhaar

c) Web d) Bank a/c

8. Near Miss Event is C

a) a market risk event b) a credit risk event

c) an operational risk event d) None of these

9. ORMD means A

a) Operational Risk Management Department

b) Operations Related Management Department

c) Operational Rural Management Department

d) Operational Research Management Department


10. A citation or certificate of merit, a specially designed memento (to be standardized) containing a suitable legend along with cash rewards ranging from Rs.5,000/- to Rs.2,00,000/-(depending on the contribution of the staff member(s) in prevention / detection/ foiling of frauds, identification of NMEs)

B

a) 5,000 to 50,000/- b) 5,000 to 2,00,000/-

c) 5,000 to 20,000/- d) 5,000 to 1,00,000/-

11. Online Fire Safety Audit, once in ____ years B

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

12. Online Electrical Safety Audit, once in ____ years B

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

13. Online Safety Audit of ATMs, once in __ year A

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

14. Online Self – Audit by BMs, once in ___ months B

a) 3 b) 6

c) 9 d) 12

15. GRPT means A

a) Group Payment Transfer b) Group Paid Transfer

c) Group Payment Transact d) Group Payment Type

16. All cases of misbehaviour to be entered in _______ under Top Priority Category

B

a) Compliant register b) CMS

c) EMS d) None of the above

17. 5 Year SCSS,2004 rate of interest C

a) 8.00 b) 8.25

c) 8.50 d) 8.75

18. PPF,1968 rate of interest A

a) 8.00 b) 8.25

c) 8.50 d) 8.75

19. Sukanya Samriddhi Account scheme rate of interest C

a) 8.00 b) 8.25

c) 8.50 d) 8.75

20. BC commission for SB a/c opening with Aadhaar as KYC

C

a) 5 b) 10

c) 15 d) 20

21. BC Commission for Opening RD Accounts (Min. Deposit Rs.50/-)

B

a) 5 b) 10

c) 15 d) 20


22. The timelines for submission of compliance remarks by Credit CPCs

B

a) 10 b) 14

c) 20 d) 26

23. The branches are authorised to issue and reload SBFTCs

C

a) On all working days except 2nd Saturday

b) On all working days except 4th saturday

c) On all working days including all working Saturdays


24. Keeping in view the nature of the Tier II account and facility of any time withdrawal, it has been decided by PFRDA not to permit contributions by _________in Tier II accounts.

B

a) Self b) Third Parties

c) Both a&b d) None of the above

25. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojna, 2016 (PMGKY) can be remitted

C

a) In Electronic Mode b) In Physical Mode

c) Both in Electronic mode and physical mode


26. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) falls under A

a) Operational Risk Management b) Market Risk Management

c) Credit Risk Management d) None of the above

27. APY means B

a) Aam Pension Yojana b) Atal Pension Yojana

c) Aadhaar Pension Yojana d) None of the above

28. SGBS means C

a) Sovereign Gold Bulk Scheme b) Social Gold Bond Scheme

c) Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme d) None of the above

29. NACH means D

a) National Additional Clearing House

b) National Alternate Clearing House

c) National Automatic Clearing House

d) National Automated Clearing House

30. Our Bank entered Unlimited License Agreement with D

a) WIPRO b) TCS

c) INFOSYS d) IBM

31. Bulk Upload file type of Outward Clearing i.e. ―OCL‖ in CBS in _________ only B

a) Lotus Format b) Hashed format

c) Word Format d) Windows format


32. If a fraud, in the account of a customer, has been committed by a member of staff,

and has been so established, the Bank will not only restore the amount, it will also

pay compensation @ ____% above the applicable interest rate in respect of

deposit/overdraft/loan account, for the period, on the amount involved.

B

a) 0.50 b) 1.00

c) 1.50 d) 2.00

33. Interest for delayed collection, where the delay is beyond 14 days , interest will be

paid at the rate applicable

C

a) PPF intt rate b) Saving Bank rate

c) for term deposit for the corresponding period or Saving Bank rate, whichever is higher.

d) SCSS intt rate

34. Cheques deposited in the drop-box upto ___ A.M. will be sent for clearance on same day

B

a) 10.30 b) 11.00

c) 11.30 d) 12.00

35. The amount of compensation for deficiencies in various categories of Banking

Services as mentioned in this Policy should be paid to the customers within 15

(fifteen) days after the deficiency is acknowledged.

C

a) 5 b) 10

c) 15 d) 20

36. The Bank would pay the compensation for delay in return of securities/documents/title deeds of the mortgaged property beyond 15 days of repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted, subject to above conditions, _________________________to the borrower

D

a) @ Rs.10/- per day (maximum Rs.500/-)

b) @ Rs.100/- per day (maximum Rs.500/-)

c) @ Rs.100/- per day (maximum Rs.500/-)

d) @ Rs.100/- per day (maximum Rs.5000/-)

37. Insurance of Bank‘s own assets A

a) National Insurance Co. Ltd b) The new india assurance Co Ltd

c) The Oriental Insurance Co Ltd d) United India Insurance Co Ltd

38. It should be ensured by the operating units that the users / UCOs in various modules of Workflow application viz. TFCPC / LCPC / DAC / CAC / RMPB are being reviewed _____________by the appropriate authority.

B


c) Half yearly d) Yearly


39. Escalation Matrix on new framework for reporting of loan frauds of _____crore and above

C

a) 10 b) 25

c) 50 d) 75

40. FIC means

A

a) Fraud Identification Committee b) Financial International Committee

c) Fraud International Committee d) Financial Inclusion Committee

41. CFMC means

B

a) Corporate Fraud Monitoring Cell b) Central Fraud Monitoring Cell

c) Central Financial Monitoring Cell d) Corporate Financial Monitoring Cell

42. ICRS means

A

a) Insurance Claim Reporting System b) Income Classification Reporting System

c) Income Claim Reporting System d) Insurance Claim Record System

43. Online Insurance Claim Reporting System (ICRS) has been launched and the same is available at the following link:

D

a) https://icrs.sbi.in b) https://icrs.sbi.co.in

c) https://icrs.statebank.co.in d) https://icrs.statebanktimes.in

44. The facilities available at Non-home branches are

C

a) Transfer of funds from one account to another internal accounts.

b) Issuance of IOI


45. Non Home branches allow cash deposit in SME segment Rs______ per day D

a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/-

c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-

46. Non Home branches allow cash payments to self for Rs ________ per day B

a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/-

c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-

47. The testing of fugitive ink must be carried out for payment of cheques for value Rs._______ and above.

A

a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/-

c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-

48. Tele-calling and getting confirmation from the drawer for suspicious cheques and all non-home cheques of Rs._______ above

D

a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/-

c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-


49. sbiINTOUCH branches, AOK+DCPK(Account opening Kiosk + Debit Card Printing Kiosk) perform following functions

C

a) Instant Account Opening with PAN Card with facilities to scan and save the documents with photo capture.

b) Printing of personalised Debit Cards(Magstripe and Chip in MasterCard, Visa and Rupay variants)


50. sbiINTOUCH branches , Remote Expert perform following functions C

a) Real time contact with experts for Savings, Loan, Investment and insurance needs.

b) Apply for products


51. sbiINTOUCH branches , Interactive Dream wall perform following functions D

a) Explore your Dream Car with content powered by Gaadi.com.

b) Explore your Dream College with content powered by HTcampus(restricted to 116 institutes).

c) Loyalty rewards and discounts. d) All of the above

52. DEAF means A

a) Depositors Education and Awareness Fund

b) Demand Education and Awareness Fund

c) Depositors Education Award Fund d) Depositors Education Area Fund

53. Transfer of Unclaimed Deposits lying in Bank‘s Account for 10 years or more to transfer to the

A

a) Deaf at RBI b) Deaf at SEBI

c) Deaf at SBI d) Deaf at IRDA

54. DAC means B

a) Document Arrival Centre b) Document Archival Centre

c) Document Archival Corporate d) Documents Award Centre

55. VVR means A

a) Voucher Verification Reports b) Verification Voucher Reports

c) Voucher Virtual Reports d) Voucher Viewing Reports

56. For recovering the over-payment made to pensioner from his future pension payment in installments ______ of net (pension + relief) payable each month may be recovered unless the pensioner concerned gives consent in writing to pay a higher instalment amount.

B

a) 1/2 b) 1/3

c) 1/4 d) 1/5

57. If the over payment cannot be recovered from the pensioner due to his death or discontinuance of pension then action has to be taken as per the _______________ given by the pensioner under the scheme.

A

a) letter of undertaking b) line of undertaking

c) lien of undertaking d) None of the above


58. FDI in Insurance sector shall be permitted up to ______% C

a) 24 b) 36

c) 49 d) 51

59. SBI- NCTD scheme A

a) Non-Callable Term Deposit b) Non- Corporate Term Deposit

c) Non-Callable Tenure Deposit d) Non- Corporate Tenure Deposit

60. Branches should ensure 100% OVVR checking on ______ basis A

a) T+1 b) T+2

c) T+3 d) T+4

61. While issuing IOIs/ Bankers‘Cheques applicant‘s which details should invariably be captured in the relevant fields in CBS.

C

a) Applicant‘s name b) Applicant‘s Complete Address


62. Retention limits of the following to be approved by branches with controllers C

a) Cash Retention Limit b) Gold Retention Limit

c) Both a& b d) None of the above

63. NRLM means A

a) National Rural Livelihoods Mission b) National Rural Liberalisation Mission

c) New Rural Livelihoods Mission d) National Real Livelihoods Mission

64. The following are sources through which we come to know about the cases of misbehavior with Customers by Bank Employee

C

a) Compliant received at Branch / Controlling Office

b) Complaint lodged in CMS


65. Migration of Non-Individual AOFs from Branches to LCPC B

a) 01.10.2016 b) 01.01.2017

c) 01.04.2017 d) 01.06.2017

66 JEEVAN PRAMAAN is A

a) Digital Life Certificate for Pensioners

b) Any Time Channel Product


67. Our Bank has introduced its initiative- a 24x7 Contact Centre, to improve customer convenience by providing ―any time anywhere services‖. The services are accessible through ____________.

C

a) 1800112211 b) 18004253800

c) Both of the above d) None of the above

68. ITRO means A

a) Income Tax Refund Order b) Internet Tax Refund Order

c) Income Turnover Refund Order d) None of the above

69. Contact Centre, accessible in ____ different languages. B

a) 10 b) 12

c) 13 d) 14


70. SBI Wealth Management Initiative

C

a) SBI Buddy b) SBI PAY

c) SBI Exclusif d) SBI ANYWHERE

71. As per RBI directives CTS will be implemented for Central Government Cheques for locations covered under CTS, _______________ will be dispensed with for Central Government Cheques in CTS w.e.f. 01.02.2016.

A

a) ―Paper To Follow‖ (P2F) b) Multicity cheques


72. ―Banker‘s Cheque outstanding for more than three years from the date of issue which have originally been issued in favour of vendors by debit to Bank‘s Charges Account shall be transferred to Charges Account‖.

B

a) Commission a/c b) Charges a/c

c) Interest a/c d) Others

73. Voucher sorting to be done _________________on daily basis. C

a) Product-wise b) Both a& c

c) Teller-wise d) None of the above.

74. Vouchers to be moved to record room, on ____ basis, after entering them in Record register.

B

a) T+1 b) T+2

c) T+3 d) T+4

75. Effective from September, 2016, RBI has introduced revised formats for reporting __________ progress on Financial Literacy activities

B


c) Half yearly d) Yearly

76. BCSBI means C

a) Banking Codes and State Board of India

b) Banking Codes and Staff Board of India

c) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India

d) Banking Correspondence and Standards Board of India

77. Variants in Corporate Salary Package D

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

78. CSP, Platinum Debit card cash withdrawal limit C

a) 40,000/- b) 50,000/-

c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-

79. eZ trade is combination of D

a) Demat b) Share trading

c) SB a/c d) All of the above

80. SME – SAHAJ current account minimum balance A

a) 1,000/- b) 5,000/-

c) 10,000/- d) 25,000/-


81. Savings Plus a/c minimum balance C

a) 500/- b) 1,000/-

c) 5,000/- d) None of the above

82. RD a/c minimum instalments in Rural centres A

a) 50/- b) 100/-

c) 200/- d) 500/-

83. SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 which segment cannot invest? C

a) Resident Individual b) Karta of HUF

c) NRI d) All of the above

84. Minimum investment tenure of SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 D



85. Lock in period in SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 C

a) 1 yr b) 2 yr

c) 5 yr d) 10 yr

86. For opening of SBI CAPGAINS PLUS Scheme which is mandatory A

a) SB a/c b) RD a/c


87. Which of the following facilities can not be provided to Cap Gains SB a/c ? C

a) Cheque book b) ATM card

c) Both a& b d) None of the above

88. The following type of a/cs can be opened under SBI Capgains Plus C

a) SB a/c b) Term Deposits ( TDR/STDR)

c) Both a & b d) Either a or b

89. In case the customer is agreeable print out of nominee name is available in CBS for which type of a/cs

C

a) SB a/c Passbook b) TDR/S TDR Receipts


90. NRIs can not invest in following type of a/c D

a) NRE b) NRO

c) FCNR d) PPF

91. Min balance in FCNR D

a) USD 100 b) USD 200

c) USD 500 d) USD 1000

92. FCNR deposits – Type of the a/c A

a) TDR/STDR b) RD

c) SB d) All of the above


93. FCNR deposits can be jointly held with

A

a) NRIs b) Resident Indians


94. A person who is a non-resident (NRI),regarding taxation which statement is correct:

D

a) Income earned from any source in India e.g. interest from investments in India, capital gains from investments and immovable property in India etc. is taxable in India.

b) Any other income earned or received in India is taxable in India.

c) Income other than the above is not taxable in India

d) All of the above

95. A person, who is resident and ordinarily resident in India (ROR), is liable to pay tax in India on his world income.

B

a) Income earned in India b) World Income


96. DTAA means

C

a) Double Treaty Avoidance Agreement

b) Double Trust Avoidance Agreement

c) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement


97. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a ten-digit alphanumeric identifier, issued by Income Tax Department

C

a) 8 b) 9

c) 10 d) 11

98. Due date of quarterly uploading of Form 15G/H declarations of quarter ending 30th June, 30th Sep and 31st Dec:

B

a) 7th day of next month b) 15th day of next month

c) 21st day of next month d) 30th day of next month

99. Failure of quarterly uploading of the 15G/H declarations will attract a penalty of Rs ____ for every day of default.

D

a) 10/- b) 20/-

c) 50/- d) 100/-

100. Our Bank is contemplating for centralisation of TDS compliance of Whole Bank level at Corporate Centre, Mumbai w.e.f 01.04.2017

A

a) 01.04.2017 b) 01.06.2017

c) 01.01.2017 d) None of the above


101. What is the min balance stipulation under Phela Kadam and Pehli Udaan? A

a) No minimum b) Rs 50/-

c) Rs 100/- d) Rs 500/-

102. If the RD a/c holder fails to pay ___ no of installments , the account should be prematurely closed and balance paid to the customer.

A

a) 3 b) 5

c) 6 d) 9

103. Restriction on credit posting by staff introduced from 02.06.2012 in their C

a) Own accounts b) Family members‘account

c) a& b d) No such restirciton

104. Nomination is defined in Section ____ of the BR act A

a) 45ZA to 45ZF b) 20

c) 24 d) None of these

105. A power of attorney executed outside India must be stamped within__ months of its receipt in India.

A

a) 3 b) 6

c) 8 d) 12


FATCA & CRS

1. What is cut-off date for classifying an account as pre-existing accounts as per

FATCA ?

A

a) 30th June 2014 b) 31st December 2014

c) 31st December 2015 d) 30th May 2014

2. What is the cut-off date for classifying an account as pre-existing accounts as per

CRS ?

C

a) 30th June 2014 b) 31st December 2014

c) 31st December 2015 d) 30th May 2014

3. What is meant by pre-existing individual accounts for FATCA & CRS ? C

a) Only SB Individual accounts exists

in bank books on or before a cutoff

date

b) All type of individual account SB,

CA, Debit balances in

DL/TL.Overdraft account, TDR,

STDR accounts exists in bank‘s

book as on before a cut-off date

c) All type of individual account SB,

CA, Credit balances in

DL/TL/Overdraft account, TDR,

STDR accounts exist in bank‘s

book as on or before a cut-off date

d) Joint individual account will not be

taken

4. In paper record search branch has to review the documentary evidences taken in

respect of KYL/AML, POA, signature authority or SI forms of high value accounts

of most recent period ? For considering most recent period the time frame for how

many years ?

D

a) 1 b) 2

c) 4 d) 5

5. For FATCA how many type of classification of account would be recognized for

monitoring purposes on the basis of cut-off dates ?

B

a) Two types of pre-existing accounts

and new accounts

b) Three types pre-existing accounts,

new accounts and on –boarding

accounts.


6. How many types of US Indicia and CRS Indicia are identified for reporting under

FATCA and CRS.

B

a) 12 each under FATCA and CRS b) 13 US Indicia for FATCA and 10

Other Indicia for CRS


c) 10 US Indicia for FATCA and 10

Other Indicia for CRS


7. What type of accounts will be part of Bucket 5 of pre-existing individual account

FATCA ?

B

a) Accounts having balances above

$1,00,000 upto $1.00 Mio with US

Indicia as on 30.06.2014

b) Accounts having balances above

$50,000 upto $1.00 Mio with US

Indicia as on 30.06.2014


8. What is account balance in high value pre-existing accounts for FATCA and in

which bucket they are kept ?

B

a) Balances above $1.00 Mio are high

value placed in bucket 5 for pre-

existing FATCA

b) Balance above $1.00 Mio are high

value placed in bucket 9 for pre-

existing FATCA


9. Bucket 6 of pre-existing individual account contains which special US Indicia ? C

a) Hold Mail instructions in US b) ―In care of‖ address in US


10. If US Indicia is for FATCA then what Indicia is for CRS ? C

a) CRS Indicia b) Indicia

c) Other Indicia d) None of the above

11. What type of documents is required to cure US Indicia ? D

a) Self certification to the effect the

account holder is neither a US

citizen nor resident for tax purpose.

b) A non-US passport or Government

issued certification evidencing

citizenship other than US & account

holder certificate of reason of loss of

US nationality

c) Self certification that citizen is not

tax resident outside India and

evidence of non reportable

d) All of the above

12. What action need to be taken by the branch when the branch has received the

documents for Bucket 5 and Bucket 6 pre-existing individual accounts but which

are not satisfying to the RM or BM of US Tax residency ?

B

a) Suitable information to be recorded in the system and make it non reportable which reclassified in Bucket 8

b) Suitable information to be recorded

in the system and make it reportable

which is reclassified in Bucket 8



13. Which of the following is true ? B

a) Only high value accounts having

US Indicia reportable

b) Both high value and low value

accounts with non curable US

Indicia are reportable

c) High value accounts whether cured

or non cured US Indicia are

reportable

d) Low value accounts with cured US

Indicia are reportable

14. What is rule of aggregation for pre-existing individual accounts in FATCA ?

C

a) Rule of aggregation means adding

up the balances in all the

connected accounts

b) Two types of aggregation possible

system aggregation & RM actual

knowledge aggregation


15. NPFI means A

a) Non-Participating Financial Institution

b) Non- Payment Financial Institution

c) Non- Participating Functional Institution

d) Non- Payment Functional Institution

16. For all accounts in Bucket _____ FATCA, branches to send a letter addressed to the customer regarding submission of self-certification / documents if the indicia shown in the electronic search is found correct as per branch record, for the purpose of curing the U.S. Indicia or treating the account as being held by a Specified US Person (US Reportable Account).

B

a) 4 & 6 b) 5 & 10

c) 5 & 9 d) 4 & 10


PER SEGMENT LIABILITY AND ASSET PRODUCTS

1. What is the margin for ―Loyalty Car Loan‖ of SBI? C

A 10% B 15%

C 0% D 5%

2. Under which facility ―Insta Home Top-Up Loan‖ can be sanctioned? B

A Term Loan B Overdraft(with reducing drawing power)

C Demand Loan D Either Overdraft or Term Loan

3. What is the minimum amount of loan under ―Insta Home Top-Up Loan‖? C

A Rs.50,000/- B Rs.2,00,000/-

C Rs.1,00,000/- D Rs.3,00,000/-

4. What is the maximum amount of loan under ―Insta Home Top-Up Loan‖? D

A Rs.50,000/- B Rs.2,00,000/-

C Rs.1,00,000/- D Rs.5,00,000/-

5. What is the minimum Home Loan limit, for which ―Insta Home Top-Up Loan‖ is available?

A

A Rs.20,00,000/- B Rs.10,00,000/-

C Rs.5,00,000/- D Rs.25,00,000/-

6. What is the minimum residual tenure of Home Loan to be remained to avail ―Insta Home Top-Up Loan‖?

A

A 5 years B 10 years

C 3 years D 4 years

7. What is the CIBIL score for getting eligibility to ―Insta Home Top-Up Loan‖? D

A CIBIL score of 600 or higher B CIBIL score of 600 or higher

C CIBIL score not required D CIBIL score of 700 or higher

8. At any point of time, how many ―Insta Home Top-Up Loans‖ will be permitted? A

A 1 B 2

C 3 D Any number

9. Loan under SBI realty can be sanctioned as A

A Either Term Loan or overdraft B Term Loan

C Demand Loan D Overdraft only

10. What is the repayment period under SBI Realty scheme? A

A 180 B 240

C 120 D 360

11. What is the maximum repayment period for loan under Sahayog Niwas scheme? a

A 180 B 240

C 120

D 360


12. ‗Rural Area‘ for the purpose of Gram Niwas scheme is the area located in any

village and in any town, but the population of which should not exceed _____ as

per census 1991.

B

A 25,000 B 50,000

C 1,00,000 C 2,00,000

13. What is the maximum eligible loan amount for professional/ self-employed under Tribal Plus Scheme?

A 2 times average Net Annual Income (NAI) for the last 3 years

B 2 times average Net Annual Income (NAI) for the last 2 years

C 3 times average Net Annual Income (NAI) for the last 3 years

D 3 times average Net Annual Income (NAI) for the last 2 years

14. Under Tribal Plus scheme, the maximum loan amount should not exceed C

A 3 lacs B 5 lacs

C 10 lacs D No maximum limit

15. What is the maximum loan amount under ―SBI Bridge Home Loan‖? D

A Rs.50 lacs B Rs.1 crore

C Rs.50 crores D Rs.2 crores

16. What is the minimum loan amount under ―SBI Bridge Home Loan‖? A

A Rs.20 lacs B Rs.1 crore

C Rs.5 lacs D Rs.5 lacs

17. What is the purpose of « SBI Bridge Home Loan ? C

A To construct bridges B To construct bridges between homes

C Loan to meet shortfall in funds for purchase a new home/flat.

D None of these

18. What is the loan tenor in SBI Bridge Home Loan ? D

A 5 years B 6 years

C 10 years D 2 years

19. What is nature of facility to be given under ―SBI Bridge Home Loan‖? A

A Term Loan only B Overdraft

C Demand Loan D Either Term Loan or Demand Loan

20. What is the maximum loan amount under ―Gram Niwas‖ for Repairs/ Renovation?

A Rs.2,00,000/- B Rs.1,00,000/-

C Rs.1,50,000/- D Rs.3,00,000/-

21. What is the maximum loan amount under ―Gram Niwas‖ for purchase of land?

B

A Rs.2,00,000/- B Rs.1,00,000/-

C Rs.1,50,000/- D Rs.3,00,000/-

22. What is the maximum quantum of finance available in ―SBI Realty Scheme‖? D

A Rs.1 crore B Rs.2 crores



23. What is the maximum permissible EMI/NMI ration for the borrower who has net annual income more than Rs.10 lac?

A

A 50% B 60%

C 40% D 55%

24. In terms of RBI instructions, what is the risk weight for a housing loan limits upto Rs.75 lacs?

B

A 60% B 50%

C 40% D 30%

25. In terms of RBI instructions, what is the risk weight for CRE Home loans? C

A 60 B 50

C 100 D 70

26 Which variant is not available under ―SBI Cap Gains Plus‖? D

A SB B STDR

C TDR D RD

27 What is the minimum amount of term deposit under ―SBI Cap Gains Plus‖? C

A Rs.1,00,000/- B Rs.10,000/-

C Rs.1,000/- D None of these

28 What is the maximum tenor of deposit under ―SBI Cap Gains Plus‖? B

A 2 years B 3 years

C 1 year D 5 years

29 Savings Bank account closing form of an illiterate depositor should be B

A No witness is required B Witnessed by an independent witness

C Witnessed by two account holders D Witnessed by the passing official

30 An interest rate concession of ______ is given to girl students.

A NIL B 0.50%

C 0.10% D 1.00%

31 Xpress Credit is sanctioned to ___________ C

A Professional & Self employed B Businessman

C Employees D All of the above

32 Under ―Xpress Credit Scheme‖, maximum EMI/NMI ratio should be as under B

A 60% B 50%

C 40% D 55%

33 What is Check-off? D

A Setting up Standing instruction in CBS

B obtaining PDC‘s and ECS from the borrower

C Getting letter of acknowledgement from the employer

D Salary disbursing officer undertakes to deduct loan installments from salary of the borrower and remits the same to the Bank for credit to the loan account.


34 Personal Accidental Insurance product of by SBI General Insurance for SB account holders between the age of

A

A 18 to 65 years of age B 18 to 70 years of age

C No age limit D 18 to 55 years of age

35. Blind / visually challenged person can open saving bank account of the following type

B

A Cheque book account B With or without cheque book account

C Without cheque book account D No single operated account

36 Under which scheme Self Help Groups are financed for on lending it to its members for Housing.

C

A Gram Niwas B Rural Housing

C Sahayog Niwas D Regular HL

37 Extension of mortgage for loan under SBI Home Top -up loan is not mandatory up to the loan amount of Rs. _________ lacs.

B

A 2 lacs B 5 lacs

C 3 lacs D 10 lacs

38 Minimum age of the borrower in Reverse Mortgage Loan is ____ Yeas and above. C



39 After creation of mortgage, creation of charge needs to be registered on the Central Registry portal within ______days of the creation of charge.

C

A 7 days B 15 days

C 30 days D 60 days

40 Minimum cash deposit permitted in Savings Bank account A

A Rs.10/- B Rs.20/-

C Rs.50/- D Rs.100/-

41 Minimum cash withdrawal permitted in Savings Bank Account C

A Rs.100/- B Rs.50/-

C Rs.500/- D Rs.200/-

42 Conditions for opening an account in sole name of minors are, Minors who can adhere to uniform signature, who understand nature of Banking Transaction and are not less than _________ years old.

B

A 8 B 10

C 12 D 18


43 The minor has to complete the below mentioned formalities on attainment of majority except:

C

A Confirm the balance in his/her account.

B Submit fresh specimen signature and photograph.

C Provide a declaration with the proof of majority for activation of the account as a major account.

D Obtain the copy of PAN Card or Form 60/61 (whichever is applicable) all Branches

44 SB Account is treated as inoperative if No transactions for a period of __ years B

A 1 year B 2 years

D 15 months D 30 months

45 How many number of withdrawals will be allowed in a month in ―Basic Savings Bank Account (Fully KYC complied account)?

C

A 10 B 5

C 4 D 3

46 Basic Saving Bank Deposit (BSBD) account to be provided with Rupay Debit cards which have an in-built accidental insurance cover upto Rs._______ lac.

A

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

47 What is the minimum threshold balance in the ―Pehala Kadam and Pehli Udaan‖ Savings Bank accounts to possible‘sweep‘ for creation fixed deposits?

B

A Rs.10000/- B Rs.20000/-

C Rs.25000/- D Rs.40000/-

48 What is the maximum amount of deposit under ―SBI Flexi Deposit Scheme‖? B

A Rs.5,00,000/- B Rs.50,000/-

C Rs.1,50,000/- D Rs.2,50,000/-

49 Expand CRGFTLIH A

A Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

B Credit Rating Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

C Counter Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

D Credit Risk General Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

50 CRGFTLIH covers home loans in A

A Urban Area B Rural Area

C Semi-Urban D All of these

51 The carpet area of the House/Flat should be upto _________ sqft to get the cover under CRGFTLIH.

C

A 630 sft B 530 sft

C 430 sft D 1030 sft


52 What is maximum quantum of finance under Earnest Money Deposit scheme?

B

A Rs.5 lacs B Rs.10 lacs


53 Who are eligible for ―SBI Shaurya Home Loan‖?

D

A Army personnel B Navy Personnel

C Air Force personnel D All of these

54 Who are the target clientele for ―SBI Privilege Home Loan‖?

D

A Employees of Central Government B Employees of State Government

C Employees of PSBs, PSUs of Central Government

D All of these

55 What is the minimum loan amount under ―SBI Privilege Home Loan‖ and ―SBI Shaurya Home Loan‖ variants?

D



56 What is the minimum loan amount under ―SBI Privilege Home Loan‖ and ―SBI Shaurya Home Loan‖ variants?

A

A Rs.50 crores B Rs.100 crores

D Rs.25 crores D No limit

57 What is the processing fee for ―SBI Privilege Home Loan‖ and ―SBI Shaurya Home Loan‖ variants?

D

A 0.10% B 0.25%

C 0.05% D Full waiver of Processing Fee

58 What is the facility to be extended to ―SBI Privilege Home Loan‖ and ―SBI Shaurya Home Loan‖ borrowers?

C

A Overdraft B Demand Loan

C Term Loan D Either Overdraft or Term Loan

59 A new personal loan variant ―Xpress Credit-NPE‖ was launched recently, NPE stands for?

C

A New Police Employees B National Postal Employees

C Non Permanent Employees D None of the above


60 What is the minimum loan amount under ―Xpress Credit-NPE‖? D

A Rs.1,00,000/- B Rs.25,000/-

C Rs.2,00,000/- D Rs.50,000/-

61 To be eligible under ―Xpress Credit-NPE‖, the employees who are Casual, Part Time and Contractual employees i.e., Non-Permanent employees should satisfy following conditions…

1)Minimum Net Monthly Income : Rs.10,000/-.The salary account should have been with our Bank for the last one year.

2) Should be working continuously in the Organisation/Institution for the last 5 Years. 3) Salary is credited in the account by the employer i.e., no cash payment of salary. 4) For contractual employee, the minimum remaining period of contact

should be 12 months from the month of Repayment Start Date.

Out of the above 4 terms and conditions which one is wrong?

B

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

62 What is the maximum loan amount under ―Xpress Credit-NPE‖ for borrowers whose NMI income is less than Rs.50,000/-?

A

A Rs.2,00,000/- B Rs.3,00,000/-

C Rs.4,00,000/- D Rs.5,00,000/-

63 What is the maximum loan amount under ―Xpress Credit-NPE‖ for borrowers whose NMI income is more than Rs.50,000/-?

D

A Rs.2,00,000/- B Rs.3,00,000/-

C Rs.4,00,000/- D Rs.5,00,000/-

64 What is the security to be taken for ―Xpress Credit-NPE‖?

C

A No additional security to be taken like in Xpress Credit

B Collateral worth the loan amount to be taken

C Third party guarantee worth the amount of loan

D None of these

65 What is the minimum loan amount under ―SBI Personal Liquid Gold Loan(OD)‖?

B

A Rs.50,000/- B Rs.20,000/-

C Rs.1,00,000/- D Rs.2,00,000/-


66 What is the minimum loan amount under ―SBI Personal Gold Loan(DL)‖? B

A Rs.50,000/- B Rs.20,000/-

C Rs.1,00,000/- D Rs.2,00,000/-

67 What is the minimum loan amount under ―SBI Gold Loan(Bullet Repayment)‖? B

A Rs.50,000/- B Rs.20,000/-

C Rs.1,00,000/- D Rs.2,00,000/-

68 In which variant of Personal Gold Loan, EMIs have been introduced? A

A SBI Personal Gold Loan(DL) B SBI Gold Loan(Bullet Repayment)

C SBI Personal Liquid Gold Loan(OD)

D None of these

69 What is the new product code for ―SBI Gold Loan(Bullet Repayment)‖? C

A 64514019 B 65512056

C 64514020 D None of these

70 What is the new product code for ―SBI Personal Gold Loan(DL)‖? A

A 64514019 B 65512056


71 What is the new product code for ―SBI Personal Liquid Gold Loan(OD)‖? B

A 64514019 B 65512056


72 What is the maximum loan limit for Government School Teachers under Xpress Credit scheme?

C

A 12 NMI B 36 NMI

C 24 NMI D 48 NMI

73 What is the maximum loan limit for Government Aided School Teachers under Xpress Credit scheme?

A

A 12 months Gross Salary B 24 months Gross Salary

C 30 months Gross Salary D 36 months Gross Salary

74 What is the maximum loan limit for employees of Rated Corporates under Xpress Credit scheme?

C

A 12 NMI B 36 NMI

C 24 NMI D 48 NMI


75 For employees of Unrated Corporates under Xpress Credit scheme, the maximum loan limit is 24 NMI, but they have comply with the certain terms and conditions, what are they?

D

A Minimum CIBIL TU score of 700 B Interest rate will be linked to CIBIL TU score of the borrower

C Regular salary credit for last 6 months

D All of these

76 What is the minimum loan limit if a Xpress Creidt Scheme sanctioned with OD facility?

C


C Rs.5 lacs D Rs.7.5 lacs

77 Which of the following document is not a valid document for complying with the KYC norms?

C

A Passport which is unexpired B Valid Driving License

C Employer issued photo identity card

D PAN card

78 As per revised instructions, how many Check offs are there in Xpress Credit? D

A 3 B 1

C 4 D 2

79 What would be the penal interest in Xpress Credit if there is an overdue of an EMI and more in repaying the dues?

A

A 2% B 1%

C 3% D 0.50%

80 What is the name of recently launched ―Wealth Management Initiative‖ of SBI? B

A SBI Inclusif B SBI Exclusif

C SBI Inclusive D SBI Exclusive

81 What is the minimum loan amount under SBI Flexipay Home Loan? A

A Rs.20,00,000 B Rs.10,00,000

C Rs.25,00,000 D Rs.15,00,000

82 What is the minimum Loan Term under SBI Flexipay Home Loan? D



83 What is the maximum Loan Term under SBI Flexipay Home Loan? C




84 What is the eligibility criteria for SBI Flexipay Home Loan? A

A All salaried applicants with minimum 2 year experience

B All salaried applicants with minimum 5 year experience

C All businessmen and self employed professionals with 3 years of experience

D All salaried, businessmen and self employed professionals with 2 year experience

85 Which of the following Home Loan variant was withdrawn? C

A Max Gain B SBI Realty

C SBI Yuva Home Loan D None of these

86 The minimum NMI under SBI Flexipay Home Loan is D

A Rs.25,000 B Rs.20,000

C Rs.30,000 D No minimum NMI limit

87 The maximum loan amount under SBI Flexipay Home Loan is B

A 1.3 times the loan quantum calculated as per the normal EMI/NMI Ratio method, subject to stipulated LTV norms

B 1.2 times the loan quantum calculated as per the normal EMI/NMI Ratio method, subject to stipulated LTV norms

C 1.4 times the loan quantum calculated as per the normal EMI/NMI Ratio method, subject to stipulated LTV norms

D 1.5 times the loan quantum calculated as per the normal EMI/NMI Ratio method, subject to stipulated LTV norms

88 The moratorium period for ready to move in properties in SBI Flexipay Home Loan is

B

A 18 months B 36 months

C 24 months D 48 months

89 While sanctioning Auto Loan to a salaried person, who submits Aadhaar number and willing to be verified under e-KYC, the minimum CIBIL cut off score will be

D

A 700 B 600

C 650 D No CIBIL cut off score

90 Sanctioning authority may consider the proposal of Auto Loan with minimum CIBIL Score _____ to the established businessmen, if following conditions are fulfilled: i)The stability of business ensured by confirming that Borrower is running the business at the present address satisfactorily for the minimum 5 years. Proof of business activity e.g. TAN/TIN/VAT/Service Tax Reg. No. etc. submitted and verified online ii)Balance sheet & P/L submitted along with ITR, are signed by CA with his/her membership number. iii)IT returns are electronically filed and status of Acknowledgement receipt (ITR-V) verified online.

A


A 600 B 700

C 650 D No CIBIL cut off score

91 What is the minimum CIBIL cut off score for Professional & Self Employed for sanctioning auto loan other than Physicians/Doctors/CA/CS/Cost Accountants/Architects?

C

A Nil B 600

C 700 D 650

92 What is meant by DPD in relation to verification of CIBIL report? A

A Days Past Due B Delays Past Deadline

C Dues Past Days D Days Past Deadline

93 ECISPL stands for B

A Equifax Credit International Services Pvt Ltd

B Equifax Credit Information Services Pvt Ltd

C Equatorial Credit International Services Pvt Ltd

D Experian Credit International Services Pvt Ltd

94 Term Loans are sanctioned by the Bank for purchase of passenger cars, Multi Utility Vehicles(MUVs) and SUVs not more than __________ years old.

C

A 2 years B 3 years

C 5 years D 4 years

95 The maximum cost of accessories should not exceed ____% of the cost of vehicle or Rs._________, whichever is less in respect to finance of ―SBI Car Loan scheme for Used Vehicles‖.

D

A 10%, Rs.50,000/- B 6%, Rs.75,000/-

C 3%, Rs.30,000/- D 5%, Rs.25,000/-

96 EMI/NMI not to exceed for Housing loan borrowers who want to avail Auto Loan and whose Net Annual Income is above Rs.10 lakhs

A

A 70% B 60%

C 50% D 80%

97 EMI/NMI not to exceed for Housing loan borrowers who want to avail Auto Loan and whose Net Annual Income is above Rs.5 lakhs and below Rs.10 lakhs

B

A 70% B 60%

C 50% D 80%

98 EMI/NMI not to exceed for Housing loan borrowers who want to avail Auto Loan and whose Net Annual Income is upto Rs.5 lakhs

C

A 70% B 60%

C 50% D 80%


99 Who can avail the Auto Loan with 100% Finance on On-Road Price (Excluding Accessories)?

D

A All Corporate Salary Package account holders

B All Non-CSP customers who are employees of Central, State Govt and PSUs only

C Professionals i.e. Doctors, Chartered Accountants, CS, Cost Accountants, Architects

D All of the above

100 What is the minimum loan limit under ―Assured Car Loan‖? C



101 In LOS if the name of the dealer in Auto Loan not appearing then C

A Add the name of the dealer locally B Inform the Branch Manager

C Inform CM Auto Loans at LHO D Infor CM Auto Loans at Corporate center

102 Credit Information Report contains repayment history upto _______ months. A

A 36 B 24

C 12 D 48

103 The USP of SBI Loyalty Car Loan scheme is D

A Low rate of interest B 100% finance

C Up to Rs.10 lakhs extension of mortgage is not required

D All of the above

104 The maximum tenure for Certified Pre-owned Car loans is D

A 7 years B 8 years – Age of the vehicle

C 5 years D B or C whichever is less

105 The minimum loan amount under ―Certified Pre-Owned Car Loan‖ is A

A Rs.1 lakh B Rs.2 lakhs


106 Previously the maximum loan amount under ―Certified Pre-Owned Car Loan‖ is Rs.15 lakhs, now it is reduced to

B


C Rs.12 lakhs D Rs.7.5 lakhs

107 The margin for ―Certified Pre-Owned Car Loan‖ is ____% of Invoice or IDV whichever is lower.

B

A 10% B 20%

C 30% D 15%


108 The NAI required for ―Certified Pre-Owned Car Loan‖ is C


C Rs.2 lakhs D Rs.1 lakh

109 What factors influence CIBIL score? D

A Overdue amount, Age of satisfactory trade

B High credit amount for all trades, Number of inquiries, Presence of severe derogatory information like suit filed, wirte-off

C Outstanding balance for delinquent trades, All levels of delinquency

D All of the above

110 The minimum loan amount under SBI Realty scheme is A



111 The maximum loan amount under SBI Realty scheme is C

A Rs.5 crores B Rs.10 crores


112 According to latest instructions regarding purpose and location of plot in SBI Realty scheme, which of the following statements are true. i) Purchase of a residential plot located within the municipal/ corporation area of Urban/Metro Centres with population of 1 lac and above as per the latest available census data for the purpose of construction of a house ii) Purchase of Plots located outside municipal/corporation area will be permitted only in cases where the plots are allotted/developed by Government Bodies/ Development Authorities such as DDA,HUDA, BDA, LDA, etc. iii) GM (Network) will be empowered to approve sanction of loans under SBI Realty Scheme in the towns with less than 1 lac population and also in the projects located outside the Municipal/ Corporation Area of the City, provided; Marketability of the plot to be financed has been assessed in case of stress in the account and in respect of layouts developed by the builders, the project is approved by the competent authority under Builder Tie Up Arrangement and the due diligence on the developer and the project has been carried out.

D

A i B i and iii only

C iii D i, ii, iii

113 Who are not eligible under SBI Max Gain scheme

C

A SME Entrepreneurs B Industrialists

C CRE Home loan borrowers D All the above are eligible


114 Minimum loan amount under SBI Max Gain scheme is A


C Rs.5 lakhs D No minimum

115 Processing fee for converting the conventional home loan (term loan) to Max Gain scheme is

B

A Rs.2000 B Rs.1000

C Rs.5000 D Rs.3000

116 Revised net monthly income (NMI) prescribed under Xpress Credit scheme is B

A Rs.10,000 B Rs.5000

C Rs.15,000 D Rs.7500

117 What Penal Interest would be charged (irrespective of loan amount) over and above the applicable interest rate on the overdue amount for the period of default in Xpress Credit?

C

A 1% B 0.50%

C 2% D 2.5%

118 A concession of Rs 250 in Processing Fees will be provided to the borrower in case the borrower provides following for sanction of Xpress Credit

D

A Aadhar Card B PAN Card

C Mobile Number D All of the above together

119 DEAF stands for A

A Depositor‘s Education and Awareness Fund

B Depositor‘s Evaluation and Awareness Fund

C Defaulters Education and Awareness Fund

D None of the above

120 According to RBI, unclaimed deposit accounts are D

A Basically inoperative accounts B With persistent inactivity

C For longer periods D All the above

121 Interest on deceased current account is applied at B

A No interest B SB interest rate

C TDR interest rate D OD interest rate

122 In a newly opened account how many cheque leaves have to be branded as new account?

C

A 20 B 50

C 10 D 15


123 Under garnishee order, Garnishee means D

A Judgement creditor B Customer of the Bank

C Bank D Debtor of the Judgement debtor

124 The minimum amount that can be accepted under TDR is D

A Rs.500 B Rs.100

C Rs.5000 D Rs.1000

125 How many nominees are allowed under Capgains Plus C

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

126 What is the maximum tenure under SBI Flexi Deposit Scheme? C


C 7 years D 8 years

127 What is the maximum deposit amount in SBI Flexi Deposit Scheme in a financial year?

B

A Rs.100000 B Rs.50000

C Rs.25000 D Rs.200000

128 What is the maximum tenure for fixed deposits created under Savings Plus account?

A


C 7 years D 3 years

129 Maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under SBI Global Ed-Vantage scheme is

C

A Rs.2crores B Rs.5crores

C Rs.1.5crores D No upper limit

130 Margin for Global Ed-Vantage loan is D

A 5% B 10%

C 15% D 20%

131 Moratorium period available in Global Ed-Vantage loan is B

A 2 years B 6 months after completion of course

C 12 months D 6 months after getting the job

132 Maximum repayment period in Global Ed-Vantage loan is A




133 CGFSEL stands for A

A Credit Guarantee Scheme for Education loans

B Credit Guarantee Scheme for Equity Loans

C Credit Guarantee Scheme for Entertainment loans

D Credit Guarantee Scheme for Energy loans

134 Can a joint account in the name of two blind persons be opened? B

A No B Yes

C Yes, if one of the person is literate D None of the above

135 Under SBI Tax Savings Scheme the maximum amount that can be accepted in a year

C

A Rs.150000 B Rs.100000

C Rs.150000 D No upper limit

136 Rent Plus (Per segment) has been merged with _______ scheme. C

A Home Top Up scheme B Mortgage loan

C Loan against Property (LAP) scheme

D SBI Realty

137 Minimum loan amount under LAP scheme is B

A Rs.500000 B Rs.1000000

C Rs.2500000 D Rs.1500000

138 What is the maximum loan amount under LAP scheme at non-BPR urban centres?

C

A Rs.7.5 crores B Rs.5 crores

C Rs.1 crore D Rs.2 crores

139 Who are the target group of Annuity deposit scheme?

C

A Salaried people B Business people

C People who get the lump sum amount from courts, Insurance companies

D Professionals

140 CRGFTLIH stands for B

A Credit Risk General Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

B Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

C Counter Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing

D Credit Rating Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing


141 CRGFTLIH covers home loans in A

A Urban area B Rural Area

C Semi-urban D All of these

142 Home Loans upto Rs. _____ lacs for construction or purchase of new or old dwelling units and extension of existing dwelling units to the borrowers in urban areas.

B

A 10 lacs B 5 lacs

C 7.5 lacs D 15 lacs

143 Safe Deposit Locker can be allotted in the name of blind / visually challenged person(s), literate or illiterate _________________

D

A Singly B Jointly

C No locker for above category of people

D Either ‗a‘ or ‗b‘

144 Nomination in respect of SB accounts can be made infavour of A

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

145 What is the purpose of identifying Inoperative Savings Bank accounts/Current Accounts?

D

A Such accounts are vulnerable to frauds

B Such accounts are safe zone for miscreants

C RBI prescribed to flag those accounts as ―INOPRTV‖

D All of these


ANY TIME CHANNELS

1. Digital Signature Certificate for online payments is available to which of the following varients of CINB?

D

a) Vyaapar b) Vistar

c) Saral d) All of the above

2. Which of the following statements is correct? B

a) E-TDR & E-STDR can be canceled only at branch

b) E-TDR & E-STDR can be canceled only in onlinesbi.com

c) TDR &STDR opened at branch can also be closed onlinesbi.com

d) E-TDR & E-STDR can be closed either at branch or onlinesbi.com

3. What is the minimum amount that customers can open E-TDR or ESTDR online? A

a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 10000

c) Rs. 100000 d) Rs. 5000

4. Now RINB customer whose PAN is not available in CBS, can request for PAN updation online, The request will land to MIT screen of CIF home branch for verification and updation to be completed within ___ days.

C

a) 3 b) 5

c) 7 d) 15

5. What is the daily limit for international fund transfer using RINB under Remxout? B

a) $ 2000 b) $5000

c) $ 8000 d) $20000

6. What is the monthly limit for international fund transfer using RINB under Remxout?

B

a) $ 8000 b) $ 20000

c) $ 100000 d) $ 240000

7. What is the yearly limit for international fund transfer using RINB under Remxout? A

a) $ 240000 b) $ 120000

c) $ 250000 d) $ 125000

8. IMPS facility is available through RINB customers is ______? D

a) During business hours of the Home branch

b) 8:00 am to 8:00 pm

c) 10:00 am to 6:00 pm d) 24/7

9. What is night limit between 8:00pm to 8:00 am for transfers under IMPS for RINB customers?

C

a) Rs. 200000 b) Rs. 100000

c) Rs. 40000 d) Rs. 20000

10. Which of the following statements is True aboutPPF Account statements in RINB? D

a) No PPF account statement can be downloaded from RINB

b) Only current financial years statement can be downloaded

c) Current financial year and previous financial year can be downloaded

d) Current financial year and previous 2 financial years can be downloaded


11. For select customers, EMI through Internet Banking and ATM card is provided on purchase transaction from which online shopping portal?

C

a) Amazon b) Snapdeal

c) Flipkart d) E-Bay

12. DD request RINB can be made to ____ Branch C

a) Home Non-home

Rs.25 lakhs

c) Both a & b d) Can not be made

13. How many DDs can Salary package customers can purchase through MIT under RINB per month?

D

a) Only 3 b) Only 5

c) Only 8 d) No limit

14. Upto what amount DDs are free for Salary package accounts under RINB? D

a) Rs. 5000 b) Rs. 50000

c) Rs. 75000 d) No limit

15. Salary package customers can change their Sweep limits _____ C

a) Only Home branch b) only RINB

c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b

16. Under e-Services of RINB, a link ―Online Locker‘ is provided to enquire the availability of locker by customer for _____

B

a) No such facility is available b) Any branch

c) Only Home branch d) Only selected branches

17. Login password for retail Internet Banking customers is mandatory to be changed after ____ days.

A

a) 180 b) 90

c) 45 d) 30

18. Buddy KYC upgrade can be done through? D

a) Only Buddy app b) Only RINB

c) Only Branch d) Both a & b

19. Virtual card can be created through ______? D

a) RINB b) Mobile Banking

c) Customer has to visit Branch d) Both a & b

20. After powerup of Buddy, what is the maximum amount that can be loaded into Buddy?

A

a) Rs. 50000 b) Rs. 100000

c) Rs. 20000 d) Rs. 10000

21. After power-up of Buddy, what is the daily limit for transactions? C

a) Rs. 15000 b) Rs. 20000

c) Rs. 50000 d) Rs. 100000

22. After power-up of Buddy, what is the monthly limit for transactions? B

a) Rs. 50000 b) Rs. 100000

c) Rs. 20000 d) No such limit

23. After power-up of Buddy, what is the monthly limit for fund transfer? A

a) Rs. 25000 b) Rs. 500000



24. Each PPK packet comprises of ____ PPKs? D

a) 25 b) 50

c) 75 d) 100

25. Each PPK Packet has a unique ___ digit number labelled on it. B

a) 3 b) 5

c) 10 d) 16

26 e-TDR/e-RD and funds transfer to own account limit has been changed from Rs __ Crore to Rs ___ Crore.

A

a) 2;1 b) 1;2

c) 2;3 d) 3;2

27 Debit card Activation can be done through ____ ? C

a) SBG ATM only b) Internet banking only

c) Either SBG ATM or Internet Banking facility

d) Neither SBG ATM or Internet Banking facility

28 In case of Retail Internet Banking, message about hidden accounts as foot note, are displayed in which of the following options of RINB?

D

a) Hidden accounts are not displayed in any page of RINB

b) account summary page

c) Payment transfer page

d) Both b & c shown as foot note

29 In case of third party Inter-bank transfers which of the following options are given as radio buttons for making funds transfers I. NEFT. II. RTGS. III. GRPT. IV. IMPS.

D

a) Only i & ii

b) Only i & iii

c) Only ii & iii

d) All i, ii, iii, iv

30 Which of the following statements is true in case of new customers? D

a) Customers will be given only view rights

b) Customers will be given only limited rights

c) Customers can be given either view or limited rights for first six months.

d) Even if branch has given view/limited rights, customers can upgrade to full transaction rights, once they have created user id, login password and profile password.

31 Customer may cancel the request of m-cash request within ___ days of creation.

C

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

32 Railway Ticket Booking through IRCTC: Maximum transactions per user/day limited to ____ in number.

B

a) 2 b) 4

c) 6 d) 8


33 What is the maximum amount that can be remitted under SBI Quick per day (per user) to the beneficiaries maintaining account in SBI or other Bank without adding them as beneficiary under ‗Profile‘ section.

C

a) 3000 b) 5000

c) 10000 d) 25000

34 An NRI can get OTP in ____.

C

a) Registered Mobile No. b) Registered e-mail id

c) Either a or b d) NRI cannot get OTP.

35 Customer can change his/her mobile No. Through ____.

D

a) Retail Internet Banking b) CBS at Branch

c) Contact centre d) All the above

36 What is the maximum amount that a customer can transfer funds under Statebank M-Cash per transaction?

D

a) Rs 5101 b) Rs 2202

c) Rs 5505 d) Rs 1101

37 What is the maximum amount that a customer can transfer funds under Statebank M-Cash per day?

B

a) Rs 5101 b) Rs. 2202

c) Rs. 2101 d) Rs. 5505

38 What is the maximum amount that a customer can transfer funds under Statebank M-Cash per month?

A

a) Rs. 5101 b) Rs. 2202

c) Rs. 5505 d) No limit

39 In case of M-Cash, Account of the remitter is debited ____ B

a) Once the transaction at the remitter is successfully done

b) Once the beneficiary claims the account.

c) Either a or b, as per the option selected by the remitter.

d) Account is debited only after 5 days from the date of transaction initiation.

40 In case of M-cash, beneficiary has to claim the amount within a maximum period of ____ days?

B

a) 3 b) 5

c) 7 d) 10

41 Beneficiary can claim money in which of the following ways under M-cash?

D

a) Branch b) StateBank M-cash app

c) Prelogin page of onlinesbi.com, in case of non customers

d) Either B or C


42 Standing Instructions created using Retail Internet banking can be created upto a maximum period of ____ months

A

a) 24 b) 12

c) 6 d) 18

43 what is the minimum threshold limit for SMS alerts for Debit/Credit Transactions? A

a) 5000 b) 50000

c) 10000 d) 1000000

44 Which of the following statements are true regarding creating overdraft through onlinesbi.com?

D

a) The Mode of Operation of TDR/STDR should be ‗Single‘.

b) The minimum residual tenor of TDR/STDR should be 6 months and above.

c) The limit for overdraft against STDR and TDR is 90% and 75% respectively and calculated OD limit against the TDR/STDR should not be below Rs. 25,000/-.

d) All of the above

45 Customers can create which of the following deposit products through internet banking?

C

a) Annuity deposit b) Flexi deposit

c) Both A & B d) None of the above

46 What is the validity period of a virtual card? B

a) 48 days b) 48 hours

c) 36 days d) 36 hours

47 NRE customers can transfer funds to international account in which of the following currencies?

DD

a) USD & GBP b) GBP & EURO

c) USD & EURO d) USD, GBP & EURO

48 What is the cooling period for for third party transfers in RINB?

B

a) 4 days b) 5 days


49 What is the maximum amount that can be transferred to third party accounts, if the third party is not activated through Branch & ATM(IRATA)?

C

a) Rs. 50000 b) Rs. 75000


50 Which of the following accounts/services can be opened through onlinesbi.com?

D

a) PMJJBY b) PMSBY

c) APY d) All the above

51. New version of state bank freedom is available on which of the following OS

D

a) IOS b) Android

c) Lynex d) Only A & B


52. In the new state bank freedom, customers should set their pass word in _____? C

a) 6 number MPIN

b) 6 Alfa/special/number MPIN

c) 6 alpha-numeric-special characters with atleast 1 alphabet and special charector as MPIN

d) MPIN is not required

53. What is the maximum amount that customers can transfer through Mobile banking to self accounts?

A

a) Rs. 99.99 lacs b) Rs. 9.99 lacs

c) Rs. 10.00 lacs d) Rs. 1.00 lacs

54 What is the transaction limit for third parties per day through Mobile Banking? C



55 What is the maximum amount that customers can transfer to third parties in a calendar month through Mobile Banking?

D


c) Rs. 10.00 lacs d) No upper ceiling, only day limit has been fixed

56 For SMS Banking & USSD: Transaction limit per customer per month is ___ B

a) Rs. 5000 b) Rs. 25000

c) Rs. 50000 d) Rs. 100000

57 What is the syntax for getting user id and MPIN in the latest version of mobile Banking?

D

a) MBSREG b) MBREGS

c) MBSREGS d) MBREG

58 In case of SMS banking, customers have to send SMS to which of the following No.?

D

a) 567676 b) 9223440000

c) 9223488888 d) All of the above except C

59 Mobile banking can be issued to which customer in case of F & S?

B

a) Can be issued to both

b) Should be issued only to the first customer

c) Cannot issued to any one d) None of the above

60 What is the maximum bill payments through Mobile Banking payment?

B

a) Rs. 5000 b) Rs. 50000

c) Rs. 10000 d) Rs. 100000

61 Which of the following services customers cannot perform through Mobile banking?

A

a) Account opening b) Merchant payment

c) Mobile top-up d) Cheque book request


62 In the latest release of the Mobile banking of State Bank, registration of which of the services needs to be done by the customer

B

a) GPS b) GPRS

c) Both a & b d) Neither A nor B

63 what is the full form of INFINET?

B

a) International Financial Network b) Indian Financial Network

c) Indian Freight & insurance Network

d) None of these

64 what is the full form of SFMS?

B

a) Structured Financial Messaging Solution

b) Structured Financial Messaging System

c) Secured Financial Messaging System

d) None of these

65 who supports SBI‘s internet Banking site?

D

a) TCS b) Wipro

c) Infosys d) Sify(Mahindra Satyam)

66 Which is not a CINB facility?

D

a) Khata b) Vyapaar

c) Vistar d) Simple

67 How many varients of CINB are available to corporate customers

A

a) 5 b) 3

c) 4 d) 8

68 What is the maximum amount that saral customers can transfer through Saral

A


c) Rs. 50.00 lacs d) Rs. 100.00 lacs

69 What is the maximum amount that Vyapar customers can transfer per transaction?

B


c) Rs. 30.00 lacs d) Rs. 100.00 lacs

70 What is the maximum amount that Vistar customers can make per transaction?

D

a) Rs. 50.00 crs b) Rs. 100.00 crs

c) Rs. 250.00 crs d) Rs. 500.00 crs

71 Which of the following users is not created by the administrator in Vistar?

C

a) User uploader b) User maker

c) Regulator d) All of the above except B


72 Which of the following users are created by the administrator in Vyapar D

a) User maker b) User authorizer

c) Regulator d) Both A & B

73 Which type of the user cannot be created in case of KhataPlus? D

a) Regulator b) Authoriser

c) Uploader d) All of the above

74 In which of the following varients, multiple users are not allowed in CINB? A

a) Saral b) Vyapaar

c) Khata plus d) Vistar

75 Which of the following varients have transactions rights?

C

a) Khata b) Khata plus

c) Saral d) All of the above

76 Monthly money identifier B

a) Monthly money identifier b) Mobile money identifier

c) Mobile monitoring identifier


77 MMID comprises of ___ characters?

B

a) 7 Alphabets b) 7 digits

c) 7 alpha numerics

d) None of these

78 IMPS is conducted by ______? D

a) RBI b) SBI

c) IMPS CORP d) NPCI

79 First ___ characters of the MMID represent the bank which provides IMPS service?

C

a) 3 b) 5

c) 4 d) 2

80 To transfer through IMPs which combination can be used?

C

a) Mobile number & Account Number

b) Mobile Number & IFSC

c) Mobile number & MMID d) None of these

81 At present which of the following services are provided through IMPS?i) IMPS Funds Transfer - Person to Person (P2P). ii) IMPS Funds Transfer through Account Number / IFSC iii) IMPS Merchant Payments.iv) National Unified USSD Platform (NUUP)

D

a) Only I &II

b) Only I, II &III

c) Only I

d) All I, II, III &IV


82 What is the full form of BBPS? A

a) Bharat bill payment system b) Broadband bill payment system

c) Board bill payment system

d) None of these

83 What is the full form of BBPOU

A

a) Bharat bill payment Operating Unit

b) Bharat bill payment Organisational Unit

c) Bharat bill payment outsourcing Unit

d) None of these

84 What is the full form of BBPCU

B

a) Bharat bill payment Centralised Unit

b) Bharat bill payment Central Unit

c) Bharat bill payment Corporate Unit

d) None of these

85 Who is the service provider of Virtual card of State Bank?

C

a) AMEX b) Rupay

c) Visa d) Master

86 What is the minimum amount that can be created through State Bank Virtual card

A

a) 500 b) 5000

c) 50000 d) 100

87 What is the maximum amount that can be created through a virtual card

B

a) 5000 Non-home

50000

c) 10000 d) No upper ceiling

88 What is the maximum amount that can be transferred through NEFT?

D


c) Rs. 10.00 lacs d) No limit

89 In case of Bank to Bank What is the minimum amount that can be transferred NEFT.

C

a) No minimum b) Rs. 50000

c) Bank to Bank transfers cannot be made through NEFT

d) None of these

90 What is the Minimum amount under RTGS transaction for customer to customer ------.

C

a) No minimum b) Rs. 1.00 lacs



91 In RTGS R 42 is a transaction between:

B

a) Customer to customer b) Bank to bank

c) Customer to bank d) Bank to customer

92 What is the minimum amount that can be transferred through RTGS between Banks under R 42?

D


c) Rs. 5.00 lacs d) No minimum amount

93 What is the minimum amount that can be loaded through Gift card and in multiples of?

A

a) Rs. 500 and multiples of Re. 1 b) Rs. 500 and multiples of Rs. 10

c) Rs. 500 and multiples of Rs. 100

d) Rs. 500 and multiples of Rs. 500

94 What is the maximum amount that can be loaded on a Gift card?

B

a) 5000 b) 50000

c) 10000 d) 100000

95 What is the validity of gift card?

B

a) 1 year b) 3 years


96 Gift card can be used at ____?

A

a) Only at POS b) Only at ATM

c) Only at GCC d) All of the above

97 What is the maximum amount that can be withdrawn at POS using ATM?

B

a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 2000

c) Rs. 5000 d) Rs. 10000

98 Digital Inspection Application is the app for which segment?

D

a) P-Segment b) SME-segment

c) Agri-segment d) All of the above

99 What is the alternate method to physical movement of cheques?

A

a) Cheque truncation system b) MICR

c) Short collection d) None of these

100 Images under cheque truncation system should be preserved for ____ years?

C

a) 3 b) 5

c) 8 d) 16


101 What is the full form of ASBA?

B

a) Applications Supported by Bank Account

b) Applications Supported by Blocked Amount

c) Amount Supported by Bank Account

d) None of these

102 Transactions can be done with which of the following accounts while investing through ASBA

D

a) SB account b) Current account with credit balance

c) Overdraft account d) All of these

103 What is the maximum amount that a customer can invest through ASBA in the individual capacity?

C



104 What is the minimum amount that a customer can withdraw through Gold Debit card at ATM?

D

a) Rs. 40000 b) Rs. 200000

c) Rs. 500 d) Rs. 100

105 What is the validity of the classic debit card?

A



106 What is the maximum limit per day of Cash withdrawal through classic debit card at ATMS in Rs.?

A

a) 40000 b) 50000

c) 75000 d) 100000

107 What is the maximum limit per day of cash withdrawal through Gold Debit card at ATMs in Rs.?

C

a) 100000 b) 200000

c) 50000 d) 40000

108 What is the maximum limit per day for cash withdrawal through platinum debit card?

B

a) 50000 b) 100000

c) 40000 d) 75000

109 What is the maximum limit per day of cash withdrawal through Global Debit card at ATMs?

C

a) 75000 b) 50000

c) 40000 d) 20000


110 Blocking an ATM card immediately is known as B

a) White listing b) Hot listing

c) Black listing d) Barring

111 What is the maximum limit per day withdrawal limit in an ATM under SME Sahaj? D

a) 50000 b) 40000

c) 30000 d) 15000

112 The Personal Accidental death cover for Platinum ATM cum Debit card holder is Rs-----

D

a) 100000 b) 200000

c) 300000 d) 500000

113 What is the maximum limit per day of purchases through classic debit card at POS?

B

a) 40000 b) 50000

c) 75000 d) 100000

114 What is the maximum limit per day of purchases through global debit card at POS?

A

a) 75000 b) 50000

c) 100000 d) 200000

115 What is the maximum limit per day of purchases through Gold debit card at POS? D

a) 200000 b) 100000

c) 75000 d) 50000

116 What is the maximum limit per day of purchases through Platinum debit card at POS?

A

a) 200000 b) 100000

c) 75000 d) 50000

117 The Personal Accidental death cover for Gold ATM cum Debit card holder is Rs---- C

a) 500000 b) 250000

c) 200000 d) 100000

118 What is the amount for which purchase protection is provided for Gold card debited?

C

a) Entire amount of purchases on a day

b) 50000

c) 5000 d) 10000

119 What is the amount for which purchase protection is provided for Gold debit card?

B

a) 500000 b) 50000

c) 5000 d) 1000

120 Maximum deposit that can be made through CDM using SBI SME insta deposit card is

B

a) Rs. 49900 b) Rs. 2.00 lacs



121 Which of the following is true while issuing ATM cards to Joint Account holders ?

D

a) Debit cards can be issued to either or both in the case of E or S accounts

b) Debit card can be issued only to the Former, in the case of F or S accounts

c) Debit card can be issued only to the Latter in the case of L or S accounts

d) All the above

122 For Mobile Banking Services SBI has a tie-up with

A

a) Spanco Tele systems and solution Ltd.

b) Airtel

c) Tata Telecom

d) None of these

123 In Transactions done at Merchants on SBI POS machines ―On Us Txn‖ means

A

a) Card used for transactions is of State Bank

b) Card used is not of State Bank

c) Either I or ii

d) None of these

124 In Transactions done at Merchants on SBI POS machines ―Off Us Txn‖ means

B

a) Card used for transactions is of State Bank

b) Card used is not of State Bank

c) Either I or ii

d) None of these

125 MSF in Merchant Acquiring business means?

B

a) Marginal service fee b) Merchant service fee

c) Moderate service fee

d) Minimum service fee


ASSET BACKED LOAN

1. What is the LTV ratio to be maintained under ABL d

a) 60% of realizable value for loans upto Rs.10 Crores

b) 50% of realizable value for loans above Rs.10 crs

c) A & B d) 50% of realizable value.

2. Minimum Loan amount that can be sanctioned under ABL. b



3. Maximum Loan amount that can be sanctioned under ABL c

a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.12 Crores

c) Rs.15 Crores d) Rs.20 Crores

4. Which of the following features are withdrawn in the revised ABL scheme a

a) Restitution facility b) Conversion of existing loans

c) Interest rate concession d) Pre-payment penalty

5. What is the prepayment penalty for ABL. c

a) 1% of drawing power b) 1% of Limit

c) 2% of drawing power d) 2% of limit

6. What Is the Hurdle rating for sanction of ABL. b

a) SB-7 b) SB-8

c) SB-9 d) SB-10

7. Minimum cash margin recovered for NFB facility d

a) 10% b) 15%

c) 20% d) 25%

8. Which of the following is the not a criteria for takeover of loans under ABL. c

a) SMA‘s should not be taken over b) Restructured/CDR/JLF should not be takenover

c) CRA rating of SB-9 or better d) Takeover of loans from associates not permitted.

9. Which of the following properties can be accepted as collateral under ABL. d

a) Industrial Property b) Social infrastructure

c) SEZ property d) None of the above.

10. While accepting lease property as collateral under ABL which is not correct. d

a) Lease period should be more than 30 years

b) Provision for renewal of lease

c) Property leased by lessee d) Property leased by lessor

11 If the account becomes NPA, which of the following items to be followed d

a) Initiation of legal options i.e. SARFAESI/ DRT/ Court

b) Efforts may be to sell the loan to other Banks/ ARCs

c) Migrate/ transfer the account to SAMB/ SAMG

d) All of the above


12 As part of Exit policy for Standard Assets under ABL after how many days of irregularity the interest benefit has to be withdrawn under ABL.

a



13 As part of Exit policy for Standard Assets under ABL, which of the following steps is not part of the policy

d

a) Ensure charging penal interest as per product features, without fail

b) LCs/BGs will be issued against 100% margin only.

c) Interest benefit to be withdrawn and pricing as per CRA rating to charged if not regularized within 15 days.

d) Freeze operations in the account.

14

As part of Exit Policy for Standard Assets under ABL, who is the authority to approve the not to go for Exit Option.

c

a) Deputy General Manager (B&O) b) Deputy General Manager & CCO

c) General Manager (NW) d) Chief General Manager.

CGTMSE

1 What is the rate at which MLIs have to pay to CGTMSE for delay in remitting recovering after settelement.

d

a) Bank Rate b) 2% above Bank Rate

c) 3% above Bank Rate d) 4% above Bank Rate

2 What are the facilities covered under CGS of CGTMSE d

a) Upto 50 lakhs for RRBs b) Upto 200 lakhs for FIs

c) No Collateral/Third Party loans d) All the above

3 What is the maximum extent of guarantee for Micro upto Rs.5 lakhs c

a) 85% of default amount b) 50% of default amount max Rs.100 lakh

c) 85% of default amount max Rs.4.25 lakhs

d) 75% of default amount max Rs. 37.50 lakh

4 What is the maximum extent of guarantee for Micro above Rs.5 lakhs upto 50 lakhs d




5 What is the maximum extent of guarantee for Micro above Rs.50 lakhs upto Rs.200 lakh

b





6 What is the maximum extent of guarantee for Women entrepreneurs located in North East upto Rs.5 lakhs

a

a) 80% of default amount max of Rs. 40 lakh

b) 50% of default amount max Rs.100 lakh



7 What is the maximum extent of guarantee for other than micro/women enterprenuers

d

a) 80% of default amount max of Rs. 40 lakh

b) 50% of default amount max Rs.100 lakh



8 What is the cut of date of sanction for the loans to be covered under CGS d

a) Before 31.12.16 b) On or After 31.12.16

c) Before 01.01.17 d) On or After 01.01.2017

9 The CGS coverage under CGTMSE is applicable for c

a) 100 lakhs working capital loans b) 100 lakhs for term loans

c) 200 lakhs for WC & TL d) None of the above

10 The risk premium applicable for current year under CGS is c

a) 5% above standard rate b) 10% above standard rate

c) 15% above standard rate d) 20% above standard rate

11 What is the upfront guarantee fee for limits upto 5 lakh in other than North east areas

c

a) 0.50% b) 0.75%

c) 1.00% d) 1.50%

12 What is the upfront guarantee fee for limits above 5 lakh to 50 lakh in other than North east areas

d

a) 0.50% b) 0.75%

c) 1.00% d) 1.50%

13 What is the upfront guarantee fee for limits above 50 lakh to 200 lakh in other than North east areas

d

a) 0.50% b) 0.75%

c) 1.00% d) 1.50%

14 What is the annual service fee for limits of 5 lakh to 200 lakh b

a) 0.50% b) 0.75%

c) 1.00% d) 1.50%

15 What is the annual service fee for limits upto 5 lakh a

a) 0.50% b) 0.75%

c) 1.00% d) 1.50%

16 What is the standard rate of Annual Guarantee Fee women, micro enterprise and units in North East for limits upto 5 lakh

a

a) 0.75% b) 0.85%

c) 1.00% d) Not Applicable.


17 What is the standard rate of Annual Guarantee Fee women, micro enterprise and units in North East for limits above 5 lakh to Rs.200 lakh

b

a) 0.75% b) 0.85%


18 What is the standard rate of Annual Guarantee Fee for other than women, micro and units in North East.

c

a) 0.75% b) 0.85%


19 Annual Guarantee Fee for Cash Credit Limit and Term Loan upto 50 lakhs shall be borne by

a

a) Borrower b) Bank

c) First year by Borrower d) First year by Bank

20 Annual Guarantee Fee for Cash Credit Limit and Term Loan above 50 lakhs shall be borne by

b

a) Borrower b) Bank

c) First year by Borrower d) First year by Bank

21 In which of the following cases CGTMSE claim will be paid d

a) Legal Action not initiated after expiry of claim lodgement date

b) Late payment of ASF amount

c) Claim not lodged online within the specified time frame


22 In which of the following cases CGTMSE claim will be paid d

a) Material date before guarantee start date

b) Internal rating not marked in CGTMSE

c) Ineligible activity d) None of the above

23 What is the time period for submission of CGTMSE application in portal d

a) Within 90 days of sanction b) Before end of quarter of loan sanction date

c) Within 120 days of sanction d) Before end of subsequent quarter of loan sanction date

24 What is the time line before which Annaul Guarantee Fee has to be paid b

a) 15 days from demand b) 30 days from demand

c) 45 days from demand d) 60 days from demand

25 What is lock in period in CGTMSE d

a) 18 months from date of last disbursement

b) 18 months from date of issuance of guarantee cover

c) a or b which ever is earlier d) a or b which ever is later

26 For loans sanctioned prior to 01.01.2013 and NPA date is before lock in period, what is the cut off date for invoking guarantee under CGTMSE

b

a) One year from date of NPA b) One year from date of lock-in-period

c) a or b which ever is earlier d) None of the above


27 For loans sanctioned prior to 01.01.2013 and NPA date is after lock in period, what is the cut off date for invoking guarantee under CGTMSE

a

a) One year from date of NPA b) One year from date of lock-in-period


28 For loans sanctioned on or after 01.01.2013 and NPA date is before lock in period, what is the cut off date for invoking guarantee under CGTMSE

b

a) Two year from date of NPA b) Two year from date of lock-in-period


29 For loans sanctioned on or after 01.01.2013 and NPA date is after lock in period, what is the cut off date for invoking guarantee under CGTMSE

a

a) Two year from date of NPA b) Two year from date of lock-in-period


30 Before lodging CGTMSE claim which have of the following are necessary regarding legal action

d

a) Recalled notice served b) Legal action initiated above 50000/-

c) Approval for waiver of legal action obtained if loan above 50000/-

d) All of the above

31 In CGTMSE claim settlement stages which is not correct d

a) 75% of the guarantee portion will be paid with in 30 days of receipt of complete information

b) Any sale proceeds to be credited to trust account before 25% of remaining claims.

c) Balance 25% will be paid after conlusion of recovery proceedings are 3 years after decree


32 Which of the following items are required for settlement of claims d

a) Claim form to be filled in in full b) Submission of declaration and undertaking & mandate form

c) Claim to be submitted online d) All of these

33 Which of the following is incorrect while obtaining CGTMSE guarantee cover d

a) Credit guarantee amount is to be entered in Rupees (not in lakhs)

b) Tenure of the loan to be entered in Months (not in years/quarters)

c) All payments to be routed through ZO of the concerned MLIs only.



COMMODITY BACKED WAREHOUSE RECEIPT FINANCE

1 What is RDL in WHR finance b

a) Revised Demand Loan b) Revolving Demand Loan

c) Recurring Deposit Loan d) None of the above

2 Which of the following items is not correct for WHR finance d

a) Finance to traders b) Finance to manufacturers for own processing

c) Against WHR receipts issued by collateral Managers and CWC/ SWC


3 SBI has tied with which of the following collateral managers for WHR finance d

a) NBHC b) NCML

c) Star Agri d) All of these

4 Which of the following type of facilities not available under WHR finance d

a) Demand Loan b) Cash credit 1 cr and above

c) Working capital demand loan d) None of the above

5 Interchangeability between DL and CC is permitted in WHR finance a

a) Yes b) No

6 Which of the following items is not correct inrespect of revised WHR finance d

a) Revolving Demand Loan introduced

b) Minimum support price is delinked

c) Processing charges introduced for WCDL.

d) All of these

7 Which of the following items is correct regarding margin in WHR finance d

a) 25% of market price under tieup for WCDL/ RDL

b) 30% of market share for CWC/SWC for WCDL/RDL

c) 35% of market share under tie-up with for cash credit

d) All of these

8 What is the repayment period for WHR finance d

a) CC 3 months b) TL 6 months

c) a or b which ever is earlier d) 12 months

9 What is the cure period in WHR finance in respect of 10% or more change in market value

A

a) 3 working days b) 7 working days

c) 10 working days d) 15 working days.

10 What is the repayment period for WHR finance d

a) CC 3 months b) TL 6 months

c) a or b which ever is earlier d) 12 months


RENEWAL OF LIMITS

1 What is the minimum working capital limits to be sanctioned as per projected annual turnover method upto 5 crores

c

a) 15% of projected annual turnover

b) 20% of projected annual turnover

c) 25% of projected annual turnover

d) 31.25% of projected annual turnover

2 For Sanction/Renewal of limits, Audited Balance Sheet upto ______ months old can be accepted

b

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

3 Early Sanction Review is applicable from accounts of ____ exposure c

a) 50 lakhs b) 1 crores

c) 5 crores d) 10 crores

SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS

1 Simplified small business loans is sanctioned in which of the following facility a

a) Drop line overdraft facility b) Demand Loan

c) Term Loan d) WCDL

2 Which of the following are required for Simplified small business loans d

a) Existing business for at least 5 years

b) Current account at any bank for atleast 2 years

c) Minimum average balance of Rs.1 lakh in last 12 months

d) All of the these

3 How is limit arrived in Simplified Small Business Loans d

a) 5 times Average monthly balance min 5 lakhs

b) 10 times average monthly balance above 10 lakhs

15 times average monthly balance max 25 lakhs

d) 10 times average monthly balance above 10 lakhs and below 25 lakhs

4 What is the minimum collateral security required under Simplified Small Business Loans

b

a) 25% of limit b) 40% of limit

c) 75% of limit d) 100% of limit

5 What is the margin required under Simplified small business loans b

a) 5% b) 10%

c) 15% d) 20%

6 What is the cut of score under simplified small business loan b

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 65%

7 What is the maximum period for which limits are sanctioned under Simplified Small Business Loans

c


a) 1 year b) 4 years


8 What is the prepayment penalty in Simplified Small Business Loans d

a) 1% of amount prepared b) 2% of the limit

c) 2% of amount prepared d) No penalty

9 Which of the following is not USP of Simplified Small Business Loans b

a) No financial Statements b) No Stock Statement

c) No Renewal of limits d) Unified service charges

10 What is the periodicity in which stock statement has to be submitted under SSBL c

a) No Stock statement required b) Monthly

c) Quarterly d) Once Annually preferably Feb

LOAN TO BUSINESS CORRESPONDENTS

1 Which of the following are not covered under the loan to business correspondents d

a) Business Correspondents b) Kiosk Operators

c) Customer Service Point d) None of the above

2 What is maximum eligible loan amount under Loan to Business Correspondents d

a) Rs.1.00 lakh b) Rs.1.50 lakh

c) Rs.2.00 lakh d) Rs.2.50 lakh

3 Which of the following facilities are not permitted under the loan to business correspondents

d

a) Overdraft b) Demand Loan

c) Term Loan d) WCDL

4 What is the margin prescribed under loan to business correspondents A

a) Nil b) 5%

c) 10% d) 20%

5 What is quantum of loan under loan to business correspondents b

a) 3 times average monthly commission

b) 6 times average monthly commission

c) 9 times average monthly commission

d) 12 times average monthly commission

6 What is the repayment schedule for loan to business correspondents d

a) 12 months for overdraft b) 36 EMIs for DL

c) 60 EMIs for TL d) All of the above

7 What are the eligibility conditions under loan to business correspondents d

a) Should have been associated with SBI for 1 year

b) Should be resident in the area for more than 3 years

c) Age of the borrower should be 18 – 60 years

d) All of the above


STAND UP INDIA

1 The loans under Stand Up India are provided to Greenfield enterprise for d

a) Schedule caste b) Schedule Tribe

c) Women enterprenuer d) All of the above

2 The minimum loan amount under Stand up India d

a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.1 lakhs


3 The maximum loan amount under Stand up India d



4 Which of the following is the campaign lauched by SBI for Stand up India d

a) Supter Sitara b) Nivesh Tara

c) Bachat Tara d) Udyami Tara

5 Which of the following facilities are not available available under SUI d

a) Cash Credit b) Term Loan

c) Letters of Credit d) WCDL

6 What is the lock in period for SUI under Credit Guarantee Scheme. d

a) No lock in period b) 6 months


7 The guarantee fee under CGSSUI has to be paid with in ______ days from end of quarter of sanction/ renew of loan

b



8 Coverage available under CGSSUI for loans upto 50 lakhs is d

a) 50% b) 65%

c) 75% d) 80%

9 Coverage available under CGSSUI for loans above 50 lakhs to 100 lakhs is c

a) 50% b) 80% upto 50 lakhs

c) 50% from 50 lakhs to 100 lakhs d) 65 lakhs

10 Maximum amount of guarantee cover available under CGSSUI c



11 The guarantee can be invoked before expirty _____ months from the date of NPA d

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

12 Which of the following is not mandatory for invoking guarantee under CGSSUI

d

a) Lock in period of 18 months b) Guarantee should be in force

c) Legal action initiated d) None of the above

13 What is the guarantee amount will be paid by CGSSUI. b


a) 50% with 30 days of claim b) 75% with 30 days of claim

c) 50% with 15 days of claim d) 75% with 15 days of claim

14 What is the penalty will be levied if there are serious irregularities in the claim d

a) 1% above bank rate b) 2% above bank rate

c) 3% above bank rate d) 4% above bank rate

15 Which of the following is correct under SUI c

a) Collateral security can be obtained

b) Personal Guarantee can be obtained

c) Land is collateral if part of project cost

d) Waiver of guarantee fee to CGTMSE

16 The maximum amount of coverage available under CGSSUI for 50 lakhs loan is d



17 In a partnership firm what is the minimum share to be held in the name of women to be eligible under SUI

c

a) 25% b) 35%

c) 51% d) 75%

18 The portal for Standup India provide for d

a) Handholding support b) Loan from Banks

c) Guarantee support for collateral free loans

d) All of the above

19 The maximum amount of coverage available under CGSSUI for 50 lakhs loan is

d



20 What is the maximum moratorium period permissible under SUI c



21 What is the minimum margin required under SUI c

a) No margin b) 5%

c) 10% d) 25%

22 What is the minimum margin required under SUI for composite loan d

a) No margin b) 5%

c) 10% d) 25%

23 To apply for loan under SUI, the following are to be used

d

a) At any Bank Branch b) Through SIDBIs Stand up India Portal

c) Lead District Manager LDM d) All of the above


24 Training for the borrower under SUI are provided by

d

a) SIDBI b) NABARD

c) Stand Up India Connect Centres

d) All of the above

25 The term loan under SUI can be provided for a maximum period of

c



26 The scheme for Credit Guarantee for loans under Stand up India to be notified with d

a) www.standupmitra.org b) www.ncgtc.in

c) www.sidbi.org d) Need not be notified.

TAKEOVER NORMS – SME

1 For loans to takeover for exposures from Rs.25 lakhs to less than 10 crores, the hurdle CRA rating is

c

a) SB-5 b) SB-6

c) SB-7 d) SB-9

2 For loans to takeover for exposures above 10 crores and upto 50 crores, the hurdle CRA rating is where ECR is available

d

a) SB-5 b) SB-6

c) SB-7 d) SB-9

3 For loans to takeover for exposures above 10 crores and upto 50 crores, the ECR should be minimum

c

a) BB- b) BB

c) BBB d) BBB+

4 For loans to takeover for exposures above 50 crores, the hurdle CRA rating is where ECR is not available

a

a) SB-5 b) SB-6

c) SB-7 d) SB-9

5 For loans to takeover for exposures above 50 crores, the hurdle CRA rating is where ECR is available

d

a) SB-5 b) SB-6

c) SB-7 d) SB-9

6 For loans to takeover for exposures above 50 crores, the ECR should be minimum d

a) BB- b) BB

c) BBB d) BBB+

7 Which of the following accounts are not permitted for takeover d

a) Account classified as SMA-2 and above

b) Name of promoters/directors/ guarantors appearing in defaulters list

c) CDR/ OTS approved account d) All of the above

http://www.standupmitra.org/

http://www.ncgtc.in/

http://www.sidbi.org/


8 Which of the following accounts are required for takeover d

a) Credit information report to be obtained before disbursement

b) No statutory dues outstanding undertaking from auditor

c) TL not restructured in the preceeding two years

d) All of the above

9 Which of the following accounts are required for takeover d

a) Creation of mortgage should be completed prior to 90 days

b) Minimum score to be obtained in each parameter viz Business, Financial and Management risk

c) No dilution in existing security d) All of the above

10 Account having commercial operations of _____ months are only permitted for takeover

d

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

11 Infrastructure project accounts having commercial operations of _____ months are only permitted for takeover

b

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

12 The units should have ______ years of earning profits to be eligible for takeover d

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

13 Infrastructure project accounts units should have ______ years of earning profits to be eligible for takeover

b

a) 6 b) 12

c) 18 d) 24

14 Stock audit to be conducted for accounts having exposure of ______ crores prior to takeover

c

a) 1 b) 3

c) 5 d) 20

15 Stock audit is exempted to be conducted for accounts having ECR for takeover d

a) BB+ b) BBB

c) BBB+ d) A-

16 At the time of takeover _____% of enhancement of existing limits is only permitted c

a) 5 b) 10

c) 15 d) 30

17 Stock audit to be conducted for accounts having exposure of ______ crores prior to takeover

c

a) 1 b) 3

c) 5 d) 20


18 Takeover are applicable even if the borrower closes the account with existing bankers upto ______ months

c

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

19 Takeover norms are not applicable for the following facilities d

a) Lease Rental Discounting b) Asset Back Loan

c) e-DFS d) All of the above

20 Accounts takeover are to be reviewed in _________ months b

a) 3 b) 6

c) 9 d) 12

21 Accounts takeover are to be reviewed in _________ months b

a) 3 b) 6

c) 9 d) 12

TRADE FINANCE

1 Import Export Code IEC is issued by a

a) DGFT b) FEDAI

c) RBI d) MINISTRY OF FINANCE

2 The Act governing all forex currency transactions in India: a

a) FEMA b) RBI

c) FERA d) SBI

3 International Chamber of Commerce‘s UCPDC stands for: d

a) Uniform Customs and Procedures for Documentary Credits

b) Uniform Customs and Practices for Documentary Clearance

c) Uniform Customs Procedures for Documentary Clearance

d) Uniform Customs and Practices for Documentary Credits

4 Proof for physical import of goods is: a

a) Bill of entry b) Bill of exchange

c) GR form d) Bill of Lading

5 SOFTEX indicates c

a) Import of software in non-physical form from abroad

b) Export of all computer equipment from India

c) Export of software in non-physical form from India

d) Import of all computer equipment into India

6 DGFT stands for: d

a) Director General of Film and Trade

b) Director General of Finance and Trade

c) Director General of Foreign Transactions

d) Director General of Foreign Trade


7 Exchange Earner‘s Foreign Currency Account can be opened for: c

a) Beneficiaries of inward remittances in convertible foreign currencies

b) Exporters of goods and services

c) Both a and c d) None of these

8 Standby credit is Documentary credit under which an issuing bank is liable to pay only when:

a

a) There is default of the Applicant/ Buyer

b) All the shipping documents (Bill of Lading, Insurance, Invoice,etc.) are submitted

c) Both of these d) None of these

9 An agreement to sell or buy currency at the current exchange rate is known as: c

a) Hedging b) Option

c) Spot transaction d) Forward transaction

10 In a Letter of Credit transaction, ―Beneficiary‖ is the: b

a) Importer / Buyer b) Exporter / Seller

c) Importer / Buyer‘s bank d) Exporter / Buyer‘s bank

11 In a Letter of Credit transaction, ― Applicant‖ is the: a

a) Importer / Buyer b) Exporter / Seller

c) Importer / Buyer‘s bank d) Exporter / Buyer‘s bank

12 SWIFT stands for d

a) Society for Wireless Inter Bank Financial Telecommunication

b) Software for Worldwide Inter Bank Financial Telecommunication

c) Society for Wireless Inter Bank Financial Transaction

d) Society for Worldwide Inter Bank Financial Telecommunication

13 Pre-shipment finance is credit granted to the exporters to d

a) Procure raw materials b) Provide a secure warehouse for goods

c) Ship the goods to the buyers d) All of these

14 The Packing credit period normally should not exceed d

a) 360 days b) 3 years


15 Post shipment finance is provided against evidence of c

a) Production by the Exporter b) Acceptance of goods by the importer

c) Shipment of goods d) All of these


16 The simultaneous buying and selling of Forex positions to square off the exposed position is :

c

a) Asking b) Bidding

c) Hedging d) Forward contract

17 Forfaiting is: c

a) Management of Receivables b) Forefeiture of shares by a company when a shareholder fails to pay the call money

c) Discounting of Export receivables with or without recourse to the exporter

d) Seizure of contraband goods by the Customs

18 _______contract is an obligatory contract to deliver or receive certain quantity of foreign currency at a specified rate and on a stipulated date.

b

a) Ask b) Forward

c) Bid d) Option

19 __________form is used for declaring that money earned through exports is coming into the country.

b

a) Bill of Entry b) GR

c) A2 d) A4

20 Which one is correct?

.All

a) Tender bonds offer the buyers, security against dubious or unqualified bids

b) A Performance bond covers costs of non performance

c) An APG binds the supplier to use the advance payment for the contracted purpose

d) Standby letter of credit is issued subject to UCPDC or ISP issued by the ICC

21 Co-acceptance: Which one correct?

d

a) Means of non fund based import finance

b) BOE drawn by the exporter on the importer is co-accepted by a bank

c) Cheaper since commission is applicable after shipment has taken placefrom the exporter‘s end

d) All of these

22. Incoterms are defined by :

b

a) World Trade Organization (WTO)

b) International Chambers of Commerce (ICC)

c) Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)

d) Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India (FEDAI)


23 As per Incoterms EXW , which one is NOT correct :

d

a) Under this shipping term the seller provides the goods for collection by the buyer at the seller‘s own premises

b) The buyer arranges insurance against damage to the goods in transit

c) This term requires the least effort by the seller, but should not be used where the buyer cannot carry out export formalities

d) All are correct.

24 ‗In this type of payment transaction, all shipping documents, including title documents, are handled directly by the trading parties. The role of banks is limited to clearing funds as required‘. This statement is true for :

a

a) Clean payments b) Bills for Collection

c) Documentary Credit d) None of these

25 If payment is to be made at the time when documents are presented, this is referred to as a ……………………. Letter of Credit

d

a) Usance b) Confirmed

c) Irrevocable d) Sight

26 In a LC transaction, the confirming Bank : b

a) Gives a written undertaking on behalf of its customer, the Importer, promising to effect payment in favour of the Exporter up to a stated sum of money, within a prescribed time limit and against stipulated documents.

b) Adds its guarantee to the Credit opened by another bank, thereby undertaking the responsibility of payment/negotiation/acceptance under the credit, in addition to that of the Issuing Bank

c) Advises the Credit to the Beneficiary, thereby assuring the genuineness of the Credit

d) It is normally situated in the country/place of Beneficiary is the bank authorized to honor the reimbursement claim in settlement of negotiation/acceptance/payment lodged with it by the negotiating bank

27 In a LC transaction, the Bank that is authorized to honor the payment claim in settlement of negotiation/acceptance/payment lodged with it by the negotiating bank is :

d

a) Advising Bank

b) Confirming Bank


c) Issuing Bank d) Reimbursing Bank

28 In Documentary Collection, The role of the collecting bank is : d

a) Act as the Remitting Bank‘s agent

b) Present the bill to the buyer for payment/acceptance

c) Remit the proceeds of the bill according to the Remitting Bank‘s schedule instructions, usually less any charges

d) All of the above

29 Which of these is not true for a Bill of Lading

d

a) It is a document of title b) It is issued by the shipping company

c) It is a valid evidence for possible insurance claim

d) It must contain the value of the goods

30 Which of the following is NOT correct w.r.t. a Commercial Invoice : a

a) It is a document of title b) It is issued by the beneficiary named in the credit

c) It is a statement of payment due

d) It describes the goods shipped and lists the price together with details as agreed between the buyer and seller

31 Which of the following is true w.r.t. a Bill of Exchange :

d

a) This is a demand for payment issued by the exporter (drawer) to the importer (drawee)

b) In the case of documentary credits the drawee is usually the DC opening bank

c) It is an unconditional order in writing

d) All of the above are true

32 Pre-shipment finance can be extended in : d

a) Indian currency only b) Foreign currency only

c) Either Indian Currency or Foreign currency, but only one currency per transaction

d) Can be extended in more than one currency

33 Post shipment finance : a

a) Can be upto 100% of the value of the goods

b) Where the domestic value of the goods exceeds the value of the export order or the invoice value, finance for the price difference can be extended even if such price difference is NOT covered by receivables from the Government

c) Both (a) & (b) above d) None of the above


34 This is a financial arrangement whereby a financial institution in the exporting country, or another country, extends a loan directly or indirectly to a foreign importer to finance the purchase of goods and services from the exporting country.‖ What are we referring to here?

b

a) Suppler‘s Credit b) Buyer‘s Credit

c) Direct Collection d) Letter of Credit

35 ―This is a financing arrangement under which an exporter extends credit to the buyer in the importing country to finance the buyer‘s purchases‖. What are we referring to here?

a

a) Supplier‘s Credit b) Buyer‘s Credit

c) Direct Collection d) Letter of Credit

36. For a exporter, which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with ‗Forfaiting‘ a

a) Lower cost of production b) Improved cash flow

c) Reduced administration cost d) Advance tax refund on exports

37 Which of the following services do NOT fall within the scope of a Factoring arrangement :

a

a) Advance financing for purchase of raw material for fulfilling the sales order

b) Maintenance of accounts relating to the account receivables

c) Collection of account receivables

d) Credit protection against default in payment by the buyer

38 Which of the following is not correct w.r.t a Standby Letter of Credit : d

a) Like the guarantee, the standby letter of credit is of an abstract nature, i.e. legally separated from the underlying transaction.

b) It is payable upon first demand and without objections or defences on the basis of the underlying transaction.

c) The documents stipulated in the claim must be submitted within the specified period and these documents should show that the client (exporter) has not met or insufficiently fulfilled his or her performance obligations or the debtor has not met a payment on time

d) As per UCPDC Guidelines, A Stand by Letter of Credit can not be confirmed by a Confirming bank

39 Which of the following could lead to rejection of the reimbursement claim by the L/C issuing Bank :

d

a) Late presentation of documents, even when the L/C is current

b) Late Negotiation

c) Insurance document dated after the date of shipment

d) All of the above


40 Which of the following does NOT reduce the Credit Risk for an exporter in an international trade transaction :

c

a) Confirmation of L/C b) Credit Insurance

c) Forex Hedging d) Forfaiting

41 ―In this type of financing service, the bank undertakes to discount bills drawn by the supplier and accepted by a reputed corporate‖. What kind of trade finance service are we referring to here :

a

a) Vendor financing b) Channel financing

c) Working capital financing d) Relationship financing

42 The rate given by RBI based on 12‘ noon rates of a few select banks in Mumbai is called : a a) RBI reference rate b) Inter-bank rate

c) TT rate d) Mid-day rate

43. The rate quoted by the banks for buying and selling foreign currency amongst each other is known as :

b

a) Spot rate b) Inter-bank rate

c) TT rate d) Currency rate

44 The forward premium/discount on a foreign currency can be affected by : d a) Interest rate differential between

the currencies b) Political environment in the foreign

currency‘s home country

c) None of the above d) Both (a) and (b) above

45. In a free market scenario and all other factors remaining the same, booming exports from India would result in :

a

a) Appreciation of INR b) Depreciation of INR

c) Appreciation of USD d) Can‘t say

46. International Chamber of Commerce‘s UCPDC stands for : b a) Uniform Customs Procedures for

Documentary Clearance b) Uniform Customs and Practice for

Documentary Credits

c) Uniform Customary Practices for Documentary Clearance

d) Uniform Customary Procedures for Documentary Credits

47. As per DGFT Guidelines, the items that are mentioned in the Canalized items list can be imported :

c

a) By any company under the OGL b) Are prohibited and cannot be imported into India

c) Can be imported only be certain pre-defined agencies/companies


48. In case of a ‗forward‘ transaction : a a) Conversion or exchange of

foreign currency takes place at some future date at an agreed rate of exchange

b) Delivery is made at an enhanced rate of exchange

c) Delivery takes place on the next day

d) Delivery takes place on 2nd working day


POLICY GUIDELINES FINANCIAL YEAR 2017-2018

1 Demonetization helped us garner large CASA deposits. Bank‘s CASA ratio touched ______%as on 31st December 2016

c

a) 45.55% b) 64.55%

c) 46.55% d) 54.55%

2 BREXIT refers to d

a) European Union vote in favor of leaving the U.K.

b) Britain vote in favor of leaving the European Union

c) Bihar vote in favor of exiting GST negotiations

d) U.K. vote in favor of leaving the European Union

3 As per SBI research, GDP growth is expected to dip to ____% in FY17 owing to the surprise demonetization of high denomination currency

c

a) 6.6% b) 7.6%

c) 6.7% d) 5.6.%

4 India‘s Current Account Deficit (CAD) has narrowed down $____ billion (0.6% of GDP) in Q2 FY17,

b

a) $3.3 billion b) $3.4 billion

c) $3.5 billion d) $4.3 billion

5 The fortnightly data of ASCB indicates that credit off-take (YoY) has declined to historical low of ____% as of week ending 17th February 2017compared to last year‘s growth of 11.6% in Feb‘16.

c

a) 9.76% b) 8.76%

c) 4.76% d) 6.76%

6 The aggregate deposits growth improved to %, compared to last year's growth of 11.01%.

a

a) 12.67% b) 11.67%

c) 12.76% d) 13.67%

7 Credit to agriculture and allied activities, services and Personal segment _______, credit to industry ________

c

a) contracted, increased b) increased, increased

c) increased, contracted d) Contracted, contracted

8 Government initiatives to improve ease of doing business and to instill confidence in investors

All

a) Infrastructure investments & Digital India

b) Make in India & Startup India

c) Smart Cities, Hygiene Infrastructure & Renewable energy

d) Affordable Housing, Financial inclusion & Skill India


9 JAM in the present context refers to d

a) Fruit pulp industry b) Jan dhan

c) Subsidies d) Jan Dhan- Aadhar- Mobile

10 Government has set an annual renewable energy target of _____ GW by 2020. Ultra-Mega solar power plants and parks to be developed with investments worth USD 156 million. _______% FDI has been permitted in the sector.

c

a) 167 GW, 100% b) 157 GW, 50%

c) 175 GW, 100% d) 175 GW, 50%

11 Skill India seeks to provide the institutional capacity to train a minimum of ___________skilled work-forces by 2022.

d

a) 30 million

b) 100 million

c) 200 million d) 300 million

12 Towards rural empowerment, initiatives rolled out are: All

a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)

b) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)

c) DBT d) Social Security Schemes,

13 Which one is a Social Security Scheme d

a) Atal Pension Yojana (APY) b) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)

c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)

d) All

14 Implementation of Marginal Cost of Lending rate (MCLR) was from ________ and it is ________w.e.f 1stJanuary 2017

d

a) April 2016, 8.90% b) April 2016, 10.00%

c) April 2016, 8.80% d) April 2016, 8.00%

15 Implementation of Marginal Cost of Lending rate (MCLR) from April 2016 facilitated

All

a) transmission of policy rate cuts by RBI

b) put some pressure on the Net Interest Margin (NIM)

c) provided stability to the Bank‘s earnings as the MCLR linked to various time buckets are reset after the stipulated period

d) helped in containing volatility in earnings

16

NPAs impact our books in multiple ways, through loss of Interest income, loan loss provision and additional cost of carrying NPAs and their recovery.

a

a) Yes b) No

17

AQR means__________which led to increased Loan loss provisions a

a) Asset Quality Review b) Asset Quality Report

18 We have to adopt disruptive and cutting edge technologies and innovative products and processes to increase our share of business and prevent the impact on our market share to stay ahead of the new challenges from

a&b


a) New Payment banks b) Small Finance Banks (SFBs)

19

To gain digital market share, we need to keep innovating on the digital front and outthink our peers, both in terms of products and services.

b

a) No b) Yes

20

The performance of a Bank is primarily judged by its profitability, efficiency and asset Quality parameters viz., ____, _____, Net Interest Margin, Cost to Income Ratio, Gross /Net NPA Ratios and its strength by its Capital Adequacy Ratio

a&b

a) ROA b) ROE

21

ROE based budgeting (from FY 18) captures the two most crucial variables,viz.Net Profit and Equity. Net Profit earned by each Business Unit (BU) divided by the Equity Capital utilized by them gives the ROE ratio of each BU (NBG, CAG, MCG, SAMG, GMU, IBG).

a

a) Yes b) No

22 Our Bank ROE as on 31.03.2016 was _____% as against an Opportunity Cost of

Capital of 13.32%. The ROE as on 31.03.16 of our private Sector peers was - HDFC Bank (17.97%), ICICI (11.30%) and Axis (17.49%).

b

a) 14.74 % b) 7.74%

23 Corporate Centre establishments, including GITC, have been given budgets for

rationalization and containment of _____________within the permissible limits.

b

a) Operating profits b) Operating Expenses

24 __________based marketing of our products and services, supported by top of the

line customer service and local connect/reach-out programmes, will be the focus.

b

a) Historical data b) Analytics

25 While the whole Bank level ROE target has been set at 9.5%, the Business Unit

wise targets have been set in terms of _________as tax payment is effected at whole bank level.

a

a) PBT/ Equity (whole bank: 13.27%)

b) Equity/ PBT(whole bank: 13.27%)

26 The target for CASA Ratio for March ‘18:________, with share of CA increasing to atleast % from % (March ‘16).

b

a) 47% , 11%, 9% b) 46% , 10%, 8%

27 CASA ratio showed an increase of 385 bps YoY from _____% in December 2015 to

________% in December 2016. a


a) 42.70% , 46.55% b) 43.70% , 47.55%

28 The market share of SBI‘s Domestic Deposits has increased to ______% as on 31st

December 2016 as compared to ______% as on 31st December 2015.

b

a) 17.41%,16.15 % b) 18.15%, 17.41%

29 ____________________, has/ve been undertaken under which one of the sub

projects envisages a comprehensive program to develop the credit skills available at various operational and administrative levels.

b

a) Mandatory e learning and training

b) End-to-End Credit Process (ETECP

30

Year to date till December 2016, only CAG, MCG, AGRI and SME have shown growth in their portfolios, while RE&H, PER and IBG advances have contracted.

a

a) False b) True

31 ___ % of our operating profit earned during 9MFY17 went towards loan loss

provisions,

a) 56% b) 61%

b

32

What are a) AQR & b) DIA w.r.t. NPAs & provisioning? b

a) a) Asset quality report

b) Digital Inspection Assistant

b) a) Asset quality review

b) Digital Inspection Application

33

In respect of Auto Loans, inspection of vehicles to be done if there is default of month‘s installment

b

a) 2 b) 1

34 As on 31st December 2016, the outstanding AUCA balances were to the tune of

Rs.57,259 Crores and it is likely that by March '17, these will cross Rs.60,000 crores. We must set a target of recovering atleast _____% of these in FY '18 or a YOY growth of _____%, whichever is higher.

b

a) 5 %, 50 % b) 10%, 70 %

35

To become the A to Z store for Financial Solutions for customers, we should aim at selling at least ___________products to new customers and _______ more to existing ones, thereby achieving a target of 100% growth in income from cross selling during FY '18.

b

a) five, three b) three, two


36

The Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of the Bank was ___% as on 31st December 2016.

a) 12.73% b) 13.73%

37 March 2018: Basel III Requirements: Min Captal: ______% Tier-1: ______%

March 2019: Basel III Requirements: Min Captal: ______% Tier-1: ______%

a) 11.325% & 9.325%;

12.10% and 10.10%

b) 11.525% & 9.525%;

13.10% and 10.10%

a

38

D_SIB means Domestic - Systemically Important Bank a

a) True b) False

39

GET IT RIGHT FIRST TIME approach refers to b

a) Lending b) Data integrity

40 Targets FY 18:

NIM Domestic –Minimum

a) 3.90% b) 2.90%

b

41 CASA- Minimum b

a) 47% b) 45%

42 Gross NPA- Ratio below b

a) 7.75% b) 6.75%

43 AUCA recovery Rs: cr a

a) 6000 b) 5000

44 Growth in Deposits YoY- Minimum

Saving Bank Deposit Growth C/A Deposit Growth

a) 9%, 7%, 21% b) 12%, 7%, 15%

a

45

Growth in Advances YoY- Minimum Retail Growth

a

a) 11%, 18% b) 18%, 22%

46

ROA – Minimum: & ROE – Minimum: b

a) 2 % & 9.50% b) 0.55 % & 9.50%


47 Self-service kiosks like ATMs, CDMs,Electronic Cheque Deposit machines, Swayam Passbook printing machines, Account Opening Kiosks (AOK), Debit Card Printing Kiosks (DCPK), ―Dream Wall‖ which enables a customer to search for options for a Car Loan or an Education Loan, ―ShellApp‖ which can help a customer take various investment decisions for other financial products like Mutual Funds, Life Insurance, etc.----------are the hallmarks of

a) SBI Exclusif branches b) sbiINTOUCH branches

b

48

ATM/CDM/Recycler% to Total Txns.(Target as on 31.03.2018): b

a) 39.43% b) 40%

49

Digital Banking (Internet Banking, Mobile Banking, POS&Kiosks) % to Total Txns.(Target as on 31.03.2018):

a

a) 45% b) 37.89 %

50 Any time Channel % to Total Txns.(Target as on 31.03.2018): b

a) 77.32% b) 85 %