module 8 booklet
TRANSCRIPT
Chapter 1: ANS:
Physiology of ANS:
1. Nervous system is divided functionally into
a. Somatic and central b. Somatic and peripheral c. Somatic and Autonomic d. Peripheral and Autonomic
2. Choose one odd out word :
a. Brain stem b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Spinal cord
3. No of segments of spinal cord :
a. 31 b. 32 c. 33 d. 34
4. Which parts of spinal cord has
most number of segments : a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumber d. Sacral e. Coccygeal
5. No. of spinal nerves arising from each segment of spinal cord :
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
6. All of the following is controlled
by autonomic nervous system : a. Heart b. Viscera c. Moving hands d. Glands
7. Unit of function is :
a. Reflex action b. Neuron c. All of the above d. Non of the above
True and false Questions:
8. Ganglia aren't surrounded by any capsule
9. Autonomic ganglia are arised from cranial and spinal origin
10. Cranio spinal ganglia are larger than Autonomic ganglia
11. Ganglion cells of Craniospinal ganglia are
a. Unipolar b. Pseudounipolar c. Dipolar
d. Multipolar
12. Septa in the craniospinal ganglia are ____ to the capsule
a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. Scattered d. Non of the above
13. Nerve fibres in Craniospinal
ganglia are : a. Unipolar b. Myelinated c. Non myelinated d. Dipolar
14. Shape of autonomic ganglia :
a. Oval b. Spherical c. Rounded d. Polyhedral
15. All of the following are present in the cranio spinal ganglia except
a. Synapse b. Nerve fibers c. Ganglion cells d. Capsule
16. All of the following are present in
the autonomic ganglia except : a. Synapse b. Nerve fibers c. Ganglion cells
d. Thick Capsule surrounding it all
17. Pons Varolli is a part of : a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Brain stem d. Non of the above
18. Which of them has motor function
?? a. Autonomic ganglia b. Craniospinal ganglia
19. Where does synapse lie?
a. Bet ganglion and postganglionic fibres
b. Bet preganglionic fibres and ganglion
c. Bet ganglion cells d. In craniospinal ganglia
20. Craniospinal ganglia exists in :
a. All cranial nerves b. Spinal nerves as dorsal ganglia c. Spinal nerves as ventral ganglia d. All of the above
21. Stimulus is any ___ change in the
environment a. Internal b. External c. All of the above
d. Non of the above
22. What happens after stretching of the urinary bladder ?
a. Contraction of bladder and Relaxation of sphincter
b. Contraction of bladder and sphincter
c. Relaxation of bladder and contraction of sphincter
d. Relaxation of both
23. All of the following are acting by autonomic reflex except :
a. Viscera b. Skeletal muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Gland
24. 1st component of reflex arc is
a. Effector b. Efferent c. Afferenet d. Receptor
25. All of the following are effector
except : a. Gland b. Skeletal Muscle c. Skin d. Smooth muscle
26. Center of somatic reflex is :
a. Anterior horn cell b. Lateral horn cell c. Medial horn cell d. Posterior horn cell
27. Receptor of autonomic reflex is a. Skin b. Viscus of organ c. All of the above d. None of the above
28. Efferent in somatic arc is __
neuron a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
29. All of the following are effector in
autonomic except: a. Gland b. Plain muscles c. Skeletal muscles d. Cradiac muscle
30. Synapse between axon and cell
body is : a. Axodendretic synapse b. Axosomatic synapse c. Axo-axonic synapse d. Dendrodendretic synapse
True or False
31. Inhibitory synapse is one in which neurotransmitter hyperpolarize postsynaptic membrane
32. Electrical synapse is most common 33. Chemical synapse is specialized in
movement of ion from one cell to another
34. Presynaptic membrane is electron lucent
35. Synaptic cleft is about 20 mm 36. Postsynaptic membrane lies on
target neuron
37. Ion responsible for mediating function of chemical synapse
a. Calcium b. Phosphorous c. Potassium d. Sodium
38. Sympathetic Nervous system
originate from : a. Ventral root of Thoracic spinal
segments b. Ventral root of lower lumber
segments of spinal cord c. Dorsal root of thoracic spinal
segments d. Dorsal root of upper lumber
spinal segments
39. Order of spinal sacral segments from which parasympathetic nerves originate:
a. 1st b. 3rd c. 5th d. None of the above
40. In sympathetic nervous system , preganglionic cells rely on ganglia near to
a. Brain b. Spinal cord c. Effector d. Receptor
41. Site of rely of parasympathetic
nerve fibres is : a. Lateral ganglion b. Collateral ganglion c. Terminal ganglion d. All of the above
42. All of the following may be site of
rely for sympathetic preganglionic fibre except :
a. Lateral ganglion b. Collateral ganglion c. Terminal ganglion d. Non of the above
43. Which of them in which
presynaptic nerves synapse with more postsynaptic nerves
a. Sympathetic b. Parasympathetic
True or false: 44. Autonomic ganglia are site of rely
of preganglionic nerves coming from PNS
45. Preganglionic fibres rely once though it can pass through much ganglia
46. Sympathetic nervous system originates from brain and sacral segments of the spinal cord
47. Lateral sympathetic chain lie between sympathetic chain and organ
48. Ganglions are aggregation of nerve cell bodies outside CNS
49. Parasympathetic nerves originate from 1st sacral spinal segment
50. Parasympathetic and sympathetic are considered as somatic nervous system
51. Parasympathetic nervous system forms craniosacral outflow
52. Craniospinal ganglia are sites of rely of autonomic nerves
53. Increasing power of lens is the function of…….
a. 3th cranial nerve b. 7th cranial nerve c. 9th cranial nerve
d. 10th cranial nerve
54. All the following are functions of the facial nerve except:
a. Secretory and vasodilator to the lacrimal glands to cause shedding of tears.
b. Secretory and vasodilator to the blood vessel of the nasopharyngeal glands and soft palate.
c. Secretory and vasodilator to the sublingual and submaxillary salivary glands to give copious watery saliva rich in electrolytes.
d. Vasodilatation of the blood vessels in the anterior 1/3 of the tongue
55. The postganglionic fibres of 9th cranial nerve supply the parotid gland and posterior 2/3 of the tongue
a. True b. False
56. The preganglionic neurons of the
vagus nerve originate in the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus in the medulla oblongata.
a. True b. False
57. The postganglionic fibres of the
vagus nerve innervate all of the following except:
a. Heart b. Lungs c. Liver
d. Bladder
58. All of the following are functions of the vagus supplying the heart except
a. Inhibition of all properties of the heart
b. Reduction of the 02 consumption of the cardiac muscle.
c. Vasodilatation of coronary vessels
d. Inhibition of conductivity
59. Bronchoconstriction is one of the effects of the vagud nerve on the lungs
a. True b. False
60. The vagus nerve provides motor
supply to all of the following except:
a. Smooth muscles of stomach b. Smooth muscles of small
intestine c. the sphincters d. proximal half of large intestine
smooth muscles
61. Proximal half of the colon supplied by ……. While the distal half supplied by ………….
a. Vagus , sacral autonomic b. Sacral autonomic , vagus c. Facial , vagus d. Vagus , facial
62. Sacral autonomic nerves provide motor supply to all of the following except
a. wall of the distal half of the colon b. wall of the rectum c. the internal anal sphincter
63. the wall of urinary bladder
………… is called nervous erigens.
a. Facial nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Sacral autonomic nerve d. Glossopharygeal
64. Adrenergic autonomic fibers
secrete ……… at their terminations
a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. Both of them d. None of them
65. Adrenergic fibers include all the
synapses of all autonomic ganglia a. True b. False
66. Cholinergic fibers supply
preganglionic fibres supplying the adrenal medulla.
a. True b. False
67. Preganglionic nerve endings that innervate sweat glands and blood vessels in the skeletal muscles are cholinergic fibers a. True b. False
68. Nicotinic receptors are found in
all of the following sites except: a. The synapses between the pre-
and postganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
b. In the membranes of skeletal muscle fibres at the neuromuscular junction.
c. Supra-renal medulla. d. Sweat glands and blood vessels
of skeletal muscle innervated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons of the sympathetic system.
69. All of the following are nicotine-like action of acetylcholine except: a. Stimulation of the autonomic
ganglia. b. stimulation of all
postganglionic parasympathetic endings
c. Secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline at adrenal medulla.
d. Contraction of skeletal muscles due to stimulation at the motor end plates.
70. Acetylcholine is synthesized by …………. and hydrolysed into choline and acelic acid by…………
a. Choline acetyl transferase , cholinesterase
b. Cholinesterase , choline acetyl transferase
71. Pseudocholinesterase destroys acetylcholine in the cholinergic nerve terminals
a. True b. False
72. The transmitters in sympathetic
nervous system are catecholamines, chiefly norepinephrine and epinephrine
a. True b. False
73. The starting substance for
noradrenaline synthesis is………. a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Tyrosine d. Lysine
74. Adrenaline is synthesized by
methylation of noradrenaline in the adrenal cortex
a. True b. False
75. All of the following are true
concerning the fate of adrenaline except:
a. Diffusion away from the nerve endings into the surroundings body fluids and thence into the blood.
b. Reuptake into the adrenergic nerve endings themselves by an passive transport process.
c. Oxidation by monoamine oxidase enzyme
d. Methylation by catechol-O-methyl tarnsferase
76. Alpha adrenergic receptors responding to noradrenaline and adrenaline, but they have higher affinity for adrenaline
a. True b. False
77. Beta 1 receptors are present in the
smooth muscle of: bronchioles, gastrointestinal tract, urinary bladder while Beta2 receptors they are present chiefly in the heart
a. True b. False
78. Adrenaline has a greater effect on
cardiac stimulation than noradrenaline.
a. True b. False
79. Adrenaline causes only weak
constriction of the blood vessels, in comparison with the much stronger constriction caused by noradrenaline.
a. True b. False
80. Noradrenaline has to a great extent more metabolic effect than adrenaline.
a. True b. False
81. Adrenaline has more inhibitory
effects on the smooth muscles of the bronchioles and intestinal wall. So it is more useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma.
a. True b. False
82. The autonomic nervous system is
activated mainly by centres located in ………..
a. the spinal cord b. brain stem c. Hypothalamus d. All of the above
83. Spinal cord controls all of the
following except ……. a. Micturition b. Defection c. Arterial blood pressure
regulation d. Relaxation of the urinary
sphincter
84. Brain stem controls all of the following except………..
a. arterial blood pressure b. heart rate
c. glandular secretion in the gastrointestinal tract
d. none of the above
85. Medulla oblongata contains centers of …………
a. centres for swallowing, coughing and vomiting
b. medullary centres for the autonomic reflex control of heart circulation
c. centre of gastrointestinal peristalsis
d. all of the above
86. The pons contains centres for pupillary reflexes and accommodation for near vision.
a. True b. False
87. Stimulation of the posterior
hypothalamic nuclei result in parasympathetic effects while stimulation of the anterior hypothalamic nuclei result in sympathetic effects
a. True b. False
88. All of the following are
sympathetic effects resulting from stimulation of posterior hypothalamus except:
a. dilatation of pupils and palpebral fissure
b. increasing heart rate
c. increasing motility of gastrointestinal tract
d. vasoconstriction and increased arterial blood pressure
89. The limbic system plus the hypothalamus are concerned with emotions whether their genesis or their expression (mental and physical)
a. True b. False
90. All of the following are severe
induced autonomic diseases except……..
a. peptic ulcer b. constipation or diarrhea c. heart palpitation d. Hypotension.
91. What is number of courses that
preganglionic nerve has on entering the ganglionic chain :
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
92. Coleic ganglia is considered :
a. Lateral ganglia b. Collateral ganglia c. Terminal ganglia d. Non of the above
93. Which of the following has its sympathetic supply directly from splanchinic nerve ?
a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Renal Medulla d. Renal cortex
94. What is sympathetic action on eye
pupil ? a. Dilatation b. Constriction c. Expansion d. Conraction
95. What is sympathetic action on
palepebral fissure ? a. Narrowing b. Widening c. Retraction d. Protraction
True and False
96. Sympathetic nerves cause strong vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels
97. Sympathetic nerves cause vasodilatation of vessels of salivary gland
98. Parasympathetic nerves causes erection of the fair follicle
99. Adrenal medulla is directly supplied by preganglionic nerve fibres
100. Sympathetic nerves causes secretions in lacrimal glands
101. Increasing heart rate and vasoconstriction of coronaries are one of the functions of the sympathetic NS
102. Bronchodilatation intense vasoconstriction of the pulmonary blood vessels are mediated by sympathetic NS
103. Innervation of the adrenal medulla is preganglionic.
104. All of the following are
functions of sympathetic supply to the abdominal viscera except: a. increasing the blood glucose
level by conversion of liver glycogen into blood glucose
b. Retention of bile. c. Vasodilatation of the blood
vessels of the viscera d. secretion of adrenaline and
noradrenaline in the blood
105. all of the following are functions of sympathetic fibres to the pelvis except:
a. retention of faeces and urine b. Vasoconstrictor to the blood
vessels of pelvic viscera c. Motor to the smooth muscle
of male sex organs d. Inhibitory to the smooth
muscle of the proximal half of the colon
106. All of the following are effects of sympathetic fibers to the limbs, thoracic and abdominal parities except: a. Increase of muscle
glycogenolysis b. Vasoconstrictor to cutaneous
blood vessels c. Vasoconstriction to the blood
vessels of the skeletal muscles d. Secretory to the sweat glands
107. Orbelli Phenomenon is ……..
a. Better contraction, and early fatigue of skeletal muscles
b. delayed fatigue and early recovery of skeletal muscles after fatigue
c. Better contraction and delayed fatigue of the skeletal muscles
d. delayed fatigue and delayed recovery of skeletal muscles after fatigue
e. b and c
108. Orbelli Phenomenon occurs
due to: a. Activation of phosphorylase
enzyme needed for glycogen breakdown and release of energy in muscles.
b. Increase sensitivity of motor end-plate to acetylcholine.
c. Increase oxygen consumption and increased heat production.
d. Improvement of blood supply to the muscles by vasodilatation
e. All of the above
109. The sympathetic discharge is increased in fasting animals and decreased when fasted animals are reefed a. True b. False
True and false Qs concerning the role of sympathetic nervous system in emergencies:
110. Acceleration of the heart beat, decreases the force of myocardial contraction and raised blood pressure
111. Increasing glycogenolysis in the liver and elevation of blood glucose and free fatty acid level
112. Bronchoconstriction of bronchioles
113. Increased strength of muscle contraction and early onset of fatigue
114. Increased mental activity and increased sweat secretion
115. When a small child's finger was stimulated or burned by a candle flame , he withdrew his hand so fast and began to cry, which of the following of event likely to be true :
a. Spinal cord is responsible for the all response of the child
b. Spinal cord and Brain mediated this response
c. Medulla oblongata took part in this response
d. This reflex action is considered to be autonomic reflex
116. Micturition has occurred to a
young child , which of the following centers is likely to have mediated this action :
a. Brain b. Anterior horn cell of the spinal
cord c. Lateral horn cell of the spinal
cord d. None of the above
117. Sympathetic nerves whose
pregangilionic fibers originate from all thoracic segments of the spinal cord mediate all of the following except :
a. Inhibition to the smooth muscles on wall of gall bladder
b. Stimulation of adrenal medulla c. Dilatation of eye pupil d. Inhibition to smooth muscle of
the wall of urinary bladder
118. Regarding what happens in the body during fasting state , Which of the following is True and False ?
a. When fasting occurs , at first blood pressure decrease , then gradually it becomes stable at normal range
b. Decrease in level of fatty acids in blood
c. Stimulation of glycogenesis in liver
d. Stimulation of hypothalamus
119. A worker is holding a large load in the factory , which of the following can be observed in this worker :
a. Red face b. Dry skin without sweat c. Eye ball protruded d. None of the above
120. If injury occurred to the
autonomic nerve originated from the sacral segment , which of the following is likely to occur :
a. Paralysis of wall of gall bladder b. Paralysis in the wall of the
stomach c. Difficulty in the fecal discharge d. Contraction of external urinary
sphincter
121. When you are having your lunch , all of the following can occur except :
a. Fast rate of heart beats b. Liability to urinate c. Accommodation of near vision d. HCL secretion in stomach
122. A young child trying to joke
with a friend , he tries to frighten him , to his surprise ,, his friend has died of fear , which of the following is the main cause of death :
a. Rupture of the respiratory pathway due to strong dilatation
b. Respiratory failure due to collapse of bronchi
c. Drop in blood pressure d. Obstruction in GIT
123. In case of sleeping which of
the following is most true : a. High level of glucose in the blood b. Contraction of eye pupil and
decrease power of lens c. Fatty acids synthesis increases d. Nor adrenaline level increases
124. Miosis is likely observed in : a. Angry man b. Man returned from a tiring
travel c. Student having exam
d. Hard worker
125. Chemical transmitter mediating transmission on external sphincter muscle of the urinary bladder :
a. Acetylcholine b. Nor adrenaline c. Adrenaline d. Muscarine
126. Which of the following
substances can contribute to the stimulation of sweat gland ?
a. Nicotine b. Adrenaline c. Nor adrenaline d. Muscarine
127. All of the following are
different between Nor adrenaline and acetylcholine :
a. Synthesis steps b. Site of initiation of synthesis c. Target d. Receptors
128. Prolongation of the erection of
the hair is due to alteration and defect in :
a. Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors b. Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors c. Beta 1 adrenergic receptors
d. Beta 2 adrenergic receptors
129. In the excitation of the heart ,adrenaline is the more effective excitant than Nor adrenaline due to :
a. Greater ability of adrenaline to excite Beta 1 receptors
b. Lesser ability of Nor adrenaline to excite Beta 2 receptors
c. Greater ability of adrenaline to excite Alpha 1 receptors
d. Lesser metabolic effects of Adrenaline
130. Any destruction in the medulla
oblongata causes death mainly due to:
a. Its ability to control GI peristalsis b. Its effect on respiration c. Its effect on regulation of the
heart beat d. Both (a) and (b)
131. Main centre of the nervous
system controlling sympathetic and parasympathetic tones is :
a. Cerebral cortex indirectly b. Hypothalamus c. Mid brain d. Cerebral cortex directly
132. Peptic ulcer is originated by higher centers in nervous system due to :
a. Rise in Sympathetic tones b. Rise in Parasympathetic tones c. Abnormality in medulla
oblongata d. Defect in Limbic system
133. Most common site for
enzymatic breaking of Catcholamines is :
a. Kidney b. Liver c. Spleen d. Stomach
134. Concerning hypothalamus put
true or false : a. Anterior part is stimulated
during stress b. Posterior part causes
hypertension c. Anterior part causes erection of
the hair d. It is considered the main vital
center
Answers: 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. F 9. F 10. T 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. T 32. F 33. F 34. F 35. F 36. T
37. A 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. A 44. F 45. T 46. F 47. F 48. T 49. F 50. F 51. T 52. F 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. A 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. D 69. B 70. A 71. B 72. A
73. C 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. D 83. C 84. D 85. D 86. B 87. B 88. C 89. A 90. D 91. C 92. B 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. F 97. F 98. F 99. T 100. F 101. F 102. F 103. T 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. E 108. E 109. B 110. F
111. T 112. F 113. F 114. T 115. B 116. C 117. D 118. a. T b. F c. F d. T
119. C 120. C 121. A 122. A 123. C 124. B 125. A 126. D 127. B 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. A 132. B 133. B 134. a. F b. T c. T d. F
Pharmacology of ANS :
1. The mechanism of transduction in nicotinic receptors is:- a. G – protein coupled b. Inhibition of cAMP c. Na+ influx d. K+ influx
2. M3 receptors found in:-
a. exocrine glands b. smooth muscle c. vascular endothelium d. all of the above
3. All of the following are direct M – stimulant except :- a. carbachol b. bethanecol c. pilocarpine d. neostigmine
4. The irreversible anticholinesterase is : a. organophosphorus b. physostigmine c. neostigmine substitutes d. neostigmine
5. The effect of acetylcholine on the
eye : a. myosis b. ciliary muscle contraction c. stimulation of dilator pupillae
muscle d. a and b
6. Atropine is :- a. muscarinic receptor blocker b. nicotinic receptor blocker c. reversible anticholinesterase
d. none of the above
7. Hydrolysis of acetylcholine in the plasma is carried by :- a. true cholinesterase b. pseudocholinesterase c. atropine d. MAO
8. Carbachol is used for the
treatment of :- a. postoperative retention of
urine b. paralytic ileus c. glaucoma d. peptic ulcer
9. All of the following are contraindications to choline esters except :- a. hyperthyroidism b. coronary insufficiency c. bronchial asthma d. pregnancy
10. Pilocarpine is used systemically
for :- a. atropine overdose b. glucoma c. myasthenia gravis d. Alzheimer
11. the drug used for treating
Alzheimer is : -
a. neostigmine b. carbachol c. physostigmine d. edrophonium
12. all of the following is true about
neostigmine except : - a. used in diagnosis of
myasthenia gravis b. antidote to curare c. used in glaucoma d. paralytic ileus
13. The drug used in treatment of
chronic myasthenia gravis is :- a. neostigmine b. physiostigmine c. atropine d. pyridostigmine
14. all of the following used in the
treatment of irreversible anticholenesterases poisoning except a. atropine b. neostigmine c. oximes d. anticonvulsant
15. Atropine is absorbed from all sites
of administration. a. True b. False
16. Atropine blocks the muscarinic
receptors by competing with a. Muscarin
b. Nicotine c. Acetylcholine d. Scopolamine
17. I.V. injection of atropine at first
produces a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia c. Both of them d. Non of the above
18. Because most vascular beds lack
parasympathetic innervation. atropine has no action on a. Blood vessels b. Blood pressure c. Both of them d. Non of the above
19. ......... doses of atropine in children
produce cutaneous vasodilatation and flushing of the blush area a. Therapeutic b. Toxic c. Small d. Non of the above
20. Atropine cause .......... of gastric
secretion a. Increasing b. Decreasing c. No effect d. Non of the above
21. Atropine has an effect on urinary bladder as it cause a. Relax wall of bladder b. Contraction of sphincter c. Both of them d. Relax of sphincter
22. Atropine cause reduction of
salivary, lachrymal, gastric, bronchial and sweat secretion. a. True b. False
23. paralysis of the constrictor
pupillae muscle is one of the effects of atropine on the eye and it is called a. miosis b. passive mydriasis c. active mydriasis d. all of the above
24. cycloplegia is Paralysis of the
............ leading to loss of accommodation to near objects. a. ciliary muscle b. constrictor pupillae muscle c. both of them d. non of the above
25. The duration of action of atropine
following its local application to the eye is a. 7-11 days b. 6-10 days
c. 7-10 days d. 8-10 days
26. Local application of atropine in
the eye, or its systemic administration produces: a. Loss of the light reflex. b. Inhibition of lachrymation. c. Cycloplegia d. All of the above
27. When atropine is given
systemically, it takes a. Few seconds b. Few minutes c. Few hours d. Few days
28. An atropine injection is given half
an hour before general anaesthesia in order to: a. Decrease salivary and
bronchial secretions b. Protect against the inhibitory
effect of morphine c. Protect the heart from
excessive vagal tone d. All of the above
29. All of the following are from side
effects of atropine except a. Dryness of mouth, blurred
vision and tachycardia. b. Depression of CNS. c. Acute glaucoma
d. elevation of body temperature in children
30. we shouldn't use atropine in all
these condition except a. Fever b. Cardiac patients. c. Thyrotoxicosis d. Antispasmodic
31. All of These compounds have the
advantage of shorter duration of action than atropine except a. Cyclopentolate b. Tropicamide c. Pirenzepine d. Eucatropine
32. Hyoscine is preferred to atropine
in preanaesthetic medication a. True b. False
33. ........... is used for For peptic ulcer
(anti-secretory) and colics (antispasmodic). a. Cyclopentolate b. Tropicamide c. Oxyphenonium d. Buscopan
34. ............. Doesn.t affect the eye and
its accommodation, therefore, may be used in glaucoma. a. Oxyphenonium
b. Buscopan c. Pirenzepine d. Eucatropine
35. .............. has no antisecretory
action(not for peptic ulcer). a. Hyoscine butyl bromide b. Pirenzepine c. Oxyphenonium d. Cyclopentolate
36. ................ cross to CNS with less
peripheral side effects a. Eucatropine b. Benztropine c. Oxyphenonium d. Cyclopentolate
37. ............. used to relax bladder and
increase its capacity in cases of urinary incontinence. a. Emepronium b. Buscopan c. Pirenzepine d. Eucatropine
38. Unlike atropine, ........ doesn.t
increase viscosity of bronchial secretion. a. Emepronium b. Buscopan c. Pirenzepine d. Ipratropium
39. Pirenzepine doesn't not slow gastric emptying so doesn' t prolong exposure of ulcer bed to acid a. True b. False
40. ......... is a very short acting
competitive ganglion blocker and is a histamine liberator. a. Emepronium b. Buscopan c. Trimetaphan d. Eucatropine
41. Trimetaphan is administered by
I.V. drip infusion of ...... solution a. 1:100 b. 1:1000 c. 1:10000 d. Non of the above
42. Inhaled ipratropium has a
selective bronchodilator action. a. True b. False
43. The vasodilator effect of
trimetaphan is mostly due to: a. ganglionic blocking effect. b. A histamine releaser. c. A direct vasodilator effect. d. All of the above
44. Trimetaphan main use is to produce controlled hypertension in anaesthesia during plastic and neurosurgery a. True b. False
45. All of the following are effects of
histamine release except: a. Bronchospasm b. Hypertension c. Excessive bronchial and gastric
secretion. d. None of the above
46. All of the following give
synergistic effect with competitive blockers except:
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Chlorpromazine c. Neostigmine d. quinidine
47. ……….. agument paralysis
a. inhalational anaesthetics b. quinidine c. Chlorpromazine d. All of the above
48. An overdose of curare produces:
a. Failure of respiration due to paralysis of respiratory muscles.
b. Hypotension. c. Histamine release leading to
bronchospasm …..
d. All of the above
49. Precautions should be considered in treatment of curare alkaloids toxicity with antidotes include:
a. atropine must be given few minutes before neostigmine
b. avoid overdosage of neostigmine
c. both of them d. none of them
50. all of the following are true about
gallamine except:
a. It has about 1/5 the activity of d-tubocurarine as a neuromuscular blocker.
b. It has a longer duration of action
c. It has a much weaker ganglionic blocking activity.
d. It has a much weaker histamine releasing action.
51. Which of the following has the longer duration of action:
a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM c. ATRACURIUM d. TUBOCURANINE
52. Which of the following is
metabolized by the liver: a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM
c. ATRACURIUM d. VECURONIUM
53. Which drug of these is the most
potent: a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM c. ATRACURIUM d. VECURONIUM
54. Which of the following has no
histamine releasing action: a. GALLAMINE b. PANCURONIUM c. ATRACURIUM d. VECURONIUM
55. ............. a hormone secreted from
adrenal medulla that releases substrates for metabolism, and in emergencies promotes blood flow to skeletal muscles. a. Noradrenaline b. Adrenaline c. Dopamine d. Non of the above
56. The main functions of ............. are
maintenance of normal sympathetic tone & adjustment of circulatory dynamics. a. Noradrenaline b. Adrenaline c. Dopamine d. non of the above
57. When we use an intermediate dose of dopamine as a drug it will activate a. Alpha . receptors b. Beta . receptors c. D1 receptors d. D2 receptors
58. Adrenergic innervated organs and
tissues tend to have only one subtype of adrenergic receptors a. True b. False
59. Stimulation of............ by
catecholamines activates phospholipase C a. Alpha 1. receptors b. Beta1 . receptors c. Alpha 2 receptors d. Beta 2 receptors
60. Increasing of cytoplasmic calcium
may be due to release of ............ after stimulation of alpha 1 receptor a. Diacylglycerol b. inositol triphosphate c. adrenalin d. noradrenalin
61. stimulation of ............ causes
feedback inhibition of the ongoing release of noradrenaline from the stimulated adrenergic neuron. a. Alpha 1. receptors
b. Beta1 . receptors c. Alpha 2 receptors d. Beta 2 receptors
62. All the subtypes of alpha-
adrenoceptors act by stimulation of adenylate cyclase. a. True b. False
63. ........ is a Presynaptic adrenergic
receptor that inhibits release of Noradrenaline from the nerve terminals a. Alpha 1 b. Alpha 2 c. Beta 1 d. Beta 2
64. Modulation of neurotransmission
in central & sympathetic nervous system is the action of ....... receptor a. Beta 1 b. Beta 2 c. D1 d. D2
65. Beta 2 receptor stimulate
micturition a. True b. False
66. Using large dose of dopamine as a
drug activate ............ receptors a. Alpha b. Beta
c. D1 d. D2
67. Beta 2 receptor increase glucose
level in the blood a. True b. False
68. All of the following are from the
direct acting SYMPATHOMIMETICS except a. Noradrenaline b. Isoprenaline c. Amphetamine d. Phenylephrine
69. .............. increase the concentration
of catcholamines in the synapses.to inhibt the reuptake of noradrenalin into the nerve ending a. Cocaine b. Isoprenaline c. Amphetamine d. Phenylephrine
70. All of the following are dual
SYMPATHOMIMETICS except a. Dopamine b. Pseudoepherine c. Ephedrine d. Amphetamine
71. According to ............ we can
classify SYMPATHOMIMETICS into selective and non- selective
a. Mode of action b. Chemical structure c. Spectrum d. Non of the above
72. Catecholamines are compounds
that contain a catechol nucleus and may be natural as a. Adrenaline b. Noradrenaline c. Dopamine d. All of the above
73. When endogenous catecholamines
given parenterally, they enter the CNS in significant amounts. a. True b. False
74. ............... is a synthetic
catecholamine, is similar to endogenous transmitters but not readily taken up into nerve endings. a. Noradrenaline b. Dopamine c. Isoprenaline d. Adrenaline
75. Non-catecholamines do not resist
MAO and COMT enzymes and so they are active orally a. True b. False
76. Inactivation of adrenaline and noradrenaline occurs by a. Neuronal Uptake b. Extraneuronal uptake c. Enzyme Destruction d. All of the following
77. The normal level of VMP in urine
is ........ mg /24 hours urine a. 2.5 . 5 b. 2 - 6.5 c. 3.5 . 6 d. 5.5 . 6
78. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of
adrenal medulla secreting noradrenaline and adrenaline. a. True b. False
79. Both enzymes (MAO &COMT) are
present in all of the following except a. Liver b. Kidney c. Spleen d. Intestinal mucosa
80. Oral administration of adrenaline
is effective a. True b. False
81. We can use adrenaline by all
routes of administration a. True
b. False
82. Adrenaline acting on beta 1-adrenoceptors exerts positive a. chronotropic effect b. inotropic effect c. dromotropic effect d. all of the above
83. Adrenaline causes elevation of
............blood pressure due to increased cardiac output a. Systolic b. Diastolic c. Both of them d. Non of the above
84. When we use higher dose of
adrenalinet4 it will .......... diastolic blood pressure a. Increase b. Decrease c. Have no effect d. Non of the above
85. Adrenaline always used during
delivery to cause contraction of the uterus a. True b. False
86. Adrenaline can be used for
treatment of glaucoma a. True b. False
87. Adrenaline increases blood glucose level by all of the following except a. Inhibition of insulin secretion b. decreasing release of glucagon c. Increase in hepatic
glycogenolysis d. transient increase in blood K+
followed by a prolonged fall
88. adrenaline delays fatigability by increasing blood flow. a. True b. False
89. Adrenaline is the physiological
antagonist of histamine. a. True b. False
90. Adrenaline is not given with local
anesthetics subcutaneously because it increases bleeding from the site of operation. a. True b. False
91. Adrenaline is given in cases of
cardiac arrest a. True b. False
92. ........ is a prodrug that is
hydrolyzed to adrenaline, are used topically in treatment of open-angle glaucoma.
a. Beta 2-agonists b. Ephidrin c. Dipivefrin d. All of the above
93. All of the following are adverse
effects of adrenaline except a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Anxiety and restlessness. c. Hypotension d. Headache, weakness and
tremors.
94. Extravasation of parenterally administered adrenaline causes severe vasoconstriction , resulting in a. tissue necrosis b. gangrene c. both of them d. non of the above
95. noradrenaline cause increase of
........... blood pressure a. systolic b. diastolic c. both of them d. non of the above
96. Noradrenaline has limited
therapeutic value, it can use for a. acute hypotensive b. septic shock c. both of them d. non of the above
97. using ...... infusion rates of dopamine, it dilates renal and mesenteric blood vessels a. low b. moderate c. high d. all of the above
98. At moderate infusion rates of
dopamine , it stimulates ....... receptors a. Alpha 1 b. Beta 1 c. Alpha 2 d. Beta 2
99. Dopamine drug is less liable to
cause tachycardia and arrhythmia than other catecholamines. a. True b. False
100. Dopamine is used in treatment
of all of the following except a. Acute heart failure. b. open-angle glaucoma. c. Hypovolaemic shock d. septic shock.
101. Dopamine .......... cardiac output
and renal blood flow a. Increase b. Decrease c. Has no effect d. Non of the above
102. The moderate infusion rates of dopamine (5-10 micrograms/kg/minute ) is called a. Renal dose b. Cardiac dose c. vasopressor dose d. all of the above
103. vasopressor dose of dopamine
cause a. vasodilatation b. vasoconstriction c. both of them d. non of the above
104. dopamine is preferred to take
orally because it highly absorbed a. true b. false
105. Isoprenaline stimulates beta
receptors by : a. Acting directly on them b. Increasing release of
noradrenaline c. Inhibiting reuptake of
noradrenaline by nerve endings
d. All of the above e. B & C
106. The duration of action of
isoprenaline is longer than
adrenaline and noradrenaline because : a. It cannot be given orally b. It’s not reuptaken by nerve
endings c. It’s stable and not metabolized d. It stimulates releasing of
noradrenaline
107. Isoprenaline is a synthetic catecholamine which can be given orally or parentrally : a. True b. False
108. All of the following can be one
of the pharmacological actions of isoprenaline EXCEPT : a. Tachycardia b. Increase in the force of heart
contraction c. Mydriasis d. Bronchodilatation
109. All of the following are correct
about Dobutamine EXCEPT : a. It’s a synthetic catecholamine b. It acts on dopamine receptors c. It stimulates mainly beta 1
receptors d. it acts directly on adrenergic
receptors
110. The major advantage of Dobutamine over than other sympathomimetics is that : a. It increases the cardiac output
and stroke volume b. It has a little effect on the heart
rate c. It doesn’t significatly elevate
myocardium oxygen demands d. All of the above
111. Dobutamine is given by :
a. Intravenous infusion b. Intravenous injection c. Oral adminstration d. Sublingual administration
112. Although Phenylephrine is an
alfa 1 selective agonist , it has no direct stimulant effect on the heart because : a. Phenylephrine directly causes
vasodilatation which indirectly produce reflex bradycardia
b. Phenylephrine directly causes vasodilatation which indirectly produce reflex tachycardia
c. Phenylephrine directly causes vasoconstriction which indirectly produce reflex tachycardia
d. Phenylephrine directly causes vasoconstriction which
indirectly produce reflex bradycardia
113. Unlike directly acting catcholamines Phenylephrine : a. Can be given orally b. Has prologed duration of
action c. Can cause mydriasis without
cycloplegia d. All of the above e. A & B
114. All of the following can be one
of the therapeutic uses of Phenylephrine EXCEPT : a. As a topical ocular preparation
because it doesn’t cause cycloplegia
b. As nasal decongestant in allergic and viral rhinitis
c. Hypotention caused by spinal anaesthesia
d. As a mydriatic for fundus examination
115. Clonidine and alfa-methylnoradrenaline decrease blood pressure by : a. inhibition of noradrenaline
release b. Bradycardia
c. Inhibiton of central sympathatic outflow
d. Non of the above e. A & C
116. in order to reduce the IOP in
chronic open-angle glaucoma we use : a. Brimonidine b. Clonidine c. Phenylephrine d. Apraclonidine e. A & D
117. All of the following are
Sympathomimetics which are used as nasal decomgestants EXCEPT : a. Phenylephrine b. Brimonidine c. Ephedrine d. Pseudoephedrine
118. Sympathomimetics are used as
nasal decomgestants because they : a. Produce vasoconstriction of
mucosal BVs b. Reduces oedema of the nasal
mucosa c. Improve ventilation and nasal
stuffuness d. Cause relief of allergic rhinitis,
sinusitis and common cold
e. All of the above
119. Rebound congestion is an adverse effect of Sympathomimetics are used as nasal decomgestants caused by : a. Secondery vasodilatation b. Subsequent temporary
increase in nasal congestion c. Atrophy of the cilia of the
nasal mucosa d. A & B e. A & C
120. All of the following are adverse
effects of Sympathomimetics are used as nasal decomgestants EXCEPT : a. Stinging , burning and drying
of the nostrils b. Vasoconstriction of mucosal
blood vessels c. Atrophy of the cilia of the
nasal mucosa d. Restlessness and anxiety
121. Unlike non-selective beta
adregenic agonists beta 2 selective adrenergic agonists can be used in the Treatment of bronchial asthma because : a. They don’t stimulate the heart b. They cause bronchodilatation
c. They decrease the brochial secretions
d. All of the above
122. All of the following are true about Salbutamol EXCEPT : a. It Has a little effect on the
heart b. Its effect lasts about 4 hours c. It’s stable and not metbolized d. It cannot be given orally
123. Salmetrol and Formoterol are :
a. Long –acting beta2 agonists b. Can be given by inhalation c. Used for the relief of acute
asthma attack d. All of the following e. A & B
124. Salbutamol and Terbutaline are the same in all of the following EXCEPT :
a. Duration of action b. Way of adminstration c. Selectivty to beta2 adreginc
receptors d. Theraputic uses
125. All beta 2 selective adrenergic agonists are given
orally , parentrally or by inhalation :
a. True b. False
126. Ritodrine and Terbutaline have a common theraputic use which is :
a. Postponing premature labour b. Treatment of bronchial asthma c. Treatment of obstructive lung
diseases d. B & C
127. Serious hyperkalaemia may result from beta2 agonist therapy :
a. True b. False
128. All of the following are adverse effects of beta2 agonists EXCEPT :
a. Skeletal muscle tremor ( particularly in hands )
b. Bradycardia and palpitation c. Headache and nervousness d. Peripheral vasodilatation
129. Sympathomimetics actions of Amphetamine on alfa and beta receptors are caused by :
a. Direct stimulation b. Increasing release of
noradrenaline
c. Inhibiting reuptake of noradrenaline by nerve endings
d. All of the above e. B & C
130. Tachyphylaxis is common with amphetamine due to noradrenaline depletion :
a. True b. False
131. Amphetamine produces weight loss by :
a. Depressant action on appetite b. Increasing energy expenditure c. Decreasing absorbtion of food d. A & B e. A & C
132. Amphetamine is used for sympathomimetic and CNS effects :
a. True b. False
133. Amphetamine can be used for treatment of :
a. Nacrolepsy b. Attention deficit syndrome c. Depression d. All of the above e. A & B
134. All of the following are side effects of Amphetamine EXCEPT :
a. Insomania, anxiety, restless and hyperactive reflexes
b. Tolerance and addiction c. Weight loss d. Hypertention, palpitation and
anginal pain e. Cardiac arrhythmia
135. Sympathomimetics actions of Cocaine on alfa and beta receptors are caused by :
a. Direct stimulation b. Increasing release of
noradrenaline c. Inhibiting reuptake of
noradrenaline at both peripheral and central neurons
d. All of the above e. B & C
136. Amphetamine and Cocaine are similar in all of the following except :
a. They have the same indirect Sympathomimetic mechanism of action
b. They cause vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation
c. They can lead to addiction
d. They cause hypertention
137. Amphetamine and Ephedrine share the following adverse effects Except :
a. Tachyphylaxis b. Insomnia c. Cardiac stimulation d. Anxiety e. Urine retention in old patients
with enlarged prostate
138. Mechanism of action of Ephedrine is :
a. Direct stimulation of alfa and beta receptors
b. Increasing release of noradrenaline
c. Inhibiting reuptake of noradrenaline by nerve endings
d. A & B
139. Ephedrine has a good oral absorption and it enters the CNS :
a. True b. False
140. Ephedrine and Pseudoephedrine are used for :
a. Symptomatic relief of nasal congestions
b. Prevention or reversing hypotention accompany with spinal anesthesia
c. Control of urinary incontinence
d. All of the above
141. Pseudoephedrine is similar to Ephedrine but :
a. With Less pressor and CNS action
b. It cannot be given orally c. It causes urine retention d. Non of the above
142. alpha (d) methyl dopa is a: a. sympatholytic drug. b. adrenolytic drug. c. sympatomimetic drug. d. none of the above.
143. the most potent ergot al kaloids in B-receptor bloking is:
a. ergotamine. b. ergometrine. c. dihydro ergotoxine. d. methyl ergometrine.
144. ergotamine is used in: a. hypertension. b. acute attack of migraine. c. alzheimers.
d. pvd.
145. methyl ergometrine is used in: a. post partum haemorrhage. b. hypertension. c. induction of labour. d. a and c.
146. All of the following are uses of bromocriptine except:
a. parkinsonism. b. acromegaly. c. hypertension. d. hyper prolactinaemia.
147. the mechanism of action of ergotamine on alpha receptors is:
a. antagonism. b. partial agonism. c. competitive inhibition. d. none of the above.
148. the ergot alkaloid used in cerebral ischaemia is:
a. dihydro ergotoxine. b. ergotamine. c. methyl ergometrine. d. all of the above
149. selective alfa 1- blocker include: a. prazosion. b. labetalol. c. alpha methyl dopa. d. ergotamine.
150. the therap eutic uses of selective alfa 1-blockers include:
a. hypertension. b. benign prostatic hyperplasia. c. peptic ulcer. d. a and b.
151. the adverse effects of selective alfa 1 blockers don't include:
a. syncope. b. failure of ejaculation. c. hypertension. d. salt and water retention.
152. the antihypertensive drug chosen in pregnancy is:
a. dihydroergotoxine. b. alpha methyl l dopa. c. drazosin. d. terazosin.
153. …………….. has a cardio selective property:
a. atenolol. b. propanolol. c. pinodolol. d. all of the above.
154. all of the following is true about ISA except:
a. help in preventing heart failure.
b. caused by pindolol. c. Inclued exert signs of
sympathetic stimulation. d. it is a beta antagonist action.
155. the antiarrhymic activity of some beta blocker is due to:
a. ISA
b. membrane stabilizing activity
c. central depressant effect d. high lipid solubility
156. ……………… blocks both beta & alpha receptor:
a. prapanolol b. atenolol c. acebutalol d. carvedilol
157. all of the following is a lipophilc b-blocker except:
a. atenolol b. pindolol c. carvedilol d. labetalol
158. all of the following is true about propranolol except:
a. it has a membrane stabilizing action
b. it has a positive chronotropic effect
c. it can cross BBB
159. the mechanisms involved in lowering the B.P with the use of propranolol include:
a. lowering the cardiac output b. reduce rennin and
aldosterone c. reducing sympathetic
outflow d. all of the above
160. the metabolic effect of propranolol includes:
a. increased glucagon secretion b. hyperglycemia c. hypoglycemia d. anaemia
161. the therapeutic uses of propranolol include:
a. effort induced angina b. hypertension c. cardiac arrhythmia d. all of the above
162. The bradycharida caused by beta blockers is treated by:
a. digitalis b. atropine c. pindolol d. insulin
163. An important side effect of beta 2 blockade is:
a. heart failure b. depression c. symptomless hypoglycemic
coma d. hypotension
164. The beta blocker used in treatment of chronic glaucoma is:
a. pendolol b. nadolol c. atenolol d. timolol
165. which of the following drugs has local anaesthetic action:
a. atenolol and acebutalol b. atenolol and metoprolol c. acebutalol and metoprolol d. none of the above
True or false
166. propranolol cause bronchodilation 167. quinidine like actions appears only in high doses of propranolol 168. heart block is a contraindication in beta blockers treatment 169. all beta blockers possess membrane stabilizing activity
Answers: 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. A
33. C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. D 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. B 63. B 64. D 65. B 66. A
67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. B 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. B 91. A 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. C 96. C 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. B
101. A 102. B 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. C 109. B 110. D 111. A 112. D 113. D 114. A 115. E 116. E 117. B 118. E 119. D 120. B 121. D 122. D 123. E 124. D 125. B 126. A 127. B 128. B 129. B 130. A 131. D 132. B 133. E 134. C
135. C 136. A 137. E 138. D 139. A 140. D 141. A 142. A 143. C 144. B 145. D 146. C 147. B 148. A 149. A 150. D 151. C 152. B 153. A 154. D 155. B 156. D 157. A 158. B 159. D 160. C 161. D 162. B 163. C 164. D 165. C 166. F 167. T 168. T
169. F
Chapter 2 : CNS Physiology of CNS:
1. Ability of the CNS to recognize the
type of the change it received is : a. Integrative function b. Sensory function c. Motor function d. All of the above
2. Inner most layer of the meningies is : a. Dura Mater b. Pia Mater c. Arachnoid space d. Subarachnoid space
3. CSF exists in which of the
following : a. Pia mater b. Dura matar c. Arachnoid layer d. Subarachnoid space
4. Which of the following contains venous sinuses to drain CSF : a. Pia mater b. Dura matar c. Arachnoid d. All of the above
5. The most important vital centre is :
a. Medulla oblongata b. Mid brain c. Spinal cord d. Pons
6. Which of the following does Pons
have sensory and motor nerves to : a. Mouth b. Neck c. Throat d. Face
7. All of the following cranial nerves
emerge from the hind brain except :
a. III b. V c. VI d. VII
8. All of the following are parts of the
forebrain except : a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Thalamus
9. Grey matter is formed of :
a. Myelin sheath b. Nerve cell bodies c. Nerve fibres d. Dendrites
10. Which of the following part of skin isn’t innervated by spinal nerves ?
a. Hand b. Foot c. Face d. Abdomen
11. Deramatome is supplied by :
a. Ventral root of spinal cord b. Dorsal root of the spinal cord
12. Blood brain barrier :
a. Controls rate by which substance passes from EC fluid
b. Controls kind of substances passing from EC fluid
c. All of the above d. None of the above
True or false:
13. Blood brain barrier isn’t permeable to O2
14. Efferent nerve is considered the sensory nerve
15. Diencephalon includes pituitary glands
16. Ridges in the surface of cerebral cortex is called sulci
17. No of peduncles connected between each of cerebellar hemisphere and brain stem parts is 2
18. 12th Cranial nerve merges from medulla oblongata
19. Spinal cord passes through foramina transversorium of vertebrae
20. There are 12 cranial nerves
21. The energy of the change in external or internal environment of the body is converted to nerve impulse by
a. Detectors b. Transducers c. Both of them d. Non of the above
22. Proprioceptors respond to
mechanical stimuli and located in a. Muscle b. Tendon c. Joint d. All of the above
23. In the aortic and carotid sinus
there are mechanoreceptors called a. Stretch receptors b. Proprioceptors c. Baroreceptors d. All of the above
24. All of the following are
mechanoreceptors except a. Touch b. Stretch receptors c. Taste receptors
d. Baroreceptors
25. Stretch receptors are located in the alveoli of the lung and .... a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Both of them d. Aorta
26. The thermoreceptors that
stimulated by thermal form of energy include warmth receptors only a. True b. False
27. All of the following are chemical
receptors except a. Taste receptors b. Pressure receptors c. Olfactory receptors d. Glucoreceptors
28. ............ stimulated by any form of
energy potent enough to cause tissue damage a. Proprioceptors b. Barorecptors c. Stretch receptors d. Nociceptors
29. Electromagnetic receptors include
: a. Rods in retina b. Cons in retina c. Both of them
d. Irris
30. The sensation perceived as a result of stimulation of a receptor is called a. Adequate stimulus b. Modality of sensation c. Action potential d. Non of the above
31. The method of stimulation affect
on the type of sensation a. True b. False
32. ............ is the ability of the receptor
to respond to stimuli a. Action potential b. Adequate stimulus c. Excitabilty d. All of the above
33. The potential that result from
opening of Na + channels in the receptor membrane is called a. receptor potential b. Generator potential c. Graded potential d. All of the above
34. An increase in the amplitude of
the receptor potential produced by …….. stimulus intensity a. Decreased b. Increased
c. No effect
35. The receptor potential has the following properties except a. Local b. Propagated c. No refractory period d. No block by anaesthetics
36. In adaptation all the following are
true except a. Increase number of nerve
impulses b. Constant maintaned stimulus c. decline in the amplitude of the
receptor potential d. decrease number of nerve
impulses
37. All of the following are rapidly adapting receptors except a. Touch b. Baroreceptors c. Olfactory d. Non of the above
38. Coding of sensory information is
the ability of the brain to discriminate the ........ of different stimuli a. Modality b. Locality c. Intesity d. All of the above
39. The modality discrimination depends on a. Adequate stimulus b. Area of brain activated c. Both of them d. Non of the above
40. .............. discrimination Depends on
the fact that each receptor has a specific pathway to the sensory cortex where different parts of the body are represented a. Modality b. Locality c. Intesity d. Non of the above
41. Discrimination of intensity also
depends on a. Frequency of discharge of
action potentials b. number of receptors
stimulated c. both of them d. non of the above
42. when you can determine your
position , it is a a. Conscious proprioceptive
sensations b. Unconscious proprioceptive
sensations c. Tactile sensations d. Non of the above
43. All of the following are from Unconscious proprioceptive sensations except a. Movement of joints b. Muscle length c. Muscle tension d. Non of the above
44. Crude touch is a touch sensation
that is sharply localized and needs a relatively strong stimulus to be elicited a. True b. False
45. ............ is the ability to localize a
touched cutaneous spot while the eyes are closed a. Tactile discrimination b. Tactile localization c. Stereognosis d. Pressure sense
46. In Stereognosis. All of the
following are true except a. Recognize an object by touch b. Eyes are opened c. Recognize an object by size d. Recognize an object by weight
47. ……… Results from rapidly
repetitive sensory signals from tactile receptors a. Pressure sense b. Itch and tickle sensations c. Vibration sense
d. All of the above
48. gracile and cuneate tracts Transmits the following sensations except a. Vibration sense b. Conscious proprioceptive
sensations c. Fine touch d. Pressure sense
49. In Patients with lesions in the
dorsal column pathway all of the following are true except a. Loss of proproceptive
sensations b. Cannot identify objects by
hands when eyes are closed c. Identify their position when
eyes are opened d. Knowing if their joints is in
flexion or extension
50. Ventral spinothalamic tract Transmits the following sensations except a. Vibration sense b. Crude touch c. Pressure sense d. Itch and tickle
51. Mechanoreceptive sensations are
transmitted by the following pathways except: a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway
b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinothalamic tract d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
52. All of the following sensations are
transmitted by dorsal column lemniscal pathway except:
a. Stereognosis b. Vibration sensation c. Joint movements and position d. Pressure sensation
53. All of the following are true
concerning the dorsal column lemniscal pathway except:
a. 1st order neuron pass to the dorsal white column of the spinal cord
b. Fibers from the upper part of the body ascend in the medial part of the dorsal white column forming the fasiculus gracilis
c. Medial lemnicsus terminate in the thalamus
d. 3rd order neuron terminate in the sensory cortex
54. Astereognosis results from lesion
in the ………. a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinothalamic tract
d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
55. Crude touch is transmitted by ………..
a. Dorsal column lemniscal pathway
b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinothalamic tract d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
56. Proprioceptive sensations are
transmitted by a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway b. Ventral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract d. a and c
57. the 1st order neuron in the
spinocerebellar pathway are thick myelinated A delta fibers which relay in the clark’s column at the base of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
a. true b. false
58. 2nd order neurons of the dorsal
spinocerebellar tract ascend in the anterolateral white column of the spinal cord reaching the medulla
a. True
b. False
59. All of the following terminate in the sensory cortex except:
a. Dorsal column lemniscal pathway
b. Ventral spinothalamic tract c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract d. Lateral spinothalamic tract
60. 2nd order neurons of the ventral
spinocerebellar tract pass through the superior peduncle to reach the vermis while those of the dorsal tract pass through the inferior peduncle
a. True b. False
61. All of the following have receptors
to stimulate the deep pain except a. Muscles b. Tendons c. Joints d. Skin
62. Ischemia of the muscle is
produced in the deep pain due to : a. Prolonged muscle contraction b. Prolonged vasoconstriction of
blood vessels c. Sympathetic effects d. Hypertension
63. Which type of the following fibers
transmit deep pain? a. Non myelinated A fibers b. Myelinated B fibres c. Non Myelinated C fibers d. Myelinated C fibers
64. All of the following participates in
the muscle ischaemic pain except : a. Arterial occlusion b. Maintained muscle relaxation c. Increase in Lewis P factor d. Trauma of the deep structures
65. All of the following have fast rate
of transmission of the pain except a. Parietal layer of pericardium b. Parietal layer of pleura c. Brain d. Parietal layer of peritoneum
66. All of the following are properties
of the visceral pain except a. Dull aching b. Radiates to the other structures c. Sharp d. Poorly localized
67. One of the following its afferent is
vagus nerve: a. Colon b. Urinary bladder
c. Rectum d. Trachea
68. All of the following are properties
of the referred pain except : a. Can be felt in diseased viscus
only b. Felt away from its original site c. Referred to somatic structure
with the same origin as viscus d. Felt in the dermatomes
69.The cerebral cortex contains ............. neurons
a. 100 milion b. 100 bilion c. 100 thousands d. Non of the above
70.The cerebral cortex is composed of ....... hemispheres
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
71.The surface of each hemispheres is formed of elevations called gyri
a. True b. False
72. Each hemisphere in cerebral cortex contains........... Lobes
a. 2 b. 4
c. 6 d. 8
73. The somatosensory cortical areas are located in the ....... lope a. Frontal b. Temporal c. Parietal d. Occipital
74. Somatic sensory area I occupies the brodman’s areas
a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,5 c. 1,3,5 d. 5,7
75. In somatic sensory area I all of the following are true except
a. The foot & leg are represented medially
b. The lips & fingers occupy smaller areas than the trunk
c. This area show modality separation of different sensation
d. It receives sensations from the opposite side of the body
76. somatic sensory area I act as a centre for the perception of the following sensations except
a. stereognosis b. vibration sense c. discrimination of weights d. pain
77. The representation of the different parts of the body in the somatosensory area II is much more sharp than in somatosensory area I
a. true b. false
78. somatosensory area II receive ......... fibres from the spinothalamic than the dorsal column pathway
a. more b. less c. long d. short
79. the patient with damage in brodman’s areas 5 , 7 can recognize objects by touch
a. true b. false
80. Area of flare that surrounds an inflammed or injured skin area is the site of occurring
a. primary hyperalgesia b. secondary hyperalgesia c. analgesia d. hypoalgesia
81. Releasing of ....... from the injured skin area to neighbouring healthy skin cause primary hyperalgesia except
a. serotonin b. histamine c. proteolytic enzymes d. kinins
82. The mechanism of primary hyperalgesia depends on
a. vasodilatation b. lowering the threshold of pain
receptors c. both of them d. non of the above
83. All of the following reduce pain except
a. rubbing b. electrical stimulation of certain
areas of the brain c. the absence of receptors for
opiates in the brain d. acupuncture
84. The neurotransmitter act on postsynaptic neuron to modify its activity either exciting or inhibiting according to the nature of the postsynaptic receptors.
a. True b. False
85. The threshold for the postsynaptic neuron excitation is about
a. -59 mv b. -70 mv c. -50 mv
86. gamma aminobutyric acid is :
a. an excitatory neurotransmitter b. an inhibitory neurotransmitter c. inhibits the release of the
excitatory transmitter from the excitatory presynaptic fiber.
d. Both a and c e. Both b and c
87. Binding of the excitatory transmitter to postsynaptic receptors increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to a. Na only b. K only c. K and CL d. all ions
88. All of the following are correct about The EPSP except: a. propagating b. lasts for about 15
milliseconds. c. A single EPSP is not enough to
increase the neuronal potential to threshold value instead it must add up to trigger an action potential.
89. Which of the following is incorrect about Electrical events in inhibitory synapses:
a. increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to K+ / Cl
b. increases the degree of intracellular negativity
c. leading to a state of hyperdepolarisation
90. stimulation of several presynaptic fibers on the postsynaptic neuron at the sametime to raise the postsynaptic membrane potential to the threshold level is called:
a. Temporal summation b. Spatial summation
91. Which of the following
properties serves in cessation of an epileptic fit:
a. Synaptic delay b. Synaptic fatigue c. Post-tetanic facilitation d. Summation
92. Which of the following
properties serves in the recall of information after a short time of its reading:
a. Synaptic delay b. Synaptic fatigue c. Post-tetanic facilitation
d. Summation 93. coma in uraemic patients is
mainly due to : a. acidosis that has inhibitory
effect on synaptic transmission
b. alkalosis that has inhibitory effect on synaptic transmission
c. acidosis that has excitatory effect on synaptic transmission
d. acidosis that has excitatory effect on synaptic transmission
94. if the cerebral circulation is temporarily interrupted for 3-6 seconds that may lead to
a. death b. loss of consciousness c. epilepsy
95. caffeine enhance synaptic
transmission by (choose the best answer):
a. increasing the discharge of neurotransmitters
b. decreasing fatiguability of the nerve
c. decreasing the threshold for excitation of neurons
d. accumulation of ions in the synaptic cleft
True or false:
96. Nuclear chains have sensory innervations by primary and secondary fibers while the nuclear bags are innervated by primary fibers only
97. Motor fibers innervate the central receptor areas of intrafusal fibers while the sensory fibers innervate the peripheral contractile parts of the intrafusal fibers
98. Nuclear bags are supplied by static gamma efferents while the nuclear chains are supplied by dynamic gamma efferents
99. Gamma motor neurons are the centers of stretch reflex
100. The dynamic response of the primary sensory endings informs the CNS about the rate of muscle stretch while the static response of the secondary sensory endings informs the CNS about the amount of stretch
101. All of the followings concerning the nuclear bags are true except:
a. Are innervated by primary sensory fibers
b. Are innervated by dynamic gamma fibers
c. Their stretch gives information about the amout of stretch
d. They are rapidly adapting receptors
102. ………… increase gamma fibers discharge : a. Anxiety b. Painful cutaneous stimulation c. Hooking of fingers together d. All of the above
103. All of the following are true
concerning the stretch reflex except: a. Its total time is short b. There is no irradiation or
fatigue c. There is after discharge due to
the presence of the interneurons
d. There is reciprocal innervations
104. All of the following are antigravity muscles except: a. Flexors of the upper limb b. Extensors of the lower limb c. Extensors of the back
d. Flexors of the neck
105. The muscle tone increases in cold weathers while it decreases in hot weather a. True b. False
106. All of the following is true
concerning the muscle tone except: a. The receptor is rapidly
adapting b. The afferent fibers are
secondary while the motor fibers are alpha motor fibers
c. The effectors are extrafusal fibers
d. It’s responsible for maintaining the erect posture against gravity
107. All of the following is true concerning the tendon jerk except: a. The receptor is rapidly
adapting b. The afferent fibers are
primary while the motor fibers are alpha motor fibers
c. The effectors are intrafusal fibers
d. It’s responsible for diagnosing neurological disorders
108. All of the following is true concerning clast knife spasticity except: a. It’s upper motor neuron
lesion b. It’s example of hypertonia c. There is exaggerated tendon
jerks d. There is no tendon jerks
109. All of the following are
inhibitory centers of stretch reflex except: a. Paleocerebellum b. Inhibitory reticular formation
center c. Basal ganglia d. Primary motor area of the
cortex
110. All of the following is true concerning the inverse stretch reflex except: a. It’s relaxation of the over
stretched muscle b. It occurs by stimulation of the
inhibitory interneurons which stimulate the antagonistic muscle
c. Stimulated muscle spindles cause stimulation of the antagonistic muscle via inhibition of the alpha motor neuron supplying the over stretched muscle
d. It’s a protective reflex protecting the muscle from tearing as a result of over stretch
111. Clonus occurs as a result of stretch reflex-inverse stretch reflex sequence resulting in alternating mucles contractions and relaxations a. True b. False
112. the primary motor area is found in:
a. frontal lope b. parietal lope c. temporal lope d. occipital lope
113. all of the following are parts of
the temporal lope except: a. auditory centre b. auditory association area c. hippocamus d. brocas area
114. the area occupying the precentral gyrus in the frontal lope is:
a. premotor area b. primary motor area c. supplementary motor area d. suppresor area
115. all of the following are
bilateraly represented in the brain except:
a. upper part of the face b. lower part of the face c. abdominal wall muscles d. respiratory muscle
116. the cells presented in the
primary motor area are: a. betz cells b. martinotti cells c. horizontal cell of cajal d. none of the above
117. the area responsible for
initiating delicate voluntery movements is;
a. supplementary area b. supressor area c. primary motor area d. premotor area
118. area 4 and 6 share the
function of: a. initiation of delicate
movements b. facilitation of spinal reflexes c. inhibition of spinal reflex d. initiation of gross movements
119. the following areas sharing in
planning of voluntery movements except:
a. premotor area b. primary motor area c. supplementry motor area d. prefrontal association area
120. area 6 inhibits all of the
following except: a. gross movements b. spinal reflexes c. muscle tone d. grasp reflex
121. the area responsible for
conjugate eye movements is: a. brocas area b. head rotation area c. frontal eye field d. exners area
122. motor apraxia is a lesion of:
a. brocas area b. head rotation area c. frontal eye field d. area of hand skills
123. brocas area is essential for:
a. walking b. speech c. involuntery movements d. muscle tone
124. the area lying between area 4
and 6 is: a. supplementary motor area
b. prefrontal association area c. suppressor area d. none of the above
125. all of the following are
function of the prefrontal association area except;
a. provide the ability to concentrate
b. plays arole in immediate memory
c. control behaviour d. initiate fine movements
126. the area responsible for
elaboration of thoughts is: a. primary motor area b. broadmanns areas 9:14 c. premotor area d. suppresor area
127. the most excitable area of the
following is: a. primary motor area b. premotor area c. suppresor area d. supplementary motor area
TRUE OR FALSE
128. the premotor area gives origin to pyramidal tracts.
129. motor area 4 is responsible for delicate voluntery movements.
130. motor apraxia is a lesion of brocas area.
131. motor area 6 is responsible for facilitation of spinal reflexes.
132. All of the following are considered direct tracts except :
a. Corticospinal tract b. Corticobulber tract c. Corticonuclear tract d. Rubrospinal tract
133. Most of the corticospinal tracts
are : a. Anterior b. Lateral c. Ipsilateral d. Medial
134. All of the following have
bilateral parts in the motor center except :
a. Upper face b. Intercostal muscles c. Abdominal wall d. Back muscles
135. Which of the following is
supplied by the corticobulber tract :
a. Head b. Hand c. Foot d. Abdomen
136. The corticonuclear tract arises
from the motor centre : a. 4
b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
137. All of the following tracts pass
to the basal ganglia except : a. Rubrospinal tract b. Corticospinal tract c. Olivospinal tract d. Tectospinal tract
138. Indirect pathway most of it is :
a. Crossed b. Uncrossed c. Excitatory d. Long
139. All of the following occupy the
pyramid in medulla oblongata except :
a. Corticospinal tract b. Tectospinal tract c. Corticonuclear tract d. Corticobulbar tract
140. Where does the rubrospinal
tract join the corticospinal ? a. Lateral column b. Medial colum c. Dorsal horn d. Ventral horn
141. Which of the following is concerned with audiospinal reflexes ?
a. Medial tectospinal b. Lateral tectospinal c. Rubrospinal tract d. Lateral reticulospinal tract
142. All of the following are
considered to be short tracts except :
a. Olivospinal tract b. Tectospinal tract c. Rubrospinal tract d. Reticulospinal tract
143. All of the following facilitates
the muscle tone except: a. Lateral reticulospinal tract b. Medial reticulospinal tract c. Olivospinal tract d. Vestibulospinal tract
True and false :
144. Most of pyramidal tracts are crossed
145. Most of extra pyramidal are inhibitory
146. Pyramidal tracts are earlier in life
147. Cortical control of pyramidal is wider
148. Pyramidal occupy olive of spinal cord
149. Extrapyramidal fibres decaussate at the lower border of the medulla oblongata
150. Pyramidal are most important in the equilibrium
151. Extrapyramidal are concerned with body posture
152. All of the following are causes of lower motor neuron lesion except : a. Anterior horn cell b. Somatic nerve c. Cranial nerve nuclei d. Motor cortex
153. One of the following is correct
about LMNL : a. Accompanied by widespread
paralysis b. Due to lesion in motor cortex c. Deep spinal reflex is lost d. No muscle wasting
154. Positive Babiniski test includes
: a. Planter flexion of the toes b. Dorsiflexion of all toes c. Fanning of 4 smaller toes only d. None of the above
155. Hypertonia occurs due to the : a. Sparing for inhibitory
descending tracts b. Loss of the crossing inhibitory
tracts c. Intact inhibitory tracts d. Lesion in uncrossed excitatory
tract
156. Injury in cranial nerve nuclei causes : a. LMNL b. UMNL c. Both d. None
True or false about UMNL :
157. Localized paralysis 158. Lesion in higher centres 159. Atonia 160. Normal Deep reflex 161. Positive Babriniski
162. The striatum is …………. a. Caudate and globus pallidus b. Caudate and putamen c. Globus pallidus and putamen
163. The receiving center of the basal
ganglia is ………… a. Caudate and putamen. b. Globus pallidus c. Globus pallidus and putamen
164. The discharge center of the
basal ganglia is …………. a. Caudate and putamen b. Globus pallidus and putamen c. Globus pallidus
165. Strioto-pallidal projection
utilizes ……….. as a neurotransmitter
a. GABA b. ACL c. Dopamine d. Glutamate
166. Nigro-striatal projection utilizes
……….. as a neurotransmitter a. GABA b. ACL c. Dopamine d. Glutamate
167. Globus pallidus may project to
all except ……….. a. Thalamus b. Subthalamus c. Brain stem d. Striatum
168. The direct circuit is ……… and
its importance is …………
a. Excitatory, prevent the unwanted involuntary movement.
b. Inhibitory, facilitate the target movement
c. Excitatory, facilitate the target movement
d. Inhibitory, prevent the unwanted involuntary movement
169. Glutamate is released from
…………. a. Cortex b. Striatum c. Globus pallidus d. Thalamus
170. The hyperkinetic features of
Parkinsonism are all except ……..
a. Brady kinesia and akinesia b. Tremors c. Rigidity
171. We can use dopamine is
treatment of Parkinsonism a. True b. False
172. Sensation can be consciously
perceived by the cerebellum a. true b. false
173. The part of the cerebellum concerned mainly with equilibrium is:
a. archicerebellum b. paleocerebellum c. Neocerebellum
174. Output from the
cerebrocerebellum passes a. through the fastigial nucleus
then to the brain stem b. To the dentate nucleus and
then to the ventrolateral nucleus of the thalamus
c. to emboliform and globose, then to the brainstem.
175. the limbs & head are
represented in the vermis of the spinocerebellum
a. True b. False
176. To stop the movement precisely
at the intended point by subconscious signals is called …...and it's achieved by ……
a. Servocomparator function… spinocerebellum
b. Damping of movement… spinocerebellum
c. Damping of movement… cerebrocerebellum
d. Servocomparator function… cerebrocerebellum
177. Which of the following centers
is responsible for the coordination of movement during writing ? a. Vestibulocerebellum b. Cerebrocerebellum c. Spinocerebellum
178. The following center is
important for preventing the decomposition of the movement : a. Vestibulocerebellum b. Cerebrocerebellum c. Spinocerebellum
179. The cerebrocellebellum has a
leading role in all the following actions except: a. Timing of movements b. coordinates the automatic
associated subconscious movements
c. Planning of movements d. Prediction of movements
180. The flocculonodular lobe is
considered as: a. Vestibulocerebellum b. Cerebrocerebellum
c. Spinocerebellum
181. The following tracts are involved in the process of maintaining the equilibrium through the vestibulocerebellum except : a. reticulospinal b. vestibulospinal c. tectospinal
182. The output of the cerebellum is
generally excitatory to muscle tone a. True b. False
183. Which of the following
statements is incorrect about The vermis syndrome: a. the flocculo-nodular lobe is
affected b. Symptoms are often absent
when the child is lying down c. There is nystagmus d. There is hypotonia e. There is raised intracranial
pressure
184. The perilymph is present within the membranous labyrinth while the endolymph is present
between it and the bony labyrinth
a. True b. False
185. The macula of ……. is
concerned with equilibrium a. Utricle b. Saccule
186. The macula of ……… is
concerned with vertical linear acceleration while the macula of ……. is concerned with horizontal linear acceleration a. Utricle / Saccule b. Saccule / Utricle
187. All of the following are
stimulants to the SCC except: a. Caloric stimulation b. Rotation c. Faradic stimulation d. Vestibular neuritis
188. SCCs are active at …………..
a. The beginning of rotation b. The end of rotation c. Both of them d. None of the above
True or false:
189. Sudden forward horizontal movement results in displacement of the otoconia forwards stretching all the hair cells of the macula
190. Stereocilium is located at one side of the hair cell
191. In case of horizontal SCC displacement of the cupula towards the utricle the crista becomes stimulated
192. The kinocilium of the superior SCC lies towards the utricle
193. In the start of rotation from right to left the endolymph moves in the same direction but after 30 sec. in starts to move in the opposite direction
194. When the individual starts to rotate in horizontal plane from left to right , the endolymph moves in the same direction a. True b. False
195. SCC are active only at the
beginning and ending of rotation or if rate or direction of rotation is changed
a. True b. False
196. All of the following are from the autonomic changes that result from stimulation of SCC except
a. Nausea b. Vomiting c. Bradycardia d. Hypertension
197. In stimulation of SCC , muscle
tone changes help to a. Support the posture during
rotation b. Guard against falling down
towards the activated side c. Cause motion sickness d. Both a & b
198. Stimulation of reticular
formation in the brain stem can cause bradycardia
a. True b. False
199. ........... is the sensation of rotation
in the absence of actual rotation a. Autonomic changes b. Muscle tone changes c. Vertigo d. All of the above
200. All of the following can cause
vertigo except a. Motion sickness b. Chronic alcoholism c. Errors of refraction
d. Beginning of rotation
201. .............is repetitive rhythmic movement of the eye observed at the start of rotation
a. Vertigo b. Rotatory nystagmus c. Post rotatory nystagmus d. All of the above
202. .............is repetitive rhythmic
movement of the eye observed at the end of period of rotation
a. Vertigo b. Rotatory nystagmus c. Post rotatory nystagmus d. All of the above
203. Angular acceleration is one of
the pathological causes of nystagmus
a. True b. False
204. All of the following are from the
pathologic causes of nystagmus except
a. Cerebellar diseases b. Inner ear disorders c. Optokinetic nystagmus d. Defective vision
205. In slow component of
nystagmus both eyes move toward the same direction of rotation
a. True b. False
206. Rapid component of nystagmus
is controlled by brainstem circuits
a. True b. False
207. When you look from a window
of a rapidly moving car ,it considers as
a. Physiological nystagmus b. Pathological nystagmus c. Optokinetic nystagmus d. Both a & c
208. Slow component of nystagmus
occurs when the vestibular nucleus discharges in secondary direction
a. True b. False
209. Output from other thalamic
nuclei passes to be regulated before reaching the cortex. a. The medial group of nuclei b. The reticular nuclei c. The intralaminar nuclei
210. All of the following statements
are correctly describing the intralaminar nuclei except
a. scattered along the internal medullary lamina,
b. They are connected with the reticular activating system.
c. It receives fibers carrying slow pain and thermal sensation
d. Site of relay of the neospinocerebellar tract
e. It is one of the Nonspecific thalamic-nuclei
211. Both the anterior and medial groups of thalamic nuclei receive impulses from the hypothalamus and have a role in controlling emotions
a. True b. False
Notice the following picture and answer the questions:
212. Which of the pointed nuclei is the Main thalamic motor nucleus a. 1 b. 2
c. 3
213. lateral part of the structure 3 recieves :
a. medial leminiscus b. trigeminal leminiscus c. input from the basal ganglia
214. all of the following statements
about the medial geniculate body are true except:
a. projects auditory impulses to the temporal lobe
b. connected to inferior colliculus c. one of the Posterior group of
thalamic nuclei d. connected to superior
colliculus
215. The structure A is related to the integration of somatic, visual and auditory information.
a. True b. False
216. Which of the following isn't one
of the functions of the thalamus a. It is a relay center in circuits of
the basal ganglia. b. It is a relay center for visual
and auditory pathways
c. It is a relay center for epicritic sensations from the opposite side of the body to the cortex
d. It is a primitive center for protopathic sensations from the same side of the body
217. The most affected part in the thalamic syndrome is:
a. medial division of the posteroventral nucleus
b. lateral division of the posteroventral nucleus
c. lateral ventral thalamic nuclei d. anterior-nuclei
218. what's meant by the thalamic
hyperpathia: a. the pain felt is following the all
or nothing relationship b. the pain felt is poorly localized c. the pain felt is Having a high
threshold
219. patient suffering from thalamic syndrome may have sensory and motor ataxia
a. true b. false
220. patient suffering from
thrombosis of the artery supplying the right thalamus
cann't identify a pen in his …hand with closed eyes
a. right b. left
221. All of the following are
functions of the anterior hypothalamus except:
a. Regulation of body temperature
b. Water balance c. Controlling of sleeping d. Wakefulness
222. Destruction of the 2
ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus leads to:
a. Hypothalamic obesity b. Hyperphagia c. Sham rage reaction d. all of the above
223. Endocrine functions are
controlled by……………..nuclei of hypothalamus:
a. Anterior group b. Posterior group c. Medial group d. Lateral group
224. Bilateral amagdaloid lesion leads
to: a. Placidity
b. Sham rage reaction c. Aphagia d. None of the above
225. Stimulation of ventromedial
nuclei of hypothalamus leads to: a. Aphagia b. Anorexia c. Placidity d. Both A and c
226. Placidity can be produced by:
a. Stimulation of ventromedial nuclei
b. Bilateral lesion of amygdaloid c. Removal of neocortex d. Both a & b
227. Central thermo receptors
present in: a. Supraoptic nucleus b. Preoptic nucleus c. Suprachiasmic nucleus d. None of the above
228. Feeding center presents in:
a. Anterior nuclei b. Posterior nuclei c. Medial nuclei d. Lateral nuclei
229. Thirst center presents in:
a. Preoptic nucleus
b. Supraoptic nucleus c. suprachiasmic nucleus d. None of the above
230. Thirst centre is stimulated by:
a. Increased blood volume b. Decreased osmolarity c. Decreased blood volume d. None of the above
231. Cells of supraoptic nucleus are
sensitive to: a. Temperature b. Blood volume c. Osmolairty d. B & c
232. Sleep is mediated by:
a. Cholinergic neurons b. GABA releasing inhibitory
neurons c. Histaminergic neurons d. None of the above
233. Arousal is produced by:
a. Inhibition of reticular formation
b. Stimulation of anterior hypothalamus
c. Stimulation of posterior hypothalamus
d. None of the above
234. …… center is present in ventromedial nucleus:
a. Thirst center b. Feeding center c. Satiety center d. None of the above
235. Stimulation of anterior
hypothalamus leads to: a. Sleeping b. Sedation c. Arousal d. None of the above
236. Anorexia results from:
a. Stimulation of feeding center b. Destruction of satiety center c. Stimulation if satiety center d. Destruction of feeding center
237. Aphagia results from
a. Stimulation of feeding center b. Destruction of satiety center c. Stimulation of satiety center d. Destruction of feeding center
238. Destruction of satiety center
leads to: a. Hyperphagia b. Aphagia c. Anorexia d. None of the above
239. mamillothalamic tract connects: a. lateral nuclei of the thalamus and
mamillary bodies b. anterior nuclei of the thalamus
and mamillary bodies c. lateral nuclei of the
hypothalamus and mamillary bodies
d. anterior nuclei of the hypothalamus and mamillary bodies
240. which of the following is the correct sequence of the papez circuit
a. Hippocampus >> Cingulate gyrus >>Anterior thalamus >> Mamillary bodies
b. Anterior thalamus >>Mamillary bodies >> Hippocampus>>Cingulate gyrus
c. Hippocampus >> Anterior thalamus >> Mamillary bodies >>Cingulate gyrus
d. Hippocampus >>Mamillary bodies >>Anterior thalamus >>Cingulate gyrus
241. the fornix connects: a. The hippocampus to the
mamillary bodies b. Hippocampus to the Anterior
thalamus c. Mamillary bodies to the Cingulate
gyrus
242. Its lesions cause moderate hyperphagia with indisciminate ingestion of all kinds of food
a. hippocampus b. Cingulate gyrus c. mamillary bodies d. amygdale
243. a structure is concerned with the
formation and storage of memories associated with fear and love
a. hippocampus b. Cingulate gyrus c. mamillary bodies d. amygdaloid nucleus
244. The limbic system and the
hypothalamus can play a role in regulating our autonomic functions
a. true b. false
245. the following are functions of the
limbic system except a. Motivation b. Olfaction c. relay center for visual and
auditory pathways d. Regulation of autonomic
functions 246. All the following are true
regarding to the alpha waves recorded by the EEG except:
a. are most marked in the parieto-occipital lobe
b. Are recorded in an awake active person
c. Occurring at frequency of 8-13/sec
d. They are with amplitude of about 50 μV
247. The following waves are markedly seen in patients with brain diseases:
a. theta waves b. Beta waves c. Delta waves d. a & c e. b & c
248. Which of the following
statements is true regarding to the Beta waves?
a. are seen in the parietal region b. Are recorded in an awake
person regardless the mental activity.
c. They have amplitude lower than 50 mV
d. They are not recorded during sleep
e. None of the above
249. Which of the following statements is false about the Theta waves?
a. They have frequency less than that of Alpha waves
b. Physiologically, the occur in children
c. Pathologically, they are seen in many brain disorders
d. They are seen during stage I of slow wave sleep
e. None of the above
250. Regarding to the Delta waves, which of the following statements is false?
a. they have the lowest frequency of EEG waves
b. They are recorded only in stage III of slow wave sleep
c. Normally, they occur in infancy
d. They are the waves of very deep sleep
e. None of the above
251. Slow wave sleep is characterized by the following EXCEPT:
a. Drop in the blood pressure b. Decrease in the BMR c. Sympathetic tone on the blood
vessels is lowered
d. This is the stage of no dreams e. None of the above
252. Regarding to the NREM sleep, all
of the following are false EXEPT: a. It occurs at the beginning of
the sleep. b. the passage from wakefulness
to it is characterized by an increase in frequencies and voltage activities
c. It is of duration less than REM sleep
d. a &b e. None of the above
253. REM sleep is characterized by: a. Atonia b. Variable heart rate c. Active dreaming d. a & b e. None of the above
254. Which of the following
statements about REM sleep is false:
a. It shows activity similar to the waking state.
b. Apnea may occurs in this stage due to reduction in the homeostatic mechanism
c. The Beta waves are mainly recorded in this stage & other slow waves are also recorded.
d. Known as paradoxical sleep and occurs in episodes of 5-30min
e. None of the above
255. Each of the following produce sleep EXCEPT:
a. Adenosine b. GABA c. Serotonin antagonists d. None of the above
Put (True) or (False) in front of the following statements (from 11-15): 256. Stage II of the NREM sleep is
characterized by sleep spindles superimposed on Beta waves.
257. NREM sleep is characterized by marked decrease in muscle tone.
258. REM sleep is known as paradoxical sleep and shows only Beta waves.
259. The sleep cycle consists of one episode of REM and 4 episodes of NREM.
260. During REM sleep, the slow waves are inhibited by cholinergic neurons in the brainstem.
Answers: 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. F 14. F 15. F 16. F 17. F 18. T 19. F 20. F 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. B
32. C 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. A 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. D 62. A 63. C 64. B
65. C 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. C 74. A 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. A 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. A 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. C 90. B 91. B 92. C 93. A 94. B 95. C 96. T 97. F
98. F 99. F 100. T 101. C 102. D 103. C 104. D 105. T 106. A 107. C 108. D 109. D 110. C 111. A 112. A 113. D 114. B 115. B 116. A 117. C 118. D 119. B 120. A 121. C 122. D 123. B 124. C 125. D 126. B 127. A 128. F 129. T 130. F
131. F 132. D 133. B 134. D 135. A 136. C 137. B 138. B 139. B 140. A 141. A 142. D 143. A 144. T 145. T 146. F 147. F 148. F 149. F 150. F 151. T 152. D 153. C 154. D 155. B 156. A 157. F 158. T 159. F 160. F 161. T 162. B 163. A
164. C 165. A 166. C 167. D 168. C 169. A 170. A 171. B 172. B 173. A 174. B 175. B 176. B 177. C 178. B 179. B 180. A 181. C 182. A 183. D 184. B 185. B 186. B 187. C 188. C 189. F 190. F 191. T 192. F 193. F 194. B 195. A 196. D
197. D 198. A 199. C 200. D 201. B 202. C 203. B 204. C 205. B 206. A 207. D 208. B 209. B 210. D 211. A 212. B 213. A 214. D 215. A 216. D 217. B 218. A 219. A 220. B 221. D 222. D 223. A 224. A 225. D 226. D 227. B 228. D 229. B
230. C 231. D 232. B 233. C 234. C 235. A 236. D 237. C 238. A 239. B 240. D 241. A 242. D 243. D 244. A 245. C 246. B 247. C 248. C 249. E 250. B 251. D 252. A 253. D 254. C 255. D 256. F 257. F 258. T 259. F 260. T
Anatomy of the CNS: I. Anatomy of head and neck:
1. From the attachment of falx cerebri all except ……… a. crista galli. b. Upper surface of tentorium
cerebelli. c. to the lips of the sagittal sulcus
on the inner aspect of skull cap.
d. Upper border of petrous temporal bone
2. Venous sinuses found in falx
cerebri all except ……… a. Superior sagittal sinus b. Inferior sagittal sinus c. Superior petrosal sinus d. Straight sinus
3. The attached margin of Tentorium
cerebelli is attached to all except ………. a. crista galli. b. posterior clinoid process c. upper border of petrous
temporal bone d. the margin of the groove for
transverse sinus. 4. Venous sinuses related to
tentorium are all except ……… a. Straight b. superior sagittal
c. Superior petrosal sinus in the attached margin.
d. Transverse sinus in the attached margin.
5. from the single sinuses found in
the cranial cavity are all except …… a. Superior sagittal. b. Inferior sagittal. c. Straight sinus. d. Cavernous
6. from the paired sinuses are all
except ……… a. Superior petrosal. b. Inferior petrosal. c. Occipital d. Transverse sinus.
7. It begins at the apex of falx cerebri
above the crista galli and ends a little to the right of the internal occipital protuberance by turning to the right side and becoming the right transverse sinus. This is ……
a. superior sagittal b. inferior sagittal c. straight d. transverse
8. Uniting with the great cerebral
vein to form the straight sinus this is ….
a. superior sagittal b. inferior sagittal c. straight d. transverse
9. It is situated at the line of junction
of the falx cerebri with the tentorium cerebelli this is ……….
a. superior sagittal b. inferior sagittal c. straight d. transverse
10. at the roof of the cavernous sinus
there is ………. a. internal carotid artery b. Body of sphenoid c. Pituitary gland d. temporal lobe of the brain
11. nerves found at the lateral wall of
the cavernous sinus are all except …….. a. a.Oculomotor (III) b. trochlear (IV c. abducent (VI) d. d.Maxillary (V2)
12. The dense connective tissue layer
of the scalp is called:- a. Peripheral layer. b. Fatty layer c. Vascular layer d. Central layer
13. The third layer of the scalp is the aponeurosis of:-
a. buccinator muscle b. occipitofrontalis muscle c. masseter muscle d. none of the above
14. blue eye is caused by bleeding in:- a. aponeurosis of occipitofrontalis
muscle b. periosteum c. dense C.T d. loose connective tissue
15. which of the following is a branch
from the internal carotid artery:- a. supra orpital artery b. superficial temporal artery c. posterior auricular artery d. occipital artery
16. the area of the scalp in front of the
auricle is supplied by all of the folowing except:-
a. supra orpital artery b. supra trochlear artery c. occipital artery d. superficial temporal artery
17. the motor nerve to the
preauricular part of the scalp is:- a. posterior auricular nerve b. temporal branch of fascial nerve c. trigimenal nerve d. maxillary nerve
18. the occipitofrontalis muscle is supplied by:
a. temporal branch of fascial nerve b. posterior auricular branch of
fasial nerve c. occipital nerve
d. A and B
19. all of the following are sensory supply to the preauricular area of the scalp except:-
a. auriclo temporal nerve b. zygomatico temporal nerve c. great auricular nerve d. supra orbital nerve
20. all of the following are branches from cervical spinal nerves except:-
a. supra orbital nerve b. lesser occipital nerve c. great auricular nerve d. none of the above
21. occipitofrontalis muscle:- a. has frontal and occipital bellies b. supplied by branches of fascial
nerve c. move the scalp forward and
backward d. all of the above
22. the occipital vein ends in:- a. internal juglar vein b. external juglar vein c. suboccipital venous plexus d. subclavian vein
23. superficial temporal vein unites with the maxillary vein forming:-
a. external juglar vein
b. internal juglar vein c. anterior fascial vein d. posterior fascial vein
24. the only tributary of the subclavian vein is:-
a. external nasal vein b. external juglar vein c. occipital vein d. common fascial vein
25. lymphatic drainage of preauricular part of the scalp:-
a. parotid L.N b. mastoid L.N c. occipital L.N d. submental L.N
26. the orbicularis oculi muscle is formed of :-
a. orbital part b. palpebral part c. lacrimal part d. all of the above
27. which of the following musles is pierced by:-
a. buccinator muscle b. orbicularis oris muscle c. frontalis muscle d. mentalis muscle
28. the middle fibers of the buccinator muscle is inserted into:-
a. upper lip b. lower lip c. a and b d. none of the above
29. the motor supply of the face is carried by:
a. trigeminal lerve b. facial nerve c. vagus nerve d. maxillary nerve
30. all of the following are branches
of the facial nerve except:- a. temporal nerve b. mandibular nerve c. buccal nerve d. maxillary nerve
31. the platysma muscle is supplied by
which branch of the facial nerve:- a. cervical branch b. buccal branch c. temporal branch d. zygomatic branch
32. all the face is is sensory supplied
by the trigeminal nerve except:- a. the upper lip b. the lower lip c. the area over the angle of the
mandible d. the mental area
33. the maxillary nerve gives the
following branch except:- a. zygomaticotemporal
b. zygomatico facial c. infraorbital d. external nasal
34. the upper eyelid is supplied by the following nerves except:-
a. supratrochlear nerve b. supra orbital nerve c. palpebral branch of lacrimal
nerve d. palpebral branch of infra orbital
nerve
35. the buccal nerve is abranch from:-
a. opthalmic nerve b. mandibular nerve c. maxillary nerve d. facial nerve
36. all of the following are branches
of the facial artery except:- a. superior labial b. inferior labial c. angular d. mental
37. the transverse facial artery is
abranch from:- a. facial artery b. occipital artery c. superficial temporal artery d. internal carotid artery
38. the common facial vein ends in
a. internal juglar vein b. external juglar vein
c. subclavian vein d. maxillary vein
39. the lymph drainage of the medial part of the face is into
a. submental L.N b. submandibular L.N c. parotid L.N d. mastoid L.N
40. the side of the neck is divided into
anterior and posterior triangles by:-
a. platysma muscle b. sternomastiod muscle c. trapezius muscle d. levator scabulae
41. the posterior border of the
posterior triangle is: a. sternomastoid muscle b. scalenius muscle c. trapezius muscle d. clavicle
42. the following muscle is a part of
the roof of posterior triangle muscle:-
a. platysma muscle b. omohyoid muscle c. splenius capitus muscle d. trapezius muscle
43. the following muscles form the
floor of the posterior triangle except:-
a. semispinalis capitis
b. splenius capitus c. levator scabulae d. omohyoid muscle
44. all of the following pierce the
investing layer of the deep fascia except:-
a. external juglar vein b. L.V c. internal juglar vein d. supraclavicular nerve
45. the posterior triangle contain the
following nerves except:- a. spinal part of accessory nerve b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. roots and trunks of brachial
plexus d. cutaneous branches of cervical
plexus
46. all of the following are cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus except:-
a. great occipital nerve b. great auricular nerve c. lesser occipital d. transverse cervical
47. the nerve running paralel to rhe
sternomastoid muscle is:- a. great auricular nerve b. supra cavicular nerve c. transverse cervical nerve d. lesser occipital nerve
48. the supra scapular artery is a
branch from:-
a. common carotid artery b. facial artery c. subclavian artery d. transverse cervical artery
49. the supra scapular vein end in:- a. internal juglar vein b. external juglar vein c. subclavian vein d. none of the above
50. All of the following are the
boundries of anterior triangle of the neck except :
a. Mid line of the neck b. Inferior border of the maxilla c. Inferior border of the mandible d. Anterior border of the
steromastoid
51. A structure is found in both digastric and submental triangle :
a. Omohyoid muscle b. Hypoglossus c. Sternihyoid muscle d. Mylohyoid muscle
52. Superior bellies of omohyoid
muscle is a common boundry of : a. Digastric and submental triangle b. Digastric and muscular triangle c. Muscular triangle and carotid
triangle
d. Carotid triangle and digastrics triangle
53. All of the following are contents of
carotid triangle except : a. External carotid artery b. Carotid sheath c. Superficial cervical lymph nodes d. Sympathetic trunk
54. Ansa cervicalis supply all the
following except : a. Sternohyoid muscle b. Sternothyroid muscle c. Thyrohyoid muscle d. Infrahyoid muscle
55. A salivary gland can be seen in
which of the following : a. Digastric triangle b. Submental triangle c. Carotid triangle d. Muscular triangle
56. All of the following are found in
pairs except : a. Submental triangle b. Diagastric triangle c. Carotid triangle d. Muscular triangle
57. All of the following muscles are
attached to hyoid bone except :
a. Sternomastoid muscle b. Anterior bellies of Digastric
muscles c. Superior bellies of omohyoid
muscles d. Posterior bellies of Digastric
muscles
58. The base of the submental triangle is :
a. Thyroid cartilage b. Maxilla c. Hyoid bone d. Mandible
59. All of the following can be
considered a part of the neck triangles except :
a. Scalenus medias b. Scalenus anterior c. Splenius capitis d. Semispinalis capitis
60. All of the following are boundaries
of the carotid triangle except: a. anterior border of sternomastoi b. anterior belly of digastric muscle c. superior belly of omohyoid d. posterior belly of digastric muscle
61. sympathetic trunk is one of the
carotid triangle contents: a. true
b. false
62. Ansa cervicalis nerve supplies all the following muscles except:
a. sternohyoid b. sternothyroid c. thyrohyoid d. superior belly of omohyoid
63. The inferior root of ansa cervicalis
nerve arises from: a. c1 b. c5 c. c3 d. c2 &c3
64. Nerve to thyrohyoid arise from : a. c2 b. c1 c. c3 d. none of the above
65. Hypoglossus and thyrohyoid form
the floor of muscular triangle: a. true b. false
66. Inferior belly of omohyoid is one
of carotid triangle boundaries: a. true b. false
67. The floor of carotid triangle is
formed by: a. hypoglossus b. thyrohyoid
c. middle and inferior constrictors of the pharynx
d. all of the above
68. Vagus nerve is one of the carotid sheath contents:
a. true b. false
69. All of the following are contents of
the carotid sheath except: a. common carotid artery b. vagus nerve c. internal jugular vein d. external carotid artery
70. superior belly of omohyoid is one
of the muscular triangle boundaries:
a. true b. false
71. sternohyoid is one of the muscles
forming the deep layer of infrahyoid muscles :
a. true b. false
72. Ninth cranial nerve is : a. glossopharyngeal b. vagus c. accessory d. none of the above
73. All of the following are branches
of the vagus nerve except: a. meningeal
b. auricular to the skin of the external auditory meatus
c. pharyngeal d. tympanic branch forming lesser
superficial petrosal nerve
74. Descends in the neck within the carotid sheath :
a. glossopharyngeal nerve b. vagus c. accessory d. all of the above
75. The cervical part of accessory
nerve arises from medulla oblongata:
a. true b. false
76. Hypoglossal nerve is a pure motor
nerve: a. true b. False
77. The terminal destination of the
lymph drainage in the face and neck is the junction between subclavian vein and ……
a. Internal jugular vien b. External jugular vein c. Anterior facial vein d. Retromandibular vein
78. The jugular trunk in the right side
drains into : a. Internal jugular vien
b. Right lymphatic duct c. Thoracic duct d. Subclavian vein
79. Which of the following ducts is
related to the brachial plexus : a. Tubal tonsil b. Upper deep cervical lymph node c. Lower deep cervical lymph nodes d. Lingual tonsil
80. Which of the following is one of
the tributaries of the jugulo omohyoid lymph nodes :
a. Back of the tongue b. Tonsils c. Lower part of the pharynx d. Upper part of the pharynx
True and false :
81. Jugulo digastrics lymph nodes lie behind the internal jugular vein
82. Jugulo omohyoid lymph nodes lie behind the intermediate tendon of omohyiod
83. Thyroid gland drains directly to the jugular trunk
84. Adenoid is one of the transverse superficial lymph nodes
85. Deep cervical lymph nodes lie superficial to sternomastoid muscle
86. Upper deep cervical lymph nodes can extend beyond the sternomastoid muscle
87. Posterior region of the scalp is drained to :
a. Occipital lymph node b. Postauricular lymph node c. Parotid lymph node d. Submadibular lymph node
88. Mastoid nodes receives afferent
from all of the following except : a. Floor of the meatus b. Auricle c. Angle of jaw skin d. Upper part of parotid region
89. Parotid lymph nodes efferent is :
a. Sub mandibular lymph node b. Sub mental lymph nodes c. Jugulo digastrics node d. Jugulo omohyoid node
90. All of the following drains to the
submandibular node except : a. Parotid nodes b. Submental nodes c. Postauricular nodes d. Upper part of the anterior
triangle of the neck
True and false :
91. Nasopharynx can drain directly to the deep lymph nodes
92. Atlanto occipital joint drains to the paratracheal lymph nodes
93. Cervical part of the trachea is drained to the paratracheal lymph nodes
94. Postauricular lymph nodes lie deep to the mastoid
95. Submental lymph nodes are contents of the submental triangle of the neck
96. Lateral column of the superficial lymph nodes lies on internal jugular vien
97. All of the following drain to the submandibular nodes except :
a. Anterior part of nasal cavityw b. Tip of the tongue c. Centre of the tongue d. Vessels of the gum
98. Above the vocal cord in the larynx
drains to : a. Upper deep cervical lymph
nodes b. Lower deep cervical lymph
nodes c. Submandibular lymph nodes d. Submental lymph nodes
99. All of the following can drain to the upper deep cervical lymph node except :
a. Occipital lymph nodes b. Floor of the mouth c. Parotid of the mouth d. Mastoid lymph nodes
100. All of the following are
considered transverse lymph nodes except :
a. Lower deep lymph nodes b. Lingual tonsils c. Occipital nodes d. Periauricular lymph nodes
101. Middle ear drains to :
a. Mastoid lymph nodes b. Periauricular lymph nodes c. Submandibular lymph nodes d. Sbmental lymph nodes
102. Platysma Muscle is supplied by
: a. Temporal branch of facial nerve b. Zygomatic branch of the facial
nerve c. Mandibular branch of the facial
nerve d. Cervical branch of the facial
nerve
103. Great auricular nerve is a branch from :
a. Facial nerve b. Cervical plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Accessory nerve
104. The foramena through which
cavernous sinuses can be connected to the anterior facial vein :
a. Foramen Lacerum b. Foramen Ovale c. Foramen rotundum d. Both a and b e. Both b and c f. All of the above
105. All of the following can end to
the confluence of sinuses except : a. Superior sagittal sinuses b. Inferior sagittal sinuses c. Straight sinuses d. None of the above
106. Which of the following is the
most superficial muscle : a. Semi spinalis capitis b. Splenius capitis c. Scalenus medias d. Levator Scapulae
107. Which of the following lymph nodes is the site of drainage of the scalp and lies in the posterior triangle of the neck?
a. Mastoid lymph node b. Occipital lymph node c. Supraclavicular lymph node d. Parotid lymph node
108. The site of meeting between
free and attached margin of the tentorium cerebelli :
a. All petrous part of temporal bone
b. Petrous apex c. Petrous base d. Anterior clinoid process
109. Which of the following
muscles insert on the skin of eye borrows
a. Palpepral part of Orbicularis oculi
b. Frontalis c. Orbital part of Orbicularis oculi d. Lacrimal part of Orbicularis
oculi e. Both a and b f. Both b and c g. Both a , c and d h. All of the above
110. Which of the following sinuses has meningeal branches?
a. Occipital sinuses b. Transverse sinuses c. Sigmoid sinuses d. Cvernous sinuses
111. The medial branch of the
external carotid artery is : a. Superior thyroid artery b. Ascending pharyngeal artery c. Facial artery d. Lingual artery
112. Which of the following nerves
has a secremotor branch to the patotid salivary gland :
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Accessory nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
113. Which of the following gives
motor supply to the laryngeal mucosa above vocal cords?
a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve b. Pharyngeal branch of the vagus
nerve c. External laryngeal nerve d. Internal laryngeal nerve
114. The type of Zygapo physeal
joint is :
a. Plane synovial joint b. Fibro cartilage c. Pivot joint d. Ellipsoid joint
115. Which of the following
vertebrae is more related to the vertebral artery ?
a. Atlas b. Axis c. 3rd cervical vertebrae d. 7th cervical vertebrae
116. Whaldyer's ring is considered :
a. Deep vertical lymph nodes b. Deep transverse lymph nodes c. Superficial transverse lymph
nodes d. Superficial vertical lymph
nodes
117. All of the following ligaments are related to the odntoid bone in axis except:
a. Apical ligament b. Alar ligament c. Cruciform ligament d. Ligamentum nuchae
118. One of the following lies in the
pathway of the drainage of the lower part of parotid region :
a. Occipital lymph nodes
b. Upper deep lymph nodes c. Parotid lymph nodes d. Sub mandibular group of
lymph nodes
119. One of the following drain to the submandibular lymph node :
a. Sides of the tongue b. Centre of the tongue c. Lateral sides of the tongue d. Soft palate
120. Which of the following arches
have branches through the accessory nerve : a. 3rd b. 4th c. 6th d. All of the above
Answers:
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. C
17. B
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. D
35. D
36. D
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. C
49. B
50. B
51. D
52. C
53. C
54. C
55. A
56. A
57. A
58. C
59. B
60. B
61. A
62. C
63. D
64. B
65. B
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. D
70. A
71. B
72. A
73. D
74. B
75. B
76. A
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. C
81. F
82. F
83. F
84. F
85. F
86. T
87. A
88. D
89. A
90. C
91. T
92. F
93. T
94. F
95. T
96. F
97. C
98. A
99. A
100. A
101. B
102. D
103. B
104. D
105. B
106. A
107. B
108. B
109. F
110. A
111. B
112. A
113. A
114. A
115. A
116. B
117. D
118. B
119. A
120. D
II. Neuroanatomy:
1. The length of the spinal cord is about : a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm d. 45 cm
2. The cervical enlargement
corresponds to : a. Lumber plexus b. Brachial plexus c. Sacral plexus d. Cervical plexus
3. The period in which the spinal
cord occupy all the vertebral canal is : a. 1st month b. 1st two months c. 1st three months d. 1st four months
4. Meningies surrounding the spinal
cord end at the level of : a. S1 b. S2 c. S3 d. S4
5. Posteromediate septum is present in all spinal cord in all of these regions except :
a. All thoracic vertebrae b. All cervical vertebrae c. All lumber vertebrae d. All sacral vertebrae
6. All of the following can be found
clearly in the gray matter except : a. Blood capillaries b. Neuroglia c. Myelinated nerve fibres d. Nerve soma
7. Median group in anterior grey
matter is present in all of the following except a. T1 b. T2 c. L5 d. L4
8. Lumberosacral nucleus in central
group is present in : a. C1 b. C2 c. S1 d. C7
9. Spinal Accessory nerve nuclei are
present in which position: a. Medial
b. Lateral c. Central d. Posterior
10. Lateral group of anterior gray
matter can't be found in : a. Thoracic b. Lumber c. Cervical d. Sacral
11. Dorsal funicular group is absent
from all of the following xcept : a. Cervical vertebrae b. Thoracic vertebrae c. Lumbar vertebrae d. None of the above
12. One of the following can be found
in the C8 vertebrae spinal cord : a. Ventromedial group b. Dorsomedial group c. Both of the above d. Central group
13. T1 has all of the following except :
a. Visceral gray b. Medial group c. Lateral group d. Nucleus dorsalis
14. Interomediolateral is concerened
with
a. Craniosacral outflow b. Thoracolumber flow c. Thoracosacral flow d. Lumbrosecral flow
15. Anterior spinal artery arises from
a. Basilar artery b. Subclavian artery c. Vertebral arteries d. Aorta
16. Which of the following where
longitudinal branches of posterior spinal aretery branches : a. Ventral root b. Dorsal root c. Gray matter d. White matter
17. Radicularis magna supply origin
of a. Cervical plexus b. Pharyngeal plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Lumber plexus
18. Anterior spinal vein passes
through : a. Anteromedian sulcus b. Posteromedian septum c. Ventral root d. Dorsal root
19. Internal venous plexus lies inside : a. Dura mattar b. Extra dural space c. Periosteum d. Tubular sheath
20. Lumber cistern is found in :
a. Subarachnoid space b. Pia matar c. Dura matar d. Arachnoid matar
21. Linea splinders lies in :
a. Dorsal root b. Ventral root c. Anteromedian sulcus d. Posteromedial septum
22. Last process of ligamneta
denticulata is attached to a. L1 b. L2 c. L3 d. L4
23. Posteromedian sulcus in the
medulla oblongata continues as : a. Intermediate sulcus b. Anteriomedian fissure c. Posteromedian septum d. Dorsal root
24. Which of the following form the pyramid ? a. Corticospinal nuclei b. Inferior olivary nuclei c. Corticospinal fibres d. Cuneate nuclei
25. All of the following pass through
the posterolateral sulcus except : a. Hypoglossal nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Vagus nerve d. Cranial accessory nerve
26. The groove found in the pontine
transwerse fibres is for a. Basilar artery b. Basal vein c. Vertebral artery d. Superior cerebellar artery
27. Which of the following nerves exit
through the junction between pons and pyramid :
a. Trigeminal nerve b. Abducent nerve c. Facial nerve d. Vestibualr nerve
28. Cereberal penduncle is formed of
all except : a. Crus cerebri b. Substantia nigra
c. Tegmentum d. Tectum
29. Colliculi are separated by :
a. Cruiciform sulcus b. Posteromediaum sulcus c. Anetromedian sulcus d. Intermediate sulcus
30. Corpora quadrigemina is :
a. Cruiciform sulcus b. Colliculi c. Frenulum velli d. Brachium
31. Superior coliculi is associated with
: a. Inferior brachium b. Lateral geniculate c. Frenulum villum d. Medial geniculate
32. All of the following enters in the
dorsal surface of the pons except : a. Lateral vestibular nucleus b. Medial vestibular nucleus c. Facial nerve d. Abducent nerve
True and False
33. Trigeminal nerve has large medial sensory root
34. Basal vein crosses the cerebral peduncle
35. Substania nigra is a layer of white matter
36. Hypoglossal trigone is the most lateral part of inferior floor of the 4th ventricle
37. Groove between pyramid and olive is called is posterolateral sulcus
38. The roof of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is : a. Anterior part of body of corpus
callosum b. Genu of corpus callosum c. Head of caudate Nucleus d. Rostrum
39. The medial wall of the body of
lateral ventricle posteriorly is : a. Septum Pellucidum b. Head of caudate nucleus c. Fornix d. Tapetum
40. Floor of the posterior horn of the
lateral ventricle is formed by : a. Forceps b. Calcarivis c. Tapetum d. Rostrum
41. Which of the following lies in both floor and lateral wall of the anterior horn of lateral ventricle: a. Tail of cauduate nucleus b. Rosterum c. Septum pellucidum d. Head of cauduate nucleus
42. Which of the following is most
medial in the floor of body of lateral ventricle: a. Striathalamic vein b. Stria terminalis c. Body of fornix d. Chroid plexus
43. Which part of the caudate nucleus
can be found in the inferior horn of Lateral ventricle: a. Body b. Head c. Tail d. All of the above
44. Amygloid nucleus lies in the roof
of : a. Anterior horn of lateral
ventricle b. Body of lateral ventricle c. Inferior horn of lateral
ventricle d. Posterior horn of lateral
ventricle
45. Which of the following is the cavity of Diencephalon ? a. Lateral ventricle b. Third ventricle c. 4th ventricle d. All of the above
46. All of the following are situated in
the anterior wall of the third ventricle except : a. Anterior commisure b. Anterior column of the fornix c. Lamina terminalis d. Habenular commisure
47. Lateral ventricle is connected to
the 3rd ventricle by a. Interventricular foramen of
Monoro b. Aqueduct of sylvius c. Optic recess d. Pineal recess
48. The upper lateral wall of the 4th
ventricle is formed of : a. Superior cerebellar peduncle b. Inferior cerebellar peduncle c. Cuneate d. Gracile
49. The cerebellum occupy the middle
part of the roof of: a. 3rd ventricle
b. 4th ventricle c. Body of lateral ventricle d. All of the above
50. All of the following can contribute
to the increase in CSF pressure except : a. Straining b. Cough c. Relaxation of the internal
jugular vein d. None of the above
51. Caudate nucleus formed of:
a. Head , body , lateral wall , medial wall
b. Head, lateral wall , medial wall , tail
c. Head , body, tail
d. None of the above
52. The head of Caudate nucleus is related to:
a. Floor & lateral wall of anterior horn of lateral ventricle
b. Floor of central part of lateral ventricle
c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
d. Lentiform nucleus
53. The body of Caudate nucleus is related to:
a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
b. Floor of central part of lateral ventricle
c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
d. Lentiform nucleus
54. The tail of Caudate nucleus is related to:
a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
b. Floor of central part of lateral ventricle
c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
d. Lentiform nucleus
55. The anteroinferior part of Caudate nucleus is related to:
a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
b. Floor of central part of lateral ventricle
c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
d. Lentiform nucleus
56. Corpus striatum are:
a. Caudate & Claustrum
b. Caudate & Lentiform
c. Caudate & Amygdaloid
d. Caudate & corpus callosum
57. Corpus striatum is:
a. Blank
b. White
c. Striated
d. All of the above
58. The Lentiform nucleus is:
a. Biconvex lens like
b. Biconcave lens like
c. Unicovex lens like
d. Uniconcave lens like
59. The Lentiform nucleus is divided by:
a. Medial medullary lamina
b. Medial pallidal segment
c. Lateral medullary lamina
d. Lateral pallidal segment
60. The subdivision of The Lentiform nucleus are:
a. Corticomedial & Basolateral
b. Basolateral & Central
c. Internal capsule & external capsule
d. Putamen & Globus pallidas
61. The medial relation of The Lentiform nucleus:
a. Internal capsule
b. External capsule
c. Corona radiata
d. Anterior comissure
62. The lateral relation of The Lentiform nucleus:
a. Internal capsule
b. External capsule
c. Corona radiata
d. Anterior comissure
63. The inferior relation of The Lentiform nucleus:
a. Internal capsule
b. External capsule
c. Corona radiata
d. Anterior comissure
64. The anterior relation of The Lentiform nucleus:
a. Internal capsule
b. External capsule
c. Corona radiata
d. Anterior comissure
65. The superior relation of The Lentiform nucleus:
a. Internal capsule
b. External capsule
c. Corona radiata
d. Anterior comissure
66. Clastrum is located between:
a. Caudate & Lentiform
b. Lentiform & amygdaloidal
c. Lentiform & insula
d. None of the above
67. Clastrum is separated from Lentiform by:
a. Internal capsule
b. External capsule
c. Cerebral cortex
d. Internal pallidal segment
68. Amygdaloid is located:
a. Above tip of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
b. Below tip of inferior horn of lateral ventricle
c. Above tip of anterior horn of lateral ventricle
d. Below tip of anterior horn of lateral ventricle
69. Corticomedial group of Amygdaloid is connected with:
a. Motor Nuclei of brain stem
b. Sensory Nuclei of brain stem
c. Olfactory structures
d. All of the above
e. Both A & B
70. Central group of Amygdaloid is connected with:
a. Motor Nuclei of brain stem
b. Sensory Nuclei of brain stem
c. Olfactory structures
d. All of the above
e. Both A & B 71. One of the following lies in the
anterior limb of the internal capsule :
a. Anterior thalamic radiation b. Posterior thalamic
radiation c. Superior thalamic
radiation d. Inferior thalamic radiation
72. Where can occipitopontine fibres be found : a. Anterior limb of internal
capsule b. Genu of the internal capsule c. Thalamolentiform part of
posterior limb d. Retrolentiform part of
posterior limb of internal capsule
73. How internal capsule is related to
the lentiform nucleus ? a. Medially b. Superiorly c. Laterally d. Inferioirly
74. Blood supply of the genu is :
a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Posterior cerebral artery c. Internal carotid artery d. None of the above
75. All of the following receive two
arterial blood supplies except : a. Anterimedial part of the
anterior limb of internal capsule
b. Genu of the internal capsule c. Thalamolentifrom part of
posterior limb
d. Retro lentiform part of posterior limb
76. Which of the following is
concerned with connection between two different sides in the cortex : a. Commissural fibres b. Association fibres c. Projection fibres d. All of the above
77. Long association fibres lying in the
medial surface is : a. Uncinate fibres b. Cingulum c. Superior longitudinal
fasciculus d. Fronto occipital fasciculus
78. The lateral boundary of corona
radiata is : a. Uncinate fibres b. Cingulum c. Fronto occipital fasiculus d. Superior Longitudinal
fasiculus
79. The long association fibre connecting between occipital lobe and temporal lobe is : a. Superior longitudinal
fasiculus
b. Inferior longitudinal fasiculus c. Fronto occipital fasiculus d. Cingulum
80. Which of the following are
associated with orbital surface of the frontal lobe? a. Cingulum b. Rostrum of corporus callosum c. Both d. Non of the above
81. Forceps minor radiates from :
a. Rostrum b. Genu c. Body d. Splenium
82. Splenium of the copus callosum
radiate fibres related to : a. Posterior horn of lateral
ventricle b. Anterior horn of lateral
ventricle c. 3rd ventricle d. 4th ventricle
83. Which of the following is most
superior ? a. Cerebral aqueduct b. Posterior commissure c. Habenular commissure d. None of the above
84. All of the following are connected by the anterior commissure except : a. Olfactory bulb b. Amygdaloid body c. Posterior perforated body d. Pyriform body
85. special visceral efferent fibers
secremotor supply to: a. muscles of somites b. muscles of branchial arches c. smooth muscles d. exocrine glands
86. taste and olfaction sensation is
carries by: a. G.V.E b. G.V.A c. S.V.A d. S.S.A
87. the following nuclei are presented
in the midbrain except: a. oculomotor nucleus b. edinger westphal nucleus c. trochlear nucleus d. facial nucleus
88. nucleus ambiguous is found in:
a. medulla oblongata b. midbrain c. pons d. spinal cord
89. the lateral rectus muscle of the eye is supplied from: a. oculomotor nucleus b. abducent nucleus c. trochlear nucleus d. hypoglossal nucleus
90. the trochlear nucleus supplies:
a. lateral rectus muscle b. superipr oblique muscle c. palatoglossus muscle d. none of the above
91. the motor nucleus of trigeminal
nerve supplies all of the following except: a. anterior belly of digastrics b. mylohyoid c. stylohyoid d. tensor tympani
92. nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to
the following nerve: a. accessory nerve b. facial nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. hypoglossal nerve
93. the only muscle derived from the
third branchial arch is: a. tensor palate b. mylohyoid c. platysma d. stylopharyngreus
94. the facial nucleus supplies the
following muscles except: a. muscles of the face
b. occipitofrontalis muscle c. stylopharyngeal muscle d. stylohyoid
95. the fibers forming the cranial
outflow of the parathympathatic nervous system: a. G.S.E b. S.V.E c. G.V.E d. G.V.A
96. the parathympathatic part of the
occulomotor nerve is: a. superior salivary nucleus b. inferior salivary nucleus c. solitary nucleus d. edinger westiphal nucleus
97. inferior salivary nucleus gives
preganglionic fibers to: a. lacrimal glands b. parotid gland c. submandibular gland d. buccal gland
98. the following nucleus gives rise to
general visceral efferent fibers: a. edinger westphal nucleus b. superior salivary nucleus c. inferior salivary nucleus d. all of the above
99. which of the following nuclei
receive visceral afferent fibers: a. solitary nucleus b. olivary nucleus c. hypoglossal nucleus
d. none of the above
100. solitary nucleus receive general sensory fibers running in: a. vagus nerve b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. both a and b
101. sensation from the respiratory
tract, abdominal viscera and GIT are received by: a. facial nucleus b. superior salivary nucleus c. solitary nucleus d. trochlear nucleus
102. taste sensation is carried by the
following except: a. facial nerve b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. vagus nerve d. trigeminal nerve
103. cardiorespiratory nucleus
mediates reflex control of: a. cardiovascular system b. respiratory system c. gastrointestinal system d. all of the above
104. which of the following is not a
sensory trigeminal nucleus: a. mesencephalic nucleus b. solitary nucleus c. main sensory nucleus d. none of tne above
105. the nucleus responsible for receiving pain and temperature from the head is: a. spinal nucleus of trigeminal b. main sensory nucleus c. superior salivary nucleus d. mesencephalic nucleus
106. S.S.A include the following
except: a. vestibular nucleus b. cochlear nucleus c. solitary nucleus d. all of the above
107. the cerebellum is the posterior part of the midbrain a. True b. False
108. The cerebellum lies in the
………. Cranial fossa a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Inferior d. Superior
109. The pons and medulla are
separated from the cerebellum anteriorly by the a. Lateral ventricle b. Third ventricle c. Fourth ventricle d. All of the above
110. ……….. covers superiorly the cerebellum and separates it from cerebrum a. Falx cerebelli b. Falx cerebri c. Tentorium cerebelli d. None of the above
111. …………. Is the most anterior
part of the superior vermis a. Nodule b. Uvula c. Pyramid d. Lingula
112. The inferior medullary velum
forms the bed of ………. In cerebellum a. Tube vermis b. Vermis c. Cerebellar tonsil d. Medullary vella
113. superior medullary vella is a
thin sheet of white matter forming the tonsillar bed a. True b. False
114. the cerebellum shows a wide U
shape anterior notch that lodges the falx cerebelli a. True b. False
115. …………. Separates the anterior lope from the posterior lobe of cerebellum a. Fissure prima b. Horizontal fissure c. Postpyramidal fissure d. Retrotonsillar fissure
116. …………. Is the fissure that
separates the nodule from the uvula in the cerebellum a. Fissure prima b. Horizontal fissure c. Posterolateral fissure d. Retrotonsillar fissure
117. all of the following are found
in inferior surface of cerebellum except a. Fissura secunda b. V- shaped fissure c. Retrotosillar d. Posterolateral fissures
118. The components of the
diencephalon are all except : a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. stria habenularis
119. The lateral boundary of the
thalamus is the: a. the posterior limb of the
internal capsule b. the cavity of the third ventricle c. the lentiform nucleus
120. The superior relations to the
thalamus are a. the body of lateral ventricle b. the thalamostriate vein c. the choroid plexus d. all of the above
121. The inferior relations are
including all of the following except
a. tegmentum of the midbrain b. the hypothalamus c. fornix
122. The superior white matter of
the thalamus is called : a. external medullary lamina b. stratum zonale c. internal medullary lamina
123. The lateral part of the thalamus lying lateral to the internal medullary stria is subdivided into a. dorsolateral part b. ventromedial c. both
124. The function of the thalamus is
integration of the information from the a. cerebellum b. basal ganglia c. reticular formation of the
brain stem d. all of the above
125. The anterior thalamic
radiation connects the anterior and medial nuclei with the a. frontal lobe b. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe
126. The superior thalamic
radiation connects the lateral and the ventral nuclei with the a. temporal lobe b. the parietal lobe c. pre and post central gyri
127. The blood supply of the
thalamus is the a. posterior cerebral artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. basilar artery d. a and c
128. Epithalamus consists of all of
the following except : a. pineal body b. habenular nuclei c. habenular commissure d. the choroid plexus
129. The medial geniculate body is
a relay nucleus in the a. pathway of hearing b. pathway of vision c. pathway of smelling
130. The metathalamus consists of the a. medial geniculate body b. lateral geniculate body c. both
Answers:
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. B
32. B 33. T 34. T 35. F 36. F 37. F 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. D 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C
65. C 66. C 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. E 71. A 72. D 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. A 83. C 84. C 85. B 86. C 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. B 91. C 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. C 96. D 97. B
98. D 99. A 100. D 101. C 102. D 103. D 104. B 105. A 106. C 107. B 108. B 109. C 110. C 111. D 112. C 113. B 114. B 115. A 116. C 117. B 118. C 119. A 120. D 121. C 122. B 123. C 124. D 125. A 126. C 127. D 128. D 129. A 130. C
Pharmacology of the CNS: 1. Analgesics are :
a. Drugs that relieve pain due to multiple causes
b. Drugs that relieve pain due to a single cause
c. Classified into opioid and non-opioid analgesics
d. Can produce addiction e. A & C
2. All opium alkaloids can be used
clinically : a. True b. False
3. All of the following are opioid
receptors on which opium alkaloids act EXCEPT : a. Mu receptors b. Kappa receptors c. Alpha receptors d. Sigma receptors e. Delta receptors
4. Morphine can be absorbed by all
of the following methods of administration except : a. Oral administration b. Topical adminstration c. Intramusclar injection d. Inhalation e. Subcutanous injection
5. It’s not necessary to perform gastric lavage in case of Morphine poisoning due to parentral over dose : a. True b. False
6. All of the following centers are
depressed by Morphine EXCEPT : a. Cortical pain center b. Respiratory center c. Cough center d. Vasomotor center e. Occulomotor center
7. Morphine analgesic effect is done
through : a. Decrease in the threshold of
pain perception in the sensory areas
b. Alteration in the response to pain
c. Reducing the pains effect on the behavior
d. A& B e. B & C
8. Large doses of Morphine can lead
to vasodilatation due to : a. Release of histamine b. Inhibition of vasomotor center c. Respiratory depression which
increases the level of CO2 d. All of the above e. A & B
9. Morphine reduces the rate and depth of respiration by : a. Depression of respiration b. Reduction of the senstivity of
the respiratory center to CO2 c. Bronchoconstriction d. All of the above e. A & B
10. An old male patient came to the
hospital with cancer of bronchial tree suffering from severe cough , the doctor took the patient’s history and figured out that he has a prostatic hypertrophy, which of the following drugs should be given to the patient : a. Morphine b. Methadone c. Codeine d. Meperidine
11. Which of these drugs is contra-
indicated to the previous case: a. Morphine b. Methadone c. Codeine d. Merperidine
12. The reason why the doctor didn't
give it to the patient: a. It has a side effect of urine
retention more than the prescribed drug
b. It’s not preferable to patient with the bronchial tree cancer
due to its respiratory depression
c. It’s not preferable to patient with the bronchial tree cancer due to its histamine release and bronchoconstriction
d. All of the above 13. Morphine indirectly stimulates the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve ) and cause severe mydriasis : a. True b. False
14. The indirect stimulation of the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve ) by Morphine is produced by : a. Cortical inhibitory effect on
the the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )
b. Stimulation of Cortical inhibitory effect on the the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )
c. Inhibition of Cortical inhibitory effect on the the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )
d. All of the above 15. One the morphine’s side effects is
constipation which is produced by all of the following EXCEPT :
a. Decrease in the peristaltic activity and increase in segmetation movement
b. Increase in the tone of intestinal smooth muscles
c. Spasm of biliary passages d. Spasm of sphincters e. Decrease in the perception of
defecation reflex 16. All of the following are caused by
Morphine as a result of histamine release EXCEPT : a. Urine retention b. Sweating and itching c. Vasodilatation d. Bronchoconstriction e. Hypotention
17. Urine retention is a side effect of
Morphine due to : a. Spasm of the urinary bladder
sphincter b. Stimulation of the micturation
reflex c. Decrease in urine formation
due to central release of anti-diuretic hormone
d. All of the above e. A & C
18. Tolarence to Morphine is not
developed to : a. Respiratory depression b. Constipition c. Miosis d. B & C
e. A & C 19. Which of the following conditions
Morphine should be given with atropine : a. Renal colic b. Biliary colic c. Coronary thromposis d. A & C e. A & B
20. Morphine can be used in all of the
following conditions EXCEPT : a. Certain cases of severe
diarrhea b. Acute left ventricular failure c. Pre-anaethetic medication d. Relieving of severe pain in
acute abdomen 21. All of the following can be Minor
side effects of Morphine EXCEPT : a. Nausea, vomiting and
constipation b. Hypotention c. Urine retention d. Addiction e. Increased intracranial tention
22. Morphine is contra-indicated in
case of head injuries due to : a. Increase levels of CO2 b. Respiratory depression c. Cerebral vasodilatation d. Increase in the CSF pressure e. All of the above
23. The cause of withdrawal syptoms
following sudden stoppage of morphine addiction is : a. Endogenous opioid is deficient b. Opioid receptors becomes free
of endogenous and exogenous opioids
c. Opioid receptors are saturated by exogenous opioids
d. A & C e. A & B
24. Morphine like compounds in the
brain are called enkephalids and in pituitary gland are called amdrophins : a. True b. False
25. Methadone is used in the in the
treatment of Morphine addiction because : a. It has minor side effects b. It’s also an addicting drug c. Its withdrawal symptoms are
less than those of morphine d. A & B e. B & C
26. Meperidine is characterized by
papaverine-like action because : a. It has a parasympatholytic
effect b. It has an analgesic effect
c. It has a smooth muscle relaxant effect
d. None of the above 27. Morphine and Meperdine are
similar in : a. Causing Severe Miosis effect b. Causing Cough center
depression c. Causing Respiratory
depression d. Analgesic effect e. Causing Histamine release
28. Meperidine is used in obstetrics to
relive labour pain instead of Morphine because : a. Morphine can cross blood-
placental barrier while Meperidine can't
b. Morphine causes respiratory depression in newly born infant while Meperidine doesn’t
c. Both of them cross blood-placental barrier but Meperidine doesn’t cause respiratory depression unlike Morphine
d. A & B 29. All of the following are true about
Naloxone EXCEPT : a. It’s a competitve narcotic
antagonist at all opioid receptors
b. It has a rapid onset (1-5 minutes)
c. It has a short duration of action
d. It can be given orally or by IM or subcutanous injection
30. The difference between
Naltrexone and Naloxone is that : a. Naltrexone has a longer
duration of action than Naloxone
b. Naltrexone can be given orally while Naloxone can't
c. Naltrexone has more rapid onset than Naloxone
d. A & B e. A & C
31. Therapeutic uses of Opioid
antagonists are : a. Treatment of acute morphine
poisoning b. Treatment of morphine
addiction c. Diagnosis of morphine
addiction d. All of the above e. A & C
32. Mixed agonist-antagonist opioid
analgesics are : a. Drugs that acts on only one
opioid receptors b. Drugs that stimulate one
receptor but block another
c. Pentazocine is an example of these drugs
d. All of the above e. A & C
33. All of the following are true about
Pentazocine EXCEPT : a. It’s an agonist on kappa
receptors b. It’s a weak antagonist at Mu
receptors c. It’s an effective analgesic by
itself d. It behaves as an antagonist
when given in combination with Naloxone
34. NSAIDs are a group of drugs that share in common the capacity to induce a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. All of the above
35. Any drug has analgesic antipyretic
effect classified as NSAIDs a. True b. False
36. NSAIDs that inhibit cyclo –
oxgenase enzyme centrally produce ....... a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect
d. Both a , b
37. NSAIDs that produce the anti – inflammatory effect inhibit cyclo – oxgenase enzyme ..... a. Centrally b. Periphery c. Both of them d. Non of the above
38. Non selective COX inhibitors
associated with gastrointestinal tract upset and renal impairment on long term use a. True b. False
39. salicylates act on ......... level to
produce their analgesic action a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Subcortical d. All of the above
40. Raising of the threshold to painful
stimuli relayed from the thalamus to the sensory cortex is the way by which salicylates produce a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. Both a , b
41. During fever .there is release of ....
a. PGE1
b. PGE2 c. IL-1 d. All of the above
42. Salicylates lower the elevated body
temperature to normal by a. Inhibiting prostaglandins
centrally b. Inhibiting prostaglandins
periphery c. Inhibiting IL-1 synthesis d. Both a ,c
43. All of the following are the
mechanism that salicylates use to loss heat by acting on heat regulating center except a. Vasoconstriction of cutaneous
blood vessels b. Increasing sweating c. Encouraging evaporation d. VD of cutaneous blood vessels
44. Decreasing of prostaglandins and
inhibition of chemotaxis is the mechanism by which salicylates produce a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. All of the above
45. NSAIDs gastritis is always due to
direct irritation of gastric mucosa by the released salicyclic acid a. True
b. False 46. ........is/ are produced due to
prolonged use of salicylates except a. Gasric ulceration b. Peptic bleeding c. Both of them d. Non of the above
47. In gout patient , salicylates are
used in ........ doses a. Small b. Large c. Less than 5 g /day d. All of the above
48. In the effect of salicylates on the
blood .all of the following are true except a. Inhibition of COX platelet b. Reduce production of TXA2 c. Increase sedimentation rate d. Prolongation of bleeding time
49. Salicylates is used in all the
following cases except a. Common cold b. Coronary thrombosis c. Cardiac complication of acute
rheumatic fever d. Toothache
50. Repeated administration of large
doses of salicylates as in rheumatic fever result in
a. Visual disturbances b. Ringing in the ear c. Confusion d. All of the above
51. Aspirin allergy may be manifested
in the form of urticaria only a. True b. False
52. Salicyltes is the best choice for
treating chicken pox in children a. True b. False
53. .......... is preferred in treatment of
influenza in children a. Morphine b. Aspirin c. Paracetamol d. All of the above
54. Paracetamol shouldn’t use in
pregnancy a. True b. False
55. Therapeutic doses of paracetamol
may lead to acute hepatic necrosis a. True b. False
56. Cardiac depression and serious arrhythmia is one of the side effects of a. isoflurane b. sevoflurane c. halothane
57. Malignant hyperthermia is a
genetic disease at which the patient have taken a. succinylcholine b. halothane c. both
58. at which it is treated by
a. dantrolene b. propofol
59. Cause of the vomiting is the
stimulation of the a. CTZ b. CIC
60. Relaxation of the skeletal muscles
as a side effect of the inhalational anesthesia is enhancing the effect of the a. neuromuscular blockers b. sympthatomimetics c. sympthatolitics
61. Mechanism of action of all local
anesthetics is by a. binding to the Na+ channel
from outside b. binding to the Na+ channel
from inside
62. Lipid solubility enhances the a. onset b. duration of action c. intensity of the local anesthesia
63. As the amount of the unionized
fragment increases the duration of onset a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant
64. The onset of action is faster by
a. increasing b. decreasing the gap between
the PKa and the PH of the tissue
65. we ought not to use a sympthatomimetic with a local anethetics because of the resulting a. vasodilatation b. vasoconstriction
66. which may cause local ischemia in
the a. digits b. abdomen
67. We use cocaine topically in
a. otolaryngeal b. nasopharyngeal use to reduce
the mucosal bleeding
68. One of the systemic side effects of the local anesthetics is the a. convulsions
b. arrhythmia c. allergy produced by the
lignocaine 69. The metabolism of the esters is
through the a. liver b. pseudo cholinesterase
70. The half life time of the amides is
a. longer b. shorter than that of esters
71. The metabolism of the procaine
leads to the formation of the a. benzoic acid b. para amino benzoic acid
72. Allergy is more common in the
a. esters b. amides
Answers:
1. E 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. E 7. E 8. E 9. E 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. E 18. D 19. E 20. D 21. D 22. D 23. E 24. B 25. E 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. E 32. D 33. D 34. D 35. B
36. D 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. D 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. D 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. B 56. C 57. C 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. B 72. A
Histology of the CNS:
1. When a synapse is formed between an axon and a dendritic spine then it is called:
a. Axodendritic b. Axosomatic c. Dendrodendritic d. Axo-axonic
2. synapses are which are commonly found in the nervous system are
a. Axodendritic and axosomatic b. Axoaxonic and dendrodendritic c. Axodendritic and
dendrodendritic d. Axosomatic and axoaxonic
3. Which of the following is incorrect about electrical synapses:
a. It is a gap junction b. providing for cells electrical
coupling c. Transmission of impulse is
Direct and unidirectional d. Less commonly present in the
nervous system than chemical synapses
4. an electron dense membrane of the target neuron at the site of synapse.
a. Synaptic cleft b. Postsynaptic membrane
c. Presynaptic membrane
5. During anaesthesia in order to avoid paralysis caused by injecting substances in the spinal cord doctors prefer to inject the patient with the anaesthetic substance in
a. Below L2 b. In thoracic region c. Bet C4 & C5
6. The no. of cervical segments of
the spinal cord is: a. 5 b. 7 c. 6 d. 8
7. What is the structure that is
almost absent in the Gray Matter a. nerve cells b. myelinated nerve fibers c. neuroglia d. capillary bed
8. all of the following is corrct concerning the anterior horn except:
a. broad in the cervical and lumbosacral segments
b. contains large multipolar motor neurons
c. called the motor nuclei d. axons of these cells form the
sensory fibers emerging in the dorsal root of spinal nerves
9. the following nuclei are only present in the cervical and lumbar enlargements.
a. antero-medial b. postero-medial c. antero-lateral d. postero-lateral
10. which of the following
statements is incorrectly describing substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi
a. Represented in all segments of the spinal cord.
b. One of the anterior horn cells c. Impulses from it are carried by
the lateral spinothalamic tracts.
d. Important cell station for impulses of pain and temperature
11. Which of the following nuclei gives rise to the ventral spinothalamic tracts?
a. The substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi,
b. The nucleus proprius c. The nucleus dorsalis of Clarke
12. Which of the following nuclei is
absent in L5? a. The substantia gelatinosa of
Rolandi, b. The nucleus proprius c. The nucleus dorsalis of Clarke
13. All of the following statements
are correct about the lateral horn of the spinal cord except:
a. Present in all thoracic segments
b. The cells are small multipolar neurons
c. belonging to the somatic nervous system
14. They are formed of small nerve cells with short axons that ascend and descend for few segments on the same side.:
a. nucleus proprius b. sympathetic nuclei c. commissural neurons d. intersegmental neurons
15. all of the followings statements are correctly describing coma tracts except:
a. present in the dorsal white column of the cervical segments.
b. It lies between the gracile and cuneate tracts.
c. It carries proprioceptive fibers to the anterior horn cells
d. It control the function Of the lower part of the body through the actions of the reflex arcs.
16. One of the similarities between The Septomarginal tract and The Comma-Shaped tract is
a. Site in the spinal cord b. Function c. Side of the body it controls
17. Gracile & Cuneate tracts carry
impulses of : a. proprioceptive sensations b. crude touch c. pain & temperature d. simple touch
18. One of the Tracts carrying pain
impulses, which will not reach the cerebral cortex but end in the
subconscious level of the cerebellum or midbrain:
a. Gracile & Cuneate b. Spino-tectal tract c. Ventral spino-thalamic d. ventral spino-cerebellar
19. the Olivospinal tract is absent in
all the following segments except:
a. Cervical level b. Thoracic level c. Lumbar level d. Sacral level
20. The lateral horn cell is found in :
a. Cervical level b. Thoracic level c. Lumbar level d. All of the above
21. The only tract that is absent in
the cervical segments of the spinal cord is:
a. Septomarginal b. Olivospinal c. Cuneate d. Lateral tecto-spinal
22. The central canal of the spinal
cord is posteriorly situated at : a. Cervical level b. Thoracic level
c. Lumbar level
d. Sacral level
23. The deep grooves that can be seen in cerebrum are called:
a. Sulci b. Gyri
24. The two cerebral hemispheres
are connected together by thick band of grey matter called corpus callosum.
a. True b. False
25. All of the following statements
are correctly describing the pyramidal cells except:
a. The apex is directed to the cortical surface. a thick branching dendrite arises from the base of the cell and passes into the underlying white matter.
b. Small cells are usually superficial
c. they are well developed in motor centers
26. Which of the following is in incorrect about Betz cells
a. It's The largest cells of the cortex
b. It's One of the huge upper motor neurons
c. It's of stellate type d. It's found in the motor cortex
27. The stellate cells transmit motor
and sensory impulses from and to the cerebrum
a. True b. False
28. The following are examples of
stellate cells except: a. Horizontal cells of Cajal b. Fusiform cells c. Cells of Martinotti d. Astrocytes
29. the molecular layer is formed
mainly of : a. small stellate cells b. neuroglia c. Axons and Dendrites d. small horizontal neurons
30. the inner granular layer is
formed mainly of : a. small stellate nerve cell bodies b. neuroglia c. Axons and Dendrites d. small horizontal neurons
31. The large pyramidal cells with their long dendrites running towards the molecular layer are mainly found in :
a. Molecular layer b. The outer pyramidal cell layer c. The pleomorphic layer d. The inner pyramidal cell layer
32. All of the following statements
are right about Martinotti cells except:
a. They are present in the The pleomorphic layer
b. They are small and unipolar c. Their axons proceed towards
the surface giving collaterals on their way.
33. The area called the striate area as it appears striated by the naked eye:
a. The motor area b. The sensory area c. The visual area d. The olfactory area
34. All of the following statements
about the medulla oblongata are correct except:
a. It is continuous above with the pons
b. It is connected with the cerebellum by means of the inferior cerebellar peduncles.
c. In the closed medulla, there are motor decussation of the cortico-spinal tracts in the upper level
35. Which of the following is incorrect about the trigeminal (5th) cranial nerve nucleus
a. homologous to substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi
b. carry pain and temperature from the face
c. starts to appear at the level of closed Medulla at the level of Sensory Decussation
36. ventral cortico-spinal tract is uncrossed fibers that descend on the same side as direct pyramidal tract
a. true
b. false
37. All the descending extra pyramidal tracts are present in the Closed Medulla at the level of Motor Decussation except:
a. sulcomarginal tract b. septomarginal tract
c. rubrospinal tract 38. The crossed internal arcuate
fibers ascend on the opposite side of the brain stem and continue as the Medial Lemniscus.
a. True b. False
39. Cranial nerve nuclei of the
hypoglossal and of the vagus appear in the gray matter around the central canal at the level of open medulla.
a. True b. False
40. ..act as relay station for the
proprioceptive pathway coming from the spinal cord to the cerebellum
a. Cuneate nuclei b. Medial Lemniscus. c. lateral cuneate nuclei d. arcuate nuclei
41. All of the following are
properties of blood brain barrier except :
a. Endothelium with occluding junction
b. Neuroglia can be found c. Gap junction can be observed
d. Protect the brain from foreign particles
42. All of the following can be found or related to the arachnoid except :
a. CSF b. Dense fibrous connective
tissue c. Delicate tissue trabaculae d. Thin epithelial tissue
43. One of the following can be
found in the granular layer of cerebellum :
a. Axon of Purkinjie cells b. Purkinjie cell bodies c. Granule cell bodies d. Dendrites of Pukinjie cells
44. Neuroglia is found in one of the
following layers : a. Molecular cell layer b. Granular cell layer c. Purkinjie cell layer d. All of the above
45. All of the following synapse with
the dendrites of the Purkinje cells except :
a. Mossy fibres b. Granular cells axon c. Climbing fibres d. Neurons of molecular layer
46. The most medial cerebellar nucleus is :
a. Nucleus Dentate b. Nucleus Fastigii c. Nucleus emboli d. Nucleus Globosus
47. All of the following can be seen
in a section of the mid brain except :
a. 4th ventricle b. Cerebral aqueduct c. Tectum d. Cerebral peduncle
48. Middle longitudinal bundle can
be found in all of the following except :
a. Closed medulla b. Open medulla c. Tectum of mid brain d. Pons
49. The main function of inferior
colliculus is : a. Hearing in relation to
movement b. Vision reflex c. Gag reflex d. Stretch reflex
50. Which of the following nerve nuclei appears in upper mid brain :
a. 3rd cranial nerve b. 4th cranial nerve c. 6th cranial nerve d. 7th cranial nerve
Answers:
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. A 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. A
Chapter 3: Special senses:
Anatomy of special senses: 1. All of the following are related
to the roof of the orbit except : a. Trochlea b. Optic nerve c. Infra orbital vessels d. Lacrimal gland
2. All of the following forms the
medial wall of the orbit except : a. Lacrimal bone b. Ethmoid bone c. Body of sphenoid d. Greater wing of sphenoid
3. Which of the following bones
forms a part of two boundries of the orbit : a. Zygoma b. Maxilla c. Lacrimal bone d. Ethmoid
4. Most lateral structure passing
inside the superior orbital fissure : a. Lacrimal nerve
b. Frontal nerve c. Trochlear nerve d. Abducent nerve
5. All of the following openings
are found in the lateral wall of the orbit except: a. Superior orbital fissure b. Ethmoid fissure c. Zygomatotemporal canal d. Zygomatofacial canal
6. All of the following can be
found in the orbit except : a. Vessels b. Muscles c. Nerves d. Lymph nodes
7. All of the following are
intrinsic muscles in the eye ball except : a. Sphincter papillae b. Dilator papillae c. Lateral rectus d. Ciliary body
8. One of the following has
different nerve supply from the others : a. Superior rectus b. Lateral rectus c. Medial rectus
d. Inferior rectus
9. If both superior and inferior rectus contract together : a. No motion occurs b. Deviation to lateral side c. Deviation to medial side d. Protrusion of eye ball
10. Optic nerve is the cranial
nerve number : a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
11. Optic nerve is connected to the
other side by : a. Optic chiasma b. Anterior perforating
process c. Mamillary body d. Optic tract
12. Zygomatic nerve is a branch of
: a. Ophthalamic nerve b. Maxillary nerve c. Mandibular nerve d. None of the above
13. Supratrochlear nerve is a
branch from :
a. Optic nerve b. Frontal nerve c. Lacrimal nerve d. Nasociliary nerve
14. Length of optic nerve is :
a. 1 cm b. 2 cm c. 3 cm d. 4 cm
15. Terminal branch of the
ophthalamic artery is a. Dorsal nasal b. Superotrochlear c. Both d. None
16. The sinus to which orbit is
drained to is : a. Cavernous sinuses b. Superior sagittal sinuses c. Inferior sagittal sinuses d. Transverse sinuses
17. The check ligaments extends
from : a. Bulbar fascia b. Optical periosteum c. Optical septum d. Suspensory ligament
18. The smallest and most important branch of ophthalamic artery is : a. Lacrimal artery b. Central artery of retina c. Palpebral artery d. Meningeal branch
19. Lateral palpebral artery is
branched from : a. Ophthalamic artery b. Lacrimal artery c. Central artery of the retina d. Dorsal nasal artery
20. Apex of the orbit is directed :
a. Posteriorly b. Anteriorly c. Laterally d. Medially
21. The nerve supplies the skin of the
auricle near the external acoustic meatus
a. A branch of vagus b. Hypoglossal nerve c. Vestibulocochlear nerve d. Glossopharyngeal-nerve
22. In the bony part ( lateral 1/3) of
The external acoustic meatus There is a constriction called isthmus
a. True b. False
23. The subcutaneous tissues of the
cartilaginous part of The external acoustic meatus are rich in seruminous glands which secrete serumin
a. True b. False
24. Which of the following
statements about the tympanic membrane is incorrect?
a. When examined by autoscope or direct light the anteroinferior part of the membrane appears bright
b. Its Middle is containing chorda tympani nerve
c. Its inner layer is Formed of fibrous tissue
d. The outer surface of its inner layer is innervated by branch of-vagus-nerve
25. All of the following about the relations of the middle ear are correct except:
a. The Medial wall is related to the facial canal
b. The anterior wall is related to aditus to mastoid antrum
c. The Floor is related to the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve
d. The mastoid wall is Related to facial canal
26. A branch of the vagus nerve
supplies: a. the skin of the auricle near the
external acoustic meatus. b. the outer surface of the
tympanic membrane c. the inner surface of the
tympanic membrane d. the middle ear e. a and b f. and c g. all of the above 27. hyperacusis can occur In cases of
facial paralysis due to paralysis of the tensor tympani muscle
a. true b. false
28. Which of the following
statements about the membranous labyrinth is incorrect :
a. It is in the form of membranous sac inside the bony labyrinth
b. Outside the sac lies the perilymph between the sac and the bony labyrinth
c. It is composed of: Utricle, Saccule , semi circular duct and tympanic membrane
d. Formed of a sac is filled with a viscous fluid with low Na content
Answers:
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. E 27. B 28. C
Histology of special senses:
1. All of the following are contents of the orbit except: a. Eye ball b. Lacrimal glands c. Orbital lymph nodes d. Conjunctiva
2. All of the following are parts of the
uvea except: a. Choroid b. Ciliary body c. Cornea d. Iris
3. The cornea contains:
a. Blood vessels b. Lymphatics c. Nerve endings d. Muscles
4. All of the following are true
concerning the corneal epithelium except: a. The basal cell layer shows
microvilli embedded into the percorneal tear film
b. It contains plenty of free nerve endings
c. Sensitive to pain and touch
d. The basal cell layer responsible for the epithelial regeneration
5. ……………. Protects the cornea from trauma or bacterial invasion a. Bowman’s membrane b. Descemet’s membrane
6. All of the following are true
concerning the substantia propria except: a. It’s the thickest layer of the
cornea b. It contains 60 regular
lamellae of parallel collagen bundles that cross parallel to each other
c. Characterized by the presence of the butterfly cells
d. The fibers and the cells are embedded into the corneal proteoglycans
7. All of the following are factors
contributing into the corneal transparency except: a. The absences of blood vessels b. The equal spacing between el
collagen bundles c. The collagen bundles are
oriented at right angles to each other
d. None of the above
8. All of the following changes occurs at the limbus except: a. The corneal epithelium
becomes continuous with the bulbar conjunctiva
b. The regular lamellae of collagen fibers of the cornea merge with the irregular collagen bundles of the sclera
c. The bowman’s membrane is replaced by subconjunctival connective tissue
d. The descemt’s membrane and corneal endothelium become continuous with the discontinuous layer of fibroblasts and melanocytes of the sclera
9. ………….. pierces the sclera :
a. Optic nerve fibers b. Ciliary nerves and vessels c. Central artery of the retina d. All of the above
10. All of the following are related to
the sclera except: a. Conjunctiva b. Choroid c. Ciliary vessels
d. Venae verticosae
11. ……………. Is responsible for nutrition and blood supply of the retina
a. Ciliary body b. Aqueous humor c. Choroid d. Vitreous body
12. All of the following are true
concerning the ciliary body except:
a. It’s present at the limbus b. The apex of the triangle is
continuous anteriorly with the choroid
c. The base faces the anterior chamber
d. The outer surface faces the sclera
13. The ciliary epithelium is arranged into 2 layers outer non-pigmented layer and inner pigmented one
a. True b. False
14. All of the following is true
concerning the ciliary muscles except: a. Arranged into 3 groups
meridional, circular and radial
b. Responsible for accommodation for near vision
c. Receive parasympathetic supply from the occulomotor nerve
d. Attached to the lens via the zonules
15. The anterior chamber lies between the lens and the iris while the posterior chamber lies between the iris and the cornea a. True b. False
16. ………… are arranged in circules
concentric to the pupil a. Dilator pupillae muscles b. Constrictor pupillae muscles
17. …………….. forms the capsule of
the lens a. Basement membrane material b. Reticular fibers c. Collagen fibers d. a and b e. a and c
18. The retina extends from …………
posteriorly to …………….. anteriorly a. optic disk, orra serrata
b. orra serrata, optic disk
19. the temporal and nasal branches of the superior division of the central artery of the retina anatomize with those of the inferior division to supply the different parts of the retina a. true b. false
20. The circulus arteriosus major and
minor supply ………….. a. choroid b. ciliary body c. sclera d. iris
21. Which of the following statements isn't correct about the outer portion of the retina: a. Formed of pigmented
epithelium b. it is photosensitive c. it is firmly attached to the
choriocapillary layer of the choroid.
22. All of the following statements about the fovea centralis are correct except a. shallow depression b. located 2.5 mm lateral to the
optic disc
c. It is the area of greatest visual acuity.
d. called also optic papilla
23. tight junctions in the Retinal Pigmented epithelial cells are present between: a. numerous invaginations of the
cell base and basal lamina b. The adjacent cell membranes
of cells c. The cell apex and the rods and
cones
24. the blood retinal barrier is formed from tight junctions between adjacent cells of Retinal Pigmented epithelial cells with the tight junctions between endothelial cells of retinal blood vessels
a. true b. false
25. the layer of the retina that has a
role in Participation in restoration of photosensitivity to visual pigments is
a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium b. Inner plexiform layer c. The outer plexiform layer d. The outer limiting membrane
26. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Rod cells present in the retina a. mediate night vision b. contains rhodopsin c. extremely sensitive to light d. doesn't have outer fibers
27. It contains the synapses between the synaptic processes of rod and cone cells and the dendrites of the bipolar cells and horizontal cells. a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium b. Inner plexiform layer c. The outer plexiform layer d. The outer limiting membrane
28. cell bodies with the nuclei of the bipolar cells are present in
a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium b. Inner nuclear layer c. The outer nuclear layer d. The outer limiting membrane
29. Cells that extend from the outer to the inner limiting membranes. It has supportive, protective and nutritive functions.
a. Horizontal cells b. Muller cells c. Amacrine cells
30. few large cells with vesicular nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm and The retinal blood capillaries are present between them
a. Ganglion nerve cells. b. Horizontal cells c. Supporting cells d. Amacrine cells
31. myelin of the optic nerve fiber is formed by
a. melanocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. muller cells d. Schwann cells.
32. Conjunctiva is made up of
a. non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
b. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
c. simple columnar epithelium d. simple cuboidal epithelium
33. Conjunctiva helps in defending the eye against infection.
a. True b. False
34. Levator palpebrae superioris muscle is supplied by
a. Occulomotor nerve b. Optic nerve c. Trochlear nerve d. Abduscent nerve
35. Muller muscle is inserted in the superior border of the tarsal plate and is supplied by parasympathetic nerves a. True b. False
36. The following are modified
sebaceous glands except: a. Meibomian glands b. Zeis gland c. Glands of Moll
37. Between the vestibular scala and the middle scala is:
a. Reissner's membrane. b. The basilar membrane. c. The stria vascularis. d. The spiral ganglion.
38. Between the middle scala and the tympanic scala is:
a. Reissner's membrane b. The basilar membrane c. The stria vascularis. d. The spiral ganglion.
39. The stria vascularis is found in:
a. The middle scala. b. The vestibular scala. c. The tympanic scala. d. The modiolus..
40. The ogan of Corti is found in:
a. The middle scala. b. The vestibular scala. c. The tympanic scala. d. The modiolus.
Answers:
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. B
32. A 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. A
Physiology of special senses:
1. Bouncing of light rays of a surface: a. refraction b. reflection c. absorption d. none of the above
2. The transfer of L ight energy to a
particle or surface: a. refraction b. absorption c. reflection d. none of the above
3. When light passes from one
transparent medium to another ,its speed is constant:
a. true b. false
4. The greater the incident angle and
the greater the difference in refractive indices ,the lesser is the bending or refraction
a. true b. false
5. A line passing through the centers
of curvature of the lens : a. principale focus b. principale focal distance c. principale axis d. none of the above
6. The distance between the lens and the principale focus is :
a. principale focal distance b. principale axis c. principale focus d. none of the above
7. The rays from an object less than 6
meters are parallel: a. true b. false
8. The refractive power of a lens is
measured in : a. m b. mm c. nm d. diopters
9. The refractive media of the eye is
formed of : a. cornea b. lens c. aqueous and vitreous humor d. all of the above
10. The refractive index of cornea is : a. 1.38 b. 1.4 c. 1.33 d. 1.36
11. The refractive power of cornea is
…….diopters: a. 20 b. 40 c. 30 d. none of the above
12. The refractive index of lens is …. a. 1.36
b. 1.38 c. 1.4 d. 1.33
13. The refractive power of lens is ……..diopters:
a. 20 b. 40 c. 30 d. none of the above
14. The total refractive power of the
human eye during accommodation is 60 diopters:
a. true b. false
15. Cornea and lens are the chief
refractive media of the eye : a. true b. false
16. The most important part of the
refractive power of the eye is : a. lens b. cornea c. aqueous humor d. all of the above
17. The refractive index of the cornea is slightly different from that of the air:
a. true b. false
18. Protection is the main importance
of corneal reflex: a. true
b. false
19. The center of corneal reflex is located in :
a. midbrain b. pons c. medulla oblongata d. none of the above
20. The effector of the corneal reflex is
: a. orbicularis oculi b. medial rectus c. ciliary d. all of the above
21. The aqueous humor controls the
intraocular volume and pressure: a. true b. false
22. The lens is vascular transparent
biconvex structure : a. a.true b. b.false
23. Clear gelatinous material filling
the space between the posterior surface of the lens and the retina :
a. vitreous humor b. aqueous humor c. all of the above d. none of the above
24. Blurred vision is the stimulus for accommodation reflex:
a. true b. false
25. The recession of the near vision with age is called:
a. myopia b. hyperopia c. presbypia d. none of the above
26. All of the following events occur during darkness except:
a. cGMP binds to cation channels in the outer segments of photoreceptors
b. photoreceptors are depolarized c. there is continuous glutamate
release by photoreceptors at their synapses with the bipolar cells. .
d. channels in rod's outer segment close.
e. Cation influx in the outer segment now decreases, while Na+ ions continue to be pumped out from the inner segment
f. Ca+2 ions are removed by the Na+-Ca2+ exchange carrier.
27. The output neuron of the retina a. The photoreceptors b. bipolar cells c. The ganglion cells d. A and b
e. All of the above
28. At maximal light intensity the membrane potential can reach - 70 mV. this inhibits the release of neurotransmitter glutamate Thus in bipolar cells can fire an action potential
a. True b. False
29. All of the following statements
about the retinal adaptation are correct except:
a. It depends on the concentration of the photosensitive chemicals in the rods and cones
b. Light adaptation can occur more rapid than dark adaptation
c. The sensitivity of the retina In darkess is lower than its sensitivity in light
d. Light adaptation is due to the break down of the photosensitive chemicals in the rods and cones
30. All of the following occurs during dark adaptation except:
a. Visual acuity is small
b. all the retinal and opsins in rods and cones are converted into light sensitive pigments
c. Increase in retinal sensitivity to light
d. the retinal is converted into vitamin A
31. which of the following statements is correctly describing nyctalopia
a. optic nerve function is seriously hampered
b. the most common cause of night blindness is prolonged vitamin A deficiency
c. the rods and cons cann't perform their normal functions
d. occurs due to abnormal gene on the X-chromosome
32. Exposure to light activates phosphodiestrase enzyme PDE that breaks cGMP into 5' GMP
a. True b. False
33. Dark adaptation occurs four
times as rapidly in rods as in cons
a. True b. False
34. The scala vestibuli and the media are separated from each other by the
a. Reissner's membrane b. basilar membrane c. tympanic membrane d. tectorial membrane
35. The endolymph: a. formed by stria vascularis b. present in scalae vestibule and
tympani c. electronegative compared to
perilymph d. similar in composition to the
extracellular fluid
36. The primary auditory cortex: a. is called broca's area b. receives information from both
cochlea c. show no regional localization of
the cochlea d. can appreciate significance of
the spoken words e. present in the parietal lobe in
the floor of the central sulcus
37. About the intensity of sound all of the following is true except:
a. measured in decibels b. determined by amplitude of
sound waves c. perceived as loudness of sound
d. not affected by the frequency of sound waves
38. The basilar membrane of the cochlea
a. cover oval and round windows b. separates scalae vestibule and
tympani c. vibrates in pattern determined
by the form of travelling waves in the cochlear perilymph
39. Auditory discrimination of a certain sound pich depends upon:
a. part of the basilar membrane maximally displaced by the sound wave
b. frequency of sound waves c. difference in the middle ear
amplification of sounds of different piches
d. a and b but not c e. a,b and c
40. Attenuation reflex caused by loud voice leads to:
a. contraction of both stapedius and tensor tympani muscles
b. relaxation of the above 2 muscles
c. contraction of stapedius and relaxation of tympani
d. contraction of tympani and relaxation of stapedius
e. none of the above
41. The length of the fibers of the The basilar membrane decrease progressively from the base towards the apex of the cochlea
a. True b. False
42. The rods of corti support: a. The reticular lamina b. Tectorial membrane c. Basilar membrane
43. Helicotrema is an opening that connects:
a. scalae vestibule and tympani b. scalae vestibule and media c. scalae media and tympani
44. When the basilar membrane moves up, the reticular lamina moves up and in away from the modiolus
a. True b. False
45. Depolarization of the hair cells depends mainly on:
a. Outflux of Cl b. Influx of Na c. Influx of K d. Outflux of K
46. (Choose the incorrect answer) Sound localization In the horizontal plane :
a. Doesn't Require bilateral hearing
b. It is a function of the superior olivary nucleus and the primary auditory cortex
c. Detect the difference in the intensity of sound between the two ears.
d. detect the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into opposite ear through the presence of time lag neurons
47. It is a center for (audiospinal reflexes).
a. Auditory cortex b. Inferior colliculus c. Superior olivary nucleus d. Cochlea
48. Unilateral lesion of the primary auditory cortex
a. gives total deafness b. unilateral deafness on the
ipsilateral side c. does not lead to deafness in
either ear d. The person cannot interpret the
meaning of the sound.
49. The tonotopic organization present in the organ of Corti is preserved within the cochlear nuclei, the inferior colliculus and the primary auditory area
a. True b. False
50. Most of the information leaving the cochlea to the auditory pathway comes from
a. the inner hair cells b. the outer hair cells c. both of the hair cells are equally
discharging
51. olfactory sensory receptors located in:
a. in a ganglion
b. in olfactory mucosa
c. in taste mucous membrane
52. surface area covered by the yellowish pigmented olfactory mucous membrane in microsomatic animals:
a. large area
b. 10 squares cm
c. 5 squares cm
d. None of the above
53. surface area covered by the yellowish pigmented olfactory mucous membrane in macrosomatic animals:
a. large area
b. 10 squares cm
c. 5 squares cm
d. None of the above
54. pigmented olfactory mucous membrane contain:
a. supporting cells
b. progenitor cells
c. both A & B
d. none of the above
55. between supporting & progenitor cells of pigmented olfactory mucous membrane:
a. 10-20 thousands receptors
b. 10-20 millions receptors
c. 10-20 hundreds receptors
d. 10-20 receptors
56. The dendrites of neurons of olfactory receptors:
a. Thick & long
b. Thick & short
c. Thin & long
d. Thin & short
57. Cilia of olfactory receptors:
a. Myelinated with 0.1µm in diameter
b. Myelinated with 2µm in diameter
c. Unmyelinated with 0.1µm in diameter
d. Un myelinated with 2 µm in diameter
58. Olfactory membrane covered by mucous membrane secreted by:
a. Schwann cells
b. Olfactory cells
c. Nasal membrane
d. Bowman's glands
59. Olfactory cells can't regenerate:
a. True
b. False
60. Olfactory cells stimulated by:
a. Odorant molecules
b. Taste molecules
c. None of the above
61. Receptor-odorant complex stimulate:
a. adenylate cyclase
b. Odorant molecule
c. G-protein ( Golf )
d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels
62. adenylate cyclase cause:
a. adenylate cyclase
b. formation cAMP
c. G-protein ( Golf )
d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels
63. spasticity of olfactory epithelium controlled by:
a. genetically
b. by drugs
c. by conditions
d. all of the above
64. the main structure responsible for discriminate odors:
a. olfactory mucosa
b. olfactory genes
c. olfactory glomeruli
d. all of the above
65. Olfactory signals become topographically organized within:
a. olfactory glomeruli
b. olfactory mucosa
c. both A & B
d. olfactory bulb
66. adaptation of olfactory system:
a. rapid and at CNS level
b. rapid and at receptor level
c. slow and at CNS level
d. both A & B
67. the constitutions of chemical sense:
a. Olfaction
b. Gustation
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
68. the common character of smell & taste:
a. provide information regarding the external environment
b. replaced with a half-time of a few weeks
c. specialized sensory receptors are stimulated by chemical molecules
d. all of the above
69. sweet taste caused by:
a. ionized salts
b. acids
c. long chain organic substances contain alkaloids
d. foods containing glutamate
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols & Alcohols
70. sweet taste caused by:
a. ionized salts
b. acids
c. long chain organic substances contain alkaloids
d. foods containing glutamate
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols & Alcohols
71. Sour taste caused by:
a. ionized salts
b. acids
c. long chain organic substances contain alkaloids
d. foods containing glutamate
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols & Alcohols
72. Bitter taste caused by:
a. ionized salts
b. acids
c. long chain organic substances contain alkaloids
d. foods containing glutamate
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols & Alcohols
73. Umami taste caused by:
a. ionized salts
b. acids
c. long chain organic substances contain alkaloids
d. foods containing glutamate
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols & Alcohols
74. receptors of taste sensation located in:
a. taste buds
b. olfactory epithelium
c. skin
d. all of the above
75. taste buds located in:
a. papillae
b. palate, pharynx
c. epiglottis
d. All of the above
76. Damage to the nerves innervating the taste buds cause:
a. Total ageusia b. Partial ageusia c. Both A & B d. None of the above
77. innervation of taste buds on anterior 2/3 of tongue:
a. facial nerve (CN VII) b. glossopharyngeal nerve
( CN IX ) c. Vagus nerve (CN X).
78. the innervation of taste buds on posterior 1/3 of tongue:
a. facial nerve (CN VII)
b. glossopharyngeal nerve ( CN IX )
c. Vagus nerve (CN X)
79. the innervation of taste buds on epiglottis
a. facial nerve (CN VII)
b. glossopharyngeal nerve ( CN IX )
c. Vagus nerve (CN X)
Answers: 1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. E 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. D
31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. A 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. A
51. B
52. C
53. A
54. C
55. B
56. B
57. C
58. D
59. B
60. A
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. C
65. D
66. D
67. C
68. D
69. E
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. D
74. A
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. B
79. C
Chapter 4:
Pharmacology bank Qs ;)
1. ANS: 1. Drugs activating this receptor are
used in treating asthma: a. beta1 adrenergic b. muscarinic cholinergic c. beta2 adrenergic d. nicotinic cholinergic
2. Epinephrine effects on the heart
a. increased rate b. decreased contractility c. coronary vasodilation d. A & C
3. Receptor activation mainly
responsible for positive inotropism:
a. alpha1 b. beta1 c. dopamine D1 d. muscarinic cholinergic
4. Epinephrine effects on
respiration: a. stimulation b. Inhibition
5. Activates alpha receptors
a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. phenylephrine (Neo-
Synephrine)
d. terbutaline (Brethine)
6. Nerve terminal reuptake inhibitor a. methoxamine (Vasoxyl) b. cocaine c. reserpine d. timolol (Blocadren)
7. Alpha adrenoceptor COVALENT
blocker: a. propranolol (Inderal) b. phenoxybenzamine
(Dibenzyline) c. phentolamine (Regitine) d. pilocarpine (Pilocar)
8. Orthostatic (postural)
hypotension a. beta receptor activation b. alpha receptor activation c. alpha receptor blocker d. dopamine receptor blockade
9. Norepinephrine pressor response
blocked by: a. mecamylamine (Inversine) b. prazosin (Minipress) c. atropine d. propranolol (Inderal)
10. Positive chronotropic effects of
epinephrine: a. increased SA nodal potassium
current b. beta1 receptor activation c. mediated by G protein d. B & C
11. Pressor effects of epinephrine are blocked by this drug ("epinephrine reversal")
a. propranolol (Inderal) b. phentolamine (Regitine) c. phenylephrine (Neo-
Synephrine) d. metoprolol (Lopressor)
12. Decreases blood pressure
a. propranolol (Inderal) b. mecamylamine (Inversine) c. phentolamine (Regitine) d. all of the above
13. Centrally-acting antihypertensive
drug a. nitroprusside sodium
(Nipride) b. clonidine (Catapres) c. methoxamine (Vasoxyl) d. captopril (Capoten)
14. Therapeutic use of esmolol
(Brevibloc): a. bronchial asthma b. renal vasodilator c. antihypertensive d. antiarrhythmic drug e. positive inotrope in CHF
15. The magnitude of the
cardiovascular response to norepinephrine is increased by cocaine because:
a. cocaine inhibits norepinephrine reuptake
b. cocaine increases conversion of norepinephrine to phenylephrine
c. cocaine decreases cholinergic receptor number
d. cocaine decreases N.E. metabolism by MAO
e. cocaine increases N.E. receptor number
16. Immediate biosynthetic precursor of epinephrine:
a. L-DOPA b. doapmine c. norepinephrine d. metaraminol e. Isoproterenol
17. Epinephrine:
a. limited effect on alpha receptors
b. increases heart rate, contributing to increase blood pressure
c. epinephrine often reduces peripheral vascular resistance, especially at high concentration
d. epinephrine tends to exhibit negative inotropic effects
e. all of the above
18. Vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine:
a. alpha-1 adrenergic receptor-mediated affecting precapillary resistance vessels of the skin, kidney, and mucosa
b. veins c. both d. Neither
19. A decrease in diastolic pressures
associated with epinephrine administration would most likely occur in which dosage?
a. relatively high doses b. relatively low doses
20. Most probable BP effect of
epinephrine, if epinephrine is administered after an alpha-receptor antagonist:
a. previous administration of the alpha-receptor antagonist will not influence the blood-pressure response to epinephrine
b. increased blood-pressure response to epinephrine
c. decreased blood-pressure response to epinephrine
21. Prominent cardiac beta-adrenergic receptor type:
a. beta-1 b. beta-2 c. beta-3
22. Cardiac effects associated with
epinephrine: a. positive chronotropic b. positive inotropic c. increased cardiac output d. increased oxygen
consumption
e. all of the above
23. Significant respiratory tract effects of epinephrine:
a. beta-2 receptor mediated bronchoconstriction
b. alpha-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation
c. beta-1 receptor-mediated bronchodilation
d. beta-2 receptor-mediated bronchodilation
24. Examples of epinephrine metabolic effects
a. insulin secretion reduced by beta2 adrenergic receptor activation
b. glucagon secretion: diminished by beta adrenergic receptor activation
c. free fatty acids: increased d. minimal calorigenic effect e. glycolysis inhibition
25. Toxicities/adverse reactions
associated with sympathomimetics
a. angina b. hypertension; cerebral
hemorrhage c. cardiac arrhythmias d. anxiety reactions e. all the above
26. Drugs antagonize epinephrine
pressor effects: a. phentolamine (Regitine)
b. terbutaline (Brethine) c. dopamine (Intropin) d. dobutamine (Dobutrex) e. Atropine
27. Epinephrine effects on AV nodall
conduction: a. increased conduction velocity b. decreased conduction velocity c. promotes AV block
28. Ventricular effects associated
with epinephrine administration: a. increased automaticity b. increased ectopic pacemaker
activity c. increased conduction
philosophy d. increased contractility e. all the above
29. Primary neurotransmitter
released by postganglionic neurons of the autonomic sympathetic system:
a. epinephrine b. dopamine c. dobutamine d. norepinephrine e. Phenylephrine
30. Decreased heart rate following
norepinephrine infusion is most likely due to:
a. direct norepinephrine activation of muscarinic receptors at the SA node
b. heart rate cannot decrease following norepinephrine infusion because norepinephrine activates beta-1 adrenergic receptors
c. activation of the baroreceptor system causing a reflex-mediated decrease in heart rate
d. peripheral vasodilation e. none of the above
31. Vascular effects of
norepinephrine (Levophed): a. significantly decreases
glomerularl filtration rates b. effective in treating variant
(Prinzmetal's) angina c. norepinephrine pressor
effects blocked by prazosin (Minipress)
d. increased blood flow to liver, kidney, and skeletal muscle
32. Immediate synthetic precursor of norepinephrine:
a. Epinephrine b. tyrosine c. tyrosine hydroxylase d. dopamine e. Dopa
33. CNS neurotransmitter associated
with the basal ganglia and motor control:
a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. both
d. Neither
34. Low doses, this precursor of norepinephrine causes renovascular dilation:
a. epinephrine b. dopa c. dopamine (Intropin) d. dobutamine (Dobutrex) e. nitroprusside sodium
(Nipride)
35. Pharmacological action(s) of dopamine (Intropin):
a. positive inotropism b. promotes myocardial
norepinephrine release c. increases glomerular
filtration rates (low-dose) d. vasoconstriction by alpha-1
receptor activation (high-dose) e. all the above
36. Significant therapeutic use for
dopamine: a. management of sleep cycles b. treatment of Raynaud's
phenomenon c. treatment of
cardiogenic/hypovolemic shock
d. management of tachyarrhythmias
37. Cardiovascular characteristics of patients who might benefit from IV dopamine (Intropin) administration:
a. low systemic blood pressure b. decreased atrial filling
pressures c. high urinary output
38. Simultaneous increases in
myocardial contractility, glomerular filtration rate, sodium excretion, urine output, and renal blood flow are associated most likely with:
a. epinephrine b. isoproterenol (Isuprel) c. phenylephrine (Neo-
Synephrine) d. dopamine (Intropin) e. norepinephrine (Levophed)
39. Properties of dobutamine
(Dobutrex): a. positive inotropic agent;
causes significant increase in heart rate
b. promotes catecholamine release
c. mainly acts through dopamine receptors
d. positive inotropic effect is mediated through beta-adrenergic receptor activation
e. appropriate for long-term management of myocardial pump-failure following surgery
40. Examples of beta-2 selective adrenergic agonists
a. metaproterenol (Alupent)
b. terbutaline (Brethine) c. albuterol (Ventolin,Proventil) d. A & B e. A, B & C
41. Clinical use(s) of alpha-1-
receptor agonists: a. management hypotensive
states b. termination of paroxysmal
atrial tachycardia c. nasal decongestant d. A & B e. A,B & C
42. Primary use for alpha-2-selective
adrenergic agonists: a. to manage hypotensive states b. to increase myocardial
contractility c. to reduce blood pressure d. A & B e. A,B & C
43. Major mechanism of
antihypertensive effects associated with alpha-2-selective adrenergic agonists:
a. competitive inhibition of vascular alpha receptors
b. reduced sympathetic outflow
44. Clinical uses for sympathomimetic drugs:
a. hypovolemic shock caused by dehydration or blood loss
b. cardiogenic shock (pump failure)
c. cardiac output obstruction d. loss of peripheral vascular
tone e. all of the above
45. Most likely to reduce myocardial
performance in a damaged heart by increasing afterload:
a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. phenylephrine (Neo-
Synephrine) c. low-dose dopamine
(Intropin) d. low-dose epinephrine
46. Receptor system most likely
responsible for improved myocardial contractility when dopamine is administered at low concentrations:
a. muscarinic cholinergic receptors
b. alpha adrenergic receptors c. beta adrenergic receptors d. dopamine receptors (D1) e. leukotriene receptors
47. Clinical applications of beta-
adrenergic antagonists: a. management of coronary
vascular disease b. treatment of arrhythmias c. treatment of hypertension d. all the above
48. A non-selective beta-adrenergic
receptor blocker: a. metoprolol (Lopressor)
b. atenolol (Tenormin) c. timolol (Blocadren) d. esmolol (Brevibloc)
49. Beta-adrenergic receptor
blockers: effects on the heart -- a. increase heart rate b. increased AV nodal refractory
period c. increased contractility d. increased myocardial oxygen
demand e. increased phase 4
depolarization
50. Most likely to cause dangerous bronchiolar constriction in asthmatic patients or patients with COPD a. metoprolol (Lopressor) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. esmolol (Brevibloc) d. atenolol (Tenormin)
51. Very potent beta adrenergic
receptor agonists with minimal effects on alpha adrenergic receptors:
a. propranolol (Inderal) propranolol (Inderal)
b. isoproterenol (Isuprel) c. epinephrine d. yohimbine (Yocon) e. phentolamine (Regitine)
52. Beta-2 selective agonist--
typically administered by aerosol for asthma management:
a. epinephrine b. isoproterenol (Isuprel) c. cromolyn sodium (Intal) d. beclomethasone (Banceril) e. albuterol
(Ventolin,Proventil)
53. Used to suppress premature labor:
a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. losartin (Cozaar) c. ritodrine (Yutopar) d. phenylephrine (Neo-
Synephrine) e. clonidine (Catapres)
54. Produces epinephrine reversal, converting a pressor response to a deep pressor response:
a. losartin (Cozaar) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. metoprolol (Lopressor) d. phentolamine (Regitine) e. clonidine (Catapres)
55. Choose the incorrect statement concerning metabolic effects of sympathomimetic agents
a. Activation of beta receptors in fat cells increase lipolysis.
b. Alpha -- 2 adrenergic receptors inhibit lipolysis
c. Hepatic catecholamine effects our mediated mainly by beta adrenergic receptor activation
d. At high concentrations, catecholamines may induce a metabolic acidosis
e. Sympathomimetic drugs increase extracellular potassium
56. Correct receptor type: tissues -- actions
a. alpha 1: heart: positive inotropic
b. alpha 1: pupillary dilator muscle: miosis (pupillary contraction)
c. alpha 2:cholinergic nerve terminals: facilitate transmitter release
d. beta 1: heart: decrease forests of contraction
e. beta 2:human liver: inhibits glycogenolysis
57. Correct receptor type: tissues: actions
a. alpha 1:most innervated vascular smooth muscle: contraction
b. alpha 2:platelets: aggregation
c. beta 2:uterine smooth muscle: smooth muscle relaxation
d. A & C e. A, B & C
58. Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by:
a. Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals
b. Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites
c. Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
d. All of the above
59. Characteristics of epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is synthesized into the adrenal medulla
b. It is synthesized into the nerve ending
c. It is transported in the blood to target tissues
d. It directly interacts with and activates adrenoreceptors
60. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly?
a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Ephedrine d. Methoxamine
61. Indirect action includes all of the
following properties EXCEPT: a. Displacement of stored
catecholamines from the adrenergic nerve ending
b. Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released
c. Interaction with adrenoreceptors
d. Inhibition of the release of endogenous catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic neurons
62. Catecholamine includes following EXCEPT:
a. Ephedrine b. Epinephrine c. Isoprenaline d. Norepinephrine
63. Epinephrine decreases
intracellular camp levels by acting on:
a. α1 receptor b. α2 receptor c. beta1 receptor d. beta2 receptor
64. Which of the following
statements is not correct? a. ALFA receptors increase arterial
resistence, whereas beta2 receptor promote smooth muscle relaxation
b. The skin and splanchic vessels have predominantly alfa receptors
c. Vessels in a skeletal muscle may constrict or dilate depending on whether alfa or beta2 receptors are activated
d. Skeletal muscle vessels have predominantly alfa receptors and constrict in the presence of epinephrine and
Norepinephrine
65. Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by: a. Alfa1 receptor b. Alfa2 receptor c. Beta1 receptor d. Beta2 receptor
66. Which of the following effects is
related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation? a. Bronchodilation b. Vasodilatation c. Tachycardia d. Bradycardia
67. Distribution of alfa
adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following tissues except those of: a. Heart b. Blood vessels c. Prostate d. Pupillary dilator muscle
68. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is
contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT: a. Bronchial muscles b. Heart c. Pupillary dilator muscle d. Fat cells
69. In which of the following tissues
both alfa and beta1 adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect?
a. Blood vessels b. Intestine c. Uterus d. Bronchial muscles
70. The effects of sympathomimetics
on blood pressure are associated with their effects on:
a. The heart b. The peripheral resistance c. The venous return d. All of the above
71. A relatively pure alfa agonist
causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a. Increase peripheral arterial resistance
b. Increase venous return c. Has no effect on blood vessels d. Reflex bradycardia
72. A nonselective beta receptor
agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a. Increase cardiac output b. Increase peripheral arterial
resistance c. Decrease peripheral arterial
resistance d. Decrease the mean pressure
73. Which of the following statement
is not correct? a. Αlfa agonists cause miosis b. Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis c. Beta antagonists decrease the
production of aqueous humor
d. Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye
74. A bronchial smooth muscle contains: a. Αlfa1 receptor b. Αlfa2 receptor c. c) Beta 1 receptor d. Beta 2 receptor
75. All of the following agents are
beta receptor agonists EXCEPT: a. Epinephrine b. Isoproterenol c. Methoxamine d. Dobutamine
76. Αlfa-receptor stimulation
includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Relaxation of gastrointestinal
smooth muscle b. Contraction of bladder base,
uterus and prostate c. Stimulation of insulin
secretion d. Stimulation of platelet
aggregation
77. Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Increase in contractility b. Bronchodilation c. Tachycardia d. Increase in conduction
velocity in the
atrioventricular node
78. Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Stimulation of renin
secretion b. Fall of potassium
concentration in plasma c. Relaxation of bladder, uterus d. Tachycardia
79. Hyperglycemia induced by
epinephrine is due to: a. Gluconeogenesis (beta2) b. Inhibition of insulin
secretion (alfa) c. Stimulation of glycogenolysis
(beta2) d. All of the above
80. Which of the following effects is
associated with beta3-receptor stimulation? a. Lipolysis b. Decrease in platelet
aggregation c. Bronchodilation d. Tachycardia
81. Which of the following
statements is not correct? a. Epinephrine acts on both
alfa- and beta-receptors b. Norepinephrine has a
predominantly beta action c. Methoxamine has a
predominantly alfa action
d. Isoprenaline has a predominantly beta action
82. Indicate the drug, which is a direct-acting both alfa- and beta-receptor agonist:
a. Norepinephrine b. Methoxamine c. Isoproterenol d. Ephedrine
83. Which of the following agents is
an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist? a. Methoxamine b. Albuterol c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine
84. Indicate the direct-acting
sympathomimetic, which is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor agonist: a. Isoproterenol b. Ephedrine c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine
85. Which of the following agents is
a nonselective beta receptor agonist? a. Norepinephrine b. Terbutaline c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine
86. Indicate the beta1-selective
agonist:
a. Isoproterenol b. Dobutamine c. Metaproterenol d. Epinephrine
87. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is a beta2-selective agonist?
a. Terbutaline b. Xylometazoline c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine
88. Indicate the indirect-acting
sympathomimetic agent: a. Epinephrine b. Phenylephrine c. Ephedrine d. Isoproterenol
89. Epinephrine produces all of the
following effects EXCEPT: a. Positive inotropic and
chronotropic actions on the heart (beta1 receptor)
b. Increase peripheral resistance (alfa receptor)
c. Predominance of alfa effects at low concentration
d. Skeletal muscle blood vessel dilatation (beta2 receptor)
90. Epinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Decrease in oxygen
consumption b. Bronchodilation c. Hyperglycemia
d. Mydriasis
91. Epinephrine is used in the treatment of all of the following disorders EXCEPT: a. Bronchospasm b. Anaphylactic shock c. Cardiac arrhythmias d. Open-angle glaucoma
92. Compared with epinephrine,
norepinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. Similar effects on beta1
receptors in the heart and similar potency at an alfa receptor
b. Decrease the mean pressure below normal before returning to the control value
c. Significant tissue necrosis if injected subcutaneously
d. Increase both diastolic and systolic blood pressure
93. Norepinephrine produces: a. Vasoconstriction b. Vasodilatation c. Bronchodilation d. Decresed potassium
concentration in the plasma
94. Which of the following direct-acting drugs is a relatively pure alfa agonist, an effective mydriatic and decongestant and can be used to raise blood pressure?
a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Phenylephrine d. Ephedrine
95. 044. Isoproterenol is:
a. Both an alfa- and beta-receptor agonist
b. beta1-selective agonist c. beta2-selective agonist d. Nonselective beta
receptor agonist
96. 045. Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a. Increase in cardiac output
b. Fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure
c. Bronchoconstriction d. Tachycardia
97. 046. Characteristics of
dobutamine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is a relatively beta1-selective synthetic catecholamine
b. It is used to treat bronchospasm
c. It increases atrioventricular conduction
d. It causes minimal changes in heart rate and systolic pressure
98. 047. Characteristics of salmeterol include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is a potent selective beta2 agonist
b. It causes uterine relaxation
c. It stimulates heart rate, contractility and cardiac output
d. It is used in the therapy of asthma
99. 048. Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It acts primarily through the release of stored cathecholamines
b. It is a mild CNS stimulant
c. It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated administration
d. It decreases arterial pressure
100. 049. Ephedrine causes: a. Miosis b. Bronchodilation c. Hypotension d. Bradycardia
101. 050. Compared with
epinephrine, ephedrine produces all of the following features EXCEPT:
a. It is a direct-acting sympathomimetic
b. It has oral activity c. It is resistant to MAO
and has much longer duration of action
d. Its effects are similar, but it is less potent
102. 051. Which of the following sympathomimetics is preferable for the treatment of chronic orthostatic hypotension?
a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Ephedrine d. Salmeterol
103. 052. Indicate the
sympathomimetic drug, which is used in a hypotensive emergency:
a. Xylometazoline b. Ephedrine c. Terbutaline d. Phenylephrine
104. 053. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is preferable for the emergency therapy of cardiogenic shock?
a. Epinephrine b. Dobutamine c. Isoproterenol d. Methoxamine
105. 054. Indicate the
sympathomimetic agent, which is combined with a local anesthetic
to prolong the duration of infiltration nerve block:
a. Epinephrine b. Xylometazoline c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine
106. 055. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is related to short-acting topical decongestant agents?
a. Xylometazoline b. Terbutaline c. Phenylephrine d. Norepinephrine
107. 058. Indicate the
sympathomimetic, which may be useful in the emergency management of cardiac arrest:
a. Methoxamine b. Phenylephrine c. Epinephrine d. Xylometazoline
108. 059. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is used in the therapy of bronchial asthma?
a. Formoterol b. Norepinephrine c. Methoxamine d. Dobutamine
109. 060. Indicate the agent of
choice in the emergency therapy of anaphylactic shock:
a. Methoxamine b. Terbutaline
c. Norepinephrine d. Epinephrine
110. 061. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is an effective mydriatic?
a. Salmeterol b. Phenylephrine c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine
111. 062. The adverse effects of
sympathomimetics include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Drug-induced parkinsonism
b. Cerebral hemorrhage or pulmonary edema
c. Myocardial infarction d. Ventricular arrhythmias
112. Sympathetic Nervous System
a. Ganglionic neurotransmitter: acetylcholine
b. generalized response upon sympathetic activation
c. thoraco-lumbar origin for preganglionic cell bodies
d. A, B and C
113. Choline ester most susceptible to hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase:
a. carbachol b. acetylcholine c. methacholine (Provocholine) d. pilocarpine (Pilocar)
114. Resistant to hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase
a. carbachol (carbamylcholine) b. methacholine (Provocholine) c. both d. neither
115. Highest nicotinic receptor
activity among choline esters: a. acetylcholine b. atropine c. methacholine (Provocholine) d. carbachol
116. Associated with
parasympathetic activation (direct effects):
a. increase heart rate b. decreased GI motility c. decrease cardiac contractility d. urinary retention
117. Miosis produced by
a. pilocarpine (Pilocar) b. atropine c. both d. neither
118. Antimuscarinic drug with
highest CNS activity a. atropine b. scopolamine c. homatropine d. muscarine
119. Muscarinic agent: enhances
transmission through the A-V node:
a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) b. atropine c. propranolol (Inderal) d. methacholine (Provocholine)
120. Least likely to be used as a
mydriatic because of long-duration of action:
a. homatropine (Isopto Homatropine)
b. atropine c. cyclopentolate (Cyclogyl) d. benztropine (Cogentin)
121. Clinically-used to treat sinus
bradycardia secondary to acute myocardial infarction:
a. homatropine (Isopto Homatropine)
b. atropine c. benztropine (Cogentin) d. tropicamide (Mydriacyl)
122. Location(s) of cholinergic
synaptic sites: a. neuromuscular junction b. autonomic effector sites
innervated by post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers
c. some CNS synapses d. A & C
123. Localization of muscarinic
cholinergic receptors: a. postganglionic
parasympathetic effector sites b. autonomic ganglia cells c. adrenal medulla
d. A & C e. A, B & C
124. Cholinergic receptor type
primarily localized at skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions:
a. muscarinic b. nicotinic
125. Highly sensitive to the action
of acetylcholinesterase: a. carbachol b. bethanechol (Urecholine) c. acetylcholine d. A & C e. A,B, & C
126. Muscarinic receptor subtype
primarily associated with the heart:
a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 d. M4
127. Effective antagonist at
neuromuscular junction receptors;
a. atropine b. tubocurarine
128. Cardiac muscarinic Type M2-
receptor mediated action(s): a. increased phase 4
depolarization rate b. increased AV nodal conduction
velocity
c. Decreased atrial and ventricular contractility
d. all the above
129. Ligand-gated ion channels: a. nicotinic b. muscarinic c. both d. neither
130. Tends to cause fast responses:
a. nicotinic b. muscarinic
131. Agonist effects blocked by
tubocurarine: a. muscarinic receptors b. nicotinic receptors
132. Indirect-acting
cholinomimetic: a. atropine b. edrophonium (Tensilon) c. carbachol d. acetylcholine e. ephedrine
133. More lipophilic:
a. neostigmine (Prostigmin) b. most organophosphate
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
134. Consequences of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor application to the conjunctiva
a. relaxation of the pupillary sphincter muscle
b. relaxation of the ciliary muscle
c. both d. neither
135. Which type of glaucoma
response to anticholinesterase treatment?
a. primary b. secondary c. congenital
136. Probable cause of myasthenia
gravis: a. excessive synthesis of
cholinergic receptors b. inadequate synthesis of
acetylcholine c. failure of acetylcholine
reuptake system d. binding of anti--muscarinic
receptor antibodies to the muscarinic cholinergic receptor
e. binding of anti-nicotinic receptor antibodies to the nicotinic cholinergic receptor
137. Preferred anticholinergic drug when sedation is the principal objective, preoperatively:
a. atropine b. glycopyrrolate (Robinul) c. scopolamine
138. Anticholinergic drug most
likely to be used clinically to promote bronchodilation:
a. IV atropine b. aerosolized atropine
c. aerosolized ipratropium bromide (ipratropium (Atrovent))
d. scopolamine e. all of the above
139. Mydriasis without loss of
accommodation a. parasympatholytic b. sympathomimetic
140. Management of severe
bradycardia and A-V block associated with acute myocardial infarction:
a. atropine b. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
141. Acetylcholine is not a specific
neurotransmitter at: a. a) Sympathetic ganglia b. b) Sympathetic postganglionic
nerve endings c. c) Parasympathetic ganglia d. d) Parasympathetic
postganglionic nerve endings
142. Muscarinic receptors are located in:
a. a) Autonomic ganglia b. b) Skeletal muscle
neuromuscular junctions c. c) Autonomic effector cells d. d) Sensory carotid sinus
baroreceptor zone
143. Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:
a. a) Heart b. b) Glands c. c) Smooth muscle d. d) Endothelium
144. Which of the following
cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?
a. a) Lobeline b. b) Pilocarpine c. c) Nicotine d. d) Bethanechol
145. Indicate a cholinomimetic
agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:
a. a) Edrophonium b. b) Physostigmine c. c) Carbachol d. d) Isoflurophate
146. Characteristics of carbachol
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. a) It decreases intraocular pressure
b. b) It causes mydriasis c. c) It exerts both nicotinic and
muscarinic effects d. d) It is resistant to
acethylcholiesterase
147. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:
a. a) It is very toxic b. b) The doses required are very
high
c. c) It is very rapidly hydrolyzed d. d) It is very costly
148. Parasympathomimetic drugs
cause: a. a) Bronchodilation b. b) Mydriasis c. c) Bradycardia d. d) Constipation
149. Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?
a. a) Bethanechol b. b) Carbachol c. c) Acetylcholine d. d) None of the above
150. Which of the following direct-
acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action?
a) Acetylcholine b) Methacholine c) Carbachol d) Bethanechol
151. Bethanechol has all of the
following properties EXCEPT: a) It is extremely resistant to
hydrolysis b) Purely muscarinic in its action c) It is used for abdominal urinary
bladder distention d) It exerts both nicotinic and
muscarinic effects
152. A M-cholinimimetic agent is: a) Carbachol b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine d) Bethanechol
153. Characteristics of pilocarpine
include all of the following EXCEPT: a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid b) It causes miosis and a
decrease in intraocular pressure
c) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut
d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma
154. Which of the following cholinomimetics is indirect-acting?
a) Lobeline b) Edrophonium c) Pilocarpine d) Carbachol
155. The mechanism of action of
indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is:
a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites
156. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:
a) Isoflurophate b) Carbochol c) Physostigmine d) Parathion
157. Which of the following
cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?
a) Physostigmine b) Edrophonium c) Neostigmine d) Isoflurophate
158. Indicate cholinesterase
activator: a) Pralidoxime b) Edrophonium c) Pilocarpine d) Isoflurophate
159. Isofluorophate increases all of
the following effects except: a) Lacrimation b) Bronchodilation c) Muscle twitching d) Salivation
160. Indicate a cholinesterase
inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium b) Carbochol c) Neostigmine d) Lobeline
161. Сholinesterase inhibitors do not produce:
a) Bradycardia, no change or modest fall in blood pressure
b) Increased strength of muscle contraction, especially in muscles weakened by myasthenia gravis
c) Miosis and reduction of intraocular pressure
d) Dramatic hypertension and tachycardia
162. Which of the following cholinomimetics is commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma?
a) Pilocarpine b) Lobeline c) Acethylcholine d) Neostigmine
163. Which of the following
cholinomimetics is most widely used for paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary bladder?
a) Lobeline b) Neostigmine c) Pilocarpine d) Echothiophate
164. Chronic long-term therapy of
myasthenia is usually accomplished with:
a) Edrophonium b) Neostigmine c) Echothiophate d) Carbachol
165. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for reversing the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular relaxants?
a) Echothiophate b) Physostigmine c) Edrophonium d) Pilocarpine
166. Indicate the reversible
cholinesterase inhibitor, which penetrates the blood-brain barrier:
a) Physostigmine b) Edrophonium c) Neostigmine d) Piridostigmine
167. Which of the following cholinomimetics is used in the treatment of atropine intoxication?
a) Neostigmine b) Carbochol c) Physostigmine d) Lobeline
168. The symptoms of excessive
stimulation of muscarinic receptors include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Abdominal cramps, diarrhea b) Increased salivation, excessive
bronchial secretion c) Miosis, bradycardia d) Weakness of all skeletal
muscles
169. The excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine and choline esters is blocked competitively by:
a) Edrophonium b) Atropine c) Pralidoxime d) Echothiophate
170. The toxic effects of a large dose
of nicotine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Hypotension and bradycardia b) Convulsions, coma and respiratory
arrest c) Skeletal muscle depolarization
blockade and respiratory paralysis d) Hypertension and cardiac
arrhythmias
171. The dominant initial sights of acute cholinesterase inhibitors intoxication include all of the following except:
a) Salivation, sweating b) Mydriasis c) Bronchial constriction d) Vomiting and diarrhea
172. Which of those drugs used for
acute toxic effects of organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitors?
a) Atropine b) Pilocarpine c) Pralidoxime d) Edrophonium
173. The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:
1. Ganglion-blockers 2. Atropine-similar drugs 3. Neuromuscular junction blockers 4. Both a and c
174. M3 receptor subtype is located:
1. In the myocardium 2. In sympathetic postganglionic
neurons 3. On effector cell membranes of
glandular and smooth muscle cells 4. On the motor end plates
175. Which of the following drugs
is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?
a) Atropine b) Benztropine c) Hexamethonium d) Succinylcholine
176. Indicate a muscarinic
receptor-blocking drug: a) Scopolamine b) Pipecuronium c) Trimethaphan d) Pilocarpine
177. Which of the following agents
is a ganglion-blocking drug? a) Homatropine b) Hexamethonium c) Rapacuronium d) Edrophonium
178. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:
a) Vencuronium b) Scopolamine c) Succinylcholine d) Hexamethonium
179. Which of the following drugs
is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?
a) Pancuronium b) Succinylcholine c) Hexamethonium d) Scopolamine
180. Indicate the drug, which is
rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic agents?
a) Atropine b) Scopolamine c) Homatropine d) Ipratropium
181. The effect of the drug on
parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:
a) Eye b) Heart c) Smooth muscle organs d) Glands
182. The mechanism of atropine action is:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade b) Competitive muscarinic
blockade c) Competitive neuromuscular
blockade d) Noncompetitive
neuromuscular blockade
183. The tissues most sensitive to atropine are:
1. The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands
2. The gastric parietal cells 3. Smooth muscle and autonomic
effectors 4. The heart
184. Atropine is highly selective
for: a) M1 receptor subtype b) M2 receptor subtype c) M3 receptor subtype d) All of the above
185. Which of the following
antimuscarinic drugs is often effective in preventing or reversing vestibular disturbances, especially motion sickness?
a) Atropine b) Ipratropium c) Scopolamine d) Homatropine
186. Atropine causes: a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular
pressure and cyclospasm b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular
pressure and cycloplegia c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular
pressure and cycloplegia d) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular
pressure and cyclospasm
187. Patients complain of dry or “sandy” eyes when receiving large doses of:
a) Atropine b) Hexamethonium c) Pilocarpine d) Carbachol
188. All of the following parts of the
heart are very sensitive to muscarinic receptor blockade except:
a) Atria b) Sinoatrial node c) Atrioventricular node d) Ventricle
189. Atropine causes: a) Bradycardia, hypotension and
bronchoconstriction b) Tachycardia, little effect on blood
pressure and bronchodilation c) Decrease in contractile strength,
conduction velocity through the AV node
d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation
190. Atropine is frequently used prior to administration of inhalant anesthetics to reduce:
a) Muscle tone b) Secretions c) Nausea and vomiting d) All of the above
191. Atropine is now rarely used
for the treatment of peptic ulcer because of: a) Slow gastric empting and
prolongation of the exposure of the ulcer bed to acid
b) Low efficiency and necessity of large doses
c) Adverse effects d) All of the above
192. Which of the following
antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker?
a) Atropine b) Scopolamine c) Pirenzepine d) Homatropine
193. Atropine causes:
a) Spasmolitic activity b) Intestinal hypermotility c) Stimulation of contraction in
the gut d) Stimulation of secretory
activity
194. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of uterine spasms?
a) Carbachol b) Vecuronium c) Atropine d) Edrophonium
195. Atropine may cause a rise in
body temperature (atropine fever):
a) In adults b) In pregnant women c) In infants and children d) All of the above
196. The pharmacologic actions of
scopolamine most closely resemble those of:
a) Hexamethonium b) Atropine c) Succinylcholine d) Pilocarpine
197. Compared with atropine,
scopolamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) More marked central effect b) Less potent in decreasing
bronchial, salivary and sweat gland secretion
c) More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia
d) Lower effects on the heart, bronchial muscle and intestines
198. Indicate the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic:
a) Pilocarpine b) Neostigmine c) Homatropine d) Ipratropium
199. Which of the following agents
is used as an inhalation drug in asthma?
a) Atropine b) Ipratropium c) Lobeline d) Homatropine
200. Which of the following agents
is most effective in regenerating cholinesterase associated with skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions?
a) Suscinilcholine b) Pralidoxime c) Pirenzepine d) Propiverine
201. Indicate an antimuscarinic
drug, which is effective in the treatment of mushroom poising:
a) Pralidoxime b) Pilocarpine c) Homatropine d) Atropine
202. Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of the following disorders EXCEPT:
a) Motion sickness b) Glaucoma c) Hyperhidrosis d) Asthma
203. The atropine poisoning
includes all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot
and flushed skin c) Agitation and delirium d) Bradicardia, orthostatic
hypotension
204. The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with:
a) Neostigmine b) Hexametonium c) Homatropine d) Acetylcholine
205. Contraindications to the use of
antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following except: a) Glaucoma b) Myasthenia c) Bronchial asthma d) Paralytic ileus and atony of
the urinary bladder
206. Hexamethonium blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at: a) Muscarinic receptor site b) Neuromuscular junction c) Autonomic ganglia d) Axonal transmission
207. Which of the following agents
is a short-acting ganglion blocker?
a) Homatropine b) Trimethaphane c) Hexamethonium d) Pancuronium
208. Ganglion blocking drugs are
used for the following emergencies EXCEPT: a) Hypertensive crises b) Controlled hypotension c) Cardiovascular collapse d) Pulmonary edema
209. Agents that produce
neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting: a) Interaction of acetylcholine
with cholinergic receptors b) Release of acetylcholine from
prejunctional membrane c) Packaging of acetylcholine
into synaptic vesicles d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into
the nerve ending
210. Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at several sites, including all of the following EXCEPT: a) Nicotinic acethylcholine
receptors b) Muscarinic acethylcholine
receptors c) The motor end plate d) Contractile apparatus
211. Nondepolarisation
neuromuscular blocking agents: a) Block acetylcholine reuptake b) Prevent access of the
transmitter to its receptor and depolarization
c) Block transmission by an excess of a depolarizing agonist
d) All of the above
212. Which of the following drugs has “double-acetylcholine” structure?
a) Rocuronium b) Carbachol c) Atracurium d) Succylcholine
213. Indicate the long-acting
neuromuscular blocking agent: a) Rapacuronium b) Mivacurium c) Tubocurarine d) Rocuronium
214. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is an intermediate-duration muscle relaxant?
a) Vecuronium b) Tubocurarine c) Pancuronium d) Rapacuronium
215. Which competitive
neuromuscular blocking agent could be used in patients with renal failure?
a) Atracurium b) Succinylcholine c) Pipecuronium d) Doxacurium
216. Which depolarizing agent has
the extremely brief duration of action?
a) Mivacurium b) Rapacuronium c) Rocuronium d) Succinylcholine
217. Depolarizing agents include all
of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with acetylcholine without receptor activation
b) React with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarisation of the end plate
c) Cause desensitization, noncompetive block manifested by flaccid paralysis
d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to reverse the blockade
218. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers causes transient muscle fasciculations?
a) Mivacurium b) Pancuronium c) Succinylcholine d) Tubocurarine
219. Which neuromuscular
blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release of histamine?
a) Succylcholine b) Tubocurarine c) Pancuronium d) Rocuronium
220. Indicate the neuromuscular
blocker, which causes tachycardia:
a) Tubocurarine b) Atracurium c) Pancuronium d) Succinylcholine
221. Which neuromuscular
blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
a) Tubocurarine b) Succinylcholine c) Pancuronium d) Gallamine
222. All of the following drugs increase the effects of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents EXCEPT: a) Aminoglycosides b) Antiarrhythmic drugs c) Nondepolarizing blockers d) Local anesthetics
223. Which of the following
diseases can augment the neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing muscle relaxants?
a) Myasthenia gravis b) Burns c) Asthma d) Parkinsonism
224. Indicate the agent, which
effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing drugs:
a) Atropine b) Neostigmine c) Acetylcholine d) Pralidoxime
2. Analgesia:
1. Indicate the narcotic analgesic,
which is a natural agonist: a) Meperidine b) Fentanyl c) Morphine d) Naloxone
2. Select the narcotic analgesic, which is an antagonist or partial mu receptor agonist:
a) Fentanyl b) Pentazocine c) Codeine d) Methadone
3. Which of the following agents
is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
a) Meperidine b) Buprenorphine c) Naloxone d) Butorphanol
4. The principal central nervous
system effect of the opioid analgesics with affinity for a mu receptor is:
a) Analgesia b) Respiratory depression c) Euphoria d) All of the above
5. Most strong mu receptor
agonists cause: a) Hypertension b) Increasing the
pulmonary arterial pressure and myocardial work
c) Cerebral vasodilatation, causing an increase in intracranial pressure
d) All of the above
6. Morphine causes the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Constipation b) Dilatation of the biliary duct c) Urinary retention d) Bronchiolar constriction
7. Therapeutic doses of the opioid
analgesics: a) Decrease body temperature b) Increase body temperature c) Decrease body heat loss d) Do not affect body
temperature
8. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in obstetric labor?
a) Fentanyl b) Pentazocine c) Meperidine d) Buprenorphine
9. Indicate the opioid analgesic,
which is used for relieving the acute, severe pain of renal colic:
a) Morphine b) Naloxone c) Methadone d) Meperidine
10. Which of the following opioid
analgesics is used in the treatment of acute pulmonary edema?
a) Morphine b) Codeine
c) Fentanyl d) Loperamide
11. The diagnostic triad of opioid
overdosage is: a) Mydriasis, coma and
hyperventilation b) Coma, depressed respiration
and miosis c) Mydriasis, chills and
abdominal cramps d) Miosis, tremor and vomiting
12. Which of the following opioid
agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid overdose?
a) Pentazocine b) Methadone c) Naloxone d) Remifentanyl
13. Non-narcotic analgesics are
mainly effective against pain associated with:
a) Inflammation or tissue damage
b) Trauma c) Myocardial infarction d) Surgery
14. Non-narcotic agents cause:
a) Respiratory depression b) Antipyretic effect c) Euphoria d) Physical dependence
15. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?
a) Phenylbutazone b) Ketamine c) Aspirin d) Tramadol
16. Which one of the following
non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?
a) Paracetamol b) Ketorolac c) Acetylsalicylic acid d) Ibuprofen
17. Most of non-narcotic
analgetics have: a) Anti-inflammatory
effect b) Analgesic effect c) Antipyretic effect d) All of the above
18. Indicate the non-narcotic
analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:
a) Naloxone b) Paracetamol c) Metamizole d) Aspirin
19. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) It inhibits mainly peripheral COX
b) It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect
c) It inhibits platelet aggregation
d) It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center
20. For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers c) Thromboembolism d) Metabolic acidosis
21. All of the following are
undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:
a) Gastritis with focal erosions
b) Tolerance and physical addiction
c) Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation
d) Reversible renal insufficiency
22. Characteristic findinds of salicylism include:
a) Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness
b) Tinnitus and difficulty in hearing
c) Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea
d) All of the above
23. Narcotic agonists: most serious adverse effect:
a) cardiac arrhythmias b) respiratory depression c) convulsions d) endogenous depression 24. Physiological effects of
morphine: a) chronic diahrrea b) mydriasis c) respiratory depression d) A & C
25. An opioid with both agonist
and antagonist properties: a) morphine b) meperidine (Demerol) c) pentazocine (Talwain) d) oxycodone (Roxicodone)
26. Descriptive of the drug that may have an agonist effect at one opioid receptor site and an antagonist effect at another opioid receptor site.
a) full agonist b) pure antagonist c) mixed agonist-antagonist d) endorphin e) Dynorphins
27. Principal alkaloid in opium
(derived from opium poppy) a) morphine b) fentanyl (Sublimaze) c) codeine d) naloxone (Narcan) e) meperidine (Demerol)
28. Opioid effect least likely to
exhibit tolerance following prolonged opioid administration:
a) analgesia b) bradycardia c) respiratory depression d) Miosis e) Euphoria
29. Opioid antagonist with
shortest duration of action: a) naloxone (Narcan) b) nalmefene (Revex) c) naltrexone (ReVia) d) all about equal duration of
action
e) these agents are not opioid antagonists
30. Contraindications/caution for opioid use:
a) patients with Addison's disease
b) patients with impaired pulmonary function
c) patients with head injury d) B & C e) A, B & C
31. Signs and symptoms of acute
opioid withdrawal (abstinence syndrome)
a) yawning b) lacrimation c) hyperventilation d) diarrhea e) all the above
32. In obstetrical
applications:opioid less likely to produce respiratory depression in the newborn
a) meperidine (Demerol) b) morphine
3. Anaesthesia:
1. The state of “general anesthesia” usually includes:
a. Analgesia b. Loss of consciousness,
inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
c. Amnesia d. All of the above
2. Inhaled anesthetics and
intravenous agents having general anesthetic properties:
a. Directly activate GABAA receptors
b. Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on GABAA receptors
c. Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission
d. Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated potassium channels
3. An ideal anesthetic drug would:
a. Induces anesthesia smoothly and rapidly and secure rapid recovery
b. Posses a wide margin of safety c. Be devoid of adverse effects d. All of the above
4. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?
a. Thiopental b. Desfluran c. Ketamine d. Propofol
5. Indicate the anesthetic, which
is used intravenously: a. Propofol b. Halothane c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide
6. Which of the following
inhalants is a gas anesthetic? a. Halothane b. Isoflurane c. Nitrous oxide d. Desflurane
7. Which of the following
inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and recovery?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Desflurane c. Sevoflurane d. All of the above
8. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic,
which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate:
a. Isoflurane b. Halothane c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide
9. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is an induction agent of choice in patient with airway problems?
a. Desfurane b. Nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. None of the above
10. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic,
which causes the airway irritation:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Sevoflurane c. Halothane d. Desflurane
11. Which of the following
inhaled anesthetics can produce hepatic necrosis?
a. Soveflurane b. Desflurane c. Halothane d. Nitrous oxide
12. Unlike inhaled anesthetics,
intravenous agents such as thiopental, etomidate, and propofol:
a. Have a faster onset and rate of recovery
b. Provide a state of conscious sedation
c. Are commonly used for induction of anesthesia
d. All of the above
13. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:
a. Fentanyl b. Thiopental c. Midazolam d. Ketamine
14. Which of the following
intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?
a. Thiopental b. Propofol c. Ketamine d. Fentanyl
15. Indicate the intravenous
anesthetic, which produces dissociative anesthesia:
a. Midazolam b. Ketamine c. Fentanyl d. Thiopental
16. Ketamine anesthesia is
associated with: a. Cardiovascular stimulation b. Increased cerebral blood flow,
oxygen consumption and intracranial pressure
c. Disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams following anesthesia
d. All of the above
17. Local anesthetics types: shorter duration of action
a. Ester-type agents b. Amide-type agents c. no difference in
duration of action
18. Factors influencing local anesthetic absorption and distribution:
a. presence of vasoconstrictors
b. injection site c. dosage d. A & C e. A, B & C
19. Addition to vasoconstrictors
may prolong/enhance spinal anesthesia by:
a. activating alpha2 adrenergic receptors
b. increase local neuronal local anesthetic uptake
c. both d. neither
20. Effect of clonidine (Catapres)
addition to local anesthetic solutions:
a. enhanced local anesthetic effectiveness
b. reduced local anesthetic effectiveness
c. no clonidine (Catapres) influence on local anesthetic efficacy
21. Effect of local anesthetic-mediated vasodilation on pharmacokinetic characteristics:
a. Greater vasodilation -- longer duration of action; reduced systemic absorption
b. Greater vasodilation -- increased systemic absorption; reduced duration of action
22. Pharmacokinetic characteristic of local anesthetics which favor more rapid onset of action: a. pK farther away from
physiological pH b. pK close to physiological
pH
23. Type of local anesthetic with wider distribution:
a. Amide agents b. Ester agents c. no difference
24. pKa range for most local
anesthetics a. 6.0-7.0 b. 7.0-8.0 c. 8.0-9.0 d. > 9.0
25. Local anesthetics: acid/base properties
a. Local anesthetics are weak acids
b. Local anesthetics are weak bases
c. Local anesthetics have no ionizable groups
26. Factors influencing effectiveness of epinephrine or local anesthesia:
a. choice of local anesthesia b. level of sensory blockade
required or spinal anesthesia c. both d. neither
27. Example(s) of ester-type local
anesthetics: a. procaine (Novocain) b. tetracaine (pontocaine) c. cocaine d. A & C e. A, B & C
28. Clearance: amide local
anesthetic a. rapid hydrolysis b. hepatic mediation c. significant renal excretion
29. Patient presentations which is suggestive of local anesthetic allergy:
a. rash b. urticaria c. laryngeal edema d. bronchospasm e. all the above
30. Basis/evidence for local
anesthetic allergies: a. clinical history b. intradermal testing c. both d. neither
31. Primary side effect(s) of local
anesthetics:
a. Allergic reactions b. Systemic toxicity c. both d. neither
32. Factor(s) which influence the
extent of local anesthetic systemic absorption
a. initial dose administered b. injection site vascularity c. whether or not epinephrine
was used to provide local vasoconstriction
d. properties of the drug itself e. all the above