nanp prep course - amazon s3nanp prep course welcome to the nanp prep course! this exciting course...

Copyright Institute of Transformational Nutrition Inc. www.instituteoftransformationalnutrition.com Disclaimer: This information is not intended to replace a one on one relationship with a qualified health care professional and is not intended as medical advice. Institute of Transformational Nutrition, Inc., its officers, affiliates, employees and Cynthia Pasquella encourages you to make your own health care decisions based upon your research and in partnership with a qualified health care professional. The entire contents of this document are based upon the opinions of Cynthia Pasquella, unless otherwise noted.

NANP PREP COURSE Welcome to the NANP Prep Course! This exciting course prepares you to take and PASS the board exam in Holistic Nutrition giving you yet another amazing credential! This course is packed with study materials like flashcards and practice exams to help you master the material and sit for the board exam with confidence. Simply click the links below to jump to the section you want to focus on.

Getting Started

Study Tips

Practice Exams

Flashcards


Getting Started The NANP stands for the National Association of Nutrition Professionals. It is a non-profit business organization that is responsible for training and certifying students on the topic of holistic nutrition. As a graduate of the Institute of Transformational Nutrition you qualify to both apply for a Professional Membership with the NANP as well as sit for the NANP Holistic Board Exam. The NANP Holistic Board Exam is intended to increase the credibility of the holistic nutrition field by setting standards that are desirable in any holistic nutrition professional or consulting business. Completion of the NANP Holistic Board Exam earns you the professional recognition of being “Board Certified in Holistic Nutrition®.” Being board certified provides you with the following:

• Extra credibility that proves you have met and continue to meet all standards that are required by the NANP

• Reassurance for your clients that you will handle yourself in the most professional manner possible and will conduct your business within your legal scope

• Validation and documentation of your studies and qualifications • The opportunity to be part of a large organization composed of other holistic

health professionals Topics covered on the board exam include anatomy, physiology, fundamentals of nutrition and diet, practicing nutrition in the community, and research skills. All of these topics are further broken down into specific key concepts. In depth coverage of the key concepts can be found within the ITN content as well as the books on the recommended reading list provided by the NANP. All of this information and more is clearly outlined on the NANP website and in the NANP Board Exam Study Guide. VISIT THE NANP WEBSITE NOW

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http://nanp.org/


Study Tips 1. Visit the NANP website and review all of information available about taking the board

exam and becoming a Professional Member with the NANP

2. Get and read through the NANP Board Exam Study Guide. Start gathering required materials and working through all of the steps needed before you can send in an application to take the board exam.

3. Purchase and study the books from the NANP recommended reading. Questions from the exam are taken directly from the topics covered in these books. We recommend using the index of these books to locate the key concepts and make your study time more efficient.

4. Create a study plan. Decide whether you plan on studying solo or with others, and then divide the key concepts into a scheduled study plan based on the time you have available for study. For example, there are 158 key concepts and you know based on your other commitments you can manage studying 6-7 of them per week. That means it will take you about 26 weeks to cover all of them. Creating a detailed schedule to follow is recommended to help keep you track.

5. Review the key concepts before you begin and plan to spend more time on the areas you aren’t strong in. Splitting up the ones that are tough into different weeks can help prevent information overload.

6. Use the flash cards and practice exams provided in this Prep Course often to help you master the material and test your progress.

7. Take care of yourself! You know as a Certified Transformational Nutrition Coach the importance of extreme self-care. Make sure to boost your body and your brain with plenty of rest, nutrients, and stress relieving techniques to ensure you go into the exam confident, relaxed, and on top of your game.

8. Work together with your fellow classmates to split up the study materials, quiz each other, and support and encourage one another during this process. You’re all in this together!

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Practice Exams The next few pages contain over 400 practice questions and answers for each of the five areas of study (domains) recommended by the NANP. Below outlines the topics covered in each domain as well as what percent of each domain makes up the board exam. Simply click the links below to navigate to the different exams. Domain I: Food and Nutrition (makes up 35% of total exam questions)

• Exam • Answer Guide

Domain II: Fundamentals of Anatomy, Physiology, & Biochemistry (makes up 15% of total exam questions)


Domain III: Counseling Skills (makes up 10% of total exam questions)


Domain IV: Nutrition in Practice (makes up 30% of total exam questions)


Domain V: Research (makes up 10% of total exam questions)


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Domain I: Food and Nutrition 1. A simple definition of diet is __________________.

A. what we eat B. what we are made of C. what nutrients are absorbed from our diet D. what our dietitian tells us to eat

2. Dietary choices influence _________________ and ________________ in a major way.

A. Diet, Exercise B. Energy, Moods C. Disease, Health D. Obesity, Heart Health

3. Our dietary needs change not only with the seasons of the year, but also with the seasons of

our _______________________.

A. Planet B. Homes C. Children D. Lives

4. Psychological and ______________ states also have a great deal to do with how well the

body utilizes our nutrition.

A. Emotional B. Physical C. Mental D. Spiritual

5. What is the “nectar of the golden life of health and vitality”?

A. Fruit juice B. Vegetable juice C. Water D. Coconut water

6. Pure (100%) water does not exist naturally on our planet.

A. True B. False


7. The adult body is at least ___________ water.

A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%

8. What are the major minerals that make up electrolytes? (Circle all that apply)

A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Calcium E. Chloride

9. On average, we need about ___________ of water a day to stay hydrated.

A. 1 liter B. 1 gallon C. 12 cups D. 12 glasses

10. What are the three issues causing our water crisis? (Circle all that apply)

A. Getting Diverted B. Becoming Toxic C. Being Sold D. Drying Up

11. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) currently monitors about ________ toxic substances found in our drinking water.

A. 15 B. 25 C. 50 D. 80

12. What method of water treatment will remove lead?

A. Boiling B. Refrigerating C. Reverse osmosis D. Filtering


13. What do some water experts suggest that the pH level of spring water is?

A. 7.4 B. 7.0 C. 6.8 D. 6.0

14. Legally, anything called a “purifier” must remove _____________ of incoming bacteria.

A. 95% B. 99.75% C. 99.99% D. 100%

15. When distilled water is consumed it ______________ from the body.

A. Repels minerals B. Attracts minerals C. Balances minerals D. Removes minerals

16. The three common, most effective home water treatment systems are (circle all that apply):

A. Reverse osmosis B. Distillation C. Magnetized filters D. Carbon block filters

17. How much water do you lose daily through urine?

A. ½ quart B. 1 quart C. 2 quarts D. 3 quarts

18. What percentage of the body is made up of water?

A. 40% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%


19. We now know that many carbohydrates function in the body not as fuel but as

A. Proteins B. Fat storers C. Communication devices D. Relaxers

20. An excessively low ratio of carbohydrate to protein shifts our body’s metabolism into a ___________________ state.

A. Ketogenic B. Katogenic C. Konogenic D. Fat burning

21. Which of the following are monosaccharaides (circle all that apply):

A. Glucose B. Xylitol C. Sucrose D. Fructose

22. What are oligosaccharides?

A. Two sugars hooked together B. Several sugars hooked together C. Two sugars and an alcohol molecule D. Three sugars hooked together

23. What is the metabolized form of sugar?

A. Fructose B. Fructose C. Glucose D. Gucose

24. Where is fructose found? (circle all that apply)

A. Fruits B. Vegetables C. Honey D. Milk


25. _________________________ is the only sugar of animal origin.

A. Sucrose B. Lactose C. Maltose D. Galactose

26. An estimated _______________________ people in the US are lactose intolerant.

A. 40 – 50 million B. 50 – 60 million C. 60 – 70 million D. 70 – 80 million

27. Sucrose is found in (circle all that apply):

A. Sugar beets B. Maple syrup C. Sorghum D. Breast milk

28. Americans consume ____ to ____ grams of fiber daily.

A. 5, 10 B. 10, 20 C. 10, 15 D. 20, 25

29. The hormone ____________ regulates blood sugar.

A. Inulin B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. Vitamin D

30. With decreased carbohydrate intake and increased activity levels, fat reserves are converted

back to fatty acids for body fuel, a process called _____________.

A. Lipofusion B. Carb transfer C. Fat transfer D. Lipolysis


31. Protein makes up about ______ of our body weight.

A. 10% B. 20% C. 25% D. 35%

32. It is best to supplement with the naturally occurring ________ amino acids.

A. D Form B. L Form C. N Form D. None of the above

33. All amino acids the body cannot possibly make under any circumstance have traditionally

been classified as “nonessential.”

A. True B. False

34. ____________ are more actively absorbed than any other form of protein, or amino acid.

A. Dipeptides B. Oligopeptides C. Polypeptides D. Disaccharides

35. Clinical uses of L-carnitine are: (Circle all that apply)

A. Weight Loss B. Detoxification C. Cardiovascular Disease D. Chronic Fatigue

36. ___________ is concentrated in muscle tissue and helps in the absorption of calcium from

the intestinal tract, the promotion of bone growth, and formation of collagen.

A. Glutamine B. Phenylanine C. Lysine D. None Of The Above


37. Which of these act as lipotropic agents? (Circle all that apply)

A. Methionine B. Inositol C. Choline D. Homocysteine

38. Tryptophan is the precursor for: (Circle all that apply)

A. Serotonin B. Epinephrine C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin B3

39. What two amino acids are thought of as anti-aging nutrients that are necessary to keep our

bodies detoxified? (Circle all that apply)

A. Valine B. Cysteine C. Glutathione D. Taurine

40. Aspartic acid and glutamic acid are both known as excitatory amino acids.

A. True B. False

41. The supplement L-glutamine can reduce cravings for:

A. Alcohol B. Sugar C. Carbohydrates D. All of the above

42. ____________ is known as the “antidepressant” amino acid.

A. Serine B. Tyrosine C. Taurine D. None of the above


43. Excess protein can be turned into ________ and stored in the body as fuel, or as _____________ in the liver.

A. Sugar, Fat B. Fat, Atp C. Fat, Glycogen D. Glycogen, Fat

44. The body will first use ____________ and then _____________ for energy; if these sources

are low, however it will burn _______________.

A. Fats, Carbohydrates, Dietary Protein B. Dietary Protein, Fats, Carbohydrates C. Carbohydrates, Fats, Dietary Protein D. Carbohydrates, Dietary Protein, Fats

45. Weight loss, fluid retention, weakness, hair loss and the inability to heal wounds are signs of

what? _________________________

A. Protein Deficiency B. Protein Toxicity C. Vitamin C Deficiency D. Carbohydrate Deficiency

46. Ounce for ounce, ____________ contain more calories than any other component of food.

A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Proteins D. Water

47. What are acetic acid and valeric acid examples of?

A. Short-Chain Fatty Acids B. Medium-Chain Fatty Acids C. Long-Chain Fatty Acids D. Unsaturated Fatty Acids

48. Saturated fats are liquid at room temperature, where unsaturated fats are solid.

A. True B. False


49. The process of converting unsaturated fatty acids to trans fat is called:

A. Metabolism B. Oxidation C. Hydrolysis D. Hydrogenation

50. A diet that provides at least twice the amount of _________________ as

_________________, but no more than 4 times, is preferred.

A. Omega-6s, Omega-3s B. Omega-3s, Omega-9s C. Omega-3s, Omega-6s D. Omega-9s, Omega 6s

51. _______________________ are the storage form of fat when we eat calories in excess of

our energy needs.

A. Cellulite B. Triglycerides C. Eicosanoids D. Phospholipids

52. The _____________ is the principle site of fat metabolism.

A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Liver D. Small Intestine

53. Fat cells are formed at what two specific times of growth?

A. Infancy B. Childhood C. Adolescence D. Adulthood

54. The three primary functions of fats in the body are: (Circle all that apply)

A. Aid in Muscle Contraction B. Are a Ready Energy Source C. Act as a Protective Blanket D. Make up Part of the Cell Membrane


55. What two major types of cancer are associated with excessive dietary fat intake?

A. Pancreatic B. Colon and Rectum C. Abdominal D. Breast

56. Most vitamins can’t be manufactured in our bodies.

A. True B. False

57. What disease is caused by Vitamin C deficiency?

A. Beriberi B. Scurvy C. Kwashiorkor D. None of the above

58. The B vitamins and Vitamin C are:

A. Fat-Soluble B. Un-Soluble C. Water-Soluble D. None of the above

59. When minerals are bound to another molecule to enhance absorption from the digestive tract,

they are said to be:

A. Chelated B. Catalyzed C. Permeated D. Saturated

60. Vegetarian vitamins are put into what form? (Circle all that apply)

A. Tablet B. Capsule C. Powder D. Liquid


61. When taken as supplements, the ____________ tend to be stimulating, while the ______________ tend to be relaxing and balancing to muscles and the nervous system.

A. Minerals, B Vitamins B. Minerals, Vitamin C C. B Vitamins, Minerals D. D Vitamins, C Vitamins

62. Potential problems of toxicity may occur with overuse of fat-soluble vitamins.

A. True B. False

63. _______________ has been used to prevent or slow down graying hair, or baldness.

A. Choline B. Folic Acid C. Biotin D. None of the above

64. Choline is referred to as the “_____________” vitamin.

A. Memory B. Longevity C. Energy D. Sunshine

65. Taking a lot of folic acid may cover up B12 anemia.

A. True B. False

66. One important function of Vitamin C is in the formation and maintenance of:

A. Blood Vessels B. Collagen C. Cartilage D. Skin

Match 67-70 with the with the correct choice below: 67. Vitamin A __________ 68. Vitamin B5 __________ 69. Vitamin B6 __________


70. Vitamin K __________

A. Known as the “anti-stress” vitamin, it has been helpful for people who grind their teeth at night

B. Occurs in 2 forms, important for eyesight and cell differentiation C. Found in nature and made in the body, necessary for blood clotting D. Connected to hormone balance and water shifts in women, used to treat PMS

71. Approximately __________ mineral elements have been identified and are listed on periodic

tables.

A. 100 B. 112 C. 115 D. 120

72. The main elements are termed the bulk minerals or ______________________.

A. Macrominerals B. Microminerals C. Trace Minerals D. Electrolyte Minerals

73. Although our bodies can manufacture some vitamins, we make no minerals.

A. True B. False

74. The special electrolyte minerals are: (circle all that apply)

A. Sodium B. Nitrogen C. Potassium D. Chloride

75. ___________ water has most of the mineral removed, but is higher in sodium.

A. Hard B. Soft C. Tap D. Sterile


76. The body acid-base balance is slightly __________, so more of the diet should consist of

alkaline-forming foods.

A. Acidic B. Alkaline C. Neutral D. None of the above

77. Which factors cause mineral loss?

A. Agricultural B. Environmental C. Food-Processing D. All of the above

78. The _____________ is the main location for absorption of calcium.

A. Duodenum B. Stomach C. Liver D. Large Intestine

79. A diet high in ___________ and low in _____________ has been shown to cause bone loss

and increase tissue calcification.

A. Calcium, Phosphorus B. Calcium, Chloride C. Phosphorus, Calcium D. Phosphorus, Chloride

80. Chloride combines with ____________ to make hydrochloric acid (stomach acid).

A. Water B. Hydrogen C. Food D. Nitrogen

81. Magnesium is considered the “________________” mineral.

A. Anti-Stress B. Anti-Aging C. Beauty D. Ultra Trace


82. Which problems can be helped by magnesium? (circle all that apply)

A. Atherosclerosis B. Hypertension C. Kidney Stones D. Depression

83. Osteoporosis is often brought on by high _____________ and low ______________ intake.

A. Magnesium, Phosphorus B. Calcium, Magnesium C. Phosphorus, Calcium D. Calcium, Phosphorus

84. Elevated potassium levels is called:

A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypoglycemia

85. About ______ of the sodium consumed in the average diet is in excess of body needs.

A. 50% B. 60% C. 80% D. 90%

86. ____________ is the most critical single element in our body’s detoxification processes.

A. Chromium B. Cobalt C. Sulfur D. Phosphorus

87. Our bodies do not conserve iron as they do iodine, and we must obtain it regularly from the

diet.

A. True B. False


88. Iron absorption is potentially increased by: (circle all that apply)

A. Hydrochloric Acid B. Calcium C. Soy Protein D. Meats (Heme Iron)

89. The organic forms of iron are: (circle all that apply)

A. Ferrous Gluconate B. Ferrous Fumarate C. Ferrous Sulfate D. Ferrous Aspartate

90. It’s possible that ___________ can help protect the body from nitrosamine formation.

A. Manganese B. Selenium C. Molybedenum D. Iodine

91. Low soil levels of selenium are associated with high cancer rates.

A. True B. False

92. 55% of all our silicon comes from these three sources:

A. Soft Water B. Hard Water C. Coffee D. Beer

93. ____________ is perhaps the most critical mineral for providing us with a sense of taste.

A. Iron B. Selenium C. Copper D. Zinc


94. What heavy metal is capable of shifting our cells into their programmed death cycle

(apoptosis).

A. Mercury B. Antimony C. Lead D. Barium

95. Garlic is effective in stopping: (Circle all that apply)

A. Candida Albicans B. Klebsiella Pneumoniae C. Tinea Cruris D. Herpes Simplex

96. What antibiotic herb is used in vegetable wash and countertop disinfectants?

A. Goldenseal B. Licorice C. Oregano D. Grapefruit Seed

97. ______________ & _______________ both lower the messaging molecules that trigger

inflammation. (Circle two)

A. Garlic B. Ginger C. Turmeric D. Licorice

98. Vitamin A protects the cells found in the bloodstream and the walls of blood vessels from

free-radical damage.

A. True B. False

99. __________ can be used to help support the circulatory system by keeping the blood

cholesterol levels in check.

A. Cayenne B. Garlic C. Aloe Vera D. Bilberry


100. Ginkgo was shown to reduce what symptoms in geriatric patients? (Circle all that apply)

A. Vertigo B. Blurred Vision C. Memory Loss D. Headache

101. Where do we get all the sulfur needed for detox?

A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Minerals D. Amino Acids

102. The __________ is the primary organ for processing toxins.

A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

103. The key probiotic bacteria are: (Circle all that apply)

A. Fructo-Oligosaccharides B. Bifidobacteria C. Lactobacilli D. Inulin

104. ___________ can improve bile flow and digestion of fat.

A. Cinnamon B. Cayenne C. Ginger D. Aloe Vera

105. ___________ can help increase availability of insulin resulting in better control of blood

sugar.

A. Ashwaganda B. Codonopsis C. Ginkgo D. Garlic


106. ______________ is the key anti-aging nutrient.

A. Biotin B. Cholin C. Riboflavin D. Folic Acid

107. __________ was known as the “King’s cure-all.”

A. EPA B. ALA C. DHA D. GLA

108. Phytonutrients are: (circle all that apply)

A. Vitamins B. Minerals C. Proteins D. None of the above

109. Reds, blues purples and magentas found in food are created by _______.

A. Anthocyanins B. Flavones C. Flavonols D. Fustin

110. _____________ help trap the sun’s solar energy and convert it to chemical energy.

A. Carotenoids B. Flavonoids C. Betanoids D. Terpenoids

111. ________ can ferment more easily when having to sit in the stomach juices longer.

A. Vegetables B. Fruits C. Pollens D. Flowers


112. Most juicy fruits are considered __________.

A. Sweet B. Acid C. Sub-Acid D. None of the above

113. __________ are mildly acid-forming when broken down in the body.

A. Peaches B. Plums C. Grapes D. Pears

114. ____________ contain almost all the vitamins and minerals.

A. Oranges B. Lemons C. Limes D. Grapefruit

115. One-quarter of a cantaloupe may give up to 3000 IU of _________.

A. Vitamin C B. Potassium C. Vitamin A D. Calcium

116. ______________ are the highest in Vitamin C.

A. Raspberries B. Strawberries C. Blueberries D. Blackberries

117. ____________ contain the digestive enzyme bromelain, allowing for their easy digestion.

A. Papayas B. Guavas C. Bananas D. Pineapples


118. One avocado has about _________ of fat.

A. 10g B. 20g C. 30g D. 40g

119. Many dried fruits may be preserved with __________ ___________.

A. Carbon Dioxide B. Carbon Hydroxide C. Sulfur Dioxide D. Sulfur Hydroxide

120. ________ are good energy foods that support blood formation.

A. Dates B. Figs C. Currants D. Prunes

121. _________ & __________ have a lower oxalic acid level and thus more available

calcium. (Circle two)

A. Spinach B. Kale C. Collards D. Spinach

122. __________ is thought to have a relaxing effect by calming the nerves.

A. Celery B. Asparagus C. Watercress D. Spinach

123. Which of these are root vegetables? (Circle all that apply)

A. Parsnips B. Potatoes C. Rutabagas D. Turnips


124. Boiled ___________ can calm the intestines and reduce bloating.

A. Parsnip B. Radish C. Potatoes D. Beets

125. Which vegetable provides the best source of vitamin E?

A. Broccoli B. Eggplant C. Cucumber D. Artichoke

126. ___________ seems to have a mild diuretic action and stimulates the intestines.

A. Bell Pepper B. Pumpkin C. Eggplant D. Zucchini

127. One strip of _________ can be added to the pot when cooking beans to reduce some of

their gas-inducing qualities.

A. Kombu B. Arame C. Dulse D. Kelp

128. Which mushrooms are noted to have all 8 amino acids?

A. White Button B. Shiitake C. Portabella D. Oyster

129. The ____________ of wheat is what is contained in white flour.

A. Germ B. Endosperm C. Sprout D. Bran Covering


130. In the US, by law, what must be added back into the grain products (Circle all that apply)

A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. Iron

131. Much of the manufactured __________ in this country is extracted primarily from corn.

A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin C

132. Eating polished or refined rice can lead to ________ deficiency.

A. Riboflavin B. Niacin C. Thiamin D. Vitamin C

133. What is the meat like substitute that can be made from the gluten fraction in wheat?

A. Seitan B. Tempeh C. Meal D. Durum

134. _________ seeds are an excellent source of calcium.

A. Pumpkin B. Sesame C. Sunflower D. Safflower

135. _________ have been known to become contaminated with molds containing aflatoxin.

A. Almonds B. Cashews C. Hazelnuts D. Peanuts


136. Heating monounsaturated fats is not recommended.

A. True B. False

137. __________ oils are the best for medium heat dishes like oven-baked or normally

sautéed foods.

A. Conditioned B. Unrefined C. Refined D. Unconditioned

138. ________, _________ & __________ are all good sources of selenium. (Circle three)

A. Salmon B. Lobster C. Scallops D. Oysters

139. What part of the chicken has the most protein and least fat?

A. Breast B. Thighs C. Legs D. Skin

140. ________ has the highest Vitamin B12 level of any other food.

A. Round Cuts B. Liver C. Heart D. Filet Mignon

141. _______ help digestion, warm the body, and are thought to cleanse the blood.

A. Black Peppers B. Red Peppers C. Mustard Seeds D. Licorice Roots


142. ________ is a sweetener that has no calories and can be used by people with diabetes

or hypoglycemia.

A. Stevia B. Carob C. Honey D. Saccharin

143. The word organic means:

A. As Nature Provides B. Just Picked C. Chemical Free D. Vine Ripened

144. The macrobiotic diet includes between 50-60% ___________________.

A. Whole Cereal Grains B. Proteins C. Vegetables D. Fruits

145. Garlic, onions, & cayenne are too stimulating according to which diet?

A. Vegan B. Lacto-Ovo Vegetarian C. Macrobiotic D. Microbiotic

146. Problems experienced during just fasting are called “_______________.”

A. Deficiency Reactions B. Cleansing Deficiencies C. Cleansing Reactions D. None of the above

147. The _____________ diet consists of small meals or snacks eaten every 2-3 hours

throughout the day.

A. Weight-Loss B. Raw Food C. Fruitatarian D. Warriors


148. What are the predominant cultivated foods on the earth? (Circle all that apply)

A. Wheat B. Rice C. Corn D. Nuts

149. Which is allowed on a “pesca-vegan” diet? (Circle all that apply)

A. Milk B. Poultry C. Fish D. Vegetables

150. Olive oil’s key terpenoids are: (Circle all that apply)

A. Squalene B. Oleuropein C. Beta-Sitosterol D. Tyrosol

151. _______ intake is more than 40% of the average American diet.

A. Salt B. Fat C. Sugar D. Fiber

152. It’s a good idea to review and maybe challenge the diet on which we were raised to see if

it’s still right for us.

A. True B. False

153. Even the healthiest diet will not be utilized properly if we are: (Circle all that apply)

A. Socializing During Meal B. Stressed C. Upset D. Eating On The Run


154. A balanced diet contains seasonal fresh foods such as: (Circle all that apply)

A. Fruits B. Vegetables C. Milk Products D. Whole Grains

155. The first rule of eating is:

A. Eat 3 meals a day B. Don’t eat after 8pm C. Always eat breakfast D. Only eat when hungry

156. ____________ is a common problem among people with busy daily schedules.

A. Rigid Dieting B. Emotional Eating C. Eating Late D. Binge Eating

157. A small amount of ________ with meals may help dissolve the food and stimulate

digestive juices.

A. Water B. Coffee C. Wine D. Milk

158. What three important factors help us choose what foods to eat in combination and when

to eat them?

A. Acid-Alkaline Balance B. Food Combining C. Food Rotation D. Sources And Choices

159. Food combining principles suggest not mixing ___________ and ___________.

A. Meats B. Milk C. Proteins D. Starches


160. __________ and _________ offer about 4 calories of energy per gram. (Circle two)

A. Proteins B. Fats C. Carbohydrates D. Alcohol

161. A __________ is a unit of energy or heat that the body generates from the food you eat.

A. Serving B. Serving Size C. Calorie D. Kilocal

162. On a food package, the phrase “___________” means sodium has been reduced by at

least 50%.

A. Reduced Sodium B. Light In Sodium C. Low-Sodium D. Very Low-Sodium

163. We need roughly 1 ounce of protein per 25lbs of body weight.

A. True B. False

164. There is a slight risk of _________ in feeding infants honey.

A. Salmonella B. Botulism C. Listeria D. E. Coli

165. Which factors influence the potential dangers of chemicals? (Circle all that apply)

A. A state of consciousness B. Repeated insults from the same or similar chemicals C. The condition of the host D. Chemicals can interact with each other


166. _____________ is the THM found in the highest concentration in our waters.

A. Halogen B. Nitrosamines C. Chloroform D. Chlorophyll

167. Which are labeled additives? (Circle all that apply)

A. Sugars B. Salts C. Sulfites D. Preservatives

168. One of our greatest concerns regarding environmental chemical contamination is:

A. Diabetes B. Heart Disease C. Cavities D. Cancer

169. _______, ________ & _______ are the main vehicles whereby we receive chemicals that

get in our bodies. (Circle three)

A. Physical Contact B. Food C. Water D. Air

170. Which are important antioxidants that help protect us from disease? (Circle all that apply)

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Glutathione D. Selenium

171. What are the two main components of environmental disease? (Circle all that apply)

A. Clinical Ecology B. Food Allergy/Reactivity C. Chemical Pollution D. Chemical Susceptibility


172. Some estimates suggest that pollution is 5-10 times more damaging outdoors than indoors.

A. True B. False

173. We are exposed to chemical toxins through which three main routes?

A. Ingestants B. Injectants C. Inhalants D. Contactants

174. Safe cleaners include: (Circle all that apply)

A. Lemon B. Vinegar C. Ammonia D. Salt

175. ________ is probably our biggest area of concern regarding chemical pollution.

A. Water B. Air C. Waste D. Technology

176. Ground water contamination is currently irreversible.

A. True B. False

177. Pesticides fall under what category of water-contaminating substances?

A. Microorganisms B. Volatile Chemicals C. Dissolved Solids D. Particulates

178. Gasoline and chloroform are examples of:

A. Chemicals found in groundwater B. Inorganic water pollutants C. Common drinking water pollutants D. Chemicals found in waste dumps that affect water


179. _________ based fertilizers are commonly used to stimulate plant growth and create

bigger crop yields.

A. Hydrogen B. Lead C. Sulfur D. Nitrogen

180. Which technique was developed to deal with problems like storage, waste and food-

borne illness?

A. Pickling B. Smoking C. Salting D. All of the above

181. Which “foods” are made entirely from chemicals? (Circle all that apply)

A. Coffee Creamers B. Candies C. Sugar Substitutes D. Marshmallows

182. It’s illegal in the US for orange growers to inject Citrus Red No. 2 into orange rinds to

achieve a uniform orange color.

A. True B. False

183. ________ in California are treated with more than 300 lbs of pesticides per acre.

A. Bananas B. Green Beans C. Apples D. Strawberries

184. Some organic bananas are gassed with ethylene to ripen them and prepare them for

shipping.

A. True B. False


185. 10% of _______ samples have residues of DDT, which was phased out more than 30

years ago.

A. Grapes B. Green Beans C. Stone Fruits D. Spinach

186. ______ is still heavily treated with the herbacide atrazine.

A. Apples B. Corn C. Rice D. Bell Peppers

187. ________ pesticides cannot be washed away as they are contained within the fruit and

seeds.

A. Systematic B. Neurotoxic C. Systemic D. Carcinogenic

188. _________ will not be labeled as organic because there is no way to have control over it.

A. Supplements B. Seafood C. Coffee D. Wine

189. _________ is the most common artificial sweetener.

A. Aspartame B. Saccharin C. Cyclamate D. Sucralose

190. ______, _______ & ________ are examples of “flavor enhancers.” (Circle three)

A. Salt B. Msg C. Artificial Smoke D. Maltol


191. __________ can be used as a substitute for gelatin.

A. Acacia B. Gum Arabic C. Agar-Agar D. Ace-K

192. ________ prevents oxidation and rancidity, especially in fats.

A. Annato B. Aluminum Salts C. Alginate D. Vitamin C

193. Sugar, in the form of _______, may also be extracted from corn.

A. Cellulose B. Sucrose C. Dextrose D. Cyclamate

194. _______ seems to stimulate blood sugar and pancreatic insulin less rapidly than glucose

and is absorbed more slowly.

A. Fructose B. Sucrose C. Dextrose D. Dhc

195. Honey contains both _______ and _______. (Circle two)

A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Sucrose D. Dextrose

196. ______ _______ is used to bleach flours and whey protein powders.

A. Hydrogen Peroxide B. Benzoyl Peroxide C. Sodium Peroxide D. Calcium Peroxide


197. Symptoms occurring after eating foods high in ______ include headaches, tingling,

numbness and chest pains.

A. MSG B. NEOTAME C. MALIC ACID D. HVP

198. Plastic wrap contains ______ and other chemicals that leach into foods, especially meat.

A. Pectins B. Parabens C. PVC D. Polysorbate 80

199. Soy protein may contain a small level of ________ formed in processing.

A. Nitrites B. Nitrates C. Sulfites D. Sulfates

200. What is sulfur dioxide used for? (Circle all that apply)

A. Disinfectant in Food Manufacturing B. Bleaching Agent C. Antioxidant and Preservative D. Anti-Browning Agent

201. When whey is obtained from non-organic milk, it may retain some of the contaminants

that were present in the milk.

A. True B. False

202. About ______ of all products on the store shelves contain some genetically modified

component.

A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 90%


203. Genetic engineering of food is allowed under the Organic Foods Production Act.

A. True B. False

204. The “basic four” include: (Circle all that apply)

A. Meats and Dairy B. Cereal Grains C. Fats D. Fruits and Vegetables

205. A diet based on ________ has been the traditional diet throughout the world for the past

1,000 years.

A. Complex-carbohydrates B. Meats C. Dairy products D. Fruits and vegetables

206. The ______ food group is the first priority for omnivores, vegetarians and vegans.

A. Whole Grains B. Legumes C. Fruits D. Vegetables

207. Brown and white rice are considered acid-forming foods.

A. True B. False

208. Our stomach acid has a pH of about _______.

A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 3.5 D. 7.0

209. In the ideal morning schedule, supplements are taken before breakfast.

A. True B. False


210. ________ and ________ are good supplements to take before bed. (Circle two)

A. Calcium B. Iron C. Vitamin D D. Magnesium

211. The quality of usable protein in _______ is excellent, the nutrient content is high, and the

digestibility is good.

A. Fish B. Eggs C. Poultry D. Legumes

212. Which are examples of quick-cooking grains? (Circle all that apply)

A. Couscous B. Polenta C. Millet D. Rolled Oats

213. _______, _______ & ________, need to be washed several times. (Circle all that

A. apply) A. Buckwheat B. Quinoa C. Amaranth D. Millet

214. The following beans do not need soaking: (Circle all that apply)

A. All lentils B. Split peas C. Adzuki beans D. Garbanzo beans

215. _______ bought at the supermarket may be dipped in a solution of nitrites & nitrates to

cover up any smell.

A. Eggs B. Pork C. Poultry D. Fish


216. Fresh herbs should be added at the end of cooking time, while dried ones should be

added at the beginning.

A. True B. False

217. Which are best stored in the refrigerator: (Circle all that apply)

A. Nuts & Seeds B. Olive Oil C. Fruit D. Flour

218. In men, _______ excess can lead to heart irregularity and depression.

A. Vitamin A B. Protein C. Iron D. Calcium

219. _________ and adequate levels of _________ will help reduce sugar cravings, and thus

support the adrenals. (Circle two)

A. Phosphorus B. Chromium C. Amino Acid’s D. B Vitamins

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Domain I Answer Guide: Food and Nutrition

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A, B, C, D, E 9. C 10. A, B, D 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A, B, D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. A, D 22. B 23. C 24. A, B, C 25. B 26. B 27. A, B, C 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. A, C, D 36. C 37. A, B, C 38. A, D

39. B, C 40. A 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. A, C 54. B, C, D 55. B, D 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. A, B, C, D 61. C 62. A 63. C 64. A 65. A 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. C 71. B 72. A 73. A 74. A, C, D 75. B 76. B

77. D 78. A 79. C 80. B 81. A 82. A, B, C 83. C 84. A 85. D 86. C 87. B 88. A, D 89. A, B, D 90. C 91. A 92. B, C, D 93. D 94. A 95. A, C, D 96. D 97. B, C 98. B 99. C

100. A, C, D 101. D 102. A 103. B, C 104. C 105. D 106. D 107. D 108. D 109. A 110. A 111. B 112. C 113. B 114. A

115. C 116. B 117. D 118. C 119. C 120. B 121. B, C 122. A 123. A, C, D 124. C 125. C 126. D 127. A 128. B 129. B 130. A, B, C, D 131. D 132. C 133. A 134. B 135. D 136. B 137. A 138. B, C, D 139. A 140. B 141. B 142. A 143. C 144. A 145. C 146. C 147. D 148. A, B, C 149. C 150. A, C, D 151. B 152. A


153. B, C, D 154. A, B, D 155. D 156. C 157. A 158. A, B, C 159. C, D 160. A, C 161. C 162. B 163. B 164. B 165. B, C, D 166. C 167. A, B, C, D 168. D 169. B, C, D

170. A, B, C, D 171. B, D 172. B 173. A, C, D 174. A, B, D 175. A 176. A 177. B 178. C 179. D 180. D 181. A, B, C 182. B 183. D 184. A 185. D 186. B

187. C 188. B 189. A 190. A, B, D 191. C 192. D 193. C 194. A 195. A, B 196. B 197. A 198. C 199. A 200. A, B, C, D 201. A 202. C 203. B

204. A, B, D 205. A 206. D 207. B 208. B 209. B 210. A, D 211. A 212. A, B, D 213. B, C, D 214. A, B, C 215. D 216. A 217. A, D 218. C 219. B, C

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Domain II: A&P and Biochemistry Practice Exam

1. Electrolytes that ionize in water and release hydrogen ions are called:

A. Acids B. Bases C. Potassium D. Sodium

2. Substances that combine with hydrogen ions are called:

A. Acids B. Bases C. Glucose D. Hydrogen Compounds

3. The three most important buffer systems in body fluids are:

A. Bicarbonate Buffer System B. Phosphate Buffer System C. Protein Buffer System D. All of the above

4. What are the two major types of acidosis?

A. Respiratory and cardiovascular B. Respiratory and cell formation C. Respiratory and metabolic D. Bicarbonate and metabolic

5. A pH value below 7.35 produces ______; while a pH above 7.45 produces.

A. Alkalosis; acidosis B. Acidosis; alkalosis C. Trouble sleeping: trouble breathing D. Trouble breathing; trouble sleeping


6. A person usually cannot survive if the pH of body fluids drops to _______ or rises to

________ for longer than a few hours.

A. 6.0; 7.0 B. 6.3; 7.8 C. 6.8; 8.0 D. 7.0; 9.0

7. The two major types of alkalosis are:

A. Respiratory and cellular B. Cardiovascular and metabolic C. Cellular and metabolic D. Respiratory and metabolic

8. Which body system includes the heart, arteries, veins, capillaries, and blood?

A. Cardiovascular B. Respiratory C. Endocrine D. Lymphatic

9. Blood is responsible for transporting which of the following?

A. Gases B. Nutrients C. Hormones D. Wastes E. Oxygen F. All of the above

10. Which of the following are examples of inorganic substances?

A. Water B. Oxygen C. Carbon Dioxide D. Salts E. None of the above F. All of the above


11. Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids are all examples of what?

A. Living material B. Organic substances C. Acids D. Bases

12. A __________ molecule is similar to a fat molecule in that it contains a glycerol portion

and fatty acid chains. However, this molecule has only two fatty acid chains.

A. Monosaccharide B. Steroid C. Phospholipid D. Protein

13. Steroid molecules are complex structures that include ________ connected rings of

carbon atoms.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

14. Phospholipids are important in ____________.

A. Lipid Metabolism B. Protein Metabolism C. Carbohydrate Metabolism D. Cellular Structures

15. Saturated fats are more abundant in fatty foods that are solids at room temperature, such

as butter, lard and most animal fats. On the other hand, unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature, such as sort margarine and seed oil.

A. True B. False

16. What are antibodies?

A. Proteins that detect and destroy foreign substances in the body B. A group of enzymes that detect and destroy foreign substances in the body C. Hydrogen acids that detect and destroy foreign substances in the body D. Unsaturated fats that detect and destroy foreign substances in the body


17. _________ are the building blocks of proteins.

A. Enzymes B. Steroids C. Amino acids D. Dietary lipids

18. Nucleic acids form _______ and take part in __________ synthesis.

A. Saturated fats; protein B. protein; carbohydrate C. Ions; lipid D. Genes; protein

19. What are the two types of nucleic acids?

A. Soluble and insoluble B. RNA and DNA C. Saturated and unsaturated D. Ascending and descending

20. What are the three basic parts of a cell?

A. Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm B. Cell membrane, photosynthesis and cytoplasm C. Cell membrane, nucleus and organelle D. Flagellum, nucleus and cytoplasm

21. The cell membrane is also called the plasma membrane.

A. True B. False

22. The cell membrane is extremely thin, flexible, and somewhat _____________.

A. Large B. Small C. Elastic D. Colorful


23. Selectively permeable means that ______________________.

A. Only certain substances are produced in the cell B. Only certain substances can enter or leave the cell. C. Only certain substances can bounce off the cell D. Only certain substances can destroy the cell

24. Because the membranes interior consists largely of the fatty acid portions of the

phospholipid molecules, it is ____________.

A. Dry B. Hard C. Soft D. Oily

25. Cell activities occur mainly in the ____________.

A. Nucleus B. Ribosome C. Cytoplasm D. Transport vesicle

26. Detoxification is the process of removing toxins from the ____________.

A. Blood B. Cell membrane C. Brain D. Cytoplasm

27. The liver plays a key role in ______________ metabolism by helping maintain the normal

concentration of blood glucose.

A. Lipid B. Protein C. Iron D. Carbohydrate

28. The most vital liver functions concern ______________ metabolism.

A. Protein B. Lipid C. Iron D. Bile


29. Other functions of the liver include: (circle all that apply)

A. Lipid metabolism B. Storage C. Blood filtering D. Secretion

30. The alimentary canal includes the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine,

large intestine, rectum anus, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and ______________.

A. Brain B. Lungs C. Spleen D. Pancreas

31. The digestive system consists of the alimentary canal, which extends about _________

meters from the mouth the anus.

A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

32. The endocrine system includes cells, tissues, and organs, collectively called

______________________, that secrete substances called ____________.

A. Endocrine glands; hormones B. Salivary glands; hormones C. Endocrine glands; steroids D. Endocrine glands; target cells

33. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the ____________.


34. Cortisol is a ___________, which means it affects glucose metabolism.

A. Protein B. Lipid C. Glucocorticoid D. Neurotransmitter


35. Which of the following is NOT a function of cortisol?

A. Inhibition of protein synthesis in tissues B. Deconstruction of cells after they get too old C. Promotion of fatty acid release from adipose tissue D. Stimulation of liver cells to synthesize glucose from non-carbohydrates

36. Which body system consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of tubular urethras, a saclike

urinary bladder, and a tubular urethra?

A. Urinary B. Respiratory C. Reproductive D. Muscular

37. The primary role of the kidneys is to help maintain homeostasis by regulating the

composition, volume and _________ of the extracellular fluid.

A. Flow B. Amount C. Density D. pH

38. Sometimes the immune system fails to distinguish self from non-self, producing

_________ and cytotoxic T cells that attack and damage the body’s tissues and organs. This attack against itself is called __________.

A. Autoantibodies; non-immunity B. Autoantibodies; autoimmunity C. Pathogens; non-immunity D. Secretion; autoimmunity

39. The skin and certain accessory organs make up the:

A. Integumentary system B. Reactive system C. Protective system D. Cardiovascular system

40. Melanin is:

A. A type of protein that is needed for cellular respiration B. A hormone needed for carbohydrate metabolism C. A dark pigment that provides skin color D. The name of a condition in which cells cannot divide


41. The three types of muscles are: (circle all that apply)

A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Rough D. Cardiac

42. Nerves are a bundle of ________.

A. Protons B. Neurons C. Axons D. Electrons

43. Neurons transmit information in the form of electrochemical changes, called

_____________, to other neurons and to cells outside the nervous system.

A. Nerve signals B. Nerve impulses C. Communicative nerves D. Autonomic nerves

44. The prostate gland secretes a thin, milky fluid with an _______ pH.

A. Acidic B. Alkaline C. Autonomic D. Irreversible

45. The majority of all nutrients are absorbed into the:

A. Brain B. Large intestine C. Liver D. Small intestine

46. Obtaining oxygen and removing carbon dioxide are the primary functions of the:

A. Nucleus B. Neurons C. Respiratory system D. Hemoglobin


47. Pharynx is another term for the:

A. Throat B. Nose C. Eye sockets D. Esophagus

48. Within the cytoplasm are specialized structures called _________, which can be seen

clearly only through higher magnification of microscopes.

A. Mitochondria B. Organelles C. Electrons D. Ribosomes

49. What are the three major salivary glands: (circle all that apply)

A. Subglanduar B. Parotid C. Submandibular D. Sublingual

50. The stomach is divided into which regions? (Circle all that apply)

A. Cardiac B. Fundic C. Body D. Pyloric

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Domain II Answer Guide: A&P and Biochemistry

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. F 10. F 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C

26. A 27. D 28. A 29. A, B, C, D 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. A, B, D 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. B, C, D 50. A, B, C, D

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Domain III: Counseling Skills

1. The 24-hour recall method occurs when the interviewer asks the client to recall all foods, beverages, and nutritional supplements consumed, including __________________, over a 24 hour period.

A. Brand types B. Amounts and preparation methods C. Amount of sodium D. Caloric count

2. The 24-hour Recall Form is similar to a ______________.

A. Dietary Assessment Form B. Diet Recall Form C. Client Questionnaire Form D. Usual Diet Form

3. The advantage of the 24-hour recall method is that it is _______ and _______ on the part

of the client.

A. Easy to administer; requires little effort B. Inexpensive; easy C. Detailed; fool-proof D. Useful; inexpensive

4. Which of the following foods are frequently missed on a 24-hour recall? (Circle all that

apply)

A. Crackers B. Cereal C. Vegetable toppings D. Various beverages

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps of the multiple pass procedure?

A. A quick list of foods eaten within 24 hours B. Clients are questioned about the foods that are often forgotten C. Clients are probed to recall D. The detail cycle E. Clients are called a liar in attempt to get them to admit to food they have eaten F. The final probe review


6. The Client Assessment Questionnaire is sometimes referred to as an ______ form.

A. Ideal B. Eating C. Intake D. Irrelevant

7. Drug history questions provide information about medications, herbal preparations, and

_________ that may impact nutritional status.

A. Nutrient supplements B. Herbal teas C. Amount of dietary fats D. Amount of dietary carbohydrates

8. What are the four procedures for conducting readiness assessments? (Circle all that

apply)

A. State of Change Promise B. State of Change Algorithm C. Readiness-to-change open ended questions D. Readiness-to-change scale question E. Readiness-to-change graphic

9. Not all counseling situations lend themselves to a formal type of assessment, particularly

when monitoring on a regular basis.

A. True B. False

10. No matter what theory or behavior change model is providing the greatest influence, the

relationship between counselor and client is the ____________.

A. Guiding force for belonging B. Guiding force for adaption C. Guiding force for change D. Guiding force for understanding

11. While exploring cultural groups, keep in mind that the characteristics of a group are

simply generalities. You should never _____________.

A. Be friends with your clients B. Use books or magazines to learn about your clients beliefs C. Try to make your client feel understood D. Stereotype


12. The helping relationship is often divided into two phases: building a relationship and

_____________.

A. Keeping in touch B. Facilitating positive action C. Always being the first to talk D. Asking questions

13. The goals of this phase are to earn about the nature of the problems from the client’s

viewpoint, explore strengths, and promote self-exploration.

A. Building a relationship B. Facilitating positive action C. Making friends with your client D. Exchanging personal phone numbers

14. Counselors must communicate their willingness to discover their clients’ concerns and

help them prioritize in a ____________ manner.

A. Positive B. Enthusiastic C. Realistic D. Happy

15. Which of the following is NOT a recommended step for preparing for a final session with

your client?

A. Review beginnings B. Discuss progress C. Emphasize success D. Avoid saying a final good-bye

16. Active listening includes which of the following?

A. Eye contact B. Attentive body language C. Vocal style D. Verbal following E. All of the above


17. Approximately _________ percent of communication is based on body language.

A. 30 B. 60 C. 75 D. 85

18. Communication will be hampered by unproductive nonverbal behavior such as:

A. Frequently looking at a watch B. Yawning C. Slouching D. All of the above

19. Effective nonverbal counselor behavior includes:

A. Sitting arms length from your client B. Relaxed but attentive posture C. An alert energy level D. All of the above

20. There should be no boundaries between a counselor and his or her client.

A. True B. False

21. For a counselor who appreciates the dynamics of the counseling relationship and factors

involved in healing, the term ___________ is appropriate

A. Nutrition therapist B. Nutrition educator C. Nutrition advisor D. Nutrition healer

22. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy incorporates components of both _________ and _______

therapies and behavior therapy and includes a wide range of treatment approaches.

A. Cognitive; healing B. Cognitive; behavior C. Physiology; behavior D. Psychology; behavior


23. Cognitive-Behavior Therapy is based on the assumption that behavior is ______.

A. A choice B. Innate C. Learned D. A discipline

24. The premise of this approach is that negative self-talk and irrational ideas are self-

defeating learned behaviors and the most frequent source of people’s emotional problems.

A. Behavioral therapy B. Cognitive behavior modification C. Cognitive therapy D. Classical conditioning

25. The premise of this type of counseling is that many behaviors are learned, so it is

possible to learn new ones.

A. Behavioral therapy B. Cognitive behavior modification C. Cognitive therapy D. Classical conditioning

26. Classical condition focuses on antecedents that affect ___________.

A. Behavioral patterns B. Emotions C. Physiology issues D. Food behavior

27. Operant conditioning is based on the law of _________, which states that behaviors can

be changed by their positive or negative effect.

A. Behavior B. Therapy C. Effect D. Cause

28. The major goal of working with clients that are not ready to change is to______________.

A. Raise doubt about their present dietary behavior B. Pressure them to admit they are wrong C. Pressure them to commit to a change D. Make them feel bad about their stubbornness


29. Obstacles that hinder accomplishment of a goal are called ______________.

A. Patient issues B. Barriers C. Walls D. Unbreakable circumstances

30. Problem solving is a process that involves a counselor and client working together to

identify a behavior chain, detecting barriers to change, and ______________.

A. Setting new goals B. Admitting that the counselor always knows best C. Agreeing to do whatever the counselor sees fit D. Weighing the pros and cons of the alternatives

31. A behavior chain is:

A. A sequence of events that explains recurrence of behavior B. A long chain of physiological issues C. Deep rooted pain D. A type of method used to get clients to make a change

32. An excellent method for detecting a behavior chain is to complete a diary of:

A. Emotions B. Personal behavior C. Food behavior D. Goals

33. What are some advantages of group counseling?

A. Emotional support B. Group problem solving C. Modeling effect D. Attitudinal and belief examples E. All of the above

34. List four disadvantages of group counseling.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________


35. In group counseling, your job as a counselor is to provide a group atmosphere that

encourages curious exploration and ________________.

A. Make sure everyone has a change to speak B. Bring food and beverages to group meetings C. Consideration of behavior modification alternatives D. Makes sure everyone gets along

36. Without this quality a therapeutic relationship cannot move forward.

A. Communication B. Empathy C. Trust D. Experience

37. Empathy is a true understanding of another’s unique experience without _______,

_________, or _________.

A. Hate, ignorance, blame B. Negative talk, group counseling, peer reviews C. Judging, blaming, criticizing D. Self-worth, direction, goal setting

38. Empathy is not sympathy. Sympathy is what I feel toward you; empathy is what I feel as

you.

A. True B. False

39. A person’s confidence in his or her ability to accomplish a behavior change may be more

important than actual skill.

A. True B. False

40. _________ provide positive consequences, commonly through to be more effective than

negative consequences, such as punishment.

A. Friends B. Books C. Financial reimbursements D. Rewards


41. Relapse rates for dietary regimens are disconcerting, ranging from _____ to ______

percent.

A. 10; 25 B. 25; 50 C. 50; 75 D. 50; 100

42. The two major categories of relapse prevention include immediate determinants and

_____________.

A. Restraining B. Covert antecedents C. Autonomic D. Irreversible

43. When discussing your client’s needs and expectations, a ______ should be established.

A. Fee B. Meeting time C. Long-term goal D. Meeting place

44. What is cognition?

A. What and how a person thinks and perceives based on life experiences B. A type of sixth sense C. The idea that relapse is preventable D. A negative thought process that prevents clients from moving forward

45. Constructive restructuring focuses on identifying _______ thoughts and modifying them.

A. Mixed B. Happy C. Rational D. Irrational

46. What are three factors that affect the process of changing dysfunctional thinking?

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________


47. What are the five steps in the process of changing cognitions?

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________ 5. ____________________

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Domain III Answer Guide: Counseling Skills

1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A, B, C, D 5. E 6. C 7. A 8. B, C, D, E 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. E 17. D 18. D 19. D 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D

31. A 32. C 33. E 34. Individual responsiveness, group

member personalities, possibility of poor role models, meeting the needs of all group members

35. C 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. D

46. Education, identifying dysfunctional

thinking, explore validity of self destructive statements, stop destructive thoughts, prepare constructive responses to substitute automatic dysfunctional cognitions

47. Code of Ethics, body of knowledge, education, autonomy, service

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Domain IV: Nutrition in Practice

1. Anemia refers to a condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells or the ________ (iron containing) portion of the red blood cells.

A. Cytoplasm B. Hemoglobin C. RBC D. Total

2. List the three major classifications of anemia.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________

3. Acute blood loss can be fatal if more than _________ of total blood volume is lost.

A. One-fourth B. Half C. One-third D. Two-thirds

4. Perhaps the best food for an individual with any kind of anemia is _______.

A. Calf liver B. Chicken liver C. Steak D. Hamburger

5. Which of the following is the most common cause of anemia?

A. Red Blood Cells Deficiency B. Folic Acid Deficiency C. Vitamin B-12 Deficiency D. Iron Deficiency

6. Which condition is caused by insufficient oxygen to the heart muscle?

A. Iron Deficiency Anemia B. Angina C. Hypertension D. Hypotension


7. Which of the following have been shown to improve angina? (Circle all that apply)

A. Carnitine B. Coenzyme Q10 C. Magnesium D. Hawthorn and khella extract

8. Cholesterol is a type of _______ that exists in all cell membranes.

A. Amino Acid B. Protein C. Lipid D. Vitamin

9. Approximately _______ percent of total body cholesterol is manufactured in the liver and

________ percent is derived from the diet.

A. 80; 20 B. 20; 80 C. 50; 50 D. 75; 25

10. Cholesterol is vital for such physiological functions as: (circle all that apply)

A. Transmission of nerve impulses B. Formation of vitamin D C. Synthesis of testosterone and estrogen D. Formation of bile E. Absorption of dietary fat F. All of the above

11. As total body cholesterol increases, rate of liver synthesis decreases.

A. True B. False

12. Cholesterol is transported in the blood by _________.

A. Potassium B. Cytoplasts C. Hemoglobin D. Lipoproteins


13. Although LDL cholesterol is referred to as “bad cholesterol,” the worst cholesterol is

___________.

A. Saturated fat B. Lipoprotein C. Long chain fatty acids D. Hemoglobin

14. High levels of lipoprotein have been shown to carry a ______ times greater risk of heart

disease than an elevated LDL cholesterol level. This is because LDL on its own lacks the adhesive __________.

A. 5; triglyceride B. 7; coenzyme C. 10; apolipoprotein D. 15; vitamin E

15. Some of the important lifestyle factors that may cause high blood pressure include: (circle

all that apply)

A. Drinking coffee and alcohol B. Lack of exercise C. Stress D. Smoking

16. Elevated blood pressure is a major risk for a _________ or ________.

A. Heart attack; stroke B. Brain aneurism; diabetes C. Obesity; insomnia D. Miscarriage; vitamin deficiency

17. Which of the following foods are good for lowering blood pressure? (Circle all that apply)

A. Celery B. Garlic C. Onions D. Whole Grains E. Green vegetables

18. The higher the intake of vitamin C the lower the blood pressure.

A. True B. False


19. A high _____ to ________ intake is associated with lower blood pressure.

A. Sodium; potassium B. Potassium; sodium C. Calcium; phosphorus D. Phosphorus; calcium

20. A high intake of _______ is associated with lower blood pressure.

A. Vitamin A B. Iron C. Manganese D. Magnesium

21. Varicose veins affect women _______ times more than they affect men.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

22. Varicose veins affect nearly ______ percent of middle-aged adults.

A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75

23. Which of the following are beneficial for the treatment of varicose veins? (Circle all that

apply)

A. Vitamins C and E B. Fiber C. Bioflavonoids D. Zinc

24. An abnormal adrenal response- either deficient or excessive hormone release-

significantly alters an individual’s response to __________.

A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Others C. Diet D. Stress


25. The adrenal glands release _______ into the body to increase activity and energy.

A. Adrenaline B. Vitamin B12 C. Iron D. Glucose

26. Which of the following are stress-supporting nutrients? (Circle all that apply)

A. B vitamins B. Vitamins A and C C. Zinc D. Calcium

27. Diabetes is a chronic disorder of carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism characterized

by fasting elevations of ________.

A. Lipoproteins B. Enzymes C. Blood sugar D. Beta-carotene

28. Symptoms of diabetes include: (Circle all that apply)

A. Increased thirst B. Increased hunger C. Loss of appetite D. Increased urination

29. Which type of diabetes occurs most often in children and adolescents?

A. Type I B. Type II C. Pediatric diabetes D. Non-insulin Dependant

30. In type I diabetes, the body’s immune system apparently beings to attack the

______________.



31. Obesity is a significant environmental factor in diabetes, as ______ percent of diabetics are obese.

A. 30 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

32. Alcohol consumption often results in reactive _________.

A. Obesity B. Hypoglycemia C. Anxiety D. Depression

33. Bladder wrack is the original source of iodine as a nutritional additive and an effective

medicine for ___________ function.

A. Hypothyroid B. Lung C. Kidney D. Pancrea

34. Hyperthyroidism refers to _______ thyroid gland function.

A. High B. Fast C. Low D. Inaccurate

35. The ___________ is responsible for secreting a hormone that stimulates the thyroid

gland.

A. Hypothalamus B. Adrenal gland C. Salivary gland D. Pituitary gland

36. About 95 percent of all cases of hypothyroidism are __________, meaning that the

problem is with the thyroid gland and not the pituitary gland.

A. Primary B. Secondary C. Primal D. Exact


37. Hypoglycemia is a complex set of symptoms caused by faulty _________ metabolism

induced by a diet too high in refined sugars.

A. Fat B. Protein C. Carbohydrate D. Amino acid

38. Prolonged _________ use is believed to be the most important factor in the development

of chronic candidiasis.

A. Marijuana B. Antibiotic C. Cigarette D. Probiotic

39. Restoring proper ________ function is one of the key goals in the treatment of chronic

candidiasis.

A. Immune B. Respiratory C. Digestive D. Urinary

40. ___________ is characterized by diarrhea and an abnormal small intestine structure

caused by the immune system’s response to a protein known as gluten.

A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperglycemia D. Celiac disease

41. Pancreatic enzyme supplementation enhances the benefit of a gluten-free diet during the

first ________ days after initial diagnosis.

A. 7 B. 10 C. 25 D. 30


42. This disease is characterized by an inflammatory reaction throughout the entire thickness

of the bowel wall.

A. Ulcerative colitis B. Crohn’s disease C. Celica disease D. PMS

43. Treatment with a high _______ diet has been shown to have a favorable effect on the

course of Crohn’s disease.

A. Protein B. Carbohydrate C. Fiber D. Fat

44. The most common cause of constipation is _________.

A. A low fiber diet B. Lack of water C. Stress D. Anxiety

45. Severe bloody diarrhea in a child under _____ years of age should not be taken lightly.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

46. Diverticula are small _______ caused by the protrusion of the inner lining of the colon

onto areas of weakness in the colon wall.

A. Sacs B. Neurons C. Scabs D. Nerves

47. The term _______ refers to the presence of diverticula in the colon.

A. Celiac B. Ulcerative colitis C. Diverticulitis D. Diverticulosis


48. If the diverticula become inflamed, perforated, or impacted, the condition is referred to as:

A. Celiac B. Ulcerative colitis C. Diverticulitis D. Diverticulosis

49. A state of altered bacterial flora in the gut has become popularly known as _________.

A. Dysbiosis B. Celiac C. IBS D. Colitis

50. The most important friendly bacteria are: (circle all that apply)

A. Lactobacillus acidophilus B. Candida albicans C. Bifidobacterium bifidum D. Lymph nodes

51. The formation of gallstones has been divided into three steps. List them.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________

52. Gallstones arise when there is an imbalance among the _______ components.

A. Hemoglobin B. Bile C. Cardiovascular D. Blood

53. List the four major categories of gallstones based on their composition.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________


54. Bile is composed of the following: (circle all that apply)

A. Bile salts and water B. Bilirubin and electrolytes C. Cholesterol and phospholipids D. Fatty acids

55. The causes of hemorrhoids are similar to the causes of ________.

A. Blisters B. Boils C. IBS D. Varicose veins

56. The veins in the rectal area contain no ________, so factors that increase congestion of

blood flow in the region can lead to hemorrhoid formation.

A. Valves B. Blood C. Carbon dioxide D. Flow

57. Like peptic ulcer disease, achlorhydria and hypochlorhydria have been linked to the over-

growth of the bacteria __________.

A. Lactobacillus acidophilus B. Candida albicans C. Helicobacter pylori D. Bifidobacterium bifidum

58. List four major treatments for IBS.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________

59. The key dietary recommendations for preventing acne is to: (circle all that apply)

A. Avoid sugar, dairy and fried foods B. Avoid iodine and trans-fatty foods C. Avoid calcium D. Avoid Phosphorus


60. Many eczema patients eventually develop ________. (Circle all that apply)

A. Hay fever B. IBS C. Celiac disease D. Asthma

61. An increase in the permeability of the intestinal mucosa is often called ________.

A. IBS B. Leaky gut syndrome C. Celiac disease D. Ulcerative colitis

62. Since food allergies can cause ________ symptoms, elimination of just food additives

from the diet is inadequate. The diet must also be free of any allergy food.

A. Emotional B. Physiological C. Psychological D. Impaired growth

63. The leading cause of hives in adults is _________.

A. Stress B. High soda intake C. Improper diet D. Reactions to drugs

64. Family history is present in 50 percent of these cases.

A. IBS B. Psoriasis C. Hypothyroidism D. Depression

65. Alcoholism, menopausal flushing, local infection, B vitamin deficieneices, and GI

disorders have been suspected of causing:

A. Rosacea B. Acne C. Stress D. Obesity


66. Large amounts of ______ have been reported to cause hyperuricemia in gout patients.

A. Saturated fat B. Glucose C. Fructose D. Sucrose

67. Osteoarthritis can be halted and even reversed.

A. True B. False

68. Inactivity and low calcium intake are major risk factors for osteoporosis in women.

A. True B. False

69. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects the entire, especially

the _______.

A. Knees B. Hands C. Muscular system D. Joints

70. List the three separate ADD disorders.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________

71. There is evidence to suggest that ________ nutrients offer protection against Alzheimer’s

disease as well as therapeutic benefits.

A. Antioxidant B. Enzyme based C. Free radical D. Amino acid

72. Carpal tunnel may be benefited by ______ supplementation.

A. Vitamin B2 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C


73. The most common causes of insomnia are: (circle all that apply)

A. Depression B. High fiber intake C. Anxiety D. Tension

74. Considerable evidence shows an association between migraine headaches and

instability of _________.

A. Neurons B. Heart vessels C. Veins D. Blood vessels

75. Multiple sclerosis is a syndrome of progressive _______ disturbances that usually occurs

early in adult life.

A. Food B. Nerve C. Iron D. Glucose

76. One of the best aids for sleep is:

A. B vitamins B. Vitamins A and C C. Zinc D. Melatonin

77. Although many variables may be responsible for SAD, lack of exposure to ________

appears to be the most logical explanation.

A. Full-spectrum natural light B. Heat C. Water D. Summer

78. Prostate disorders can only be diagnosed by a physician.

A. True B. False


79. Which of the following has produced improvements in fibrocystic breast disease? (Circle

all that apply)

A. Eliminating caffeine B. Vitamin A and E supplementation C. Avoiding iodine D. Having normal bowel movements

80. Infertility is the inability to conceive a child after ________ months of unprotected sex in

the absence of female causes.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12

81. Social and cultural factors contribute greatly to how women react to:

A. Breast cancer B. Depression C. Menopause D. PMS

82. Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is estimated to affect between _______ and ________

percent of menstruating women.

A. 20; 25 B. 25; 30 C. 30; 35 D. 30; 40

83. PMS symptoms occur during the ______ phase of the menstrual cycle.

A. Luteal B. Primary C. Secondary D. Corpus

84. The first step in the natural approach to asthma is to ____________.

A. Go on an elimination diet B. Fast C. Reduce the allergic threshold by avoiding airborne and food allergies D. Avoid all chemical hygiene products


85. Most cases of bronchitis require antibiotics.

A. True B. False

86. If they are properly prepared, ________ lozenges can be effective in reducing the

duration of the symptoms of the common cold.

A. Vitamin C B. Magnesium C. Zinc D. Vitamin E

87. Ear infections are extremely common in children under ______ years of age.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

88. Elimination of ______ allergies has been shown to produce a dramatic effect in the

treatment of chronic otitis media in over _______ percent of children in some studies.

A. Pollen; 60 B. Food; 90 C. Food; 75 D. Gluten; 30

89. Patients with acute sinusitis have responded to _______ therapy.

A. Bromelain B. Turmeric C. Respiratory D. Physiological

90. Drinking at least ______ ounces of water daily increases urine flow to combat cystitis.

A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 64


91. Name 5 different supplements that may be used to treat or prevent cystitis.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________ 5. ____________________

92. List 6 dietary factors that have been linked to the development of kidney stones.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________ 5. ____________________ 6. ____________________

93. Which supplements may help prevent kidneys stones? (Circle all that apply)

A. Magnesium B. Vitamin B6 C. Citrate D. Vitamin K

94. Which supplements stopped progression of cataract formation in 48 of 50 patients?

A. Bilberry extract plus vitamin E B. Bilberry extract plus vitamin A C. Bilberry extract plus iron D. Bilberry extract plus iodine

95. Treatment and prevention of glaucoma is dependent on which two factors? (Circle two)

A. Reduction of intraocular pressure B. Reduction of inflammation C. Improvement of collagen metabolism within the eye D. Improvement of vitamin A metabolism within the eye

96. Macular degeneration is a progressive visual loss due to degeneration of the _________.

A. Retina B. Macula C. Blood vessels within the eye D. Nerve vessels within the eye


97. One of the most common findings in individuals with impaired immune function is gastrointestinal overgrowth of __________.

A. Yeast B. Toxins C. Candida albicans D. E. coli

98. Mild fever, recurrent sore throat, painful lymph nodes, muscle weakness, muscle pain,

and prolonged fatigue after exercise are symptoms of:

A. Muscular disease B. Skeletal disease C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. IBS

99. Your basal body temperature should be between ______ & ______ degrees Fahrenheit.

A. 97.6; 98.2 B. 96.6; 97.2 C. 99.6; 102.2 D. 97.6, 99.2

100. Low basal body temperatures are quite common and may reflect ___________.

A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism

101. The Client Assessment Questionnaire is also referred to as a/an:

A. Assess form B. Intake form C. Questionnaire form D. Lifestyle management form

102. Questions on the Client Assessment Questionnaire are not asked for the purpose of

making a __________, but to ascertain any medical factors that could have a nutritional impact.

A. Generalization B. Recommendation C. Diagnosis D. Decision


103. List the 4 most common features that most nutrition assessments contain.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________ 5. ____________________

104. Which of the following is an example of a food laboratory lesion?

A. Cooking with lower sodium via the use of herbal seasonings B. Dissecting the inside of a pomegranate fruit C. Testing chemical components of dietary lipids D. Determining how certain phytochemicals stabilize blood sugar levels

105. A diet history interview is similar to asking clients about their usual diets; however, the

emphasis is on minimizing questions and allowing clients to:

A. Confess their dietary downfalls B. Realize they need help C. Vent D. Tell their “stories”

106. Most juicy fruits, including peaches, plums, apples, pears, grapes, cherries, mangoes,

and papayas are _________. However, when broken down in the body they become _________.

A. Acidic; alkaline B. Subacids; alkaline C. Alkaline; acidic D. Alkaline; subacidic

107. Biochemical individuality means that all human bodies function in the same way.

A. True B. False

108. Many medications may interfere with mineral absorption and function. For example,

diuretic drugs stimulate the kidneys to clear more _________, lessoning the body stores.

A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium


109. The concept of total load is understanding how _______ affects human health.

A. Antibiotics B. Medications C. Herbs D. Xenobiotics

110. Zinc is necessary for the enzyme that activates __________ in the visual process.

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Biotin D. Beta-carotene

111. The key functions of nutrients such as vitamins and minerals in the human body revolve

around their role as essential components in ________ and _________.

A. Metabolism; digestion B. Health; disease C. Enzymes; coenzymes D. Life; death

112. List out 7 negative coping patterns for dealing with stress.

4. ____________________ 5. ____________________ 6. ____________________ 7. ____________________ 8. ____________________ 9. ____________________ 10. ____________________

113. A major issue of stress for many people is ________ relationships.

A. Intrapersonal B. Financial C. Marital D. In-law


114. A successful program for weight loss must be consistent with the four cornerstones of

good health. Name them.

1. ____________________ 2. ____________________ 3. ____________________ 4. ____________________

115. Overweight individuals tend to suffer a great deal of assaults on their _______ and

________.

A. Relationships; religion B. Medications; finances C. Self-esteem; self-image D. Imagination; goals

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Domain IV Answer Guide: Nutrition in Practice

1) B 2) Anemia due to excessive blood loss,

anemia due to excessive RBC destruction, anemia due to deficient RBA production

3) C 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) A, B, C, D 8) C 9) A 10) A, B, C, D 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) A, B, C, D 16) A 17) A, B, C, D, E 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) A, B, C, D 24) D 25) A 26) A, B, C 27) C 28) A, B, D 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) D

36) A 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) A, B 51) Bile supersaturation, nucleation and

initiation of stone formation, enlargement of the gallstone by accretion

52) B 53) Pure cholesterol, pure pigment, mixed,

entirely of minerals

54) A, B, C, D 55) D 56) A 57) C 58) Increasing intake of dietary fiber,

eliminating allergenic foods, using enteric-coated volatile oils, controlling psychological components

59) A, B 60) A, D 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) B 65) A


66) C 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) ADD without hyperactivity, ADD with

hyperactivity, ADD with residual type

71) A 72) B 73) A, C, D 74) D 75) B 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) A, B, D 80) C 81) A 82) D 83) A 84) C 85) B 86) C 87) D 88) B 89) A 90) D 91) Cranberry juice, Uva ursi, Gotu kola,

Goldenseal, Potassium and sodium citrate

92) Low intake of fiber, high intake of highly

processed carbohydrates, alcohol, animal protein, fat, high-calcium, low-magnesium, vitamin D enriched milk products

93) A, B, C, D 94) A 95) A, B 96) B 97) C 98) C 99) A 100) D 101) B 102) C 103) Dietary evaluation and nutrition related

history, anthropometric parameters, biochemical data and medical test results, medical and clinical history

104) A 105) D 106) B 107) B 108) C 109) D 110) A 111) C 112) Dependence on chemicals, such as

drugs, alcohol, and smoking; overeating, watching too much television, emotional outbursts, feelings of helplessness, overspending, excessive behavior

113) A 114) Proper diet, adequate exercise,

positive mental attitude, the right support for the body through natural measures

115) C

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Domain V: Research 1. The following are all true of abstracts except for:

A. It states the research problem. B. It announces key themes. C. It ends with a statement of the main point or with a launching point that anticipates

the main point in the full text. D. It is designed to leave the reader wondering what the paper is about.

2. A complete bibliography list includes which of the following?

A. Author, title, and editors B. Edition, volume, and publication location C. Publisher, date published, and page numbers D. All of the above

3. A warrant is sometimes called a:

A. Common sense B. Commonplace C. Common location D. Common reasoning

4. If you type keywords with an asterisk, you can target your search easier.

A. True B. False

5. One major problem with finding internet sources is:

A. They are hard to cite. B. It sometimes costs money. C. There is no gate keeper. D. It uses big words.

6. The three types of sources are:

A. Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary B. Primary, Secondary, and Common C. Main, Secondary, and Tertiary D. Main, Partial, and Whole


7. Plagiarism can be defined as:

A. Using quotation marks incorrectly. B. Using someone else’s work as your own. C. Using sources that aren’t credential. D. Citing a source incorrectly.

8. To avoid plagiarism, you should:

A. Rewrite the words of a source in your own words. B. Cite the source. C. Type quotation marks before and after the source or create a block quotation. D. All of the above.

9. Sociologists and economists prefer evidence in the form of:

A. Tables, charts and graphs B. Citations, drawings, and block quotations C. Recordings, comparisons, and book references D. Opinions, creative art, and scientific sources

10. When screening for relevant sources, you should ask yourself:

A. Is this source popular? B. Is this source long enough? C. Is this source reliable? D. Is this source easy to understand?

11. Unless you have a good reason not to, prefer a printed source to one on the internet.

A. True B. False

12. The most common reason for consulting sources is:

A. to find people who agree with your point of view. B. to find data useful as evidence to support a claim. C. to lengthen the word count of your research. D. to make your research more relatable.

13. A main claim is the sentence (or more) that your whole report supports. This is also called a:

A. Directional claim B. Statement of claim C. Direct claim D. Thesis


14. A __________ is a sentence supporting a claim, main or not.

A. supporting sentence B. reason C. quote D. bibliography

15. Which of the following is an example of a warrant?

A. If a problem continues, resources invested in prevention are wasted. B. Spending money for nothing is a waste. C. An ounce of prevention is wasted if you still need the cure. D. All of the above.

16. A warrant always has which two parts?

A. a general circumstance and the general consequence that readers should infer B. your point of view and evidence to support that all other views are wrong C. a personal experience of yours and the outcome (to make your work more relatable) D. a story book introduction and a surprise ending

17. Readers will look for warrants if they are unfamiliar with the kind of argument you are making.

A. True B. False

18. A topic-based outline consists of ____________, not statements.

A. verbs and actions only B. your long, descriptive intentions C. nouns or noun phrases D. quotations

19. The two choices for placement of your main point, or thesis statement, is:

A. in your introduction, at or close to its end B. in your conclusion, at or close to its beginning C. in the first sentence of the middle part of your report D. both A and B

20. When should you use direction quotations?

A. when you use the work of others as primary data B. when you appeal to your sources authority C. when the specific words of your source matter D. all of the above


21. When should you paraphrase your sources?

A. when you are more interested in findings and data than in how a source expresses them

B. when you can say the same thing more clearly C. both A and B D. when your source has more authority than you

22. Which of the following is one of the three steps for analyzing and revising the overall

organization of your paper?

A. Identify the outer frame of your paper

B. Identify the major sections of the body of your paper C. Identify your key thematic concepts in the introduction of your paper, then D. track them through the rest of the paper E. All of the above

23. Your abstract should be ___________ than your introduction.

A. Longer B. Shorter C. More descriptive D. More intriguing (to give your reader inspiration to read the rest of your paper)

24. A ___________ states the context and the problem, but before reporting the result, it

summarizes the rest of the paper, focusing either on the evidence supporting the result or on the procedures and methods used to achieve it.

A. summary B. thesis C. source D. quotation

25. Contextualizing information is also called ______________ because it establishes a shared

understanding between reader and writer about the general issue the writer will address.

A. Repetitive B. A fairy tale statement C. Common ground D. A writer’s connection


26. Which of the following should you avoid when writing the first sentence or two of your report?

A. Don’t start by citing a dictionary entry B. Don’t start grandly C. Don’t repeat the language of your assignment D. All of the above

27. When is it appropriate to open your report with a striking quotation?

A. If your quote is from a source with more credentials than you B. If the language of the quote matches the rest of your introduction C. If you are struggling with something good to say D. If you have no other quotations in the rest of your report

28. Aside from a striking quotation, which of the following is another way you can open your

introduction?

A. With a relevant anecdote B. With a striking fact C. With a personal quote D. both A and B

29. A __________ gives us less exact information but offers an even more striking image of a

story.

A. line graph B. conclusion C. personal statement D. picture

30. It’s important to report evidence that is:

A. clear B. appropriate C. fair D. all of the above

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Domain V Answer Guide: Research

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D

16. A 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. D

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Flashcards The next few pages contain a set of completed flashcards for each of the five areas of study (Domains) recommended by the NANP. Use these flashcards to study solo or with a partner to help prepare for the board exam.

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Name examples of alkaline forming foods

All vegetables, most fruits, millet, buckwheat, sprouted beans, sprouted seeds, olive oil,

water-soaked almonds

Name examples of balanced foods

Brown rice, corn, soybeans, lima beans, almonds, sunflower seeds, brazil nuts,

honey, most dried beans and peas, tofu, nonfat milk, vegetable oils

Name examples of acid forming foods

Wheat, oats, white rice, pomegranates, strawberries, cranberries, breads, refined

flour, refined sugar, cashews, pecans, peanuts, butter, milk, cheeses, eggs, meats,

fish, poultry

Name examples of anti-inflammatory foods

Alfalfa leaves, bay leaves, beets, brazil nut, cabbage, cardamom, celery-root, cherries,

cilantro, currants, curry leaf, dandelion, elderberry, ghee, ginger, goji berries, grapes, hemp seed, lavender, licorice root, mesquite, mint, nigella seed, onions, pepper, pineapple,

potatoes, walnuts, winter melon, yams

Describe antioxidants

Antioxidants shuffle energy, or electrons. They keep energy flowing in a way that

prevents damage to the cells and tissue.

Define carbohydrates

Organic molecules that are valuable energy sources and structural elements in living cells; they are composed of carbon,

hydrogen, and oxygen

What is fructose?

The sweetest of the simple sugars; found in honey, fruits, and some vegetables

What are oligosaccharides?

A carbohydrate that is neither complex nor simple; it contains between 2 and 10

monosaccharide’s

What is glucose?

The metabolized form of sugar in the body; the body’s preferred source of fuel

What is galactose?

A carbohydrate that comes from the metabolism of the milk sugar, lactose; it is

converted to glucose in the liver and is synthesized in the mammary glands

What is lactose?

Milk sugar; the sugar of mother’s breast milk; composed of one molecule each of glucose

and galactose

What is sucrose?

White sugar; is found in sugar cane and sugar beets, maple syrup, molasses, and

pineapple; composed of one molecule each of fructose and glucose

What is maltose?

Malt sugar; a short chain of two glucose molecules

What are food additives? Give examples

Substances added to food during processing; examples include preservatives (BHT, BHA,

benzoate, sulfite, nitrogen oxide), food colorings (FD & C yellow #5, 6, etc.),

sweeteners (aspartame, sorbitol, etc.), stimulants (caffeine), flavor enhancers (MSG)

What is detoxification?

The process of clearing toxins from the body or neutralizing or transforming them, as well as clearing excess mucous and congestion

List examples of digestive support nutrients

Papain and bromelain (digestive enzymes), HCL, niacin, glutamine, butyrate, probiotics, prebiotics, aloe vera, artichoke, cinnamon, cayenne, ginger, goldenseal, marshmallow,

peppermint

What are electrolytes?

Substances that release ions in water; examples are sodium, chloride and

potassium

What are toxins?

Any substance that creates irritating or harmful effects in the body, undermining its health or stressing the biochemical or organ functions, or actually damaging tissues and

organs.

How are environmental toxins acquired?

We acquire toxins from our environment by breathing them, ingesting them, or through

physical contact with them

Define fiber

The sum of polysaccharides not digested by the endogenous secretions (digestive

enzymes) of the human gastrointestinal tract

What is a food allergy?

Immunologic reaction resulting from exposure of food; reactions occur to only some subjects; reaction is unrelated to

physiological effect of food

What is nutritional supplementation?

The use of vitamins, minerals, and other food factors to support good health and to prevent

or treat illness

What are the three primary recommendations for a basic nutritional supplement program?

1. Take a high-quality multiple-vitamin-and-mineral supplement 2. Take extra antioxidants 3. Take 1 tablespoon of flaxseed oil daily

What are free radicals?

Highly reactive molecules that can bind to and destroy cellular compounds

What is the glycemic index?

A macronutrient that is found primarily in meats, dairy foods, nuts and seeds, that are

required to transport nutrients such as vitamin A, D, E, and K; fats are essential to

the cell membrane

What are saturated fats?

A fatty acid chain in which each carbon atom is bound to as many hydrogen atoms as

possible

What are unsaturated fats?

Fatty acid molecules with double bonds

What are polyunsaturated fats?

Fatty acid molecules with many double bonds

What are minerals?

Inorganic substances that play critical roles in the human body (i.e. acting as coenzymes in a number of reactions, initiating biochemical

reactions, altering electrical currents)

How many minerals are there?

18

What are organic foods?

Foods that are not treated with (or are treated with a very low dosage of) agricultural

chemicals

What are phytonutrients?

Non-traditional (not vitamins, minerals, protein, fats, or carbohydrates) plant

nutrients that have specific health benefits; examples include anathocyanins,

carotenoids, and plastids

Define protein

Organic substances that are composed of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen;

functions include structural support, storage, substance transport, signaling, movement,

defense, and selective acceleration of cellular chemical reactions

Describe sweeteners

No sweetener is a whole food; each has had something removed to concentrate its sugar

content; examples include honey, agave, carob, date sugar, rice syrup, fruit juice

concentrate, maple syrup and table sugar

What is total load?

The total of all exposures and influences that bear on human physiology

What are xenobiotics?

Chemicals or molecules foreign to living organisms; examples include prescription

and over-the-counter drugs, food additives, dyes, pesticides, alcohols and heavy metals

Define ketogenesis

A natural but also specialized process in which our bodies respond to stress or

starvation by increasing the reliance of fat as fuel

What are vitamins?

Organic compounds required in small amounts by the body for normal metabolic functions; they cannot be manufactured in the body and are therefore essential; they

are required in the process of energy production

Describe water

The primary component of all the bodily fluids- blood, lymph, digestive juices, urine,

tears, and sweat

What are whole foods?

Eating foods as wholesome, as chemical free, and as much from the local environment as possible is what a whole foods diet means

What is acidosis?

The accumulation of acids or loss of bases, which results in an increased hydrogen ion

concentration of body fluids

What is alkalosis?

The loss of acids or accumulation of cases, which results in a loss of hydrogen ion

concentration

What does the cardiovascular system do?

Transports blood between the body cells and organs such as the lungs, intestines, and

kidneys that communicate with the external environment

How many liters of blood does the heart pump each day?

7,000 liters

Which circuit sends oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs to pick up oxygen and

unload carbon dioxide?

Pulmonary circuit

What are the three basic parts of a cell?

Cell membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm

Which part of a cell regulates movement of substances in and out of the cell and is the

site of much biological activity?

Cell membrane or plasma membrane

What does the basic framework of a cell membrane include?

A double layer, or a bilayer, of phospholipid molecules; the cell membrane is manly

composed of many lipids, proteins and a small number of carbohydrates

What are the sites of protein synthesis called?

Ribosomes

What cellular structure is composed of a stack of about six flattened,

membranous sacs?

Golgi apparatus

Where do cell activities mainly occur?

Cytoplasm

Which cellular structure participates in the synthesis of protein and lipid

molecules?

Endoplasmic reticulum

Which cellular structure is the major site of the chemical reaction that

transforms energy into ATP?

Mitochondria

Describe the digestive system

Consists of the alimentary canal, which extends about 8 meters from the mouth to the anus, and several accessory organs,

which secrete substances used in the process of digestion into the canal

What are hormones?

Biochemical substances that spread messages within an individual

Describe the endocrine system

Consists of cells, tissues, and organs, collectively called endocrine glands, that

secrete hormones

Both of these body systems oversee cell-to-cell communication using chemical

signals that bind to receptor molecules

Nervous and endocrine systems

Describe the urinary system

Removes certain salts and nitrogenous wastes from the blood, maintains the normal

concentrations of water and electrolytes within body fluids, regulates the pH and

volume of body fluids, and helps control red blood cell production and blood pressure

What is the primary role of the kidneys?

To help maintain homeostasis by regulating the composition, volume, and the pH of the

extracellular fluid

What is immunity?

Resistance to particular pathogens or to their toxins or metabolic byproducts

What body system includes the skin and various accessory organs such as the hair,

nails, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands?

Integumentary system

What is the epidermis?

The outer layer of the skin

What is the dermis?

The inner layer of the skin

What is the Lymphatic system?

Composed of a vast collection of cells and biochemicals that travel in lymphatic vessels,

and the organs and glands that produce them

What are the three types of muscles?

Skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle

What are muscles?

Organs composed of specialized cells that use the chemical energy stored in nutrients

to contract

What are nerves made of?

A bundle of axons

What are neurons made of?

A mass of nerve cells

What body system includes the brain and spinal cord?

Central nervous system

What body system consists of the peripheral

nerves that connect the central nervous system to other body parts?

Peripheral nervous system

What is the reproductive system?

A connected series of organs and glands that produce and nurture sex cells and transport them to sites of fertilization

Describe the respiratory system

Includes tubes that remove particles from incoming air and transport air into and out of

the lungs, as well as microscopic air sacs where gases are exchanged

Describe 24-hour recall

In this method, the interviewer asks the client to recall all foods, beverages, and nutritional supplements consumed, including amounts and preparation methods, over a 24 hour

period

An advantage to this method is that

it is easy to administer and requires little effort on the part of the client

24-hour recall

The top of this form has an administrative

section and is usually followed by questions related to medical history

Client assessment questionnaire

Which algorithm has been used in several nutritional studies?

Stage of change algorithm

An example of a question in this process is, “How do you feel about making a change?”

Readiness-to-change open ended questions

The following question is an example of which process: “On a scale of 1 to 10, what number

would you pick that would represent how ready you are to make this change?”

Readiness-to-change scale question

During which process do you begin by asking your client to look at the picture and identify a spot on the graph that indicates how ready he

or she is to make a change?

Readiness-to-change graphic

Define active listening

Listening coupled with attending behavior

What are nutrition counselors often criticized for?

Controlling too much counseling time by doing most of the talking and spending too

much time giving diet instructions and advice

A counselor who is particularly needy for approval and acceptance will fear ______.

Rejection

List the seven qualities of counselors identified by Okun considered to

be the most influential

Knowledge, self-awareness, ethical integrity, congruence,

honesty, ability to communication, and gender and culture awareness

Give an example of a body behavior that has been shown to result in positive client ratings,

even in the presence of ineffective and detracting verbal messages.

A counselor’s joyful expression or attentive silence, which can communicate an

understanding of a client’s emotional state

What is body language harmony

between two people referred to as?

Synchrony

Expanding your skills in _____________ can in fact be useful if you decide to

specialize in nutrition counseling.

Psychotherapy

What is a nutrition therapist?

A counselor who appreciates the dynamics of the counseling relationship

and factors involved in healing.

Which type of therapy incorporates components of both cognitive therapies and behavioral therapy and includes a wide range of treatment approaches?

Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Describe classical conditioning

Classical conditioning focuses on antecedents that affect food behavior.

Examples include seeing or smelling food, watching TV, studying, or eating as a result

of boredom

Describe operant conditioning

Operant conditioning is based on the law of effect, which states that behaviors can be

changed by their positive or negative effect.

Describe modeling

Modeling is observational learning, such as learning by watching a video or

demonstration, observing an associate, or hearing a success story

What are barriers? Give examples

Obstacles that hinder accomplishment of a goal; examples include taste preferences, difficult food preparation, complexity of the

diet, lack of social support, inadequate financial resources, job or family pressures,

and time constraints

List some advantages of group counseling

Emotional support, group problem solving, modeling effect, attitudinal and belief

examples

List some disadvantages of group counseling

Individual responsiveness, group member personalities, possibility of poor role models,

meeting the needs of all group members

Why is the first group session crucial?

Because a group’s personality evolves early and is difficult to change at a later time

What are open groups?

Support groups in which participants are encouraged to participate, but there is no commitment to a set number of sessions

List some ways in which you can communicate with clients that do

not speak English well.

Use visual aids, write numbers down as they would appear in recipes, consider using

alternatives to written communication, ask questions in different ways

What is empathy?

A true understanding of another’s unique perspective and experience without judging,

criticizing, or blaming

What is reinforcement?

A behavioral-change strategy that provides incentives by addressing the end of the

behavior

How should a counselor help give a client hope?

By increasing awareness of options and assisting in setting achievable goals

What is the relapse prevention

model designed to treat?

Weight loss programs and addiction treatment interventions

List some examples of common high-risk situations for relapse

Anger, anxiety, depression, frustration, boredom, holidays, travel, lack of coping skills, negative self-talk, stress, hunger,

cravings, fatigue, and lack of social support

Most health benefits of physical activity occur within at least how

many minutes per week of moderate intense physical activity?

2 hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes per week)

Thinking patterns have been categorized into what two thinking methods?

Opportunity thinking and obstacle thinking

The process of changing dysfunctional thinking addresses what three factors?

1. Internal dialogue 2. Mental images 3. Beliefs and assumptions

What is anemia?

A condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells or the hemoglobin

portion of the red blood cells.

Anemia caused by deficient red blood cell production is almost always due to what?

Nutrient deficiency

Name some of the complications that iron deficiency can lead to.

Anemia, excessive menstrual blood loss, learning disabilities, impaired immune

function, and decreased energy levels and physical performance

What vitamin deficiency is most often due to a defect in absorption not a dietary lack?

Vitamin B12 deficiency

As many as ____ percent if all bypass procedures may be unnecessary

92%

Which herbal extract improves the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart?

Hawthorn extract

What condition is characterized by squeezing or pressure like pain in the chest that occurs

immediately after exertion?

Angina

What causes angina?

An insignificant supply of oxygen to the heart muscle

How is cholesterol transported throughout the body?

Through lipoproteins

List the major categories of lipoproteins

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL), low density lipoprotein (LDL), and

high density lipoprotein (HDL)

Which types of lipoprotein are responsible for transporting fats from the liver to body cells?

VLDL and LDL

What is HDL responsible for?

Returning fats to the liver

Which type of cholesterol is associated with a low risk of heart attack?

HDL

A diet low in ______ and high in _____ is associated with high blood pressure.

Potassium; sodium

Non-vegetarians generally have _______ blood pressure levels than vegetarians.

Lower

Which foods are helpful for lowering blood pressure levels?

Celery, garlic, onions, nuts and seeds or their oils, cold-water fish, green leafy vegetables,

whole grains and legumes

What are varicose veins?

Dilated, tortuous, superficial veins in the legs

What causes varicose veins

Genetic weakness of the vein walls or their valves; excessive pressure within the vein

due to a low-fiber induced increase in straining during defecation; long periods of

standing and/or heavy lifting; damage to the veins resulting from inflammation

Which supplements may help improve varicose veins?

Vitamins C and E, bioflavonoids, and zinc

Which nutrients help support healthy adrenal functioning?

Vitamin C, pantothenic acid, vitamin B6, zinc, and magnesium

Which trace mineral plays a major r ole in the sensitivity of cells to insulin?

Chromium

What is diabetes?

A chronic disorder of carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism characterized by fasting

elevations of blood sugar levels

What is hypoglycemia?

A rapid increase in blood sugar levels, followed by a drop in blood sugar levels

What is hyperglycemia?

A condition in which there is an abnormally high level of glucose in the blood; often

associated with diabetes

What is hypothyroidism?

Refers to low thyroid gland function

What is hyperthyroidism?

Over activity of the thyroid gland

Define chronic candidiasis

An overgrowth in the gastrointestinal tract of the usually benign yeast (or fungus)

Candida albicians

Which disease is characterized by diarrhea and an abnormal small intestine structure

caused by the immune system’s response to a protein known as gluten?

Celiac disease

Which conditions (other than celiac disease)

have been associated with gluten intolerance?

Thyroid abnormalities, insulin-dependent diabetes, psychiatric disturbances including

schizophrenia, and hives

Which disease is characterized by intermittent bouts of diarrhea, low-grade

fever, and pain in the lower right abdomen as well as inflammation throughout the

entire thickness of the bowel wall

Crohn’s disease

What is the most common cause of constipation?

A low-fiber diet

Name the four major types of diarrhea

1. Osmotic 2. Secretory 3. Exudative 4. Inadequate-contact

Describe osmotic diarrhea

Diarrhea caused by an excess of water-soluble molecules in the stool, which results

in increased fluid retention in the bowel

Describe secretory diarrhea

Diarrhea Results from excessive secretion of ions into the bowel, with the same results of

excessive water retention in the stools

Describe exudative diarrhea

Usually due to infections and inflammatory bowel diseases, resulting n abnormal

intestinal permeability and intestinal loss of serum proteins

Describe inadequate-contact diarrhea

Inadequate-contact diarrhea is the result of inadequate contact between surfaces,

resulting in inadequate absorption

What condition refers to the presence of diverticula in the colon?

Diverticulosis

What condition occurs when diverticula become inflamed, perforated, or impacted?

Diverticulitis

What is dysbiosis?

A state of altered bacterial flora in the gut

Name the two most important friendly bacteria that can be

used to treat dysbiosi

Lactobacillus acidophilus and Bifidobacterium bifidum

Name the three steps that cause the formation of gallstones

1. Bile supersaturation 2. Nucleation and initiation of stone 3. Enlargement of the gallstone by accretion

What are the major risk factors for the development of cholesterol

and mixed gallstones?

Diet, sex, race, obesity, high caloric intake, estrogens, gastrointestinal diseases

(especially Crohn’s disease and cystic fibrosis), drugs, and age

What are hemorrhoids?

Abnormally large or painful conglomerates of vessels, supporting tissues, and overlying mucous membrane or skin of the anorectal

area

What is hyperchlorhydia?

A condition in which there is too much gastric acid secretion in the stomach

What is hypochlorhydia?

Hypochlorhydria refers to deficient gastric acid secretion,

which results in chronic indigestion.

Define irritable bowel syndrome

A functional disorder of the large intestine with no evidence of accompanying structural

defect

List 5 cases of IBD

1. Genetic predisposition 2. Infectious agent or agents 3. Antibiotic exposure 4. Immune system abnormality 5. Dietary factors

What is leaky gut syndrome?

An increase in the permeability of the intestinal mucosa

What is an ulcer?

An ulcer is an erosion of the tissue, producing a crater-like lesion that occurs in

the stomach (gastric ulcer) or the first portion of the small intestine (duodenal

ulcer)

Raw cabbage juice is well documented as having remarkable success in treating what disorder?

Peptic ulcers

List the typical signs of a food allergy

Dark circle under the eyes, puffiness under the eyes, horizontal creases in the lower

eyelid, chronic fluid retention, chronic swollen glands

Supplementing with hydrochloric acid and/or pancreatic enzymes is often necessary to support the individual who

suffers from what condition?

Food allergies

Which fruit helps clear phlegm and mucus, treats lung and intestinal ailments, alleviates

motion sickness, eases coughing, and helps with alcohol detoxification?

Citron

Name the fruit has been called the “medicine chest of the people” because it is effective for relieving colds, flu, fevers, and inflammation?

Elderberry

Which condition is known as a superficial disease that affects the hair follicles and oil-

secreting glands of the skin?

Acne vulgaris

Name the condition that is characterized by dry, itchy skin, especially on the

arms and legs that is often hereditary and may be worsened by stress,

sweating, or food allergies.

Dermatitis

Name the oil that is prized for its ability to treat dry skin, acne,

psoriasis, eczema, and wrinkles

Argan Oil

Name the condition that is characterized by raised and swollen welts with

blanched centers that may coalesce to become giant welts

Hives

What is the leading cause of hives in adults?

Drug reactions

List three nutritional supplements that may be recommended for

the treatment of hives

1. Vitamin C 2. Vitamin B12 3. Quercetin

Define psoriasis

A condition in which a sharply bordered reddened rash or plagues covered with

overlapping silvery scales appear on the scalp, the backside of the wrists, elbows,

knees, buttocks, and ankles.

List some nutritional supplements that can be given to treat psoriasis

A high potency multiple vitamin and mineral formula, flaxseed oil, vitamin A, vitamin E,

chromium, selenium, zinc, and water-soluble fiber

Define rosacea

A chronic skin disorder in which the nose and cheeks are abnormally red and may be

covered with pimples similar to those seen in acne

Define gout

A common type of arthritis caused by an increased concentration of uric acid in

biological fluids

List some nutritional supplements that may be given to help treat gout

1. Flaxseed oil 2. Vitamin E 3. Folic acid 4. Bromelain 5. Quercetin

Which condition is also known as degenerative joint disease because

it is characterized by joint degeneration and loss of cartilage?

Osteoarthritis

According to Norman Childers, what type of vegetables should be eliminated from the diet

of those who suffer from osteoarthritis?

Nightshade vegetables

Which procedure is best diagnosed by a procedure known as a

bone densitometry?

Osteoporosis

Define osteopenia

A condition in which bone density is low but not low enough to be classified as

osteoporosis

Which condition is characterized by fatigue, low-grade fever, weakness, weight loss, joint

stiffness, and vague joint pain following by the appearance of painful, swollen joints for

several weeks?

Rheumatoid arthritis

List the three factors that appear to be particularly relevant to learning disabilities

1. Otitis media 2. Nutrient deficiency 3. Heavy metals

Define Alzheimer’s Disease

A degenerative brain disorder that manifests as a progressive deterioration of memory and

mental function; a state of mind commonly referred to as dementia

List several nutritional supplements that may help treat Alzheimer’s disease

A high potency multiple vitamin and mineral supplement, vitamin C, vitamin E, flaxseed oil, thiamin, phosphatidylserine, L-acetyl-

carnitine, methylcobalamim

Describe carpal tunnel syndrome

A common, painful disorder caused by compression of the nerve that passes

between the bones and ligaments of the wrist

Which supplement appears to be quite helpful in treating carpal tunnel syndrome?

Vitamin B6

Define insomnia

Difficulty falling asleep or frequent waking

List two botanical medications that may be used to treat insomnia

Valeriana officinalis and Passiflora incarnate

List the recommended nutritional supplements and botanical medicines

associated with the treatment of migraines

Magnesium, vitamin B6, 5-HTP, Tanacetum parthenium, and ginger

What nutritional supplements and botanical medications are recommended

to treat depression?

High potency multiple vitamin and mineral, vitamin C, vitamin E, flaxseed oil, 5-HTP, folic acid, vitamin B12, St. John’s wort (if under the age of 50), ginkgo biloba (if over the age of 50)

What condition is the botanical medicine kava most known for?

Anxiety

Define multiple sclerosis; What is it caused by?

A syndrome of progressive nerve disturbances that is caused by

gradual loss of the myelin sheath that surrounds the nerve cell

What type of dietary fat should be avoided for the treatment of

multiple sclerosis?

Saturated fats

Which condition is characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs?

Restless leg syndrome

Describe seasonal affective disorder

Regularly occurring winter depression, frequently associated with summer

hypomania

List the nutritional supplements and botanical medicines associated with the

treatment of prostate enlargement

Zinc, flaxseed oil, amino acid mixture:

glycine, glutamic acid, alanine; Serenoa repens, flower pollen extract, Pyheum

africanum, and Urtica dioica

Which condition is a result of an increased estrogen-to-progesterone ratio?

Fibrocystic Breast Disease

What type of diet should a patient with fibrocystic breast disease follow?

Vegetarian with large amounts of dietary fiber

Define infertility

The inability to conceive a child after six months of unprotected sex in the absence of

female causes

Name three botanical medications that may be used to treat infertility

1. Panax ginseng 2. Eleutherococcus senticosus, 3. Pygeum africanum

Define menopause

Cessation of menstruation in older women for

six to 12 months

What are some dietary recommendations for women

experiencing menopause?

Increase the amount of phytoestrogens in the diet by consuming more soy foods,

fennel, celery, parsley, high-lignan flaxseed oil, nuts and seeds

List the typical symptoms of premenstrual syndrome

Decreased energy levels, tension, irritability, depression, headache, altered sex drive,

breast pain, backache, abdominal bloating, and edema of the fingers and ankles

What is asthma?

Asthma is an allergic disorder characterized by spasm of the bronchi, swelling of the

mucous lining of the lungs, and excessive production of a thick, viscous mucus

What type of diet is recommended for the treatment of asthma?

Vegan diet with the possible exception of cold-water fish for omega 3 fatty acids

Define bronchitis

An infection or irritation of the bronchi- the passageway from the windpipe to the lungs

Which nutritional supplements are recommended for the treatment of bronchitis?

Vitamin C, bioflavonoids, vitamin A, Beta-carotene, and zinc

List some nutritional supplements and botanical medications that may be used to

treat the common cold

Vitamin C, vitamin A, beta-carotene, zinc, and Echinacea

Which condition is usually preceded by an upper-respiratory infection or allergy?

Acute otitis media

Which condition refers to a constant swelling of the middle ear?

Chronic otitis media

List some nutritional supplements that may be used in the treatment

of an ear infection

Vitamin A, beta-carotene, vitamin C, bioflavonoids, zinc, and thymus extract

List the nutritional supplements and botanical medications recommended

for treatment of sinusitis

Vitamin C, bioflavonoids, vitamin A, beta-carotene, zinc, thymus extract, Echinacea,

Hydrastis canadensis, and bromelain

Discuss the dietary recommendations for women with chronic bladder infections

Avoid all simple sugars, refined carbohydrates, full-strength fruit juice, and food allergens; supplement e with citrate, vitamin C, bioflavonoids, and vitamin A

List the dietary patterns that have been linked to kidney stones

Low intake of fiber, high intake of highly refined carbohydrates, alcohol, animal

protein, gat, and high-calcium, low-magnesium, vitamin D enriched milk

products

What are cataracts and how do they occur?

White, opaque blemishes on the normally transparent lens of the eye; they occur as a result of damage to the protein structure of

the lens, similar to the damage that occurs to the protein of eggs when they are boiled or

fried

Describe glaucoma

Glaucoma refers to an increased pressure within the eye, which results from greater

production than outflow of the fluid of the eye

Which nutritional supplement helps lower intraocular pressure?

Magnesium

List the major risk factors that contribute to macular degeneration

Smoking, aging, atherosclerosis, and high blood pressure

List the nutritional supplements that are recommended for the treatment

of macular degeneration

Vitamin C, vitamin E, selenium, beta-carotene, lutein

What type of foods should be avoided for macular degeneration?

Fried and grill foods; and other sources of free radicals

Describe chronic fatigue syndrome

A combination of symptoms including recurrent fatigue, sore throat, low-grade fever, lymph node swelling, headache,

muscle and joint pain, intestinal discomfort, emotional distress and/or depression, and

loss of concentration

List two botanical medications that may be used for the treatment of

chronic fatigue syndrome

Eletherococcus senticosus and Glycyrrhiza glabra

What is fibromyalgia?

A disorder that is regarded as a common cause of chronic musculoskeletal pain and

fatigue.

List the primary treatment goals in fibromyalgia

To raise serotonin levels, improve sleep quality, and assure adequate magnesium

levels

What should your basal body temperature be?

Between 97.6 and 98.2 degrees

A person is considered to be obese when they have a BMI of ________ or higher.

30

What do drug history questions provide information about?

Medications, herbal preparations, and nutrient supplements that may impact

nutritional status

What should you be careful not to do while collecting dietary intake

data from your client?

When collecting data from your client, be careful not to preach or condemn because such remarks are likely to be interpreted as

judgmental and inhibits the free flow of information

What might a food laboratory lesson include?

How to cook with lower sodium via the use of herbal seasonings

Describe dietary history

Dietary history contains questions about food preferences and food selection variables that

influence food intake

What does pH stand for?

“Pressure of hydrogen,” as the amount of hydrogen ions affect the acid-alkaline state

Describe biochemical individuality

Biochemical individuality is a term that helps explain different reactions to toxic elements

What do many medicines interfere with?

Vitamin and mineral absorption and function

What is the first step to establishing a sound

research relationship with your reader?

Offer them more than a collection of known facts.

The key functions of nutrients such as vitamins and minerals in the human body

revolve around their role as essential components in ______ and _______.

Enzymes and coenzymes

What are some nutrients that are especially important in supporting

adrenal function?

Vitamin C, pantothenic acid, vitamin B6, zinc, and magnesium

While doing research work, what is the first thing your readers read and

the last thing you should revise?

Abstract

What three things should your abstract do?

1. States the research problem 2. Announces key themes 3. Ends with a statement of the main point or with a launching point that anticipates the main point in the full text

Should an abstract be shorter or longer then an introduction?

Shorter

What information should be included in a bibliographical list?

Author, title (including subtitle), editors (if any), edition, volume, place published,

publisher, date published, and page numbers of articles or chapters

List the correct format for citing a source in APA format according to

the Purdue Online Writing Lab

Contributors' names (Last edited date). Title of resource. Retrieved from http://Web

address for OWL resource

When quoting or summarizing a source, what factor matters the most?

The context of your own grasp of the original

Name one important aspect of critical reading

Checking for accuracy

List one downside to using sources on the internet

It has no gate-keeper

List some situations in which you can reliably use the information

you find on the internet

1. If it is provided by a reliable journal 2. If it supplements print sources 3. If it is available only on the internet or is your primary source

What are keywords?

Keywords are words that name central concepts in your problem and its solution

Typing what symbol before conducting a keyword search will help target your search

more easily

An asterisk; for example- *outpost civilizations

Define plagiarism

Using someone else’s words or ideas but failing to credit that person, leading your

readers to think that those words are yours

List a few indications of a reliable source

1. The source is published by a reputable press 2. The published uses peer reviews for everything it publishes 3. The author is a reputable scholar 4. The source is current

Once you have located one reliable academic book or article, you

have a ________ for finding more.

Trailhead

List the three types of sources

1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Tertiary

What is another term for warrant and what does it mean

Commonplace; a common sense generalization about the world that everyone

considers self evident

List three examples of a warrant

1. If a problem continues, resources invested in prevention are wasted 2. Spending money for nothing is a waste 3. An ounce of prevention is wasted if you still need the cure

A topic is usually too ______if you can state it in just 4 to 5 words

Broad

When documenting research, why is it hard to completely

avoid quoting out of context?

Because you cannot quote all of the original context

When forming your conclusion, what should you start with?

Start with your main point

List the three elements of an introduction

1. Contextualizing background 2. A statement of the problem 3. A response to the problem

A responsible researcher supports a claim with reasons based on ________.

Evidence

Name a situation in which you should take notes

When you are hunting down data

List the three steps for analyzing and revising your overall organization

1. Identify the outer frame of the paper 2. Identify the major sections of the body of your paper 3. In the introduction, identify your key thematic concepts then track them through the rest of the paper

List the three options for quoting or paraphrasing data

1. Introduce a quotation with a colon or an introductory phrase. 2. Weave the quotation into your own sentence. 3. Set off quotations of three or more lines in a “block quote.”

At the heart of every sentence are its ____ and _____.

Subject; verb

When should you use a table in your research?

If the readers are likely to want/need very precise numbers or data

When should you use a chart in your research?

If you need to reinforce your point with a strong image, or the reader

needs less precise details

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