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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Phylogenetic classification is based on (a) utilitarian system (b) habits (c) overall similarities (d) common evolutionary descent 2. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit? (a) Heterospory (b) Haplontic life cycle (c) Free -living gametophyte (d) Dependent sporophyte 3. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is (a) easily cultured (b) easily available (c) easy to handle (d) easily multiplied in host 4. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the examples of (a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers (b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers (c) ammonifying bacteria (d) disease-causing bacteria 5. What is true for cyanobacteria? (a) Oxygenic with nitrogenase (b) Oxygenic without nitrogenase (c) Non-oxygenic with nitrogen (d) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase 6. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as (a) plasmodium (b) fruiting body (c) mycelium (d) protonema

7. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorised as: (a) Cyanobacteria (b) Archaebacteria (c) Chemosynthetic autotrophs (d) Heterotrophic bacteria 8. Resin and turpentine are obtained from (a) Cycas (b) Pinus (c) Cedrus (d) Abies 9. The “walking” fern is so named because (a) it is dispersed through the agency of walking animals (b) it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips (c) it knows how to walk by itself (d) its spores are able to walk 10. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by (a) indusium (b) calyptra (c) peristome teeth (d) elaters 11. Fire bellied toad is (a) Amphiuma (b) Discoglossus (c) Necturus (d) Salamandra 12. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are (a) flame cells (b) protonephridia (c) malpighian tubules (d) green glands 13. What is true about Taenia saginata? (a) Life history has pig as intermediate host (b) There are two large suckers on scolex (c) Rostellar hooks are absent (d) Rostellum has double circle of hooks 14. In which of the following, haemocyanin pigment is found? (a) Mollusca (b) Annelida (c) Echinodermata

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(d) Lower chordata 15. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is: (a) Octopus (b) Asterias (c) Ascidia (d) Fasciola 16. A family delimited by head type of inflorescence is (a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae (c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae 17. Roots of which plant contains an oxidising agent? (a) Carrot (b) Soyabean (c) Mustard (d) Radish 18. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of (a) Aloe (b) Tomato (c) Papaver Michelia (d) 19. Where do the casparian bands occur? (a) Epidermis (b) Endodermis (c) Pericycle (d) Phloem

20. The most abundant element present in the plants is (a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen (c) Manganese (d) Iron 21. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

(a) many xylem bundles. (b) relatively thicker periderm. (c) inconspicuous annual rings. (d) more abundant secondary xylem. 22. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones? (a) Calcified cartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage (c) Elastic cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilage 23. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches (a) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight (b) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea (c) Males bear short anal styles not present in females (d) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion 24. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to biochemicals of cell membranes named (a) proteins (b) lipids (c) proteins and lipids (d) glycoproteins and glycolipids 25. The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is (a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria (c) lysosome (d) endoplasmic Reticulum 26. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas (a) Ribosomes (b) Chromosomal Organization (c) Cell wall (d) Cellmembrane 27. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked with (a) peptide bond (b) covalent bond (c) hydrogen bond (d) phosphodiester bond 28. Collagen is (a) fibrous protein (b) globular protein

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(c) lipid (d) carbohydrate 29. Meiosis is evolutionary significant because it result in (a) genetically similar daughters (b) four daughter cells (c) eggs and sperms (d) recombinations 30. Water potential is equal to (a) ys + O.P. (b) ys = T.P. (c) yp + yw (d) ys + yp 31. Water potential of actively absorbing cells is (a) always + ve (b) always – ve (c) always 0 (d) always > 1 32. Enzyme involved in nitrogen assimilation (a) nitrogenase (b) nitrate reductase (c) transferase (d) transaminase 33. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires (a) zinc (b) iron (c) niacin (d) copper 34. A photosynthesising plant is releasing 18O more than the normal. The plant must have been supplied with (a) O3 (b) H2O with 18O (c) CO2 with 18O (d) C6H12O6 with 18O 35. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration? (a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants (b) It occurs in chloroplasts (c) It occurs in daytime only (d) It is a characteristic of C4 plants 36. End product of glycolysis is (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvic Acid

(c) glucose 1-phosphate (d) fructose 1-phosphate 37. Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic respiration is (a) 36 molecules (b) 38 molecules (c) 40 molecules (d) 48 molecules 38. Phototropic and geotropic movements are linked to: (a) gibberellins (b) enzymes (c) auxin (d) cytokinins 39. The method that renders the seed coat permeable to water so that embryo expansion is not physically retarded is (a) vernalization (b) stratification (c) denudation (d) scarification 40. Which one of the following is not used for ex-situ plant conservation? (a) Seed banks (b) Shifting cultivation (c) Botanical Gardens (d) Field gene banks 41. A person had to undergo a surgery in which a major portion of his pancreas was removed. Which of the following food constituents will he find especially difficult to digest? (a) Starch (b) Proteins (c) Fats (d) Lactose sugar 42. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by (a) endothelial cells (lining the blood vessels) (b) liver cells (c) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells (d) macula densa cells 43. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by (a) simple diffusion (b) osmosis

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(c) active transport (d) passive transport 44. The genotype of B-group father of an O-group child is (a) IOIO (b) IBIB (c) IAIB (d) IOIB 45. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be (a) B (b) O (c) AB (d) A 46. Brush border is characteristic of (a) neck of nephron (b) collecting tube (c) proximal convoluted tubule (d) all the above 47. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed? (a) Micturition will continue (b) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder (c) There will be no micturition (d) Urine will not collect in the bladder 48. Which one of the following is a skull bone? (a) Atlas (b) Coracoid (c) Arytaenoid (d) Pterygoid 49. Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on (a) simple reflexes (b) conditioned reflexes (c) cardiac reflexes (d) origin of life 50. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because (a) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria (b) it has no blood supply (c) it is composed of enucleated cells (d) it is a non-living layer 51. In human adult females oxytocin

(a) is secreted by anterior pituitary (b) stimulates growth of mammary glands (c) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin (d) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition 52. Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones? (a) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary (b) Hypothalamus (c) Anterior pituitary lobe (d) Posterior pituitary lobe 53. Amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg. Which one is affected? (a) Pattern of cleavage (b) Formation of zygote (c) Number of blastomeres (d) Fertilization 54. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented by (a) Ovule (b) Megaspore mother cell (c) Embryo sac (d) Nucellus 55. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of endosperm in Angiosperms require (a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the second male gamete only (b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second male gamete (c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the second male gamete only (d) all the above kinds of fusion in different angiosperms 56. Perisperm differs from endosperm in; (a) having no reserve food (b) being a diploid tissue (c) its formatting by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms (d) being a haploid tissue 57. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in (a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes (b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium ‘ (c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium (d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

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58. Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function Endocrine gland -- Hormone -- Function (a) Ovary -- FSH -- stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens. (b) Placenta – estrogen -- initiates secretion of the milk. (c) Corpus – estrogen -- essential for luteum maintenance of endometerium (d) Leydig – androgen -- initiates the cells production of sperms. 59. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a (a) Recessive character carried by Y-chromosome (b) Dominant character carried by Y-chromosome (c) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome (d) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome 60. Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies because in haploids (a) recessive mutations express immediately (b) d o m i n a n t m u t a t i o n s e x p r e s s immediately (c) mutations are readily induced (d) tissue culture is easy 61. Mental retardation in man associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to (a) increase in X complement (b) moderate increase in Y complement (c) large increase in Y complement (d) reduction in X complement 62. No. of barr body present in each somatic cell of a female is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 63. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy (a) may be colour blind or may be of normal vision (b) must be colour blind (c) must have normal colour vision (d) will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele 64. Mutations can be induced with: (a) infra red radiations

(b) I AA (c) ethylene (d) gamma radiations 65. During DNA replication, the strands separate by (a) DNA polymerase (b) topoisomerase (c) unwindase/Helicase (d) gyrase 66. DNA elements which can switch their position are called (a) exons (b) introns (c) cistrons (d) transposons 67. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of (a) frame shift mutation (b) transcription (c) transition (d) transversion 68. Satellite DNA is useful tool in: (a) organ transplantation (b) sex determination (c) forensic science (d) genetic engineering 69. Frequency of a character increases when it is (a) recessive (b) dominant (c) inheritable (d) adaptable 70. Which one of the following features is closely related with the evolution of humans? (a) Loss of tail (b) Shortening of jaws (c) Binocular vision (d) Flat nails 71. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example. (a) Colour change in Chameleon (b) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish (c) Poison fangs in snakes (d) Melanism in moths

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72. Darwin’s finches are a good example of: (a) Industrial melanism (b) Connecting link (c) Adaptive radiation (d) Convergent evolution 73. Passive immunity was discovered by (a) Edward Jenner (b) Emil von Behring (c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur 74. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals? (a) These are produced in thyroid (b) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells (c) These originate in lymphoid tissues (d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris 75. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as that of (a) Taenia, a tapeworm (b) Wuchereria, a filarial worm (c) Rhizopus, a mould (d) Ascaris, a round worm 76. Which of the following has been recently used for increasing productivity of super milk cows? (a) Artificial insemination by a pedigreed bull only (b) Superovulation of a high production cow only (c) Embryo transplantation only (d) A combination of superovulation, artificial insemination and embryo transplantation into a 'carrier cow' (surrogate mother) 77. Crop plants grown in monoculture are (a) free from intraspecific competition (b) characterised by poor root system (c) highly prone to pests (d) low in yield 78. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is in raising (a) Variants through picking up somaclonal variations (b) Genetically uniform population identical to the original parent (c) Homozygous diploid plants (d) Development of new species

79. The domestic sewage in large cities (a) has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria. (b) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs). (c) when treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen. (d) has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts. 80. What is true for monoclonal antibodies? (a) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen (b) These antibodies obtained from parent and for two antigen (c) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for many antigen (d) These antibodies obtained from many parents and for many antigens 81. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most severe between (a) closely related organism growing in different niches (b) closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche (c) distantly related organisms growing in the same habitat (d) distantly related organisms growing in different niches 82. In a population unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as (a) biotic potential (b) fertility (c) carrying capacity (d) birth rate 83. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true ecosystem is (a) always inverted (b) always upright (c) both A and B (d) spindle-shaped 84. What is true of ecosystem? (a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers (b) Primar y consumers out-number producers (c) Producers are more than primary consumers

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(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful 85. The upright pyramid of number is absent in (a) Pond (b) Forest (c) Lake (d) Grassland 86. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is most likely to happen on a long term basis? (a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death (b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die due to lack of fodder (c) Large areas will become deserts (d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to a reduced availability of variety of germplasm 87. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called (a) herbarium (b) germplasm (c) gene library (d) genome 88. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because (a) excessive carbon dioxide is added to water (b) it gives off a bad smell (c) it removes the food eaten by fish (d) it increases competition with fishes for dissolved oxygen 89. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters, is (a) < 10 ppm (b) < 100 ppm (c) < 30 ppm (d) < 3.0 ppm 90. Which one of the following is a wrong statement? (a) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas. (b) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals. (c) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon. (d) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies.

Chemistry

1. The number of significant figures for the three numbers 969 cm, 2.969 cm, 2.2969 cm are (a) 3,4 and 5 respectively (b) 3,4 and 4 respectively (c) 3,3 and 4 respectively (d) 3,3 and 3 respectively 2. Number of unpaired electrons in N2+ is (a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 3 3. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 9 in a hydrogen atom will be (Given ionization energy of H=0.98 ×92–98 J atom–9 and h = 6.605 × 92–34 Js)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 4. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions? (a) Ga, In, Tl (b) Na, Mg, Al (c) N, O, F (d) V, Cr, Mn 5. Identify the wrong statement in the following: (a) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius. (b) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius. (c) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table. (d) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table. 6. Which of the following species is paramagnetic? (a) O22- (b) NO (c) CO (d) CN– 7.

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(a) three (b) two (c) six (d) four 8. The pair of species with the same bond order is: (a) O2

2–, B2 (b) O2+, NO+ (c) NO, CO (d) N2, O2 9. When is deviation more in the behaviour of a gas from the ideal gas equation PV= nRT? (a) At high temperature and low pressure (b) At low temperature and high pressure (c) At high temperature and high pressure (d) At low temperature and low high pressure 10. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its (a) internal energy increases (b) enthalpy decreases (c) enthalpy remains unaffected (d) enthalpy reduces to zero.

11. (a) – RT (b) + RT (c) – 3 RT (d) + 3 RT 12.

(a) 32 (b) 38 (c) 317 (d) 477 13. In HS–, I–, RNH2 and NH3, order of proton accepting tendency will be (a) I– > NH3 > RNH2 > HS– (b) HS– > RNH2 > NH3 > I– (c) RNH2 > NH3 > HS– > I–

(d) NH3 > RNH2 > HS– > I– 14.

(a) 3.5 × 10-4

(b) 1.1 × 10-5

(c) 1.8 × 10-5

(d) 9.0 × 10-6 15.

(a) + 3, + 6 and + 5 (b) + 5, + 3 and + 6 (c) – 3, + 6 and + 6 (d) + 5, + 6 and + 6 16. Identify the correct statement (a) gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of Paris (b) plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum (c) plaster of paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum (d) gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than plaster of Paris 17. In graphite, electrons are (a) Localised on every third C-atom (b) Present in anti-bonding orbital (c) Localised on each C-atom (d) Spread out between the structure 18. When the hybridization state of carbon atom changes from sp3 to sp2 and finally to sp, the angle between the hybridized orbitals (a) decreases gradually (b) decreases considerably (c) is not affected (d) increases progressively. 19. The structural formula of a compound is CH3 – CH= C= CH2. The types of hybridization at the four carbons from left to right are (a) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3 (b) sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2 (c) sp3, sp2, sp ,sp2 (d) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp2

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20. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is (a) sp > sp2 > sp3 (b) sp < sp2 > sp3 (c) sp < sp2 < sp3 (d) sp > sp2 < sp3 21. Given and IIIBr CH3 HCH3 HBr HBr Br CH3 CH3 HIand IIare (a) Apair of optical isomers (b) Identical (c) Apair of conformers (d) Apair of geometrical isomers 22. Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis? (a) 3-methyl-1-butene (b) cyclopentane (c) 2-methyl-1-butene (d) 2-methyl-2-butene. 23. The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in a cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver atoms have coordination number of eight. To what crystal class does the unit cell belong? (a) Simple cubic (b) Face-centred cubic (c) Body-centred cubic (d) None 24. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of (a) solute molecules to the solvent molecules (b) solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution (c) solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution (d) solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute.

25. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol– 1,the lowering in freezing point of the solution is (a) 0.56 K (b) 1.12 K (c) – 0.56 K (d) – 1.12 K 26.

(a) –0.38 V (b) +0.49 V (c) +0.38 V (d) –0.19 V 27.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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28. (a) Aand B both (b) neither A nor B (c) A only (d) B only 29. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases because- (a) Adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction (b) The concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes high due to strong adsorption (c) In the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules becomes large (d) Adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction 30. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractional distillation because (a) oxygen is in a different group of the periodic table from nitrogen (b) oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen (c) oxygen has higher b.p. than nitrogen (d) oxygen has a lower density than nitrogen. 31. About 20 km above the earth, there is an ozone layer. Which one of the following statements about ozone and ozone layer is true? (a) ozone has a triatomic linear molecule (b) it is harmful as it stops useful radiation (c) it is beneficial to us as it stops U.Vradiation (d) conversion of O3 to O2 is an endothermic reaction

32. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? (a) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate. (b) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid. (c) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus. (d) All oxoacids contain atleast one P= Oand one P— OHgroup. 33. CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give (a) Cr2O72– (b) CrO42– (c) Cr(OH)3 (d) Cr(OH)2 34.

(a) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42– (b) TiF62- and Cu2Cl2 (c) CoF63–, and NiCl42- (d) TiF62- and CoF63-

35. In which of the following compounds does iron exhibit zero oxidation state? (a) [Fe(H2O)6] (NO3)3 (b) K3 [Fe(CN)6] (c) K4 [Fe(CN)6] (d) [Fe(CO)5] 36. Which of the following does not show optical isomerism? (a) [Co(NH3) 3Cl3] 0 (b) [Co (en) Cl2 (NH3) 2] + (c) [Co (en)3] 3+ (d) [Co (en)2Cl2] + (en = ethylenediamine)

37. (a) l-form (b) d-form (c) Meso form (d) Racemic mixture 38. Propan - 1- ol may be prepared by the reaction of propene with

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 39. Sodium formate on heating yields (a) Oxalic acid and H2 (b) Sodium oxalate and H2 (c) CO2 and NaOH (d) Sodium oxalate. 40.

(a) RCH2OH (b) RCOOH (c) RCHO (d) RCH3 41. CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by: (a) Benedict test (b) Iodoform test (c) Tollen’s reagent test (d) Fehling solution test 42. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine? (a) Methyl isocyanide (b) Acetamide (c) Methyl cyanide (d) Nitroethane. 43. Which of the following is a steroid hormone? (a) Cholesterol (b) Adrenaline [1999] (c) Thyroxine (d) Progesterone 44. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation? (a) (+) – Sucrose (b) (+) – Lactose (c) (+) – Maltose (d) (–) – Fructose

45. Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Physics 1. Which of the following will have the dimensions of time (a) LC (b) LR (c) RL (d) LC 2. A body starts from rest, what is the ratio of the distance travelled by the body during the 4th and 3rd seconds? (a) 7/5 (b) 5/7 (c) 7/3 (d) 3/7 3. Aball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18s. What is the value of v? (take g = 10 m/s2) (a) 75 m/s (b) 55 m/s (c) 40 m/s (d) 60 m/s 4.

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(a) 5.8 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s (c) 10 m/s (d) 17.3 m/s 5. For angles of projection of a projectile (45° – θ) and (45° + θ), the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of (a) 1: 3 (b) 1: 2 (c) 2: 1 (d) 1: 1 6. Asatellite in a force free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate (dM/dt) = αv. The acceleration of satellite is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 7. A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If μs represents the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 8. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both of them have the same momentum but their different kinetic energies are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1> m2 then (a) E1 = E2 (b) E1< E2 (c) E1/E2 = m1/m2 (d) E1> E2 9. A ring of mass m and radius r rotates about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with angular velocity ω. Its kinetic energy is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 10.

(a) I3> I2 (b) I2> I1 (c) I3> I1 (d) I1> I2 11.

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. The escape velocity from earth is 11.2 km/s. If a body is to be projected in a direction making an angle 45° to the vertical, then the escape velocity is (a) 11.2 × 2 km/s (b) 11.2 km/s (c) 11.2/ √2 km/s (d) 11.2/ √2 km/s 13. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of spherical shell of mass M and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be (a) 2GM / a (b) 3GM / a (c) 4GM / a (d) GM / a 14. A beaker full of hot water is kept in a room. If it cools from 80°Cto 75°C in t1 minutes, from 75° C to 70°C in t 2 minutes and from 70°C to 65°C in t 3 minutes, then (a) t1 = t2 = t3 (b) t1 < t2 = t3 (c) t1 < t2 < t3 (d) t1 > t2 > t3 15. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using (a) Wien’s displacement law (b) Kirchoff’s law (c) Newton’s law of cooling (d) Stefan’s law 16. Which of the following processes is reversible? (a) Transfer of heat by conduction (b) Transfer of heat by radiation (c) Isothermal compression (d) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire 17. The number of translational degrees of freedom for a diatomic gas is (a) 2

(b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 18. Two simple harmonic motions with the same frequency act on a particle at right angles i.e., along x and y axis. If the two amplitudes are equal and the phase difference is π/2, the resultant motion will be (a) a circle (b) an ellipse with the major axis along y-axis (c) an ellipse with the major axis along x-axis (d) a straight line inclined at 45° to the x-axis 19. Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion? (a) Acceleration = – k(x + a) (b) Acceleration = k(x + a) (c) Acceleration = kx (d) Acceleration = – k0 x + k1 x2

20. Two waves are said to be coherent, if they have (a) same phase but different amplitude (b) same frequency but different amplitude (c) same frequency, phase & amplitude (d) different frequency, phase and amplitude 21. The phase difference between two waves, represented by y1 = 10–6 sin{100 t + (x/50) +0.5} m y2 = 10–6 cos{100 t + (x/50)} m where x is expressed in metres and t is expressed in seconds, is approximately (a) 1.5 radians (b) 1.07 radians (c) 2.07 radians (d) 0.5 radians 22. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the work done on moving a charge of 0.2 C through a distance of 2 m along a line making an angle 60° with x-axis is 4J, then what is the value of E? (a) 3 N/C (b) 4 N/C

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(c) 5 N/C (d) 20 N/C 23. An electric dipole of moment ́ p´ is placed in an electric field of intensity ́ E´. The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be: (a) p E sin θ, – p E cos θ (b) p E sin θ, –0 p E cos θ (c) p E sin θ, 0 p E cos θ (d) p E cos θ, – p E cos θ 24. The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The electric field at that point is (a) 4 πε0 Q × 1022 volt/m (b) 90 πε0 Q × 1020 volt/m (c) 4 πε0 Q × 1020 volt/m (d) 90 πε0 Q × 1022 volt/m 25.

(a) 3.6 volt (b) 6.3 volt (c) 1.8 volt (d) 2.4 volt 26. The potential difference between the terminals of a cell in an open circuit is 0.0 V. When a resistor of 5 Ω is connected across the terminals of the cell, the potential difference between the terminals of the cell is found to be 1.8 V. The internal resistance of the cell is (a) 7/90 Ω (b) 92/9 Ω (c) 9/92 Ω (d) 90/7 Ω 27. A galvanometer of resistance 52 Ω is connected to battery of 3V along with a resistance of 0952 Ω in

series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be (a) 5252 Ω (b) 5552 Ω (c) 6252 Ω (d) 4452 Ω 28. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in a magnetic field depends on (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux (b) initial magnetic flux only (c) the total change in magnetic flux (d) final magnetic flux only 29. (a) (b) (c) (d) 30. In an inductor of self-inductance L= 2 mH, current changes with time according to relation i = t 2e –t. At what time emf is zero? (a) 4s (b) 3s (c) 2s (d) 1s 31. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is (a) 20 seconds (b) 5 seconds (c) 1/5 seconds (d) 40 seconds 32.

(a)

(b)

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(c)

(d) 33. Angle of deviation (G) by a prism (refractive index = P and supposing the angle of prism A to be small) can be given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 34. A microscope is focused on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again? (a) 4.5 cm downward (b) 1 cm downward (c) 2 cm upward (d) 1 cm upward 35. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by a monochromatic blue light of the same intensity (a) fringe width will decrease [1992] (b) finge width will increase (c) fringe width will remain unchanged (d) fringes will become less intense 36. Gases begin to conduct electricity at low pressure because (a) at low pressures gases turn of plasma (b) colliding electrons can acquire higher kinetic energy due to increased mean free path leading to ionisation of atoms (c) atoms break up into electrons and protons (d) the electrons in atoms can move freely at low pressures

37. The number of photo electrons emitted for light of a frequency ν (higher than the threshold frequency ν 0) is proportional to: (a) Threshold frequency (ν 0) (b) Intensity of light (c) Frequency of light (ν) (d) ν – ν 0 38. The radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is 5.3 × 10–11 m. After collision with an electron it is found to have a radius of 21.2 × 10–11 m. What is the principal quantum number n of the final state of the atom (a) n = 4 (b) n = 2 (c) n = 16 (d) n = 3 39. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 40. Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor. The function of the moderator is (a) to control energy released in the reactor (b) to absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction (c) to cool the reactor (d) to slow down the neutrons to thermal energies. 41. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10gm at an instant t=0. The approximate mass of this element in the sample after two mean lives is (a) 6.30 gm (b) 1.35 gm (c) 2.50 gm (d) 3.70 gm 42.

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 43.

(a) NAND (b) OR (c) AND (d) XOR 44. If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be (a) 100 Hz (b) 25 Hz (c) 50 Hz (d) 70.7 Hz 45. The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an (a) isomer of parent (b) isotone of parent (c) isotope of parent (d) isobar of parent 1. d 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. d 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. b 51. d 52. d 53. a 54. c 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. d 59. d 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. c 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. a 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. a 90. b 1. d 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. b 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. a 10.

b 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. c