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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Linnaeus is credited with (a) binomial nomenclature (b) theory of biogenesis (c) discovery of microscope (d) discovery of blood circulation 2. Select the correct statement from the following? (a) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature (b) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae (c) Mutations are random and directional (d) Darwinian variations are small and direction less. 3. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is (a) neither syngamy nor reduction division (b) distinct chromosomes are absent (c) no conjugation (d) no exchange of genetic material 4. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) root knot disease - Meloidogyne javanica (b) smut of bajra - Tolysporium penicillariae (c) covered smut of barley - Ustilago nuda (d) late blight of potato - Phytophthora infestans 5. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by (a) Saccharomyces (b) Lactobacillus (c) Azotobacter (d) Penicillium 6. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus (a) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga (b) provides food for the alga

(c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga (d) releases oxygen for the alga 7. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct? (a) Penicillium - Conidia (b) Water hyacinth - Runner (c) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds (d) Agave - Bulbils 8. Which one of the following is not common between Funaria and Selaginella? (a) Archegonium (b) Embryo (c) Flagellate sperms (d) Roots 9. Which one of the following statements about Cycas is incorrect? (a) It does not have a well-organized female flower (b) It has circinate vernation (c) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessels (d) Its roots contain some blue-green algae. 10. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose? (a) nature of stored food materials in the cell (b) structural organization of thallus (c) chemical composition of the cell wall (d) types of pigments present in the cell. 11. A wood boring mollusc/Shipworm is (a) Chiton (b) Teredo (c) Limax (d) Patella 12. Skin is a respiratory organ in (a) lizards (b) birds (c) primitive mammals (d) frog 13. Give the correct matching of causative agent/ germ and disease (a) Anopheles – malaria (b) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness (c) Glossina – Kala-azar (d) Wuchereria – Filariasis 14. Indicate the correct statement

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(a) Camel has biconcave red blood cells (b) Bat bears feathers (c) Rat bears cloaca (d) Platypus lays eggs 15. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature? Animals Morphological - feature (a) Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral anemone, Sea symmetry cucumber (b) Centipede, Prawn- Jointed appendages Sea urchin (c) Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central Cockroach nervous system (d) Cockroach, - Metameric Locust, Taenia segmentation 16. In Groundnut the food/oil reserve is present in (a) epicarp (b) mesocarp (c) endosperm (d) cotyledons 17. The type of placentation in which ovary is syncarpous, unilocular and ovules on sutures is called (a) apical placentation (b) parietal placentation (c) marginal placentation (d) superficial placentation 18. Placentation in tomato and lemon is (a) Parietal (b) Free central (c) Marginal (d) Axile 19. For union between stock and scion in grafting which one is the first to occur? (a) Formation of callus (b) Production of plasmodesmata (c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues (d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis

20. The apical meristem of the root is present (a) in all the roots (b) only in radicals (c) only in tap roots (d) only in adventitious roots 21. Closed vascular bundles lack (a) Ground tissue (b) conjunctive tissue (c) Cambium (d) Pith 22. A piece of bone such as femur of frog if kept in dilute HCl for about a week will (a) assume black colour (b) shrink in size (c) turn flexible (d) crack into pieces 23. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana. (a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives. (b) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles. (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut. (d) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts. 24. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are associated with (a) protoplasm as the physical basis of life (b) cell theory (c) theory of cell lineage (d) nucleus functions as control centre of cell 25. In which one of the following is nitrogen not a constituent? (a) Pepsin (b) Idioblast (c) Bacteriochlorophyll (d) Invertase 26. In mitochondria, proteins accumulate in the (a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane (c) intermembrane space (d) matrix 27. An enzyme brings about (a) decrease in reaction time

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(b) increase in reaction time (c) increase in activation energy (d) reduction in activation energy 28. Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fatty acid? (a) Oleic acid (b) Linolenic acid (c) Linoleic acid (d) Erucic acid 29. Number of chromatids at metaphase is (a) two each in mitosis and meiosis (b) two in mitosis and one in meiosis (c) two in mitosis and four in meiosis (d) one in mitosis and two in meiosis 30. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called (a) Kinetochore (b) Bivalent (c) Axoneme (d) Equatorial plate 31. Suppose an aquatic plant is placed in a test tube containing distilled water and the tube is stoppered. The tube is left outdoors for 24 hours and the pH value of the water is then measured at regular intervals. Which of the following is the most probable result? (a) The pH value is lowest just before sunrise (b) The pH value is highest just before sunrise (c) The pH value is lowest at noon (d) The pH value is lowest just before sunset. 32. Which of the following is a free living aerobic nonphotosynthetic nitrogen-fixer? (a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter (c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc 33. Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is: (a) Photolysis of water (b) Calvin cycle (c) Nitrogen fixation (d) Water absorption 34. Which one is a C4-plant? (a) Papaya (b) Pea (c) Potato

(d) Maize/Corn 35. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is (a) fructose phosphatase (b) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase (c) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase (d) ribulose phosphate kinase 36. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as (a) TCA-pathway (b) glycolysis (c) HMS-pathway (d) Krebs cycle 37. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of (a) succinyl CoA to Succinic acid (b) alfa keto glutarate to Succinyl CoA (c) succinic acid to Fumaric acid (d) fumaric acid to Malic acid 38. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of (a) abscisic acid (b) auxins (c) florigen (d) cytokinins 39. A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is (a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins (c) ethylene (d) abscisic acid. 40. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants? (a) Apical dominance (b) Flowering (c) Closure of stomata (d) Fruit elongation 41. For persons suffering from high blood cholesterol, the physicians recommend (a) pure ‘deshi ghee’ or butter (b) vegetable oil such as groundnut oil (c) red meat with layers of fats (d) vanaspati margarine

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42. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffers from (a) Scurvy (b) Kwashiorkor (c) Rickets (d) Anemia 43. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude (a) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to survive (b) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production (c) people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed (d) people get pollution - free air to breathe and more oxygen is available 44. Wall of blood capillary is formed of (a) haemocytes (b) parietal cells (c) endothelial cells (d) oxyntic cells 45. Which of the following statments is true for lymph? (a) WBC and serum (b) all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins (c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma (d) RBCs proteins and platelets 46. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as (a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs (b) free CO2 in blood plasma (c) 70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate (d) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs 47. Bowman’s glands are located in the (a) anterior pituitary (b) female re productive system of cockroach (c) olfactory epithelium of our nose (d) proximal end of uriniferous tubules. 48. Tendon is made up of (a) adipose tissue

(b) modified white fibrous tissue (c) areolar tissue (d) yellow fibrous connective tissue 49. Function of iris is to (a) move lens forward and backward (b) refract light rays (c) bring about movements of eye lids (d) alter the size of pupil. 50. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea: A A B C D Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of three different parts? (a) B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells (b) C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: Serum (c) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph, B: Tectorial membrane (d) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph 51. Which of the following radioactive isotope is used in the detection of thyroid cancer? (a) Iodine-131 (b) Carbon-14 (c) Uranium-238 (d) Phosphorus-32 52. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is (a) corticosterone (b) 11- deoxycorticosterone (c) cortisone (d) cortisol 53. Blastopore is (a) opening of neural tube (b) opening of gastrocoel (c) future anterior end of embryo (d) found in blastula 54. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are crossed. The ploidy of endosperm shall be (a) tetraploid (b) triploid (c) diploid (d) pentaploid 55. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be

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(a) haploid (b) triploid (c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid 56. What is the function of germ pore? (a) Emergence of radicle (b) Absorption of water for seed germination (c) Initiation of pollen tube (d) Release of male gametes 57. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus? (a) Chorion (b) Allantois (c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion 58. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation? (a) S p e r m a t o g o n i a, s p e r m a t o c y t e, spermatozoa, spermatid (b) S p e r m a t o g o n i a; s p e r m a t oz o a, spermatocyte, spermatid (c) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa (d) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa 59. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA forms (a) endosome (b) nucleosome (c) mesosome (d) centromere 60. Nucleosome core is made of (a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 (b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4 (c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 61. Genetic identity of a human male is determined by (a) autosomes (b) nucleolus (c) sex chromosomes (d) cell organelles 62. Probability of four sons to a couple is (a) 1/4 (b) 1/8 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/32

63. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 2.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium? (a) 0.36 (b) 0.16 (c) 0.24 (d) 0.48 64. Infectious proteins are present in: (a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions (c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses 65. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by (a) X-ray crystallography (b) electron microscope (c) ultracentrifuge (d) light microscope 66. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA, some of its nucleotides are removed before it is translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides which are removed from mRNA are called (a) exons (b) upstream sequences (c) unusual bases (d) introns 67. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the (a) third member of a codon (b) first member of a codon (c) second member of a codon (d) entire codon 68. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a ‘triplet’ . (a) Hershey and Chase (b) Morgan and Sturtevant (c) Beadle and Tantum (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei 69. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that (a) Darwin was correct (b) Tail is an essential organ (c) Mutation theory is wrong

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(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters. 70. During organ differentiation in Drosophila an organ is often modified to another organ such as wings could be replaced by legs. Genes responsible for such metamorphosis are called (a) Homeotic genes (b) Plastid genes (c) Double dominant genes (d) Complimentary genes 71. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involving radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes (a) study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils (b) study of the conditions of fossilization (c) electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA (d) study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks 72. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it? (a) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita - Analogous organs (b) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs (c) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of Cockroach - Excretory organs (d) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow - Homologous organs 73. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with (a) aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism (b) increase in ambient temperature (c) age of the individual (d) food habits 74. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to (a) rapid cell division (b) lack of nutrition (c) fast mutation (d) lack of oxygen 75. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense? (a) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

(b) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother (c) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair (d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest. 76. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian fish? (a) Catla catla (b) Heteropneustes fossilis (c) Cyprinus carpio (d) Lebeo rohita 77. Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are (a) Wheat, rice and maize (b) Wheat, rice and barley (c) Wheat, maize and sorghum (d) Rice, maize and sorghum 78. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only. Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc. Body weight-wise the micro-organism Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day. Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C. A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium. Options: (a) Statements , (b) Statements , and (c) Statements , and (d) Statements , 79. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/ diseases using microbes? (a) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens (b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica (c) Bt - cotton to increase cotton yield (d) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard 80. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant bateria because of: (a) Insertional inactivate of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria (b) Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria (c) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

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(d) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase 81. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy? (a) Ti plasmid (b) Adenovirus (c) Cosmid (d) Ri plasmid 82. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing to it is called (a) mortality (b) fecundity (c) biotic control (d) environmental resistance. 83. Benthic organisms are affected most by (a) Water-holding capacity of soil (b) Light reaching the forest floor (c) Surface turbulence of water (d) Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems 84. The rate at which light energy is converted to the chemical energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem’s (a) net primary productivity (b) gross primary productivity (c) net secondary productivity (d) gross secondary productivity 85. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem? (a) Sulphur cycle (b) Phosphorus cycle (c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Carbon cycle 86. Which of the following is the main factor of desertification? (a) Tourism (b) Irrigated agriculture (c) Over- grazing (d) All of these 87. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park? (a) Sunderbans (b) Gir (c) Jim Corbett

(d) Ranthambhor 88. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of (a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (c) chlorine (d) sulphur dioxide 89. Which of the following is not used for disinfection of drinking water? (a) Chlorine (b) Ozone (c) Chloramine (d) Phenyl 90. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy? (a) Methyl lsocyanate gas leakage took place (b) Thousands of human beings died (c) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal (d) It took place in the night of December 2/3 1984.

Chemistry 1. The percentage weight of Zn in white vitriol [ZnSO4

.7 H2O] is approximately equal to (Zn = 65, S=30,O=16 and H= 9 )

(a) 33.65% (b) 32.56% (c) 23.65% (d) 22.65% 2. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals are (a) one (b) three (c) none (d) two 3. In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is –3.4 eV. Find out KEof the same orbit of Hydrogen atom (a) + 3.4 eV (b) + 6.8 eV (c) – 13.6 eV

(d) + 13.6 eV 4. The electronic configuration of four elements are given below. Which elements does not belong to the same family as others?

(a)

(b)

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(c) (d) 5. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the elements O, S, Fand Cl? (a) CI< F< O< S (b) O< S< F< CI (c) F< S< O< CI (d) S< O< CI< F 6. Linus Pauling received the Nobel Prize for his work on (a) atomic structure (b) photosynthesis (c) chemical bonds (d) thermodynamics 7. In NO3– ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom respectively are (a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 1 (c) 1, 3 (d) 4, 0 8. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization)?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 9. Under what conditions will a pure sample of an ideal gas not only exhibit a pressure of 9 atm but also a concentration of 9 mole litre–9? (R= 2.280 litre atm mol–9 deg– 9 )

(a) At STP (b) When V= 22.4 litres (c) When T= 12 K (d) Impossible under any conditions 10. If ΔH is the change in enthalpy and ΔE the change in internal energy accompanying a gaseous reaction, then (a) ΔHis always greater than ΔE

(b) ΔH< ΔE only if the number of moles of the products is greater than the number of moles of the reactants (c) ΔH is always less than ΔE (d) ΔH< ΔE only if the number of moles of products is less than the number of moles of the reactants. 11. What is the entropy change (in JK–1 mol–1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 0º C? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is 6.0 kJmol–1 at 0ºC) (a) 21.98 (b) 20.13 (c) 2.013 (d) 2.198 12.

(a) + 37.56 (b) – 43.76 (c) + 43.76 (d) + 40.66 13. Which of the following statements about pHand H+ ion concentration is incorrect? (a) Addition of one drop of concentrated HCl in NH4OHsolution decreases pHof the solution. (b) Asolution of the mixture of one equivalent of each of CH3COOHand NaOHhas a pHof 7 (c) pHof pure neutral water is not zero (d) Acold and concentrated H2 SO4 has lower H+ ion concentration than a dilute solution of H2 SO4 14. Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid? (a) (CH3)2 O (b) (CH3)3 P (c) (CH3)3 N (d) (CH3)3 B 15. Acompound contains atoms of three elements A, Band C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5, and that of C is –2, the possible formula of the compound is: (a) A2 (BC3) 2 (b) A3 (BC4) 2 (c) A3 (B4C)2 (d) ABC2

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16. Which of the following metal ions plays an important role in muscle contraction? (a) K+ (b) Na+ (c) Mg2+ (d) Ca2+ 17. Water gas is produced by (a) Passing steam through a red hot coke bed (b) Saturating hydrogen with moisture (c) Mixing oxygen and hydrogen in the ratio of 1: 2 (d) Heating a mixture of CO2 and CH4 in petroleum refineries. 18. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried out easily by using a solution of (a) Sodium hydroxide [1992] (b) Sodium sulphate (c) calcium chloride (d) Sodium bicarbonate 19. Which one of the following compounds is resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions? (a) Methyl acetate (b) Acetonitrile [1998] (c) Diethyl ether (d) Acetamide

20. The best method for the separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture is: (a) distillation (b) sublimation (c) chromatography (d) crystallisation 21. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft’s reaction easily: (a) Xylene (b) Nitrobenzene (c) Toluene (d) Cumene

22. Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions? (R= Alkyl Substituent)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 23. When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion vacancy, the defect is known as: (a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect (c) Stoichiometric defect (d) F-centres 24. The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is: (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 4 25. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is (a) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates (b) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates (c) from solution having lower concentration only (d) from solution having higher concentration only 26. Without losing its concentration ZnCl2 solution cannot be kept in contact with (a) Au (b) Al (c) Pb (d) Ag 27. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/ Sn2+ couple is + 0.15 Vand that for the Cr3+/ Cr couple is – 0.74 V.

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These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be: (a) + 1.19 V (b) + 0.89 V (c) + 0.18 V (d) + 1.83 V 28. The rate of reaction between two reactants Aand Bdecreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration of reactant Bis doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant Bis: (a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 1 29. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by (a) Centrifugation (b) Plasmolysis (c) Reverse osmosis (d) Sedimentation 30. When orthophosphoric acid is heated to 600°C, the product formed is (a) PH3 (b) P2O5 (c) H3 PO3 (d) HPO3 31. Polyanion formation is maximum in (a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Sulphur (d) Boron 32. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3? [2011 M]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 33. Cuprous compounds such as CuCl, CuCNand CuSCNare the only salts stable in water due to (a) high hydration energy of Cu+ ions (b) their inherent tendency not do disproportionate (c) diamagnetic nature (d) insolubility in water 34. Identify the incorrect statement among the following: (a) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages. (b) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements. (c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak. (d) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu. 35. The total number of possible isomers for the complex compound [CuII(NH3) 4] [PtIICl4] (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4 36. The d electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Ni2+ are 3d4, 3d5, 3d6 and 3d8 respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (a) [Fe(H2O)6] 2+ (b) [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ (c) [Cr(H2O)6] 2+ (d) [Mn(H2O)6] 2+ 37. The replacement of chlorine of chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions, but the chlorine of 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced since, (a) nitro groups make the aromatic ring electron rich at ortho/para positions (b) nitro groups withdraw electrons from the meta position of the aromatic ring (c) nitro groups donate electrons at meta position (d) nitro groups withdraw electrons from ortho/ para positions of the aromatic ring

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38. 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by the reaction of benzaldehyde with (a) ethyl iodide and magnesium (b) methyl iodide and magnesium (c) methyl bromide and aluminium bromide (d) methyl bromide 39. Acetaldehyde reacts with (a) Electrophiles only (b) Nucleophiles only (c) Free radicals only (d) Both electrophiles and nucleophiles. 40. The catalyst used in Rosenmund's reduction is (a) HgSO4 (b) Pd/BaSO4 (c) anhydrous AlCl3 (d) anhydrous ZnCl2 41.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

42.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 43. Glucose molecule reacts with 'X' number of molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of 'X' is (a) four (b) one (c) two (d) three 44. In DNA, the complimentary bases are: (a) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine (b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil (c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine (d) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine 45. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer? (a) Terylene (b) Bakelite (c) Melamine (d) Nylone-66

Physics 1. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error in kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be

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(a) 12% (b) 10% (c) 8% (d) 2% 2. A car moves a distance of 200 m. It covers the first half of the distance at speed 40 km/h and the second half of distance at speed v. The average speed is 48 km/h. Find the value of v (a) 56 km/h (b) 60 km/h [1991] (c) 50 km/h (d) 48 km/h 3. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms–1 to 20 ms–1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is: (a) 10 (b) 1.8 (c) 12 (d) 9 4. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 20 cm. It has an angular velocity of 10 rad/s. What is its linear velocity at any point on circular path (a) √0 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 10 m/s (d) 20 m/s 5. Astone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone? (a) π2 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre (b) π2 m s–2 and direction along the radius away from the centre (c) π2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent to the circle (d) π2 /4 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre 6. Amonkey is decending from the branch of a tree with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength is 75% of the weight of the monkey, the minimum acceleration with which monkey can slide down without breaking the branch is (a) g (b) 3g/4

(c) g/4 (d) g/2 7. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is µ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it taking g = 10 ms–2, is (a) 1.2 m (b) 0.6 m (c) zero (d) 0.4 m 8. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored in it will be (a) 25 U (b) U/5 (c) 5 U (d) 10 U 9. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally, in 5 s. Each bullet has a mass of 10 g with a muzzle velocity of 800 ms–1. The final velocity acquired by the person and the average force exerted on the person are (a) –1.6 ms–1; 8 N (b) –0.08 ms–1; 16 N (c) – 0.8 ms–1; 8 N (d) –1.6 ms–1; 16 N 10. A weightless ladder 20 ft long rests against a frictionless wall at an angle of 60° from the horizontal. A 150 pound man is 4 ft from the top of the ladder. A horizontal force is needed to keep it from slipping. Choose the correct magnitude of the force from the following (a) 175 lb (b) 100 lb (c) 120 lb (d) 69.2 lb 11. The ratio of the radii or gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass and radius, around their respective axes is: (a) √3: √2 (b) 1: √2 (c) √2 :1 (d) √2: √3

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12. A seconds pendulum is mounted in a rocket. Its period of oscillation decreases when the rocket (a) comes down with uniform acceleration (b) moves round the earth in a geostationary orbit (c) moves up with a uniform velocity (d) moves up with uniform acceleration 13. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 14. Mercury thermometer can be used to measure temperature upto (a) 260°C (b) 100°C (c) 357°C (d) 500°C 15. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate of energy production is Q? (a) Q/4πR2ς (b) (Q/4πR2ς)–1/2 (c) (4πR2Q/ς)1/4 (d) (Q/4πR2ς)1/4 16. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 50% has an exhaust temperature of 500 K. If the efficiency is to be 60% with the same intake temperature, the exhaust temperature must be (in K) (a) 800 (b) 200 (c) 400 (d) 600 17. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas requires 207 J heat to raise the temperature by 10 K when heated at constant pressure. If the same gas is heated at constant volume to raise the temperature by the same 10 K, the heat required is [Given the gas constant R= 8.3 J/ mol. K]

(a) 198.7 J (b) 29 J (c) 215.3 J (d) 124 J 18. A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant 2 × 106 N/m and amplitude 0.01 m has a total mechanical energy of 160 J. Its (a) maximum potential energy is 160 J (b) maximum potential energy is 100 J (c) minimum potential energy is zero (d) minimum potential energy is 100 J 19. Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s–1 have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is: (a) 1: 10 (b) 1: 102 (c) 1: 103 (d) 1: 104

20. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is sent along a string towards a fixed end. When this wave travels back after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end of the string. The speeds of incident (and reflected) waves are (a) 5 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 20 m/s (d) 40 m/s 21. A whistle of frequency 385 Hz rotates in a horizontal circle of radius 50 cm at an angular speed of 20 radians s –1. The lowest frequency heard by a listener a long distance away at rest with respect to the centre of the circle, given velocity of sound equal to 340 ms–1, is (a) 396 Hz (b) 363 Hz (c) 374 Hz (d) 385 Hz

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22. Point charges + 4q, –q and +4q are kept on the X-axis at points x =0, x =a and x = 2a respectively. (a) only – q is in stable equilibrium (b) none of the charges is in equilibrium (c) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium (d) all the charges are in stable equilibrium. 23. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will (a) increase four times (b) be reduced to half (c) remain the same (d) be doubled 24. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates (a) does not change (b) becomes zero (c) increases (d) decreases 25. Three resistances each of 4: are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any two terminals is (a) 90Ω (b) 0Ω (c) 6Ω (d) 8/3Ω 26. A wire has a resistance of 3.9 Ω at 32°C and a resistance 4.5 Ω at 922°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire (a) 0.0064 °C–1 (b) 0.0034 °C–1 (c) 0.0025 °C–1 (d) 0.0012 °C–1 27.

(a) 4 watt (b) 2 watt (c) 1 watt (d) 5 watt 28. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its plane becomes (a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field (b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the magnetic field (c) parallel to the magnetic field (d) perpendicular to the magnetic field 29. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves (a) perpendicular to the field [2003] (b) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field (c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field (d) in none of the above directions 30. A conductor of length 0.4 m is moving with a speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity0.9 Wb/m2. The induced e.m.f. across the conductor is (a) 1.26 V (b) 2.52 V (c) 5.04 V (d) 25.2 V 31. An inductance L having a resistance R is connected to an alternating source of angular frequency ω. The quality factor Q of the inductance is

(a)

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(b)

(c)

(d) 32. A signal emitted by an antenna from a certain point can be received at another point of the surface in the form of (a) sky wave (b) ground wave (c) sea wave (d) both a and b 33. There is a prism with refractive index equal to root 2 and the refracting angle equal to 30°. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is polished. Abeam of monochromatic light will retrace its path if its angle of incidence over the refracting surface of the prism is (a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° 34. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. The minimum distance between these two objects, which can be resolved by the telescope, when the mean wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of (a) 5 cm (b) 0.5 m [2004] (c) 5 m (d) 5 mm 35. In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are placed0.90 mm apart and fringe are observed one meter away. If it produces second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from central fringe, the wavelength of monochromatic light used would be (a) 60 × 10–4 cm (b) 10 × 10–4 cm (c) 10 × 10–5 cm (d) 6 × 10–5 cm 36. Momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is (a) h/ λ

(b) zero (c) hλ /c2 (d) hλ/c 37. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the: (a) Ultraviolet region (b) Visible region (c) Infrared region (d) X-ray region 38. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory, the energy corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbit is (a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV (c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV 39. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10 V, the value of n is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2 40. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in case of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 41. For a nuclear fusion process, the suitable nuclei are (a) any nuclei (b) heavy nuclei (c) light nuclei (d) nuclei lying in the middle of the periodic table 42. The half-life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 50 years. It decays to another element 'Y' which is stable. The two elements 'X' and 'Y' were found to be in the ratio

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of 1: 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be (a) 150 years (b) 200 years (c) 250 years (d) 100 years 43. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifer with (a) positive feedback (b) negative feedback (c) large gain (d) no feedback 44.

(a) 2V when diode is forward biased (b) Zero when diode is forward biased (c) V when diode is reverse biased (d) V when diode is forward biased 45.

(a) (iv), (i), (iii) (b) (iv), (ii), (i) (c) (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (iii), (iv), (ii)

1. a 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. a 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. d 79. a 80. c 81. b 82. d 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. d 90. c 1. d 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. a 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. b