neet - (weekend batch) - rj vision · 2017-05-18 · a source is in motion towards a stationary...

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NEET - (WEEKEND BATCH)

(UNIT TEST – 4 (ENG))

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :____________________ Roll Number : ___________________

TIME : 3 HR MM : 720 This Booklet contains 19 pages

TEST ID : 904

Physics (syllabus)

Full course

Chemistry (syllabus)

Full course Biology (syllabus)

Full course

[UNIT - 4] RJ VISION PVT. LTD. (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

H.O. : Baroda [211/A Taksh Complex, Vasna Rd], Centres : Karelibaug [201, NBCC Plaza] Kota (R & D) www. rjvision.org 1

PHYSICS

1. What will be the force constant of the spring

system shown in the figure?

(a) 21 k

2

k

(b)

1

21 k

1

2k

1

(c) 21 k

1

2k

1

(d)

1

21 k

1

k

2

2. The bob of pendulum of length ι is pulled aside

from its equilibrium position through an angle θ

and then released. The bob will then pass

through its equilibrium position with a speed υ,

where υ equals:

(a) θsin gl 2 (b) θ)sin (1 gl 2

(c) θ) cos(1 gl 2 (d) θ) cos(1 gl 2

3. A particle starts SHM from the mean position

as shown in the figure. Its amplitude is A and

its time period is T. At one time its speed is

half that of the maximum speed. What is this

displacement?

(a) 3

A2 (b)

2

A3

(c) 3

2A (d)

2

3A

4. The equation of a sound wave is y = 0.0015

sin (62.4x + 316t). Find the wavelength of this

wave:

(a) 0.2 unit

(b) 0.1 unit

(c) 0.3 unit

(d) Cannot be calculated

5. A wave is represented by the equation:

3

π0.01x t7π7siny

Where, x is in meters and t in seconds. The

speed of the waves is:

(a) (175π) m/s

(b) (49π) m/s

(c) (49/π) m/s

(d) (0.28π) m/s

6. With a closed and organ pipe of length L, the

fundamental tone has a frequency:

(a) (υ/2L) and all harmonics are present

(b) (υ/4L) and all harmonics are present

(c) (υ/4L) and only odd harmonics are present

(d) (υ/4L) and only even harmonics are present

7. If n1, n2, n3,.... are the frequencies of segments

of a stretched string, the frequency n of the

string is give by:

(a) ....nnnn 321

(b) ....nnnn 321

(c) ....n

1

n

1

n

1

n

1

321

(d) None of these




8. A source is in motion towards a stationary

observer. Frequency of sound heard by the

observer will be twice the true frequency when

the velocity of source will be:

(Velocity of sound = υ)

(a) υ (b) υ/2

(c) 2 υ (d) 3 υ/2

9. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves

towards a high wall at a speed of 20 m/s. If the

speed of sound is 340 m/s, the frequency of

the reflected sound heard by the passenger

sitting in the car will be the nearest to:

(a) 480 Hz (b) 510 Hz

(c) 540 Hz (d) 570 Hz

10. Two trains, one coming towards and another

going away from an observer both at 4 m/s

produce a whistle simultaneously of frequency

300 Hz. Find the number of beats produced:

(a) 5 (b) 6

(c) 7 (d) 12

11. The difference between the apparent

frequencies of a source of sound as perceived

by a stationary observer during its approach

and recession is 2% of a actual frequency of

the source. If the speed of sound is 300 m/s,

the speed of the source is:

(a) 12 m/s (b) 6 m/s

(c) 1.5 m/s (d) 3 m/s

12. The dimensions of light year are:

(a) [T] (b) [T-1]

(c) [L] (d) [L-1]

13. m3 kg-1 s-2 is the unit of:

(a) Force

(b) Power

(c) Work

(d) Gravitation constant

14. A body dropped from the top of a tower covers

16

7of the total height in the last second of its

fall. The time of fall is:

(a) 2 s (b) 4 s

(c) 1 s (d) s 7

50

15. An artificial satellite is going around the earth

assumed to be a uniform sphere. Its period T

will depend on the density p by the relation: (k

ia a numerical constant)

(a) T = kp (b) T = kp1/2

(c) T = kp-1/2 (d) T = kp-1

16. A body is projected at an angle ∅ to the

horizontal, with kinetic energy E. Neglecting air

friction, the potential energy at the topmost

point of the path is:

(a) E cos2 ∅ (b) zero

(c) E (d) E sin2 ∅

17. If s1, s2, s3, . . . , sn are the distances traversed

by a body . . . ., nth second of its motion

respectively, then the ratio of s1, s2, s3, . . .. sn

will be:

(a) 1 : 3 : 5 : . . .

(b) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 : . . .

(c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : . . .

(d) 1 : 1.41 : 1.73 : 2 : . . .




18. For a given angle of projection, if time of flight

is doubled, the range will become:

(a) 4 times

(b) 2 times

(c) 2 times

(d) 21/ times

19. Which one of the following is not a vector

quantity?

(a) Weight

(b) Momentum

(c) Magnetic field

(d) Kinetic energy

20. A projectile is fired with initial momentum p at

an angle 45o from a point p as shown in figure

below. Neglecting air resistance, the

magnitude of change in momentum between

leaving p and arriving at Q is:

(a) p/2 (b) 2p

(c) p (d) 2p

21. Two man with weights in the ratio 4 : 3 run up

a staircase in time in the ratio 12 : 11. The ratio

of power of the first to that of second is:

(a) 3

4 (b)

11

12

(c) 33

48 (d)

9

11

22. Two masses 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are

connected by a strong passing over a

frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table.

The coefficient of friction of 10 kg mass with

the table is 0.2. The minimum mass of M that

may be placed on it to prevent it from moving

is equal to:

(a) 0 kg

(b) 5 kg

(c) 10 kg

(d) 15 kg

23. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom

has a mean energy per molecule given by

(a)N

nkT (b)

2N

nkT

(c)2

nkT (d)

2

3kT

24. A stone is thrown vertically and it reaches a

maximum height of 100 m. The height at which

its KE is 60 per cent of the original value is

(assume g = 10 m s-2):

(a) 40 m

(b) 60 m

(c) m 0.6100

(d) m 0.4100




25. The moment of inertia of an electron about the

nucleus (m is mass and r is radius of its orbit)

is:

(a) mr2 (b) 2

1mr2

(c) 5

2mr2 (d)

3

2mr2

26. The escape velocity of a body on the surface

of the earth is 11.2 km/s. The escape velocity

at an altitude 3R, where R is the radius of the

earth is (in km/s):

(a) 5.6 (b) 311.2/

(c) 311.2 (d) 22.4

27. A circular ring of mass M and radius R is

rotating about its axis with constant angular

velocity ω. identical pieces of wax of mass m

are dropped to the opposite ends of a diameter

of the ring gently. The ring now rotates with an

angular velocity:

(a) m)(M

M

(b)

2m)(M

2m)(M

(c) 2m)(M

M

(d)

M

2m)(M

28. If a clock pendulum keeping correct time is

taken from a place of latitude 60o to latitude

90o:

(a) It will lose

(b) It will gain

(c) It will neither lose nor gain

(d) It will first lose and then gain to reach

correct time

29. A coin falls vertically from a height to a surface

of coefficient of restitution e = 0.5. The energy

lost at the first rebound is (as percentage of

original energy).

(a) 25 (b) 50

(c) 75 (d) 80

30. Given that y = a sin ωt + bt + ct2 cos ωt. The

unit of a b c is same as that of:

(a) y (b) y/t

(c) (y/t)2 (d) (y/t)3

31. What will be time period of the displaced body

of mass m:

(a) 3

3k2π

(b) 3k

m2π

(c) 2k

3m2π

(d) 3k

2m2π

32. The level of water in a trough, when a train is

at rest is shown in Fig. (i). The train starts to

move with uniform acceleration

towards right. Which diagram shows level of

water now?

(a) (i) (b) (ii)

(c) (iii) (d) (iv)




33. The length of an elastic string is a meters

when the tension is 4 N and is be meters when

the tension is 5 N. The length (in meters) when

the tension is 9 N is:

(a) a + b (b) 2b – (a/2)

(c) 5b – 4a (d) 4b – (5a/3)

34. The figure adjoining represents load extension

graph for four metals M1, M2, M3 and M4 of the

same length and area of cross-section. Which

has the largest value of Young’s modules?

(a) M4 (b) M2

(c) M1 (d) M3

35. A good of certain material floats with (9/10) of

volume submerged in water on the earth. On a

planet, where acceleration due to gravity is five

times that of the earth, the submerged fraction

will be:

(a) 9/10 (b) 9/50

(c) 5(9/10) (d) 9/250

36. Two drops of equal radius r under isothermal

conditions coalesce to form a single drop. The

radius of such a drop would be:

(a) r (b) 1.4r

(c) 1.5r (d) 2r

37. When temperature and pressure of a gas are

doubled, the rms velocity:

(a) Becomes twice

(b) Becomes 2 times

(c) Remains same

(d) Becomes 0.7 times

38. A thermodynamic process is shown in the

figure. The pressure and volumes

corresponding to some points in the figure

are

PA = 3 x 104 Pa, VA = 2 x 10-3 m3

PB = 8 X 104 Pa VB = 5 X 10-3 m3

In process AB, 600 J of heat is added to the

system and in process BC, 200 J of heat is

added to the system. The change in internal

energy of the system in process AC would be

(a) 560 J (b) 800 J

(c) 600 J (d) 640 J

39. For hydrogen gas Cp – Cv = a and for oxygen

gas Cp – Cv = b, so the relation between a

and b is given by

(a) a = 16b

(b) 16b = a

(c) a = 4b

(d) a = b




40. Relation between pressure (p) and energy (E)

of a gas is

(a) E3

2p (b) E

3

1p

(c) E2

3p (d) p = 3E

41. 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system,

whose internal energy is 40 J, then the

amount of external work done is

(a) 150 J (b) 70 J

(c) 110 J (d) 40 J

42. In a cyclic process shown on the V-P diagram,

the magnitude of work done is:

(a)

2

12

2

PP π

(b)

2

12

2

VV π

(c) )V)(VP(P4

π1212

(d) )VPV(P π 1122

43. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at

constant pressure to that at constant volume

is γ, the change in internal energy of a mass

when the volume changes from V to 2V at

constant pressure p is

(a)1)(

R

γ (b) pV

(c)1)(

pV

γ (d)

1)(

pV

γ

γ

44. We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U

represents the increase in its internal energy

and W the work done by the system, which of

the following statements is true?

(a) ∆U = -W in an adiabatic process

(b) ∆U = W in an isothermal process

(c) ∆U = -W in an isothermal process

(d) ∆U = W in an adiabatic process

45. The potential energy of a body of mass 2.5 kg

is given by U = 3x – 4y, where x, y are the co-

ordinates of the body. The acceleration of the

body is:

(a) 3 units

(b) 4 units

(c) 5 units

(d) None of these




46. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12.

The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2

is:

(a) 3.3 x 10–7 (b) 5.0 x 10–7

(c) 4.0 x 10–6 (d) 5.0 x 10–6

47. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell

with l = 3 and n = 4 is:

(a) 14 (b) 16

(c) 10 (d) 12

48. The solubility of PbCl2 is given by :

(a) spK (b) 1/3sp[K ]

(c)

1/3

spK

4

(d) 1/2sp[8K ]

49. In which of the following reactions, standard

reaction entropy change (So) is positive and

standard Gibb’s energy change (Go)

decreases sharply with increasing

temperature?

(a) C graphite + 12

O2(g) CO(g)

(b) CO (g) + 1

2O2(g) CO2(g)

(c) Mg(s) + 12

O2(g) MgO(s)

(d) 1

2 C graphite + 1

2 O2(g)

1

2CO2(g)

50. Equimolar solutions of the following

substances were prepared separately. Which

one of these will record the highest the highest

pH value?

(a) BaCl2 (b) AlCl3

(c) LiCl (d) BeCl2

51. 50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150

and 200 seconds respectively for effusing

through a pin hole under the similar

conditions. If molecular mass of gas B is 36,

the molecular mass of gas A will be:

(a) 96 (b) 20.25

(c) 32 (d) 64

52. The correct set of four quantum numbers for

the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37)

is:

(a) 5, 1, 1 + 1/2

(b) 6, 0, 0 + 1/2

(c) 5, 0, 0 + ½

(d) 5, 1, 0 + ½

53. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen

exhibits highest oxidation state?

(a) N2H4 (b) NH3

(c) N3H (d) NH2OH

54. Among the following compounds the one that

is most reactive toward electrophilic nitration is

(a) Benzoic Acid

(b) Nitrobenzene

(c) Toluene

(d) Benzene

55. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and

alkalinity because :

(a) These give unionised acid or base on

reaction with added acid or alkali

(b) Acids and alkalies in these solutions are

shielded from attack by other ions

(c) They have large excess of H+ or OH– ions

(d) They have fixed value of Ph

CHEMISTRY




56. The correct order of decreasing acid strength

of trichloroacetic acid (A) trifluoroacetic acid

(B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is :

(a) B > A > D > C (b) B > D > C > A

(c) A > B > C > D (d) A > C > B > D

57. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435

kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the

melting of ice at 0oC is

(a) 10.52 cal/(mol K)

(b) 21.04 cal/ (mol K)

(c) 5.260 cal/ (mol K)

(d) 0.526 cal/ (mol K)

58. Which one of the following pairs is

isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and

hybridization)?

(a) [BCl3 and BrCl3]

(b) 3 3NH and NO

(c) [NF3 and BF3]

(d) 4 4BF and NH

59. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by

(a) O2+ (b) O2

–

(c) 22O (d) O2

60. In the following sequence of reactions

33 LiAlHH OKCN 4

etherCH Br A B C.

The end product (C) is :

(a) Acetone (b) Methane

(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethyl alcohol

61. Which nomenclature is not according to

IUPAC system?

62. Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the

normal oxide, M2O on heating in air?

(a) Rb (b) K

(c) Li (d) Na

63. The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali

metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows

the order:

(a) Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+

(b) Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+

(c) K+ < Na+ < Rb+ < Li+

(d) Na+ < Li + K+ < Rb+

(a) Br – CH2 – CH = CH2

1 – Bromo – Prop-2-ene

(b) CH3

|

CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CHCH3

| |

Br CH3

4 – Bromo, 2, 4-di –

Methylhexane

(c) CH3 – CH – CH – CH2 CH3

|

CH3

2- Methyl – 3 phenylepentane

(d) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 –

CH2COOH

║

O

5-oxohexanoic acid




64. Standard enthalpy of vaporisation vapHӨ for

water at 100oC is 40.66 kJ mol–1. The internal

energy of vaporisation of water at 100oC

(in kJmol–1) is :

(a) + 37.56 (b) – 43.76

(c) + 43.76 (d) + 40.66

(Assume water vapour to behave like an ideal

gas).

65. Identify the wrong statement in the following

(a) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller

the positive charge on the cation, smaller

is the ionic radius.

(b) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the

negative charge on the anion, larger is the

ionic radius

(c) Atomic radius of the elements increases

as one moves down the first group of the

periodic table.

(d) Atomic radius of the elements decreases

as one moves across from left to right in

the 2nd period of the periodic table

66. Which of the following acids does not exhibit

optical isomerism?

(a) Maleic acid

(b) α –amino acids

(c) Lactic acid

(d) Tartaric acid

67. Which of the following species contains three

bond pairs and one lone pair around the

central atom?

(a) H2O (b) BF3

(c) NH2– (d) PCl3

68. The pair of species with the same bond order

is :

(a) , 2

22O B (b) O2

+, NO+

(c) NO,CO (d) N2,O2

69. In the following reaction

The major product is :

70. If AN is Avogadro’s number then number of

valence electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ions )( 3N

(a) 2.4 AN (b) 4.2 AN

(c) AN6.1 (d) AN2.3

(a) CH3 | H3C – C – CH – CH3 | | OH CH3

(b) CH3 | CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3 | | OH CH3

(c) CH3 | H3C – C – CH – CH3 | | CH3 OH

(d) CH3 | H3C – C – CH2 – CH2 | | CH3 OH




71. The number of water molecules in 1 litre of

water is

(a) 18 (b) 100018

(c) AN (d) AN55.55

72. Which one is the correct outer configuration of

chromiu

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

73. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p

orbitals are respectively.

(a) 2, 0 (b) 0, 2

(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 1

74. The following graph illustrates

Temp. (oC)

V

(a) Dalton's law (b) Charle's law

(c) Boyle's law (d) Gay-Lussac's law

75. If the pressure and absolute temperature of 2

litres of 2CO are doubled, the volume of 2CO

would become

(a) 2 litres

(b) 4 litres

(c) 5 litres

(d) 7 litres

76. In the given reaction 22 ON ⇌ NO2 ,

equilibrium means that

(a) Concentration of reactants is changing

whereas concentration of products is

constant

(b) Concentration of all substances is

Constant

(c) Concentration of reactants is constant

whereas concentration of products is

changing

(d) Concentration of all substances is

Changing

77. Which of the following reactions is reversible

(a) HIIH 222

(b) OHBaSOOHBaSOH 24242 2)(

(c) AgClNaNOAgNONaCl 33

(d) FeSSFe

78. Pure ammonia is placed in a vessel at

temperature where its dissociation constant

( ) is appreciable. At equilibrium

(a) pK does not change significantly with

Pressure

(b) does not change with pressure

(c) Concentration of 3NH does not change

with pressure

(d) Concentration of 2H is less than that of

2N




79. The strongest Bronsted base in the following

anion is

(a) ClO (b)

2ClO

(c)

3ClO (d)

4ClO

80. Calculate the hydrolysis constant of the salt

containing 2NO . Given the aK for 2HNO

10105.4

(a) 52.22 10

(b) 51002.2

(c) 41033.4

(d) 51003.3

81. Total number of moles for the reaction

HI2 ⇄ .22 IH if is degree of

dissociation is

(a) 2 (b) 2

(c) 1 (d) 1

82. Heat of neutralisation of weak acid and strong

base is less than the heat of neutralisation of

strong acid and strong base due to

(a) Energy has to be spent for the total

dissociation of weak acid

(b) Salt of weak acid and strong base is not

stable

(c) Incomplete dissociation of weak acid

(d) Incomplete neutralisation of weak acid

83. If H is the change in enthalpy and E the

change in internal energy accompanying a

gaseous reaction

(a) H is always greater than E

(b) EH only if the number of moles of

the products is greater than the number of

the reactants

(c) H is always less than E

(d) EH only if the number of moles of

the products is less than the number of

moles of the reactants

84. Which order are correct?

(I) Thermal stability : BeSO4 < MgSO4 <

CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4

(II) Basic nature : ZnO > BeO > MgO >

CaO

(III) Solubility in water : LiOH > NaOH > KOH

> RbOH > CsOH

(IV) Melting point : NaCI > KCI > RbCI >

CsCI > LiCI

(a) (I), (IV) (b) (I), (II) and (IV)

(c) (II), (III) (d) All correct

85. For the reaction

)(2)( 23 gOlCOOHCH ⇌

)(2)(2 22 lOHgCO at Co25 and 1 atm.

pressure, .874kJH Then the change in

internal energy )( E is ….

(a) – 874 kJ

(b) – 871.53 kJ

(c) – 876.47 kJ

(d) + 874 Kj




86. The volume of oxygen liberated from 15 ml of

20 volume 22OH is

(a) 250 ml

(b) 300 ml

(c) 150 ml

(d) 200 ml

87. The compound in which carbon uses only its

3sp hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

(a) HCOOH

(b) CONH 22 )(

(c) COHCH 33 )(

(d) CHOCH 33 )(

.

88. Acetylene molecules contain

(a) 5 bond

(b) 4 bond and 1 bond

(c) 3 and 2

(d) 3 and 3

89. Which of the following is not an electrophile

(a) Cl+ (b) Na+

(c) H+ (d) BF3

90. Orbital interaction between the sigma bonds of

a substituent group and a neighbouring pi

orbital is known as

(a) Hyperconjugation

(b) Inductive effect

(c) Steric effect

(d) Dipole-dipole interactions

[UNIT – 4] RJ VISION PVT. LTD. (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)


BIOLOGY 91. Chemotaxonomy is based on:

(a) Information is chromosome number,

structure and behavior

(b) Chemical constituents of plants

(c) All observable characters

(d) Only sexual characters

92. Filamentous forms of algae are:

(a) Ulothrix

(b) Spirogyra

(c) Chlamydomonas

(d) Both (a) and (b)

93. Spore formation in algae occur during?

(a) Vegetative reproduction

(b) Asexual reproduction

(c) Sexual reproduction

(d) During germination

94. 50% CO2 fixation on earth is carried out by:

(a) Protest (b) Higher plants

(c) Algae (d) None of these

95. Cell wall of green algae is made up of:

(a) Cellulose and pectose

(b) Cellulose and pectin

(c) Inner layer of pectose and outer layer of

cellulose

(d) Inner layers of cellulose and outer layer of

pectose

96. Kelps represent the group of:

(a) Bryophytes (b) Red algae

(c) Green algae (d) Brown algae

97. Fertilization in brown algae occurs in:

(a) Water

(b) Urthin the oogonia

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) None of these

98. Bryophytes are found in:

(a) Rocky places

(b) Hilly areas

(c) Moist and shady places

(d) Aquatic areas

99. ______ forms gametophyte of bryophytes

(a) Zygote (b) Sporophyte

(c) Gametes (d) Spores

100. The gametophyte of bryophyte develops from?

(a) A haploid spore

(b) A diploid spore

(c) Zygote

(d) None of these

101. Sex organs in pteridophytes are formed on

the:

(a) Multicellular well-developed sporophyte

(b) Multicellular main gametophyte phase of

the plant

(c) Photosynthetic, free living gametophyte

(d) Parasite gametophyte dependent on

sporophyte

102. Natural classification system developed were

(a) Natural affinities amongst organism

(b) Ultra structure and anatomy

(c) Embryology

(d) All of the above

103. Organisms play import role in plant succession

on base rocks are:

(a) Mosses (b) Pteridophytes

(c) Protist (d) None of these

104. Chlorophyll bearing, thalloid, simply,

autotropic, and mainly aquatic organisms are:

(a) Bryophytes (b) Protist

(c) Algae (d) All of the above

105. Which phylum shows tissue level of

organization?

(a) Protozoa (b) Porifera

(c) Coelenterate (d) All of the above

106. Which of the following is correct about

notochord?

(a) Dorsally situated

(b) Mesodermal in origin

(c) Rod like




107. Select total number of organism from the

following those are sessile

Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla,

Hydra, Jelly fish, Earthworm

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

108. Incomplete digestive tract (blind sac body

plan) is found in

(a) Annelida (b) Arthropod

(c) Molluscs (d) Platyhelminthes

109. First triploblastic animal is

(a) Coelenterates (b) Platyhelminthes

(c) Aschelminthes (d) Annelida

110. Which of the following mammals have aerial

adaptation?

(a) Felis (b) Canis

(c) Bat (d) Macropus

111. Cloaca is seen in case of:

(a) Amphibia (b) Reptiles

(c) Aves (d) All of the above

112. The name ‘amphibian’ indicates that they can

live in

(a) Aquatic habitat

(b) Terrestrial habitat

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Aerial habitat

113. Match the following columns:

Column I Column II

(A) Sycon (1) Bath sponge

(B) Spongilla (2) Scypha

(C) Euspongia (3) Fresh water sponge

(a) A:2, B:3, C:1 (b) A:1, B:2, C:3

(c) A:3, B:2, C:1 (d) A:3, B:1, C:2

114. Umbrella shape and free swimming form of

coelenterate reproduce by sexual reproduction

is:

(a) Polyp (b) Medusa

(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

115. Ctenophores show

(a) Extra and intra cellular digestion

(b) Sexual reproduction only

(c) Bio luminescence


116. Annelids may be:

(a) Aquatic (marine and fresh water),

terrestrial

(b) Free living

(c) Parasite


117. Which of the following phylum shows

segmentation?

(a) Annelida

(b) Arthropoda

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) Platyhelminthes

118. Which of the following I true for Arthropoda?

(a) Development mat be direct or indirect

(b) Open circulatory system

(c) Excretion takes place by green gland,

coxal gland and Malpighian tubules


119. Which of the following is not a fish?

(a) Devil fish (b) Cuttle fish

(c) Jelly fish (d) All of the above

120. Pinctada is a:

(a) Sea hare (b) Cuttle fish

(c) Pearl oyster (d) Apple snail

121. Other name of Branchiostoma is:

(a) Amphioxus (b) Lancelot

(c) Both (1) & (2) (d) None of these

122. Who was the Germen botanist to study

different cells forming plant tissues?

(a) Schleiden (b) Schwann

(c) Rudolf Virchow (d) None of these

123. In which year Schwann studied different types

of animal cells?

(a) 1839 (b) 1739

(c) 1639 (d) 1938



124. What does a nucleus of a typical animal cell

contain?

(a) Chromosomes

(b) Genes

(c) DNA


125. How many of the following are membrane

bound organelles?

Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Mitochondria,

Vacuoles

(a) 2 (b) 3

(c) 4 (d) 0

126. Which of the following represent prokaryotic

cell?

(a) Blue-green algae

(b) PPLO

(c) Bacteria


127. What are plasmids?

(a) Naked genomic DNA

(b) Smaller DNA than genomic DNA

(c) Enveloped DNA

(d) None of these

128. What is the basis of classification of bacteria’s

into gram the or gram –ve?

(a) Cell wall

(b) Glycocalyx layer

(c) Plasma membrane


129. Of all the parts of flagellum, which one is the

longest?

(a) Filament

(b) Hook

(c) Basal body

(b) Fimbriae

130. In polyribosome ribosomes attach to which

RNA?

(a) m-RNA

(b) t-RNA

(c) r-RNA


131. Which of the following membrane proteins are

partially of totally buried in cell membrane?

(a) Integral proteins (b) Peripheral proteins

(c) Both (1) & (2) (d) Glycoproteins

132. What is the diameter of cisternae?

(a) 0.5 ‒ 1 μm (b) 0.5 ‒ 1 mm

(c) 0.5 ‒ 2 μm (d) 5 ‒ 11 μm

133. Unicellular organisms are not capable of

(a) Independent existence

(b) Performing essential functions of life

(c) Both (1) & (2)

(d) None of these

134. Longest cells in human body are

(a) Muscle cells

(b) Cardiac muscle cells

(c) Neurons

(d) None of these

135. Diagram shows a chromosome. A is:

(a) Chromosomes (b) Kinetochore

(c) Centromere (d) Acrocentric

136. Percentage of oxygen in human body is

(a) 65% (b) 46.6%

(c) 18.5% (d) 3.3%

137. Select the incorrect compounds that we get

from living tissues can be called:

(a) Elemental analysis of living tissues gives

elemental composition of living tissue

(b) Analysis of chemical compound of living

tissue gives idea of organic and inorganic

constituent of living tissue

(c) Weight of small amount of living fresh

tissue is known as wet wt

(d) Acid soluble pool contain lipids, nucleic

acid, polysaccharide only



138. Chitin is present in:

(a) Exoskeleton of arthropods

(b) Cell wall of fungus

(c) Seate of earthworm


139. Lipids may be:

(a) Fatty acid

(b) Glycerol

(c) Compound respectively of both


140. Chemical and Physical property of amino acid

based on

(a) −NH2 group

(b) −COOH group

(c) R−group


141. Essential amino acids are those which are

(a) Not synthesized by our body

(b) Not required by our body

(c) Synthesized by our body

(d) Only used to form proteins

142. Which one is correct about macromolecular

fraction is comprised of:

(a) Poly nucleotides

(b) Poly peptides

(c) Polysaccharides


143. Which of the following is correct about

secondary structure?

(a) Helix is primary structure

(b) In proteins only left handed helices are

observed

(c) In proteins only right handed helices are

observed

(d) None of these

144. Which of the following is correct about human

Haemoglobin (Hb)?

(a) Made up to 2−α and 2−β

(b) Present in RBC

(c) Use to carry O2 and CO2


145. Which of the following act as a genetic

material?

(a) DNA and RNA

(b) Uridylic acid

(c) Adenylic acid

(d) Gunanylic acid

146. How much percentage of total cellular mass

formed by Nucleic acid?

(a) 3 (b) 2

(c) 5 – 7 (d) 10 – 15

147. Watson−Crick Structure of DNA is:

(a) 1o structure (b) 2o structure

(c) 3o structure (d) 4o Structure

148. At each step of ascent in B-DNA double

helical structure, the strand turn ______.

(a) 36° (b) 72°

(c) 90° (d) 18°

149. There are ______ hydrogen bond between A

and T, and ____ hydrogen bond between G

and C

(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 3

(c) 2, 3 (d) 3, 2

150. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect?

(a) Primary metabolite have identifiable

functions

(b) Some secondary metabolites in have

ecological importance

(c) Secondary metabolite like rubber, drugs,

species, scents and pigments are useful to

human welfare

(d) Secondary metabolites are found in fungi,

microbes and plants



151. Select the incorrect statement from the

following:

(a) Acetic acid becomes cholesterol is

example of biosynthetic or anabolic

pathway

(b) Glucose becoming lactic acid in our

skeletal muscles is example of

degradation or catabolic pathway

(c) Flows of metabolite through metabolic

pathway not have a definite rate and

direction

(d) Anabolic pathway requires energy where

as catabolic pathway releases energy

152. Almost all enzymes are

(a) Proteins (b) Nucleic acid

(c) Carbohydrates (d) Vitamins

153. CO2 + H2O → H2CO3

Carbonic acid

Which one of the following statement is

incorrect about the above reaction?

(a) In the absence of enzyme, the rate of

H2CO3 formation is about 200 molecules

per hour

(b) When carbonic anhydrase catalyses the

same reaction, there is no change in the

rate of H2CO3 formation

(c) The reaction catalyzed by the enzyme

shows dramatically light decrease speeds

about 600,000 molecules being formed

every second. (rate becomes 10 million

times more)

(d) The enzymes carbonic anhydrase occurs

in abundance in RBC

154. Which of the following are unique features

about the enzyme?

(a) They are not consumed by the enzyme

mediated reaction

(b) They are not altered by the enzyme

mediated reaction

(c) They lower the activation energy


155. Activation energy for given reaction is (i.e.

reactant → product):

(a) Energy of transition state – Energy of substrate

(b) Energy of transition state – Energy of product

(c) Threshold energy – Energy of transition state

(d) All are correct

156. Enzymes catalyzing the linking together of two

compounds, e.g. enzymes which catalyze

joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O etc. bonds,

belongs to the class of

(a) Isomerases

(b) Transferases

(c) Hydrolases

(d) Ligases

157. Cofactors are –

(a) Prosthetic groups (b) Co-enzymes

(c) Metallic ions (d) All of the above

158. Which of the following is correct about cell

cycle?

(a) All event occur in coordinated manner

(b) All events are under genetic control

(c) DNA synthesis occur only during one

specific stage in the cell cycle


159. S‒phase not characterized by:

(a) DNA duplication

(b) No increase in chromosome number

(c) DNA replication

(d) Duplication of centriole in nucleus of

eukaryotic animal cell

160. Synaptonemal complex is visible in:

(a) Compound microscope

(b) Simple microscope

(c) Hand lens

(d) Electron microscope

161. Cell division takes place when the cell:

(a) Is haploid

(b) Becomes diploid

(c) Attains optimum growth

(d) Any time



162. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in

possessing:

(a) Same number of chromosomes and half

number of chromatids

(b) Half number of chromosomes and same


(c) Half number of chromosomes and half


(d) Same number of chromosomes and same

number of chromatid

163. The longest phase of meiosis I is:

(a) Metaphase-I

(b) Prophase-I

(c) Anaphase-I

(d) Telophase-I

164. The phase of cell cycle during which ‘DNA

polymerase’ is functionally active is:

(a) S (b) G2

(c) G1 (d) M

165. 200 egg cells are produced by (in meiosis):

(a) 50 divisions

(b) 100 divisions

(c) 200 divisions

(d) 400 divisions

166. When are chromatids clearly visible in meiosis?

(a) Zygotene

(b) Pachytene

(c) Diplotene

(d) Diakinesis

167. Before undergoing meiosis, the amount of

DNA of a cell:

(a) Become halves

(b) Become doubles

(c) Remains same

(d) Become quadruples

168. Animal cells undergo cytokinesis by:

(a) Furrowing

(b) Cell plate

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Furrowing and followed by deposition of

special materials

169. Chromosomes can be counted best at the

stage of:

(a) Prophase

(b) Anaphase

(c) Metaphase

(d) Telophase

170. Find out the incorrect statement:

(a) Root hair absorb water and mineral from

the soil

(b) Root increase in length due to region of

elongation

(c) Meristematic region have thin walled cell

with dense cytoplasm

(d) Root cannot synthesis plant growth

regulators

171. Maize and sugarcane contain:

(a) Storage root

(b) Stilt root

(c) Pneumatophores

(d) Prop roots

172. Underground stem store food in following

except:

(a) Zaminkand

(b) Colocasia

(c) Ginger

(d) Sugarcane

173. Which of the following is incorrect about leaf?

(a) It is arranged in acropetal order

(b) It develops from node

(c) It is generally flattened in shape

(d) It is arranged in basipetal order

174. Palmately compound leaf found in:

(a) Neem

(b) Rose

(c) Silk cotton

(d) Mimosa pudica

175. Select incorrect matching:

(a) Leaf into tendril ‒ Pea

(b) Leaf into spin ‒ Cacti

(c) Flesh leaf ‒ Onion and garlic

(d) Whorled phyllotaxy ‒ Calotropis



176. The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis

is termed as:

(a) Phyllotaxy (b) Aestivation

(c) Inflorescence (d) Placentation

177. Asymmetric flower is found in:

(a) Pea (b) Datura

(c) Bean (d) Canna

178. Based on the position of calyx, corolla and

androecium in respect of the ovary on

thalamus, the flower is of how many types

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

179. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals

in floral bud with respect is the other members

of the same whorl are known as:

(a) Phyllotaxy

(b) Inflorescence

(c) Aestivation

(d) Hibernation

180. Botanical name of onion is:

(a) Allium sativum

(b) Solanum melongena

(c) Allium cepa

(d) Brassica rapa

neet - (weekend batch) - rj vision · 2017-05-18 · a source is in motion towards a stationary...

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