net question papers
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UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSIONBAHADURSHAH ZAFAR MARGNEW DELHI 110 002
PRESS RELEASEDated: 30thJune, 2013
UGC conducts National Eligibility Test (NET) exam for lectureship and JRFs twice a yearon the lastSundays in the months of June and December. UGC made elaborate arrangements andpreparation for the NET exam held today on 30thJune,2013. About 8 lakh candidatesregistered forthis exam from all over the country. In the entire country there were 79 coordinatinginstitutionswhich conducted this exam.While NET exam was conducted smoothly at all the centres, the Centre at Kirori MalCollege, Delhireported disruption of exam which has happened because students mistakenly noteddown thewrong venue for the exam. As informed by the Principal, Kirori Mal College, the list ofvenue wasuploaded by the College a week prior to the exam i.e. on 22ndJune, 2013. Somestudents whonoted the wrong venue arrived at the Kirori Mal College centre and insisted that theybe allowed toappear in the exam. As reported by the Principal, KM College, these students createdpandemonium at the Kirori Mal College centre, forcibly entered into the examinationhalls andsnatched away examination sheets from the registered students who were busywriting the exams.
No sooner the information reached the UGC, than the Secretary, University GrantsCommissionaccompanied with Bureau Head of NET exam rushed to the venue and listened to thestudentsgathered there. The officers later on addressed the gathering and assured them thatUGC wouldtake appropriate decision in this matter.In addition, there was a report of mismanagement from one of the NET exam Centresin RanchiUniversity where exam could not be conducted.Considering the larger interest of the students in mind, the University GrantsCommission has
decided to conduct exam for NET afresh for all such candidates of Delhi Centres whocould notwrite NET exam due to confusion of venue or disruption at Kirori Mal College. Similarlyall suchcandidates who could not appear in the NET exam at one of the centres at RanchiUniversity wouldalso be allowed to appear in this exam.In addition, UGC had scheduled the recruitment examination for Education Officers on30th
June,2013 along with NET exam. Kirori Mal College, Delhi was the only Centre for theDelhi region
for this exam. Due to disruption of this exam at Kirori Mal College, UGC has decided toconduct theexam for EO recruitment afresh for Delhi region alone.
The UGC will issue necessary notifications to this effect on its website
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www.ugcnetonline shortly.The University Grants Commission has also sought reports on these incidents fromKirori MalCollege, Delhi and Ranchi University.SecretaryUniversity Grants Commission
Important dates :i) Last date for Applying Online & generation of
filled Bank Challan for Fee.03.05.2013
ii) Last date of submission of Fee through online
generated Bank Challan, at any branch of
State Bank of India (SBI).
06.05.2013
iii) Last date of taking printout of Application
Form, Attendance Slip and Admit Card from
UGC website (www.ugcnetonline.in)
09.05.2013
iv) Last date for receiving the printout of online
Application Form (one copy) and AttendanceSlip (one copy) at the respective Coordinating
University opted by the candidate
(with fee receipt & category certificate(s) )
13.05.2013
NOTE : PRINTOUT OF ONLINE APPLICATION
FORM SENT DIRECTLY TO THE UGC
OFFICE WILL NOT BE ENTERTAINED.
1) i)Before submission of the online Application Form, the candidate should read this notification carefully.
ii)
The University Grants Commission announces holding of the National Eligibility Test (NET) on30th June 2013 (SUNDAY) for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibilityfor Lectureship only or Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and Eligibility for Lectureship
both in Indian universities and colleges. UGC will conduct NET in 78 subjects (listed under itemno. 9) at 79 (Seventy Nine) selected NET Coordinating Universities (listed under Item no. 10)spread across the country.
The result of the UGC-NET to be held on 30th June, 2013 will be made available on the UGCwebsites: www.ugc.ac.in and www.ugcnetonline.in as and when it is declared. The candidates willnot be individually intimated about their result.
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The candidates who qualify for the award of Junior Research Fellowship are eligible to pursueresearch in the subject of their post-graduation or in a related subject and are also eligible forlectureship. The universities, institutions, IITs and other national organizations may select the JRFawardees for whole time research work in accordance with the procedure prescribed by them. Theaward of JRF and Eligibility for Lectureship both OR Eligibility for Lectureship only will dependon the performance of the candidate in all three papers of NET. However, the candidates
qualifying exclusively for lectureship will not be considered for award of JRF. Candidatesappearing in NET should clearly specify in the prescribed Application Form whether they areapplying for both JRF & Eligibility for Lectureship both OR only for Eligibility for Lectureship.Candidates who qualify the Test for eligibility for Lectureship will be governed by the rules andregulations for recruitment of lecturers of the concerned universities/colleges/state governments,as the case may be.
Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Persons with disability (PWD)/Other BackwardClasses (OBC) (Non-creamy layer), as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website :www.ncbc.nic.in, candidates will be given such special concessions as may be decided by the
Commission.
2)JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIP :
Candidates qualifying for the award of Junior Research Fellowship will be eligible to receivefellowship of UGC under various schemes, subject to their finding placement inuniversities/IITs/institutions. The validity period of the offer is two years w.e.f. the date of issue ofJRF Award Letter. However, in case the candidates who have already joined M.Phil/Ph.D., thedate of commencement of fellowship shall be from the date of declaration of NET result or date oftheir joining, whichever is later.
3)CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY :
i) Candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without rounding off) in Masters Degree
OR equivalent examination from universities/institutions recognised by UGC in Humanities
(including languages) and Social Science, Computer Science & Applications, ElectronicScience etc. are eligible for this Test. The Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe(ST)/Persons with disability (PWD) category candidates who have secured at least 50%marks (without rounding off) in Masters degree or equivalent examination are eligible forthis Test.
ii) Candidates who have appeared OR will be appearing at the qualifying Masters degree
(final year) examination and whose result is still awaited ORcandidates whose qualifyingexaminations have been delayed may also apply for this Test. However, such candidates will
be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for award of JRF/Lectureship
eligibility only after they have passed their Masters degree examination or equivalent withat least 55% marks (50% marks in case of SC/ST/PWD (Persons with disability) categorycandidates). Such candidates must complete their P.G. degree examination within two years
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from the date of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall betreated as disqualified.
iii) The Ph.D. degree holders whose Masters level examination had been completed by 19th
September, 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a
relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (i.e., from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET.
iv) Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their post-graduation only. The candidates
whose post-graduation subject is not covered in the list of subjects in item No. 9, mayappear in a related subject.
v) Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC (Non-creamy layer)/PWD category are required to
submit attested copy of the category Certificate along with online printout of theirApplication Forms (obtained while applying on-line). Other candidates are not required to
submit any certificates/documents in support of their eligibility along with printout of theirApplication Form. Therefore, the candidates, in their own interest, must satisfy themselvesabout their eligibility for the Test. In the event of any ineligibility being detected by theCommission at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable forlegal action.
vi) Candidates having post-graduate diploma/certificate awarded by Indian University/Institute
or foreign degree/diploma/certificate awarded by the foreign University/Institute should intheir own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their diploma/degree/certificate withMasters degree of recognized Indian universities from Association of Indian Universities(AIU), New Delhi. (www.aiuweb.org)
4)AGE LIMIT & RELAXATION :
i) Junior Research Fellowship: Not more than 28 years as on 01.06.2013. A relaxation upto 5 years
is provided to the candidates belonging to SC/ST/ PWD/OBC (Non-creamy layer, as per theCentral list of OBC available on website : www.ncbc.nic.in) categories and to women applicants.
Relaxation will also be provided to the candidates having research experience, limited to the periodspent on research in the relevant/related subject of post-graduation degree, subject to a maximumof 5 years, on production of a certificate from appropriate authority. Three years relaxation in agewill be permissible to the candidates possessing L.L.M. Degree. Total age relaxation on the aboveground(s) shall not exceed five years under any circumstances.
ii)
Lectureship: There is no upper age limit for applying for lectureship eligibility.
5)EXEMPTION (ELIGIBILITY FOR LECTURESHIP) :
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i) NET/SLET/SET shall remain the minimum eligibility condition for recruitment and appointmentof Assistant Professors in Universities/ Colleges/Institutions. Provided however, that candidates,who are or have been awarded a Ph. D. Degree in accordance with the University GrantsCommission (Minimum Standards and Procedure for Award of Ph.D. Degree) Regulations, 2009,shall be exempted from the requirement of the minimum eligibility condition of NET/SLET/SETfor recruitment and appointment of Assistant Professor or equivalent positions in Universities/
Colleges/ Institutions.
ii) The candidates who have passed the UGC/CSIR JRF examination prior to 1989 are also exempted
from appearing in NET.
iii) For SET Candidates: The candidates who have cleared the State Eligibility Test (SET) accreditedby UGC for eligibility for Lectureship held prior to 1st June 2002, are exempted from appearing inNET, being eligible to apply for Lectureship anywhere in India. For SET held from 1st June 2002onwards, the qualified candidates are eligible to apply for the post of lecturer only in theuniversities/ colleges situated in the state from where they have cleared their SET.
6)EXAMINATION FEE AND MODE OF PAYMENT :
For General candidates, the examination fee is Rs.450/-; for Other Backward Classes (Non-creamylayer, as per the Central list of OBC available on website : www.ncbc.nic.in), the fee is Rs. 225/-and for SC/ST/PWD candidates, it is Rs. 110/-.
i) After filling all the details for applying online for NET, the computer will automatically generateyour Bank Challan indicating your details therein A print out of this Bank Challan may be takenby the candidate for payment through cash, on the next working day (after generating the challanfrom www.ugcnetonline.in) at any branch of State Bank of India (SBI) alongwith bank charges(commission) of Rs.20/-.
ii) Two days after the payment of fee at SBI through filled Bank Challan, the candidate is requiredto check the status of fee payment at UGC website (www.ugcnetonline.in) and if the status is OKthe candidate will be able to take the printout of online Application Form (one copy), AttendanceSlip (one copy) and Admission Card (one copy) on separate A-4 size papers.
The candidate has to attach the UGC copy of the challan with the printout of online ApplicationForm which he/she has to submit to the Registrar/Principal of UGC-NET CoordinatingUniversity/College opted by the candidate.
Please note that fee submitted by any other mode like money order, demand draft, IPO etc. will berejected. Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances.
7)SCHEME AND DATE OF TEST :
i) The Test will consist of three papers. All the three papers will consist of only objective type
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questions and will be held on 30th June, 2013 (SUNDAY) in two separate sessions as under:
Session Paper Marks Number of Question Duration
First I 100 60 out of which 50 question to beattempted 1 Hours (09.30 A.M. to10.45 A.M.)
First II 100 50 questions all are compulsory1 Hours (10.45 A.M. to
12.00 NOON)
Second III 150 75 questions all are compulsory2 Hours (01.30 P.M. to
4.00 P.M.)
Paper-I shall be of general nature, intended to assess the teaching/research aptitude of thecandidate. It will primarily be designed to test reasoning ability, comprehension, divergent thinkingand general awareness of the candidate. Sixty (60) multiple choice questions of two marks each
will be given, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50). In the eventof the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by thecandidate would be evaluated.
Paper-II shall consist of 50 objective type compulsory questions based on the subject selected bythe candidate. Each question will carry 2 marks.
Paper-III will consist of 75 objective type compulsory questions from the subject selected by thecandidate. Each question will carry 2 marks.
All questions of Paper-II and Paper-III will be compulsory, covering entire syllabus (including allelectives, without options).
The candidate will have to mark the responses for questions of Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-III onthe Optical Mark Reader (OMR) sheet provided along with the Test Booklet.
The detailed instructions for filling up the OMR Sheet will be uploaded on UGC website(www.ugcnetonline.in or www.ugc.ac.in) in the last week of May, 2013. It may noted thatinstructions to candidates will not be sent to the candidate by post.
PROCEDURE & CRITERIA FOR DECLARATION OF RESULT:
This will comprise offollowing steps:
Step I: Minimum marks to be obtained in NET for considering a candidate for the award of JRFand eligibility for lectureship:
The candidates are required to obtain following minimum marks separately in Paper-I, Paper-IIand Paper-III as given below:
CATEGORY
Minimum Marks (%) to be obtained
PAPER I PAPER II PAPER III
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GENERAL 40 (40%) 40 (40%) 75 (50 %)
OBC(Non-creamylayer)
35 (35%) 35 (35%)67.5 (45 %) rounded off
to 68
PWD/SC/ST 35 (35%) 35 (35%) 60 (40 %)
Step II: Amongst those candidates who have cleared step I, a merit list will be prepared subject-wise and category-wise using the aggregate marks of all the three papers secured by suchcandidates.
Step III: Top 15% candidates (for each subject and category), from the merit list mentioned understep II, will be declared NET qualified for eligibility for lectureship only.
Step IV: A separate merit list for the award of JRF will be prepared from amongst the NETqualified candidates figuring in the merit list prepared under step III.
It may be noted that the above qualifying criteria decided by UGC is final and binding.
ii) For Persons with Disability (Visually Challenged candidates) thirty minutes extra time shall be
provided separately for paper-I and Paper-II. For paper-III, forty five minutes extra time shall beprovided. They will also be provided the services of a scribe who would be a graduate in a subjectother than that of the candidate. Those Persons with Disability (Physically Challenged)candidates who are not in a position to write in their own hand-writing can also avail these services
by making prior request (at least one week before the date of UGC-NET) in writing to the Co-ordinator of the NET Coordinating University. Extra time and facility of scribe would not be
provided to otherPersons with Disability (Physically Challenged) candidates.
iii) Syllabus of Test: All questions of Paper-II and Paper-III will be compulsory, covering entiresyllabus (including all electives, without options). Syllabi for all NET subjects can be downloadedfrom the UGC Website www.ugc.ac.in and are also available in the libraries of all IndianUniversities. UGC will not send the syllabus to individual candidates.
iv) In case of any discrepancy found in the English and Hindi versions, the questions in English
version shall be taken as final.
8)IMPORTANT:
i) The National level Test for determining the eligibility of candidates for the award of Junior
Research Fellowship/Lectureship in science subjects (Chemical Sciences; Earth, Atmospheric,Ocean & Planetary Sciences; Life Sciences; Mathematical Sciences and Physical Sciences) isconducted jointly with the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), New Delhi. Thecandidates in these science subjects, desirous of availing UGC-JRF or obtaining eligibility forLectureship in these subjects are advised to appear in the Joint CSIR-UGC Test for Junior
Research Fellowship and Eligibility for Lectureship conducted by CSIR.
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83 Pali84 Kashmiri85 Konkani87 Computer
Science andApplications
88 ElectronicScience89 Environmental
Sciences90 International
and AreaStudies
91 Prakrit92 Human Rights
and Duties93 Tourism
AdministrationandManagement
94 Bodo
*The candidates withMasters Degree inGeography (withspecialization inPopulation Studies) orMathematics/Statisticsare also eligible toappear in the subjectPopulation Studies(Code 15).
**The candidates withMasters Degree inHumanities (includinglanguages) and Social
Sciences are eligible toappear in the subjectWomen Studies (Code74).
10)COORDINATING UNIVERSITIES/COLLEGES :
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The CoordinatingUniversities/Collegeswith their respectivecodes are given below.
Printout of OnlineApplication Formshould be addressed tothe Registrar/Principalof the respectiveCoordinatingUniversities/Colleges.
PLEASE NOTE
THAT CHANGE OF
COORDINATING
UNIVERSITIES/COLLEGES WILL
NOT BE ALLOWED
UNDER ANY
CIRCUMSTANCES.
LIST OF NET
COORDINATING
UNIVERSITIES/COL
LEGES
Code
No.
Name of NET
Coordinating
Universities/Coll
eges
01
Aligarh MuslimUniversity,Aligarh 202002.
02University ofAllahabad,Allahabad 211002.
03
AndhraUniversity,Visakhapatnam 530 003.
04
Rajiv GandhiUniversity, RonoHills, Itanagar
791 111.
05
Banaras HinduUniversity,Varanasi 221
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11) HOW TO APPLY (APPLICATIONS HAVE TO BE SUBMITTEDONLINE) :
1)
STEPS FOR SUBMISSION OF ONLINE APPLICATION FORM
i) Candidate seekingadmission to the Test(UGC-NET,June,2013) mustapply online (i.e.www.ugcnetonline.inOR through a linkavailable on the UGCwebsite:www.ugc.ac.in).
ii) Before applying
Online, the candidatesmust possess theScanned passport size
photograph in JPEGformat of less than300 kb.
iii) After filling all the
details for applyingonline for NET, thecomputer willautomaticallygenerate your BankChallan indicatingyour details therein A
print out of this BankChallan may be taken
by the candidate forpayment throughcash, on the nextworking day (aftergenerating the challanfromwww.ugcnetonline.in)at any branch of StateBank of India (SBI)alongwith bankcharges (commission)
of Rs.20/-iv) Two days after the
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days.
12) GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
i) The candidates must read the conditions of eligibility as given at item no. 3 carefully and
must satisfy themselves regarding their eligibility for the Test before filling the online
application and submitting the printout of Online Application Form.
ii) It may be noted that candidates will not be issued the Admission Card by the respectiveNET Coordinating Universities/Colleges. Candidates should note that their candidature isstrictly provisional. The mere fact that Admission Card has been issued at the time of onlineregistration and the candidate is allowed to appear in the test shall not imply that theCommission has finally accepted his/her candidature.
iii) The Application (consisting of one copy of printout of online application form and one copyof Attendance Slip) along with bank challan and other required documents (as mentioned initem No. 13) must reach the Registrar/Principal of the NET Coordinating University/Collegeon or before 13.05.2013.
iv) It may be noted that no Admission Card will be issued by the respective NET Coordinating
University/College. Candidates are requested to ascertain their venue of the test/seatingarrangement from the website of the respective NET Coordinating University/College andnote it in their printout of online Admission Card at least 10 days before the Test, i.e. upto20th June, 2013.
v) The candidates are required to bring a photo identity card also along with their printout of
online Admission Card on the day of examination.
vi) It may be pointed out that noting of seating arrangement/venue of test from the website ofrespective NET Coordinating University/College will be the sole responsibility of candidateonly. NET Coordinating University/College will not be held responsible in this regard.
vii) UGC may change the NET Coordinating Universities/Colleges or date of examination
without assigning any reason.viii)
Applications received after the last date will not be entertained.
ix) No TA will be paid to the candidates.
x)
Canvassing in any form will disqualify the candidate.
xi) Candidates should correspond only with their respective NET Coordinating
University/College for Venue of test/seating arrangement or any other relevant information.UGC will not entertain any requests/queries in this regard.
xii) The use of calculators or Log Tables is not permitted. Mobile phones, pagers, electronic
devices etc. are not allowed in the Examination Hall/Room.xiii) A candidate who does not appear in paper-I, will not be permitted to appear in paper-II and
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paper-III.
xiv) Candidates will not be allowed to write any question from the Test Booklet on the
Admission Card or on any other paper.
xv) Those candidates who are not able to find out their seating arrangement/ venue of Test fromthe website of the respective NET Coordinating Universities/Colleges for appearing in theUGC-NET till 20th June, 2013, are advised to contact the office of Registrar/Pricipal/Co-ordinator of their UGC- NET Coordinating Universities/Colleges from 21st to 29th June,2013.
xvi) Candidates should ensure that the signatures appended and photographs pasted by them inall the places, viz., in their Application Form, Attendance Slip and Admission Card should
be identical and there should be no variation of any kind.xvii) The candidates in their own interest are requested to retain a photocopy of the Application
Form and Attendance Slip for their record.xviii)
Applications submitted on any other format (including old UGC format) will not beaccepted.
xix)
Printout of online application sent directly to the UGC will not be accepted.
xx) Printout of online applications received after the last date (i.e. 13.05.2013) at the NET
Coordinating Universities/Colleges will not be accepted.xxi) Submission of Online Application is mandatory. Hard copies submitted to the NET
Coordinating Universities/Colleges without online submission, will not be accepted.
xxii)Application Form must be complete in all respects as per the Notification.
xxiii)
All incomplete Application Forms will be rejected.
xxiv) The marks of all the candidates will be uploaded on UGC website (www.ugcnetonline.in) soonafter declaration of result. Besides this, UGC will not issue any mark sheet to qualified/nonqualified candidates.
xxv)There is no provision for re-evaluation.
xxvi)
There is no provision of revision of keys once the result is declared.
xxvii)No candidate should be allowed to leave the examination hall/room before 11.30 a.m. in the 1st
session and 3.00 p.m. in the second session.xxviii)The candidate shall have to return the original OMR Sheet of Paper I & II together and Paper-III
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to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall/room. However, candidates are allowed tocarry the Test Booklets of Paper-I, II and III along with duplicate copy (carbon less copy) of OMRSheet on conclusion of examination.
xxix) The detailed instructions for the candidates will be uploaded on the UGC website
www.ugcnetonline.in or www.ugc.ac.in. during the last week of May, 2013. Candidates may
please see the instructions regarding use of Test Booklets, OMR Sheet and Specimen copy ofOMR Sheet from the UGC website. It may noted that instructions to candidates will not be sent tothe candidate by post.
xxx)
There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
xxxi)The decision of the Commission shall be final in all matters.
xxxii)
All legal disputes pertaining to this Test shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi Courts only.
13) ENCLOSURES TO BE SENT WITH THE APPLICATION :
The candidates should send the following documents with printout on separate A-4 size papers of their online Application Form (one copy) and Attendance Slip(one copy) :-
i) Copy ofBank Challan(UGC copy).
ii)Attested
copies ofSC/ST/Persons withDisability(PWD)/ OBC
(Non creamylayer)certificates,in caseapplicable.
iii)
Certificate ofeducationalqualification/researchexperience,
in caseapplicable,entitling the
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candidate foragerelaxation,duly attested
by aGazetted
Officer.
14) CHECK LIST FOR FILLING THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM :
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the OnlineApplication Forms:
i) Whether they
fulfil theeligibilityconditions forthe Test as
prescribed underthe headingCONDITIONSOFELIGIBILITYand AGELIMIT.
ii) That they have
filled theirCATEGORY,viz.,GEN/SC/ST/OBC (non-creamylayer), in therelevant columncorrectly.
iii)
That they havefilled theirsubject and NETCoordinatingUniversity/College and code inthe relevantcolumncorrectly.
iv)
That the Personswith Disability(PWD)
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candidates havefilled therelevant columnin the OnlineApplicationForm. Only
PWD candidateshave to fill thiscolumn and theothers have toleave it blank.
v) Whether they
have signed theprintout ofOnlineApplication
Form,Admission Cardand AttendanceSlip.
vi)
Whether theyhave enclosedthe requireddocuments withthe ApplicationForm beforesubmission atthe NETCoordinatingUniversity/College.
vii)
Whether theyhave kept a copyof the submitteddocuments for
their own record.
15)The list of States/union territories along with their respective codes is given below :
Andhra Pradesh(01), Arunachal Pradesh(02), Assam(03), Bihar(04), Delhi(05), Goa(06),Gujarat(07), Haryana(08), Himachal Pradesh(09), Jammu & Kashmir(10), Karnataka(11),Kerala(12), Madhya Pradesh(13), Maharashtra(14), Manipur(15), Meghalaya(16),Mizoram(17), Nagaland(18), Odisha(19), Punjab(20), Rajasthan(21), Sikkim(22), Tamil
Nadu(23), Tripura(24), Uttar Pradesh(25), West Bengal(26), Andaman & Nicobar
Islands(27), Dadar & Nagar Havelli(28), Daman & Diu(29), Lakshadweep(30),Pondicherry(31), Chhattisgarh(32), Jharkhand(33), Uttarakhand(34), Chandigarh(35).
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16) University Grants Commission shall not be responsible for any printing error(s) in this
Notification.
Paper I
This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
The English word Communication is
derived from the words
34 ?
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense
Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao
Zedong used a type of communication to
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talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
Conversing with the spirits and
ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
The largest circulated daily newspaper
among the following is
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
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(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald
The pioneer of the silent feature film in
India was
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Classroom communication of a teacher
rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation
The missing number in the series :0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
8. A group of 7 members having a
majority of boys is to be formed out of
6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways
the group can be formed is
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(A) 80
(B) 100 (C) 90
(D) 110
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280
8.
(A) 80
3
(D) 210
(B) 100 (C) 90
(D) 110
P.T.O.
9. The number of observations in a group
is 40. The average of the first 10
members is 4.5 and the average of the
remaining 30 members is 3.5. The
average of the whole group is
(A) 4
(B) 15/2
(C) 15/4
(D) 6
9.
(A) 4
(C) 15/4
10.
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10. If MOHAN is represented by the code
KMFYL, then COUNT will be
represented by
(A) AMSLR
(B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL
(D) SAMLR
11.
12.
13.
4
(B) 35, 15
(D) 40, 10
(A) 8
(C) 12
13. Consider the AssertionI and Assertion
II and select the right code given below :
AssertionI : Even Bank-lockers are
not safe. Thieves can break them
and take away your wealth. But
thieves can not go to heaven. So
you should keep your wealth in
heaven.
AssertionII : The difference of skin-
colour of beings is because of the
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distance from the sun and not
because of some permanent traits.
Skin-colour is the result of bodys
reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are
forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but
the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument
but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both
the
assertions
are
explanations of facts.
(B) MSLAR
(D) SAMLR
(A) 30, 20
(C) 38, 12
12. Let a means minus (), b means
multiplied by ( ), C means divided by
( ) and D means plus (+). The value of
90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8
(B) 10
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(C) 12
(D) 14
(B) 15/2
(D) 6
(A) AMSLR
(C) MASRL
11. The sum of the ages of two persons A
and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 5/3. The present age of A
and B are
(A) 30, 20
(B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12
(D) 40, 10
W-00
(B) 10
(D) 14
14. By which of the following proposition,
the proposition some men are not
honest is contradicted ?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
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(D) All of the above.
15. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true (A)
(B) always false (B)
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
16. Choose the appropriate alternative
given in the codes to replace the
question mark.
Examiner Examinee, Pleader Client,
Preceptor ?
(A) Customer (B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
17. If the statement most of the students
are obedient is taken to be true, which
one of the following pair of statements
can be claimed to be true ?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I & II
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV
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(D) II & IV
18. Choose the right code :
A deductive argument claims that :
I. The conclusion does not claim
something more than that which is
contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the
premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then
premise/premises may be either
true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises
is true, then conclusion must be
true.
Codes :
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) All the above
W-00
5
P.T.O.
On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social Services
(As percent of total expenditure)
Sl. No.
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Items
2007-08 2008-09 2009-10
Social Services
11.06
12.94
13.06
(a)
Education, sports & youth affairs
4.02
4.04
3.96
(b)
Health & family welfare
2.05
1.91
1.90
(c)
Water supply, housing, etc.
2.02
2.31
2.20
(d)
Information & broadcasting
0.22
0.22
0.20
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(e)
Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
0.36
0.35
0.41
(f)
Labour and employment
0.27
0.27
0.22
(g)
Social welfare & nutrition
0.82
0.72
0.79
(h)
North-eastern areas
0.00
1.56
1.50
(i)
Other social services
1.29
1.55
1.87
Total Government expenditure
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100.00
100.00
100.00
2010-11
14.02
4.46
2.03
2.27
0.22
0.63
0.25
1.06
1.75
1.34
100.00
19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09 ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All the above
20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10
(D) 2010-11
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21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of
expenditures ?
(A) North-eastern areas
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting
(D) Social welfare and nutrition
22. Which of the following items expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in
the given years ?
(A) Information & broadcasting
(B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment
(D) Social welfare & nutrition
23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in
expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Overall social services
24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of
expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Labour and employment
(B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Education, sports & youth affairs
2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11
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11.06
12.94
13.06
14.02
(a)
4.02
4.04
3.96
4.46
(b)
2.05
1.91
1.90
2.03
(c)
2.02
2.31
2.20
2.27
(d)
0.22
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0.22
0.20
0.22
(e)
0.36
0.35
0.41
0.63
(f)
0.27
0.27
0.22
0.25
(g)
0.82
0.72
0.79
1.06
(h)
0.00
1.56
1.50
1.75
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(i)
1.29
1.55
1.87
1.34
100.00
100.00
100.00
100.00
19.
(A) 2007-08
(C) 2009-10
(B)
(D)
2008-09
2010-11
25. ALU stands for
(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
25.
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26. A Personal Computer uses a number of
chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
27. Computer Virus is a
(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software
(D) None of these
28. Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29.
29. The file extension of MS-Word
document in Office 2007 is _______.
(A) .pdf
(B) .doc
(C) .docx
(D) .txt
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(A) TCP
(C) SMTP
30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail
clients to download e-mails to your
computer.
(A) TCP
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP
(D) POP
(B) FTP
(D) POP
31. Which of the following is a source of methane ?
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry
32. Minamata disaster in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium(D) Zinc
33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants in
living organisms
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(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
W-00
(17)10 = (17)16
(17)10 = (17)8
(17)10 = (10111)2
(17)10 = (10001)2
8
34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity
34.
35. The second most important source after
fossil fuels contributing to Indias
energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
35.
36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of
magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the
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amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy
of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude
of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of
seismic waves.
36.
37. Which of the following is not a measure
of Human Development Index ?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
37.
38.
38. India has the highest number of students
in colleges after
(A) the U.K.
(B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) Canada
39.
39. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are not correct about the Attorney
General of India ?
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1.
The President appoints a person,
who is qualified to be a Judge of a
High Court, to be the Attorney
General of India.
2.
He has the right of audience in all
the Courts of the country.
3.
He has the right to take part in the
proceedings of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha.
4.
He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 3 only
40. Which of the following prefix President
Pranab Mukherjee desires to be
discontinued while interacting with Indian
dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
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1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim
3. Honble
4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
41. Which of the following can be done
under conditions of financial emergency ?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be
abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire
control over the budget and
expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High
Courts and the Supreme Court can
be reduced.4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
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(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
42. Match List I with List II and select
the correct answer from the codes given
below :
List I
List II
(a) Poverty
(i) Mid-day
Reduction
Meals
Programme
(b) Human
(ii) Indira Awas
Development
Yojana
Scheme
(IAY)
(c) Social
(iii) National OldAssistance
Age Pension
Scheme
(NOAP)
(d) Minimum
(iv) MNREGA
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Need Scheme
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
40.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10
(a)
(iv)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(iii)
(c)
(iii)
(iv)
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(i)
(ii)
(d)
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
43. For an efficient and durable learning,
learner should have
(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level
motivation
of
ability
and
44. Classroom communication must be
(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
45. The best method of teaching is to
(A) impart information
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(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate
a
discussion
participate in it
and
46. Interaction inside the classroom should
generate
46.
(A) Argument
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
47. Spare the rod and spoil the child,
gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be
banned.
(B) corporal punishment notacceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must bepunished.
(D) children should be beaten withis
11
P.T.O.
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48. The type of communication that the
teacher has in the classroom, is termed
as
(A) Interpersonal(B) Mass communication(C) Group communication(D) Face-to-face communication
49. Which one of the following is an
indication of the quality of a research
journal ?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index
50. Good research ethics means
(A) Not disclosing the holdings of (A)shares/stocks in a company thatsponsors your research.
(B)(C)
Assigning a particular research
problem to one Ph.D./research
student only.
Discussing with your colleagues
confidential data from a research
paper that you are reviewing for
an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research
manuscript for publishing in more
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than one journal.
51.
51. Which of the following sampling
methods is based on probability ?
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
52. Which one of the following referencesis written according to AmericanPsychologicalAssociation(APA)format ?(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals
of Computer Science.New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill (C)(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals
of Computer Science.New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill (D)(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals ofComputer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals
of Computer Science,New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :1. Identification of research problem 1.
2. Listing of research objectives 2.3. Collection of data 3.4. Methodology 4.5. Data analysis 5.
6. Results and discussion 6.(A) 1 2 3 4 5 6
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(B) 1 2 4 3 5 6
(C) 2 1 3 4 5 6
(D) 2 1 4 3 5 6
54. Identify the incorrect statement : 54.
(A) A hypothesis is made on the basisof limited evidence as a starting
point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis forreasoning without any assumptionof its truth.
(C) Hypothesis
isa
proposedexplanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientifichypothesisisascientific theory.
W-00
(A)123456
(B)124356
(C)213456
(D)214356
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is
that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes
environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment,
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crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase
in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in
developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and
sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a
large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in
Asias largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access
to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined
during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional
urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant
progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional
population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements
must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and
strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.
55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Neutral
(D) Unspecified
56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million
(B) 40 million
(C) 50 million
(D) 60 million
57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
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(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life ?
(A) Tempo of urbanization
(B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress(D) The limits to growth