north anna initial exam 2010-301 final sro written exam. · 2019-10-30 · naps 2010 nrc sro exam...

FAC! AME: North Anna Section 9

REP1 UMBER: 05000338/2010301 AND 05000339/2010301

flNAL SRO WRITTEN EXAM

CONS

Vinal SRO Written Exam (25 ‘as given’ questions with changes madeuring administration annotated)R2ference Handouts Provided To Applicants

VA-swer Key

Loca ectronic FHes:

Submi

_____________________

Verified By:

FAC ,- E: North Anna Section 9

REP

CON

ER: 05000338/2010301 AND 05000339/2010301

I L SRO WRITTEN EXAM

V::inal RO Written Exam (25 'as given' questions with changes made ring administration annotated)

R::ference Handouts Provided To Applicants -/ A swer Key

Loca' f 'ectroni Files:

Submi: v: _______ Verified By: ________ _

ES-401 Site-Specific SRO Written Examination Form ES-401-8Cover Sheet

US. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

Site-Specific SRO Written Examination

Applicant Information

Name:

Date: 06/16/10 Facility/Unit: North Anna Units 1 & 2

Region: I LI ii [I Ill LI IVL] Reactor Type: WI1 CE LI BW LI GELI

Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions

Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheeton top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final gradeof at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only itemsif given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final gradeof 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours to complete the combined examination,and 3 hours if you are only taking the SRQ portion.

Applicant Certification

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicant’s Signature

Results

RO/SRO-Only/Total Examination Values 75 I 25 / 100 Points

Applicant’s Scores

______

/

_____

/

_____

Points

Applicant’s Grade

_____

/

_____

/

_____

Percent

ES-401, Page 31 of 33

ES-401 Site-Specific SRO Written Examination Cover Sheet

Form ES-401-8

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

Site-Specific SRO Written Examination

Applicant Information

Name:

Date: 06/16/10 Facility/Unit: North Anna Units 1 & 2

Region: 10 II[{] 1110 IVO Reactor Type: W[{] CE 0 BW 0 GEO

Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions

Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items if given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final grade of 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours to complete the combined examination, and 3 hours if you are only taking the SRO portion.

Applicant Certification

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Applicant's Signature

Results

RO/SRO-Only/Total Examination Values 75 / 25 / 100 Points -- -- --

Applicant's Scores -- / -- / -- Points

Applicant's Grade -- / -- / -- Percent

ES-401, Page 31 of 33

NAPS 2010 NRC SRO Exam

1.Given the following conditions:

• Unit us at MOL, starting up following a forced outage.

• The crew has just completed taking critical data.

• The OATC pulls rods to establish a positive startup rate.

When the OATC releases the IN-HOLD-OUT switch, rods continue to step outward.

Assuming NO operator actions are taken, which ONE of the following identifies the plant response to thisevent?

Power will increase to

_____________.

The power increase is terminated by the

_____________

A. 30%; Intermediate Range rod stop signal.

B. 30%; Power Range rod stop signal.

C. 25%; Intermediate Range reactor trip signal.

D. 25%; Power Range reactor trip signal.

1.


Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 is at MOL, starting up following a forced outage.

The crew has just completed taking critical data.

The OATC pulls rods to establish a positive startup rate.

When the OATC releases the IN-HOLD-OUT switch, rods continue to step outward.

Assuming NO operator actions are taken, which ONE of the following identifies the plant response to this event?

Power will increase to _____ . The power increase is terminated by the ____ _

A. 30%; Intermediate Range rod stop signal.

B. 30%; Power Range rod stop signal.

C. 25%; Intermediate Range reactor trip signal.

D. 25%; Power Range reactor trip signal.


2.Plant conditions are as follows:

• The crew is preparing to roll Unit I turbine.

• Reactor power is 8%.

• Turbine power is 0%.

• RCSTAVGi5551°F.

Based on these conditions, PRZR program level is

__________,

and letdown will automatically isolate ifPRZR level decreases to

___________

A. 28.4%; 15%

B. 28.4% ; 23.4%

C. 32.7%; 15%

D. 32.7% ; 27.7%

2.


Plant conditions are as follows:

The crew is preparing to roll Unit 1 turbine.

Reactor power is 8%.

Turbine power is 0%.

RCS T AVG is 551°F.

Based on these conditions, PRZR program level is ____ , and letdown will automatically isolate if PRZR level decreases to ___ _

A. 28.4%; 15%

B. 28.4%; 23.4%

C. 32.7%; 15%

D. 32.7%; 27.7%



• Unit 1 is starting up following a mid-cycle forced outage.

• The crew has commenced slowly raising power in preparations for rolling the turbine.

At approximately 4% power, “B RCP trips.

Which ONE of the following identifies the effect of the RCP trip on the Departure from Nucleate BoilingRatio (DNBR), AND includes the procedurally required action the crew will take to mitigate this event?

A. DNBR has decreased; stop power increase and be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.

B. DNBR has decreased ; trip the reactor.

C. DNBR has increased ; stop power increase and be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.

D. DNBR has increased ; trip the reactor.

3.



Unit 1 is starting up following a mid-cycle forced outage.

The crew has commenced slowly raising power in preparations for rolling the turbine.

At approximately 4% power, "B" RCP trips.

Which ONE of the following identifies the effect of the RCP trip on the Departure from Nucleate Boiling Ratio (DNBR), AND includes the procedurally required action the crew will take to mitigate this event?

A. DNBR has decreased; stop power increase and be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.

B. DNBR has decreased; trip the reactor.

C. DNBR has increased; stop power increase and be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.

D. DNBR has increased; trip the reactor.


4.The Auxiliary Building Operator reports that the running charging pump, 1-CH-P-1A, seems to be makingsome unusual noises.

Which ONE of the following identifies the PCS parameter that can be trended by the OATCs to evaluatethe status of 1-CH-P-1A?

A. Cubicle Temperature.

B. Inboard Pump Bearing Temperature.

C. Gear Box Cooler Outlet Service Water Temperature.

D. Lube Oil Cooler Service Water Outlet Flow.

4.


The Auxiliary Building Operator reports that the running charging pump, 1-CH-P-1A, seems to be making some unusual noises.

Which ONE of the following identifies the PCS parameter that can be trended by the OATCs to evaluate the status of 1-CH-P-1A?

A. Cubicle Temperature.

B. Inboard Pump Bearing Temperature.

C. Gear Box Cooler Outlet Service Water Temperature.

D. Lube Oil Cooler Service Water Outlet Flow.


5.Unit I is at 100% power with the following charging pump configuration:

• 1-CH-P-1A is running.

• 1-CH-P-1B is in AUTO.

• 1-OH-P-iC is tagged out for breaker inspections.

The OATC notes the following indications:

• 1-CH-Pl-1121, Discharge Header Pressure - erratic.

• 1-CH-Fl-1 122, Charging Flow - erratic.

• 1-OH-P-lA, Motor Amps - erratic.

Based on these plant conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the cause of these indications ANDincludes the actions taken per 1-AP-49, Loss of Normal Charging, to mitigate this event?

A. Gas binding of 1-CH-P-1A;place 1-OH-P-lB and 1-OH-P-IA in PTL, then vent and start 1-OH-P-i B.

B. Gas binding of 1-OH-P-IA;start i-OH-P-lB and stop 1-OH-P-iA, then vent 1-OH-P-IA.

C. Relief valve stuck open on 1-CH-P-1A;stop 1-OH-P-lA and close 1-OH-P-IA discharge MOVs, then start 1-CH-P-IB.

D. Relief valve stuck open on 1-OH-P-IA;start 1-OH-P-IB, then stop 1-OH-P-lA and close 1-CH-P-IA discharge MOVs.

5.


Unit 1 is at 100% power with the following charging pump configuration:

1-CH-P-1A is running.

1-CH-P-1B is in AUTO.

1-CH-P-1C is tagged out for breaker inspections.

The OATC notes the following indications:

1-CH-PI-1121, Discharge Header Pressure - erratic.

1-CH-FI-1122, Charging Flow - erratic.

1-CH-P-1A, Motor Amps - erratic.

Based on these plant conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the cause of these indications AND includes the actions taken per 1-AP-49, Loss of Normal Charging, to mitigate this event?

A. Gas binding of 1-CH-P-1A; place 1-CH-P-1B and 1-CH-P-1A in PTL, then vent and start 1-CH-P-1B.

B. Gas binding of 1-CH-P-1A; start 1-CH-P-1B and stop 1-CH-P-1A, then vent 1-CH-P-1A.

C. Relief valve stuck open on 1-CH-P-1 A; stop 1-CH-P-1A and close 1-CH-P-1A discharge MOVs, then start 1-CH-P-1 B.

D. Relief valve stuck open on 1-CH-P-1A; start 1-CH-P-1B, then stop 1-CH-P-1Aand close 1-CH-P-1Adischarge MOVs.



• RCS temperature is 175°F.

• RCS pressure is 305 psig.

• The PRZR is solid.

• Charging flow control is in manual.

• RHR is in service, with the “A” RI-JR heat exchanger and 1-RH-P-lA in service.

• 1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR HIX bypass, is in AUTO.

The “A” RHR heat exchanger suddenly develops a 150 gpm tube leak.

Which ONE of the following identifies the effect of this malfunction on RHR pump flow, and on RCSpressure?(assume NO operator actions are taken)

A. RHR pump flow remains the same; RCS pressure remains the same

B. RHR pump flow remains the same; RCS pressure decreases

C. RHR pump flow increases; RCS pressure remains the same

D. RHR pump flow increases; RCS pressure decreases

6.



RCS temperature is 175°F.

RCS pressure is 305 psig.

The PRZR is solid.

Charging flow control is in manual.

RHR is in service, with the "A" RHR heat exchanger and 1-RH-P-1A in service.

1-RH-FCV-1605, RHR H/X bypass, is in AUTO.

The "A" RHR heat exchanger suddenly develops a 150 gpm tube leak.

Which ONE of the following identifies the effect of this malfunction on RHR Q.!d!JJ.Q flow, and on RCS pressure?(assume NO operator actions are taken)

A. RHR pump flow remains the same; RCS pressure remains the same

B. RHR pump flow remains the same; RCS pressure decreases

C. RHR pump flow increases; RCS pressure remains the same

D. RHR pump flow increases; RCS pressure decreases


7.Unit 1 was at 100% power when a small-break LOCA occurred. The crew is currently performing 1-E-1,Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

The Unit Supervisor is at step 6, Check if SI Can Be Terminated.

The following conditions exist:

• Containment pressure is 22 psia and slowly decreasing.

• RCS pressure is 1085 psig and slowly increasing.

• PRZR level is 30% and slowly increasing.

• CETCs are 490°F and stable.

• RCS loop hot-leg temperatures are 475°F and stable.

• AFW has been throttled to 150 gpm to each SG.

• “A” ICCM indicates subcooling of 66°F.

• “B” ICCM indicates subcooling of 80°F.

Given these conditions,

______________

, and SI termination criteria

______________

A. “A” ICCM is indicating correctly; are met

B. “A” ICCM is indicating correctly; are NOT met

C. “B” ICCM is indicating correctly; are met

D. “B” ICCM is indicating correctly; are NOT met

7.


Unit 1 was at 100% power when a small-break LOCA occurred. The crew is currently performing 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

The Unit Supervisor is at step 6, Check if SI Can 8e Terminated.


Containment pressure is 22 psia and slowly decreasing.

RCS pressure is 1085 psig and slowly increasing.

PRZR level is 30% and slowly increasing.

CETCs are 490°F and stable.

RCS loop hot-leg temperatures are 475°F and stable.

AFW has been throttled to 150 gpm to each SG.

"A" ICCM indicates subcooling of 66°F.

"8" ICCM indicates subcooling of 80°F.

Given these conditions, _____ , and SI termination criteria ____ _

A. "A" ICCM is indicating correctly; are met

8. "A" ICCM is indicating correctly; are NOT met

C. "8" ICCM is indicating correctly; are met

D. "8" ICCM is indicating correctly; are NOT met



• Unit 1 is at 50% power.

• “B” and “C’ MFW pumps are tagged out.

• “A’ MEW pump trips.

The OATC attempted to trip the reactor, but the reactor trip breakers did NOT open.

Assuming NO additional operator actions are taken, which ONE of the following identifies how theAMSAC System will function to mitigate this event?

AMSAC will open the Rod Drive MG Set

____________

A. supply breakers immediately after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

B. supply breakers 27 seconds after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

C. output breakers immediately after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

D. output breakers 27 seconds after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

8.



Unit 1 is at 50% power.

"B" and "c" MFW pumps are tagged out.

"A" MFW pump trips.

The OATC attempted to trip the reactor, but the reactor trip breakers did NOT open.

Assuming NO additional operator actions are taken, which ONE of the following identifies how the AMSAC System will function to mitigate this event?

AMSAC will open the Rod Drive MG Set ____ _

A. supply breakers immediately after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

B. supply breakers 27 seconds after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

C. output breakers immediately after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.

D. output breakers 27 seconds after level in 2/3 SGs reaches 13% narrow-range.


9.Unit 1 is at 100% power when annunciator lB-Hi, PRZ RELIEF TK HI TEMP, is received.

The OATC confirms the alarm is valid, and notes that PRT level, pressure, and temperature have beenslowly increasing since assuming the watch.

Which ONE of the following identifies the source of PRT inleakage that has caused these plant conditionsAND includes the flowpath used to drain the heated water from the PRT?

A. Letdown Relief Valve 1-CH-RV-1203 leaking by;PRT is drained to the PDTT and the PDTT is pumped directly to the in-service Boron Recovery Tank.

B. Letdown Relief Valve i-CH-RV-1203 leaking by;PRT is drained to the PDTT and the PDTT is pumped directly to the Gas Stripper.

C. Reactor Vessel Flange 0-ring leakage;PRT is drained to the PDTT and the PDTT is pumped directly to the in-service Boron Recovery Tank.

D. Reactor Vessel Flange 0-ring leakage;PRT is drained to the PDTT and the PDTT is pumped directly to the Gas Stripper.

9.


Unit 1 is at 100% power when annunciator 1 B-H1, PRZ RELIEF TK HI TEMP, is received.

The OATC confirms the alarm is valid, and notes that PRT level, pressure, and temperature have been slowly increasing since assuming the watch.

Which ONE of the following identifies the source of PRT inleakage that has caused these plant conditions AND includes the flowpath used to drain the heated water from the PRT?

A. Letdown Relief Valve 1-CH-RV-1203 leaking by; PRT is drained to the POTT and the POTT is pumped directly to the in-service Boron Recovery Tank.

B. Letdown Relief Valve 1-CH-RV-1203 leaking by; PRT is drained to the POTT and the POTT is pumped directly to the Gas Stripper.

C. Reactor Vessel Flange O-ring leakage; PRT is drained to the POTT and the POTT is pumped directly to the in-service Boron Recovery Tank.

O. Reactor Vessel Flange O-ring leakage; PRT is drained to the POTT and the POTT is pumped directly to the Gas Stripper.


10.Operators are performing 1-OP-li, Unit Startup from Mode 5 at Less Than 140°F to Mode 5 at LessThan 200°F, in order to establish a steam bubble in the PRZR.

Which ONE of the following identifies the PRZR temperature that operators should expect the steambubble to form as stated in i-Op-i .i, includes the action to be taken once bubble formation begins?

A. 425°F; throttle closed i-CH-PCV-1i45, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

B. 425°F; throttle open 1-CH-PCV-1145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

C. 450°F; throttle closed i-CH-PCV-i145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

D. 450°F; throttle open i-CH-PCV-1 145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

10.


Operators are performing 1-0P-1.1, Unit Startup from Mode 5 at Less Than 140°F to Mode 5 at Less Than 200°F, in order to establish a steam bubble in the PRZR.

Which ONE of the following identifies the PRZR temperature that operators should expect the steam bubble to form as stated in 1-0P-1.1, AND includes the action to be taken once bubble formation begins?

A. 425°F; throttle closed 1-CH-PCV-1145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

B. 425°F; throttle open 1-CH-PCV-1145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

C. 450°F; throttle closed 1-CH-PCV-1145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.

D. 450°F; throttle open 1-CH-PCV-1145, Letdown Pressure Control Valve.


11.Both Units are at 100% power.

1-CC-PCV-1 10, Component Cig Pps Recirc Hdr Pressure Control Vv, is 50% open and controlling CCsystem pressure.

Due to a tagging error, the instrument air supply to 1-CC-PCV-110 is inadvertently closed.

When instrument air is isolated to I -CC-PCV-1 10, indicated pressure on 1 -CC-Pl-1 00, CC HX OutletPressure, will

_______________

and 2-CC-PCV-210 will

_____________________

A. decrease ; throttle closed.

B. decrease; NOT change position.

C. increase ; throttle open.

D. increase; NOT change position.

11.


Both Units are at 100% power.

1-CC-PCV-110, Component Clg Pps Recirc Hdr Pressure Control Vv, is 50% open and controlling CC system pressure.

Due to a tagging error, the instrument air supply to 1-CC-PCV-110 is inadvertently closed.

When instrument air is isolated to 1-CC-PCV-110, indicated pressure on 1-CC-PI-100, CC HX Outlet Pressure, will and 2-CC-PCV-210 will ________ _

A. decrease; throttle closed.

B. decrease; NOT change position.

C. increase; throttle open.

D. increase; NOT change position.


12.Unit 1 is at 100% power.

A PRZR safety valve has indications of leakage.


• PRZR pressure is 2220 psig and slowly increasing.

• PRT pressure is 10 psig and slowly increasing.

Which ONE of the following identifies the expected temperature indication downstream of the safetyvalve, AND includes the reason for the indication?

A. Approximately 240° F because this is an isenthalpic process.

B. Approximately 240°F because this is an isentropic process.

C. Approximately 650°F because this is an isenthalpic process.

D. Approximately 650° F because this is an isentropic process.

12.



A PRZR safety valve has indications of leakage.


PRZR pressure is 2220 psig and slowly increasing.

PRT pressure is 10 psig and slowly increasing.

Which ONE of the following identifies the expected temperature indication downstream of the safety valve, AND includes the reason for the indication?

A. Approximately 240°F because this is an isenthalpic process.

B. Approximately 240°F because this is an isentropic process.

c. Approximately 650°F because this is an isenthalpic process.

D. Approximately 650°F because this is an isentropic process.



Component Cooling pumps 1-CC-P-lA and 2-CC-P-IA are running.

The following Unit 1 alarms are received:

• 1G-B3, CC HX lA-lB CC OUTLET LO FLOW.

• 1C-C4, RCP lA-B-C THERM BARR CC HI/LO FLOW.

ALL other Unit 1 alarms are dear.

Which ONE of the following explains the cause of these alarms, AND includes the appropriate operatorresponse?

A. Breaker 15H12, Stub Bus Supply Breaker, inadvertently opened;manually start 1 -CC-P-I B.

B. Breaker 15H12, Stub Bus Supply Breaker, inadvertently opened;verify 1-CC-P-I B automatically starts after 20 seconds.

C. Breaker 15H13, I-CC-P-lA Supply Breaker, overcurrent trip;manually start 1 -CC-P-l B.

D. Breaker 15H13, 1-CC-P-lA Supply Breaker, overcurrent trip;verify I-CC-P-I B automatically starts after 20 seconds.

13.



Component Cooling pumps 1-CC-P-1A and 2-CC-P-1A are running.

The following Unit 1 alarms are received:

1 G-B3, CC HX 1 A-1 B CC OUTLET LO FLOW.

1C-C4, RCP 1A-B-C THERM BARR CC HI/LO FLOW.

ALL other Unit 1 alarms are clear.

Which ONE of the following explains the cause of these alarms, AND includes the appropriate operator response?

A. Breaker 15H12, Stub Bus Supply Breaker, inadvertently opened; manually start 1-CC-P-1 B.

B. Breaker 15H 12, Stub Bus Supply Breaker, inadvertently opened; verify 1-CC-P-1 B automatically starts after 20 seconds.

C. Breaker 15H13, 1-CC-P-1A Supply Breaker, overcurrent trip; manually start 1-CC-P-1 B.

D. Breaker 15H13, 1-CC-P-1A Supply Breaker, overcurrent trip; verify 1-CC-P-1 B automatically starts after 20 seconds.



• Unit 1 was initially at 100% power.

• An RCS LOCA occurred.

• The crew tripped the Unit and initiated safety injection.

Plant conditions degraded, and CDA automatically actuated several minutes later.

Based on the above sequence of events, the RSHX SW Outlet Radiation Monitor Sample Pumps,1-SW-P-5, 6, 7, and 8, started

_____________

A. immediately after SI was initiated.

B. 2 minutes after SI was initiated.

C. immediately after CDA actuated.

D. 2 minutes after CDA actuated.

14.



Unit 1 was initially at 100% power.

An RCS LOCA occurred.

The crew tripped the Unit and initiated safety injection.

Plant conditions degraded, and COA automatically actuated several minutes later.

Based on the above sequence of events, the RSHX SW Outlet Radiation Monitor Sample Pumps, 1-SW-P-5, 6, 7, and 8, started ____ _

A. immediately after SI was initiated.

B. 2 minutes after SI was initiated.

C. immediately after COA actuated.

O. 2 minutes after COA actuated.



The OATC notes that all of the PRZR Backup Heater white status lights on the vertical board are ON, andPRZR pressure is 2260 psig and slowly increasing.

Assuming no operator action is taken, which ONE of the following identifies the failed channel, ANDincludes the system response to this failure?

A. 1-RC-PT-1444 failed ; the PRZR spray valves will modulate open.

B. 1-RC-PT-1444 failed ; one PRZR PORV will open.

C. 1-RC-PT-1445 failed the PRZR spray valves will modulate open.

D. 1-RC-PT-1445 failed ; one PRZR PORV will open.

15.



The OATC notes that all of the PRZR Backup Heater white status lights on the vertical board are ON, and PRZR pressure is 2260 psig and slowly increasing.

Assuming no operator action is taken, which ONE of the following identifies the failed channel, AND includes the system response to this failure?

A. 1-RC-PT-1444 failed; the PRZR spray valves will modulate open.

B. 1-RC-PT-1444 failed; one PRZR PORV will open.

C. 1-RC-PT-1445 failed; the PRZR spray valves will modulate open.

D. 1-RC-PT-1445 failed; one PRZR PORV will open.


16.Unit 1 was initially at 100% power.

A LOCA occurred, and operators have transitioned to 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.


• RCS pressure is 450 psig and decreasing slowly.

• SG pressures are 800 psig and decreasing slowly.

• CETCs are 580°F and decreasing.

• RCS loop cold-leg temperatures are 290°F and decreasing.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies ALL of the systems that are providingcooling water to the core, AND includes the status of natural circulation?

A. High Head SI flow AND Low Head SI flow; natural circulation is occurring

B. High Head SI flow AND Low Head SI flow; natural circulation is NOT occurring

C. ONLY High Head SI flow; natural circulation is occurring

D. ONLY High Head SI flow; natural circulation is NOT occurring

16.



A LOCA occurred, and operators have transitioned to 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.


RCS pressure is 450 psig and decreasing slowly.

SG pressures are 800 psig and decreasing slowly.

CETCs are 580°F and decreasing.

RCS loop cold-leg temperatures are 290°F and decreasing.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies ALL of the systems that are providing cooling water to the core, AND includes the status of natural circulation?

A. High Head SI flow AND Low Head SI flow; natural circulation is occurring

B. High Head SI flow AND Low Head SI flow; natural circulation is NOT occurring

c. ONLY High Head SI flow; natural circulation is occurring

D. ONLY High Head SI flow; natural circulation is NOT occurring


17.The Solid State Protection System slave relays are powered from 12OVAC Vital busses.Train “A” is powered from

_____________

, and Train “B” is powered from

_____________

A. busses I and II; busses III and IV

B. busses I and Ill; busses II and IV

C. bus I ONLY; bus III ONLY

D. bus II ONLY; bus IV ONLY


17. The Solid State Protection System slave relays are powered from 120VAC Vital busses. Train "A" is powered from , and Train "8" is powered from ____ _

A. busses I and II ; busses III and IV

8. busses I and III ; busses II and IV

C. bus I ONLY; bus III ONLY

D. bus II ONLY; bus IV ONLY


18.Which ONE of the following reactor trips is designed to protect the core from a Departure from NucleateBoiling condition?

A. Overpower Delta T

B. Overtemperature Delta T

C. Pressurizer High Level

D. Steam Generator Low-Low Water Level

18.


Which ONE of the following reactor trips is designed to protect the core from a Departure from Nucleate Boiling condition?

A. Overpower Delta T

B. Overtemperature Delta T

c. Pressurizer High Level

D. Steam Generator Low-Low Water Level


19.Which ONE of the following identifies the source of control power for the breaker for 1-SI-P-lA, A” LowHead Safety Injection Pump?

A. 12OVAC Vital bus 1-I

8. 12OVAC Vital bus 1-Ill

C. 125VDC Vital bus 1-I

D. 125VDC Vital bus 1-Ill

19.


Which ONE of the following identifies the source of control power for the breaker for 1-SI-P-1A, "A" Low Head Safety Injection Pump?

A. 120VAC Vital bus 1-1

B. 120VAC Vital bus 1-111

C. 125VDC Vital bus 1-1

D. 125VDC Vital bus 1-111



• Unit I was initially at 100% power.

• Reactor trip and SI occurred due to a large-break LOCA.

• A loss of inventory outside containment is occurring and the crew is unable to isolate it.

• RWST level is continuing to decrease.

Which ONE of the following identifies the RWST level setpoint at which automatic swapover toContainment Sump will occur ffl includes the actions that will prevent the automatic swapover?

A. 16%; reset CDA and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Pushbuttons

B. 16% ; reset SI and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Pushbuttons

C. 23%; reset CDA and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Pushbuttons

D. 23% ; reset SI and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Pushbuttons

20.




Reactor trip and SI occurred due to a large-break LOCA.

A loss of inventory outside containment is occurring and the crew is unable to isolate it.

RWST level is continuing to decrease.

Which ONE of the following identifies the RWST level setpoint at which automatic swapover to Containment Sump will occur AND includes the actions that will prevent the automatic swapover?

A. 16%; reset COA and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Pushbuttons

B. 16%; reset SI and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Push buttons

C. 23%; reset COA and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Push buttons

D. 23%; reset SI and push both SI Recirc Mode Reset Push buttons


21.Which ONE of the following identifies the normal power source to Unit 1 Individual Rod Position Indication(IRPI) System, AND includes the system response in the event of a loss of that power supply?

A. MCC1H1-1;The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for an indefinite period of time.

B. MCC1H1-1;The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for a limited period of time.

C. MCC1J1-1;The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for an indefinite period of time.

D. MCC1J1-1;The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for a limited period of time.

21.


Which ONE of the following identifies the normal power source to Unit 1 Individual Rod Position Indication (IRPI) System, AND includes the system response in the event of a loss of that power supply?

A. MCC 1H1-1; The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for an indefinite period of time.

B. MCC 1H1-1; The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for a limited period of time.

C. MCC 1J1-1; The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for an indefinite period of time.

D. MCC 1J1-1; The Unit 1 IRPI System will have power for a limited period of time.



A total loss of CC flow has occurred, and the crew entered 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling.

Which ONE of the following identifies the component that will reach its temperature limit the soonest forthis event, f±Q includes the maximum temperature that is allowed by 1-AP-15 before a reactor trip isrequired?

A. RCP pump radial bearing ; 195°F

B. RCP pump radial bearing ; 225°F

C. RCP motor bearings; 195°F

D. RCP motor bearings; 225°F

22.



A total loss of CC flow has occurred, and the crew entered 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling.

Which ONE of the following identifies the component that will reach its temperature limit the soonest for this event, AND includes the maximum temperature that is allowed by 1-AP-15 before a reactor trip is required?

A. RCP pump radial bearing; 195°F

B. RCP pump radial bearing; 225°F

C. RCP motor bearings; 195°F

D. RCP motor bearings; 225°F



• Unit 1 is in mode 3.

• Power Range channel N-44 is tagged out.

• A loss of 12OVAC Vital bus 1-Ill occurs.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the response of the Source-range NIs,AND includes the reason?

Source-range channel(s)

_____________________

A. N-31 Qjy will be de-energized due to the P-1O permissive.

B. N-31 and N-32 will both be de-energized due to the P-1O permissive.

C. N-31 jjy will be de-energized due to the P-6 permissive.

D. N-31 and N-32 will both be de-energized due to the P-6 permissive.

23.



Unit 1 is in mode 3.

Power Range channel N-44 is tagged out.

A loss of 120VAC Vital bus 1-111 occurs.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the response of the Source-range Nls, AND includes the reason?

Source-range channel(s) _______ _

A. N-31 only will be de-energized due to the P-10 permissive.

B. N-31 and N-32 will both be de-energized due to the P-10 permissive.

C. N-31 only will be de-energized due to the P-6 permissive.

D. N-31 and N-32 will both be de-energized due to the P-6 permissive.



• Unit 1 was initially at 100% power with 1H EDG tagged out.

• A loss of offsite power occurred, and 1J EDG locked out.

• Operators implemented 1-ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC Power.

• Power was restored to one emergency bus from the SBO Diesel.

The crew transitioned to 1-ECA-0.2, Loss of All AC Power Recovery with SI Required, Step 1.


• Containment pressure is 18 psia and slowly increasing.

• RCS pressure is 1100 psig and stable.

• CETCs are 1300°F and slowly increasing.

• RVLIS is oscillating between 64% and 68%.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the procedural flowpath the crew willtake to mitigate this event?

A. Immediately transition to 1-FR-Cl, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling;once the core cooling function is restored, return to 1-ECA-0.2, Step 1.

B. Immediately transition to 1-FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling;once the core cooling function is restored, return to 1-ECA-0.2, Step 1.

C. Continue performing 1-ECA-0.2;transition to 1-FR-C.1 when directed by 1-ECA-0.2.

D. Continue performing 1 -ECA-0.2;transition to 1-FR-C.2 when directed by 1-ECA-0.2.

24.



Unit 1 was initially at 100% power with 1 H EDG tagged out.

A loss of offsite power occurred, and 1J EDG locked out.

Operators implemented 1-ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC Power.

Power was restored to one emergency bus from the SBO Diesel.

The crew transitioned to 1-ECA-0.2, Loss of All AC Power Recovery with SI Required, Step 1.


Containment pressure is 18 psia and slowly increasing.

RCS pressure is 1100 psig and stable.

CETCs are 1300°F and slowly increasing.

RVLlS is oscillating between 64% and 68%.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following identifies the procedural flowpath the crew will take to mitigate this event?

A. Immediately transition to 1-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling; once the core cooling function is restored, return to 1-ECA-0.2, Step 1.

B. Immediately transition to 1-FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling; once the core cooling function is restored, return to 1-ECA-0.2, Step 1.

C. Continue performing 1-ECA-0.2; transition to 1-FR-C.1 when directed by 1-ECA-0.2.

D. Continue performing 1-ECA-0.2; transition to 1-FR-C.2 when directed by 1-ECA-0.2.


25.If a loss of chilled water occurs,

____________

must be aligned to the CAREs in order to preventcontainment temperature from exceeding the Technical Specification limit of

___________

A. Component Cooling Water; 105°F

B. Component Cooling Water; 115°F

C. Service Water; 105°F

D. Service Water; 115°F


25. If a loss of chilled water occurs, must be aligned to the CARFs in order to prevent containment temperature from exceeding the Technical Specification limit of ___ _

A. Component Cooling Water; 105°F

B. Component Cooling Water; 115°F

C. Service Water; 105°F

D. Service Water; 115°F



• Unit 1 is on RHR, and has just entered Mode 5 for a scheduled refueling outage.


• Unit 1 has one CC pump and one SW pump running.

• Unit 2 has two CC pumps and two SW pumps running.

• All Service Water spray arrays are in service.

Unit 2 experiences a catastrophic failure of the “A” Main Steamline inside Containment.

Which ONE of the following describes the iitial effect of this event on Unit 1 RHR temperature, ANDincludes the reason?

RHR temperature will

A. increase due to the decrease in total CC flow.

B. increase due to the decrease in total SW flow.

C. decrease due to the increase in total CC flow.

D. decrease due to the increase in total SW flow.

26.



Unit 1 is on RHR, and has just entered Mode 5 for a scheduled refueling outage.


Unit 1 has one CC pump and one SW pump running.

Unit 2 has two CC pumps and two SW pumps running.

All Service Water spray arrays are in service.

Unit 2 experiences a catastrophic failure of the "A" Main Steamline inside Containment.

Which ONE of the following describes the initial effect of this event on Unit 1 RHR temperature, AND includes the reason?

RHR temperature will ____ _

A. increase due to the decrease in total CC flow.

B. increase due to the decrease in total SW flow.

C. decrease due to the increase in total CC flow.

D. decrease due to the increase in total SW flow.



• Unit 1 was initially at 100% power with Quench Spray pump 1-QS-P-1 B tagged out.

• A LOCA occurred 7 minutes ago.

The crew is performing 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Attachment 2, Verification of Phase BIsolation.

The crew notes the following indications:

• 1-QS-MOV-102A, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve, GREEN and RED lights both OFF.

• 1-QS-MOV-102B, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve, GREEN light ON, RED light OFF.

• 1-QS-Ll-101, Chemical Addition Tank Level, 90% and stable.

Which ONE of the following describes the action required by 1-E-0, Attachment 2, AND includes theconsequence if the above malfunction is not corrected?

A. Locally open 1-QS-MOV-102A, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve;reduced boron concentration of containment sump water.

B. Locally open 1-QS-MOV-102A, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve;reduced effectiveness of containment Iodine removal.

C. Manually open 1-QS-MOV-102B, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve;reduced boron concentration of containment sump water.

D. Manually open 1-QS-MOV-102B, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve;reduced effectiveness of containment Iodine removal.

27.



Unit 1 was initially at 100% power with Quench Spray pump 1-QS-P-1 B tagged out.

A LOCA occurred 7 minutes ago.

The crew is performing 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, Attachment 2, Verification of Phase B Isolation.

The crew notes the following indications:

1-QS-MOV-102A, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve, GREEN and RED lights both OFF.

1-QS-MOV-102B, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve, GREEN light ON, RED light OFF.

1-QS-Ll-1 01, Chemical Addition Tank Level, 90% and stable.

Which ONE of the following describes the action required by 1-E-0, Attachment 2, AND includes the consequence if the above malfunction is not corrected?

A. Locally open 1-QS-MOV-102A, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve; reduced boron concentration of containment sump water.

B. Locally open 1-QS-MOV-102A, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve; reduced effectiveness of containment Iodine removal.

C. Manually open 1-QS-MOV-1 02B, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve; reduced boron concentration of containment sump water.

D. Manually open 1-QS-MOV-102B, Chemical Addition Tank Outlet Valve; reduced effectiveness of containment Iodine removal.


28.In the event that CC is lost and cannot be readily restored, 1-AP-1 5, Loss of Component Cooling, willdirect the operator to align

____________________

to the Fuel Pit Coolers.

A. Chilled Water

B. Fire Protection Water

C. Primary Grade Water

D. Service Water


28. In the event that CC is lost and cannot be readily restored, 1-AP-15, Loss of Component Cooling, will direct the operator to align to the Fuel Pit Coolers.

A Chilled Water

B. Fire Protection Water

C. Primary Grade Water

D. Service Water



• Unit 1 is at 30% power and holding for chemistry.

• The block valve for 1-RC-PCV-1455C, PRZR PORV, is closed.

1-RC-PC-1444J, PRZR Master Pressure Controller, fails to 100% demand and will not swap to MANUAL.

In response to this event, the crew will

______________

A. manually open spray valves to prevent cycling a PRZR PORV.

B. manually open spray valves to prevent a reactor trip.

C. manually close spray valves to prevent a turbine runback.

D. manually close spray valves to prevent a reactor trip.


29. Given the following conditions:

Unit 1 is at 30% power and holding for chemistry.

The block valve for 1-RC-PCV-1455C, PRZR PORV, is closed.

1-RC-PC-1444J, PRZR Master Pressure Controller, fails to 100% demand and will not swap to MANUAL.

In response to this event, the crew will _____ _

A. manually open spray valves to prevent cycling a PRZR PORV.

B. manually open spray valves to prevent a reactor trip.

C. manually close spray valves to prevent a turbine runback.

D. manually close spray valves to prevent a reactor trip.


30.Containment Purge is in service on Unit 1.

Which ONE of the following identifies conditions that will automatically isolate Containment Purge’?

A. 1-RM-RMS-159, Containment Particulate Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm.1-VG-Rl-179-1, MGP Vent StackARad monitor, Hi alarm.

B. 1-RM-RMS-162, Manipulator Crane Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm.1-VG-RI-180-1, MGP Vent Stack B Rad monitor, Hi alarm.

C. 1-RM-RMS-159, Containment Particulate Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm.I -RM-RMS-l 62, Manipulator Crane Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm.

D. l-RM-RMS-160, Containment Gaseous Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm.l-VG-Rl-180-l, MGP Vent Stack B Rad monitor, Hi alarm.

30.


Containment Purge is in service on Unit 1.

Which ONE of the following identifies conditions that will automatically isolate Containment Purge?

A. 1-RM-RMS-159, Containment Particulate Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm. 1-VG-RI-179-1, MGP Vent Stack A Rad monitor, Hi alarm.

B. 1-RM-RMS-162, Manipulator Crane Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm. 1-VG-RI-180-1, MGP Vent Stack BRad monitor, Hi alarm.

C. 1-RM-RMS-159, Containment Particulate Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm. 1-RM-RMS-162, Manipulator Crane Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm.

D. 1-RM-RMS-160, Containment Gaseous Radiation Monitor, Hi-Hi alarm. 1-VG-RI-180-1, MGP Vent Stack BRad monitor, Hi alarm.


31.The Plant Computer System (PCS) is unavailable.

In the event that the Main Control Room is evacuated, which ONE of the following identifies theinstrument used to monitor reactor status, AND includes the location of the indicator?

A. Excore Neutron Flux Monitor System Ch. I; Emergency Switchgear Room

B. Excore Neutron Flux Monitor System Ch. I; Fuel Building

C. Source Range Channel N-31 ; Emergency Switchgear Room

D. Source Range Channel N-31 Fuel Building

31.


The Plant Computer System (PCS) is unavailable.

In the event that the Main Control Room is evacuated, which ONE of the following identifies the instrument used to monitor reactor status, AND includes the location of the indicator?

A. Excore Neutron Flux Monitor System Ch. I ; Emergency Switchgear Room

B. Excore Neutron Flux Monitor System Ch. I ; Fuel Building

C. Source Range Channel N-31 ; Emergency Switchgear Room

D. Source Range Channel N-31 ; Fuel Building


32.Unit 1 is in Mode 2.

A CONTROL POWER fuse blows on Intermediate Range Channel N-35.

Which ONE of the following identifies the plant response for this event?

A. N-35 detector will indicate downscale and the reactor will trip.

B. N-35 detector will indicate normally and the reactor will trip.

C. N-35 detector will indicate downscale and the reactor will NOT trip.

D. N-35 detector will indicate normally and the reactor will NOT trip.


32. Unit 1 is in Mode 2.

A CONTROL POWER fuse blows on Intermediate Range Channel N-35.

Which ONE of the following identifies the plant response for this event?

A. N-35 detector will indicate downscale and the reactor will trip.

B. N-35 detector will indicate normally and the reactor will trip.

C. N-35 detector will indicate downscale and the reactor will NOT trip.

D. N-35 detector will indicate normally and the reactor will NOT trip.



• Unit 1 has been shutdown for 6 days.

• Containment purge is in service on Unit 1.

• “A’ containment air recirc fan (CARF) is running.

• Core off-load is in progress.

The “A’ CARE trips, and the crew is unable to restart any CARE.

Which ONE of the following describes impacts of this failure on the Radiation Monitoring System, AND onthe core off-load in accordance with 1-OP-4.1, Controlling Procedure for Refueling?

A. 1-RM-RMS-159 and -160, Containment Particulate and Gaseous monitors, are BOTH inoperable;Station Management approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

B. 1-RM-RMS-160, Containment Gaseous monitor ONLY is inoperable;Station Management approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

C. 1-RM-RMS-159 and -160, Containment Particulate and Gaseous monitors, are BOTH inoperable;Nuclear Analysis and Fuels approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

D. 1-RM-RMS-160, Containment Gaseous monitor ONLY is inoperable;Nuclear Analysis and Fuels approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

33.



Unit 1 has been shutdown for 6 days.

Containment purge is in service on Unit 1.

"A" containment air recirc fan (CARF) is running.

Core off-load is in progress.

The "A" CARF trips, and the crew is unable to restart any CARF.

Which ONE of the following describes impacts of this failure on the Radiation Monitoring System, AND on the core off-load in accordance with 1-0P-4.1, Controlling Procedure for Refueling?

A. 1-RM-RMS-159 and -160, Containment Particulate and Gaseous monitors, are BOTH inoperable; Station Management approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

B. 1-RM-RMS-160, Containment Gaseous monitor ONLY is inoperable; Station Management approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

C. 1-RM-RMS-159 and -160, Containment Particulate and Gaseous monitors, are BOTH inoperable; Nuclear Analysis and Fuels approval is required in order to continue core off-load.

D. 1-RM-RMS-160, Containment Gaseous monitor ONLY is inoperable; Nuclear Analysis and Fuels approval is required in order to continue core off-load.


34.Unit 2 is in a refueling outage with core on-load in progress.

Given the below instruments, which ONE of the following identifies ALL of the instruments that can causeAUTOMATIC actuation of the Containment Evacuation alarm?

1) Source Range Channel N-31

2) Manipulator Crane Radiation Monitor, 2-RM-RMS-262

3) Containment Gaseous Radiation Monitor, 2-RM-RMS-260

A. 1&3

B. 2&3

C. I only

D. 2 only

34.


Unit 2 is in a refueling outage with core on-load in progress.

Given the below instruments, which ONE of the following identifies ALL of the instruments that can cause AUTOMATIC actuation of the Containment Evacuation alarm?

1) Source Range Channel N-31

2) Manipulator Crane Radiation Monitor, 2-RM-RMS-262

3) Containment Gaseous Radiation Monitor, 2-RM-RMS-260

A. 1&3

B. 2 & 3

C. 1 only

D. 2 only



• Unit 1 was at 100% power when a 50 gpm tube leak was identified in “B” SG.

• The crew is performing 1-AP-24, Steam Generator Tube Leak.

The Unit Supervisor is at Step 18, Verify Flow from Affected SGs - ISOLATED.

The BOP reports that Attachment 3, MSVH Steam Generator Isolation Local Actions, has been initiated,but has NOT been completed.

Which ONE of the following identifies the crew response, AND includes the reason?

A. Continue with Step 19 and initiate RCS cooldown without delay;precludes overfill of “B” SG.

B. Continue with Step 19 and initiate RCS cooldown without delay;minimizes offsite dose.

C. Do NOT continue with Step 19, RCS cooldown can NOT be initiated until Attachment 3 is complete;ensures adequate delta-P is maintained between “B” SG and the unaffected SGs.

D. Do NOT continue with Step 19, RCS cooldown can not be initiated until Attachment 3 is complete;ensures “B” SG PORV remains available.

35.



Unit 1 was at 100% power when a 50 gpm tube leak was identified in "B" SG.

The crew is performing 1-AP-24, Steam Generator Tube Leak.

The Unit Supervisor is at Step 18, Verify Flow from Affected SGs - ISOLATED.

The BOP reports that Attachment 3, MSVH Steam Generator Isolation Local Actions, has been initiated, but has NOT been completed.

Which ONE of the following identifies the crew response, AND includes the reason?

A. Continue with Step 19 and initiate RCS cooldown without delay; precludes overfill of "B" SG.

B. Continue with Step 19 and initiate RCS cooldown without delay; minimizes offsite dose.

C. Do NOT continue with Step 19, RCS cooldown can NOT be initiated until Attachment 3 is complete; ensures adequate delta-P is maintained between "B" SG and the unaffected SGs.

D. Do NOT continue with Step 19, RCS cooldown can not be initiated until Attachment 3 is complete; ensures "B" SG PORV remains available.


36.Given the followinci conditions:

• A SG tube rupture has occurred on Unit 1.

• The crew is preparing to initiate RCS depressurization to minimize break flow in accordance with

1 -E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

• Ruptured SG level is OFF-SCALE HIGH.

• All equipment is available and operating as required.

Which ONE of the following describes the action that will be required to initiate RCS depressurization inaccordance with 1 -E-3?

A. Initiate normal PRZR spray flow.

B. Initiate auxiliary spray flow.

C. Open one PRZR PORV.

D. Open both PRZR PORVs.

36.



A SG tube rupture has occurred on Unit 1.

The crew is preparing to initiate RCS depressurization to minimize break flow in accordance with

1-E-3, Steam Generator Tube Rupture.

Ruptured SG level is OFF-SCALE HIGH.

All equipment is available and operating as required.

Which ONE of the following describes the action that will be required to initiate RCS depressurization in accordance with 1-E-3?

A. Initiate normal PRZR spray flow.

B. Initiate auxiliary spray flow.

C. Open one PRZR PORV.

D. Open both PRZR PORVs.


37.In accordance with 1-OP-28.3, Startup of the Moisture Separator Reheaters, when placing the ReheatSteam System in service, the total rate of change of the LP Turbine Inlet (Reheater Outlet) temperatureshould NOT exceed

______________.

This heatup rate is initially controlled by

______________________

A. 100°F per hour; throttling the MSR FCVs from the Benchboard

B. 100°F per hour; throttling the 3-inch bypass valves locally

C. 150°F per hour; throttling the MSR FCVs from the Benchboard

D. 150°F per hour; throttling the 3-inch bypass valves locally

37.


In accordance with 1-0P-28.3, Startup of the Moisture Separator Reheaters, when placing the Reheat Steam System in service, the total rate of change of the LP Turbine Inlet (Reheater Outlet) temperature should NOT exceed . This heatup rate is initially controlled by ________ _

A. 100°F per hour; throttling the MSR FCVs from the Benchboard

B. 100°F per hour; throttling the 3-inch bypass valves locally

C. 150°F per hour; throttling the MSR FCVs from the Benchboard

D. 150°F per hour; throttling the 3-inch bypass valves locally


38.An unisolable steamline break has led to an excessive cooldown of the RCS and an ORANGE path onRCS Integrity.

Which ONE of the following describes the area of most concern for the propagation of an existing flaw inthe RCS during this event?

A. Plastic deformation due to tensile stresses in the reactor vessel upper head area.

B. Brittle fracture due to compressive stresses in the reactor vessel hot leg area.

C. Plastic deformation due to compressive stresses in the reactor vessel cold leg area.

D. Brittle fracture due to tensile stresses in the reactor vessel downcomer beitline area.

38.


An unisolable steamline break has led to an excessive cooldown of the RCS and an ORANGE path on RCS Integrity.

Which ONE of the following describes the area of most concern for the propagation of an existing flaw in the RCS during this event?

A. Plastic deformation due to tensile stresses in the reactor vessel upper head area.

B. Brittle fracture due to compressive stresses in the reactor vessel hot leg area.

C. Plastic deformation due to compressive stresses in the reactor vessel cold leg area.

D. Brittle fracture due to tensile stresses in the reactor vessel downcomer beltline area.



• Unit 1 was initially stable at 50% power.

• RCS TAVG & TREE were initially matched and on program.

An event occurs, which causes rods to begin stepping IN.

The crew observes the following indications:

• TAVG is 568°F.

• TREF is 560°F.

• Power Range Channel N-44 is 48%.

Which ONE of the following identifies the correct response to this event JQ includes the reason for thisresponse?

A. Place rods in MANUAL because they are moving in response to a N-44 failure.

B. Place rods in MANUAL because they are moving in response to a TREE failure.

C. Leave rods in AUTO because they are moving in response to an increase in steam demand due to amalfunction in the turbine control system.

D. Leave rods in AUTO because they are moving in response to a decrease in steam demand due to amalfunction in the turbine control system.

39.



Unit 1 was initially stable at 50% power.

RCS T AVG & T REF were initially matched and on program.

An event occurs, which causes rods to begin stepping IN.

The crew observes the following indications:

T AVG is 568°F.

T REF is 560°F.

Power Range Channel N-44 is 48%.

Which ONE of the following identifies the correct response to this event AND includes the reason for this response?

A. Place rods in MANUAL because they are moving in response to a N-44 failure.

B. Place rods in MANUAL because they are moving in response to a T REF failure.

C. Leave rods in AUTO because they are moving in response to an increase in steam demand due to a malfunction in the turbine control system.

D. Leave rods in AUTO because they are moving in response to a decrease in steam demand due to a malfunction in the turbine control system.



• 1-ECA-O.0, Loss of All AC Power, is in progress.

• The crew is performing step 22, Depressurize all Intact SGs to 290 psig.

• The BOP mistakenly did NOT stop depressurizing SGs at 290 psig.

• Pressure in all SGs reaches 180 psig before the depressurization is stopped.

What is the potential operational implication that could result from the excessive SG depressurization?

A. Nitrogen injection from the accumulators may occur, causing natural circulation flow in the RCS to beinterrupted.

B. Excessive RCS cooldown, which could require transition to 1-FR-P.1, Response to ImminentPressurized Thermal Shock.

C. Voiding may occur in the reactor vessel, causing the upper portion of the core to become uncoveredand potentially causing core damage.

D. An undesired automatic Safety Injection signal may occur, complicating other recovery actions thatare in progress.

40.



1-ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC Power, is in progress.

The crew is performing step 22, Depressurize all Intact SGs to 290 psig.

The BOP mistakenly did NOT stop depressurizing SGs at 290 psig.

Pressure in all SGs reaches 180 psig before the depressurization is stopped.

What is the potential operational implication that could result from the excessive SG depressurization?

A. Nitrogen injection from the accumulators may occur, causing natural circulation flow in the RCS to be interrupted.

B. Excessive RCS cooldown, which could require transition to 1-FR-P.1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock.

C. Voiding may occur in the reactor vessel, causing the upper portion of the core to become uncovered and potentially causing core damage.

D. An undesired automatic Safety Injection signal may occur, complicating other recovery actions that are in progress.


41.Which ONE of the following identifies the post-accident instrument required by TR 3.3.9, RegulatoryGuide (RG) 1.97 Instrumentation, AND includes the TR 3.3.9 Mode(s) of Applicability?

A. 1-MS-RM-170, A Steamline Radiation Monitor; Mode 1 ONLY.

B. 1-MS-RM-170, A Steamline Radiation Monitor; Modes 1, 2, or 3.

C. 1-SV-RM-121, Condenser Air Ejector Radiation Monitor; Mode 1 ONLY.

D. 1-SV-RM-121, Condenser Air Ejector Radiation Monitor; Modes 1, 2, or 3.

41.


Which ONE of the following identifies the post-accident instrument required by TR 3.3.9, Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.97 Instrumentation, AND includes the TR 3.3.9 Mode(s) of Applicability?

A. 1-MS-RM-170, A Steamline Radiation Monitor; Mode 1 ONLY.

B. 1-MS-RM-170, A Steamline Radiation Monitor; Modes 1, 2, or 3.

C. 1-SV-RM-121, Condenser Air Ejector Radiation Monitor; Mode 1 ONLY.

D. 1-SV-RM-121, Condenser Air Ejector Radiation Monitor; Modes 1,2, or 3.



• Unit 1 RCS cooldown is in progress due to leakage from a PRZR manway.

• ‘A’ RHR pump is in service.

• RCS temperature is 190°F with a 30°F/Hr cooldown rate.

A loss of “F” transfer bus occurs.

In accordance with 1-AP-1 1, Loss of RHR, in order to re-establish RHR cooling after the EDG energizesthe bus, the crew is directed to

_________________________________

A. verify ‘A” RHR pump running, and manually adjust 1-CC-MOV-100A & B, CC HX Outlet IsolationValves.

B. verify “B” RHR pump automatically starts, and manually adjust 1-RH-HCV-1 758, RHR HX OutletValve.

C. manually start”A” RHR pump, and manually adjust 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HX Outlet Valve.

D. manually start “A” RHR pump, and manually adjust 1-CC-MOV-100A & B, CC HX Outlet IsolationValves.

42.



Unit 1 RCS cooldown is in progress due to leakage from a PRZR manway.

"A" RHR pump is in service.

RCS temperature is 190°F with a 30°F/Hr cooldown rate.

A loss of "F" transfer bus occurs.

In accordance with 1-AP-11, Loss of RHR, in order to re-establish RHR cooling after the EDG energizes the bus, the crew is directed to ____________ _

A. verify "A" RHR pump running, and manually adjust 1-CC-MOV-100A & B, CC HX Outlet Isolation Valves.

B. verify "B" RHR pump automatically starts, and manually adjust 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HX Outlet Valve.

C. manually start "A" RHR pump, and manually adjust 1-RH-HCV-1758, RHR HX Outlet Valve.

D. manually start "A" RHR pump, and manually adjust 1-CC-MOV-1 OOA & B, CC HX Outlet Isolation Valves.


43.Unit 1 is at 100% power when several Unit 1 annunciators are received.

The OATC verifies all critical parameters are stable and on program.

The crew notes the following:

• All status lights on L” Panel are OFF.

• Annunciator 1 P-E4, C-7 PERM STM DUMP ARMED FROM LOSS OF LOAD, is LIT.

Which ONE of the following identifies the I2OVAC Vital bus that has lost power, includes the actionneeded to reset (clear) 1 P-E4 once power is restored?

A. Vital bus I-Ill; momentarily place the Steam Dump Mode Selector in the RESET position.

B. Vital bus I-Ill place both Steam Dump INTLK switches to OFF/RESET and return to ON.

C. Vital bus l-IV; momentarily place the Steam Dump Mode Selector in the RESET position.

D. Vital bus -IV; place both Steam Dump INTLK switches to OFF/RESET and return to ON.

43.


Unit 1 is at 100% power when several Unit 1 annunciators are received.

The OATC verifies all critical parameters are stable and on program.

The crew notes the following:

All status lights on "L" Panel are OFF.

Annunciator 1 P-E4, C-7 PERM STM DUMP ARMED FROM LOSS OF LOAD, is LIT.

Which ONE of the following identifies the 120VAC Vital bus that has lost power, AND includes the action needed to reset (clear) 1 P-E4 once power is restored?

A. Vital bus I-III ; momentarily place the Steam Dump Mode Selector in the RESET position.

B. Vital bus I-III ; place both Steam Dump INTLK switches to OFF/RESET and return to ON.

C. Vital bus I-IV; momentarily place the Steam Dump Mode Selector in the RESET position.

D. Vital bus I-IV; place both Steam Dump INTLK switches to OFF/RESET and return to ON.



• Unit 1 is at 70% power

• “B” Main Feedwater (MEW) pump is tagged out

The “C” MFW pump trips.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response?(Assume no operator actionS)

A. MFRVs modulate open: SG levels continue to decrease.

B. MFRVs modulate open: SG levels are maintained on program.

C. MFRVs and bypass valves fully open: SG levels continue to decrease.

D. MFRVs and bypass valves modulate open: SG levels are maintained on program.



• Unit 1 is at 70% power

• "B" Main Feedwater (MFW) pump is tagged out

The "C" MFW pump trips.

Which ONE of the following describes the plant response? (Assume no operator action.)

A. MFRVs modulate open; SG levels continue to decrease.

B. MFRVs modulate open; SG levels are maintained on program.

C. MFRVs and bypass valves fully open; SG levels continue to decrease.

D. MFRVs and bypass valves modulate open; SG levels are maintained on program.



• Unit I is at 25% power and ramping up.

• Unit 2 is in a refueling outage.

• All Unit 1 SGWLC channels are selected to Channel Ill (Blue channel).

An l&C Tech inadvertently equalizes and isolates 1-FW-FT-1487, Unit 1 “B” SC Feed Flow Transmitter(Blue channel).

Which ONE of the following describes the result of the l&C technicians error? (assume NO operatoraction is taken)

A. “B” SG level decreases until the turbine automatically trips.

B. “B” SC level decreases until the reactor automatically trips.

C. “B” SC level increases until the turbine automatically trips.

D. “B” SC level increases until the reactor automatically trips.

45.



Unit 1 is at 25% power and ramping up.

Unit 2 is in a refueling outage.

All Unit 1 SGWLC channels are selected to Channel III (Slue channel).

An I&C Tech inadvertently equalizes and isolates 1-FW-FT-1487. Unit 1 "S" SG Feed Flow Transmitter (Slue channel).

Which ONE of the following describes the result of the I&C technicians error? (assume NO operator action is taken)

A. "S" SG level decreases until the turbine automatically trips.

S. "S" SG level decreases until the reactor automatically trips.

C. "S" SG level increases until the turbine automatically trips.

D. "S" SG level increases until the reactor automatically trips.



• Unit 1 experiences a reactor trip and safety injection.

• 1-FW-P-2, Turbine Driven AFW pump, will not operate.

The crew performs 1-AP-22.1, Loss of 1-FW-P-2 Turbine Driven AFW Pump, to feed all three SG’s.

Which ONE of the following identifies the AFW alignment once 1-AP-22.1 has been performed?

A. 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-3B feeding “A” SG thru 1-FW-HCV-IOOA1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-3B feeding “B’ SG thru 1-FW-HCV-IOOB1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-3B feeding “C” SG thru 1-FW-HCV-IOOC

B. 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-3B feeding “A” SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100A1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-3B feeding “B’ SG thru 1-FW-MOV-100B1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-3B feeding “C” SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100C

C. 1-FW-P-3B feeding “A” SG thru 1-FW-MOV-100A1-FW-P-3B feeding “B” SG thru 1-FW-MOV-1 COB1-FW-P-3A feeding “C” SG thru 1-FW-HCV-1 OOC

D. 1-FW-P-3A feeding “A” SG thru 1-FW-MOV-100D1-FW-P-3B feeding “B” SG thru 1-FW-MOV-1 COB1-FW-P-3A feeding “C” SG thru 1-FW-HCV-1 OOC

46.



Unit 1 experiences a reactor trip and safety injection.

1-FW-P-2, Turbine Driven AFW pump, will not operate.

The crew performs 1-AP-22.1, Loss of 1-FW-P-2 Turbine Driven AFW Pump, to feed all three SG's.

Which ONE of the following identifies the AFW alignment once 1-AP-22.1 has been performed?

A. 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-38 feeding "A" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100A 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-38 feeding "8" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-1008 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-38 feeding "c" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100C

B. 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-38 feeding "A" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100A 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-38 feeding "8" SG thru 1-FW-MOV-1008 1-FW-P-3A and 1-FW-P-38 feeding "c" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100C

C. 1-FW-P-38 feeding "A" SG thru 1-FW-MOV-100A 1-FW-P-38 feeding "8" SG thru 1-FW-MOV-1008 1-FW-P-3A feeding "c" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100C

D. 1-FW-P-3A feeding "A" SG thru 1-FW-MOV-100D 1-FW-P-38 feeding "8" SG thru 1-FW-MOV-1008 1-FW-P-3A feeding "c" SG thru 1-FW-HCV-100C



Which ONE of the following identifies the response if Vital Bus Inverter 1-Il fails, AND includes theTechnical Specification implications of this malfunction?

12OVAC Vital bus 1-Il will be powered automatically from

________

A. MCC 1H1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in an info-only action.

B. MCC 1H1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in a limiting action.

C. MCC IJ1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in an info-only action.

D. MCC 1JI-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in a limiting action.

47.



Which ONE of the following identifies the response if Vital Bus Inverter 1-11 fails, AND includes the Technical Specification implications of this malfunction?

120VAC Vital bus 1-11 will be powered automatically from ___ _

A. MCC 1 H 1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in an info-only action.

B. MCC 1H1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in a limiting action.

C. MCC 1J1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in an info-only action.

D. MCC 1J1-1 via a constant voltage transformer; Unit 1 is in a limiting action.



• Both Units are at 100% power.

• Service Water (SW) is throttled.

• Service Water pumps 1-SW-P-lA and 1-SW-P-lB are running.

• All SW Spray MOVs are open and all SW Spray Bypass MOVs are closed.

The crew notes that SW reservoir level has been decreasing slowly, and currently indicates 312 feet.


• 1-SW-P-lA discharge pressure is 45psig.

• 1-SW-P-lB discharge pressure is 55 psig.

Based on these indications, the leak is on and the Ultimate Heat Sink is

_____________

A. “A” Service Water Header; operable

B. “A” Service Water Header; inoperable

C. “B” Service Water Header; operable

D. “B” Service Water Header; inoperable

48.




Service Water (SW) is throttled.

Service Water pumps 1-SW-P-1A and 1-SW-P-1B are running.

All SW Spray MOVs are open and all SW Spray Bypass MOVs are closed.

The crew notes that SW reservoir level has been decreasing slowly, and currently indicates 312 feet.


1-SW-P-1A discharge pressure is 45psig.

1-SW-P-1 B discharge pressure is 55 psig.

Based on these indications, the leak is on _____ and the Ultimate Heat Sink is ____ _

A. "A" Service Water Header; operable

B. "A" Service Water Header; inoperable

C. "B" Service Water Header; operable

D. "B" Service Water Header; inoperable



An electrical fault results in a loss of C RSST.

Which ONE of the following will occur as a result of this event?

A. 1H and 2J EDGs will start and load; breaker 15G10 will remain open

B. 1H and 2J EDGs will start and load; breaker 15G10 will close

C. ONLY 2H EDG will start and load; breaker 15G10 will remain open

D. ONLY 2H EDG will start and load; breaker 15G10 will close


49. Both Units are at 100% power.

An electrical fault results in a loss of "c" RSST.

Which ONE of the following will occur as a result of this event?

A. 1H and 2J EDGs will start and load; breaker 15G10 will remain open

B. 1 Hand 2J EDGs will start and load; breaker 15G 10 will close

C. ONLY 2H EDG will start and load; breaker 15G1 0 will remain open

D. ONLY 2H EDG will start and load; breaker 15G1 0 will close


50.Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the I25VDC Vital bus battery chargers?

The battery chargers have an adjustable current limiter device, which

_________

A. opens the AC input breaker if AC input current reaches 275 amps.

B. limits the maximum AC input current to 275 amps.

C. opens the DC output breaker if DC output current reaches 275 amps.

D. limits the maximum DC output current to 275 amps.


50. Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the 125VDC Vital bus battery chargers?

The battery chargers have an adjustable current limiter device, which __ _

A. opens the AC input breaker if AC input current reaches 275 amps.

B. limits the maximum AC input current to 275 amps.

C. opens the DC output breaker if DC output current reaches 275 amps.

D. limits the maximum DC output current to 275 amps.


51.With Unit 1 at 100% power, the 1H 4160V bus normal feeder breaker 15H11 trips open, and 1H EDGre-energizes the bus.

Per 0-AP-1 0, Loss of Electrical Power, configuring 1 H bus loads is done as a high priority in orderto

______________________

A. prevent EDG overload in the event of an Sl/CDA.

B. facilitate restoration of the emergency bus from the normal feeder.

C. ensure loads that may have automatically started are returned to their pre-event (standby) status.

D. ensure that 1 H bus loads will trip selectively in the event of an SIICDA.

51.


With Unit 1 at 100% power, the 1 H 4160V bus normal feeder breaker 15H 11 trips open, and 1 H EDG re-energizes the bus.

Per 0-AP-1 0, Loss of Electrical Power, configuring 1 H bus loads is done as a high priority in order to _________ _

A. prevent EDG overload in the event of an SI/CDA.

B. facilitate restoration of the emergency bus from the normal feeder.

C. ensure loads that may have automatically started are returned to their pre-event (standby) status.

D. ensure that 1 H bus loads will trip selectively in the event of an SI/CDA.



• A loss of Instrument Air (IA) occurs.

• IA pressure decreases to 0 psig.

Which ONE of the following identifies ALL of the Auxiliary Feedwater System components that can beoperated for a limited period of time?

A. AFW Pump 1-FW-P-2 steam supply valves (1-MS-TV-il 1A & B) ONLY.

B. AFW HCVs (1-FW-HCV-100A, B, & C) AND AFW PCVs (1-FW-PCV-159A & B) ONLY.

C. AFW Pump i-FW-P-2 steam supply valves (1-MS-TV-Il 1A & B) ANDAFW HCVs (l-FW-HCV-100A, B, & C) ONLY.

D. AFW HCVs (1-FW-HCV-l0OA, B, & C) AND AFW PCVs (1-FW-PCV-159A & B) ANDAFW Pump l-FW-P-2 steam supply valves (i-MS-TV-il 1A & B).

52.



A loss of Instrument Air (IA) occurs.

IA pressure decreases to 0 psig.

Which ONE of the following identifies ALL of the Auxiliary Feedwater System components that can be operated for a limited period of time?

A. AFW Pump 1-FW-P-2 steam supply valves (1-MS-TV-111A & B) ONLY.

B. AFW HCVs (1-FW-HCV-100A, B, & C) AND AFW PCVs (1-FW-PCV-159A & B) ONLY.

C. AFW Pump 1-FW-P-2 steam supply valves (1-MS-TV-111A & B) AND AFW HCVs (1-FW-HCV-100A, B, & C) ONLY.

D. AFW HCVs (1-FW-HCV-100A, B, & C) AND AFW PCVs (1-FW-PCV-159A & B) AND AFW Pump 1-FW-P-2 steam supply valves (1-MS-TV-111A & B).


53.Which ONE of the following describes the impact of a failure of 1-RM-LW-11O, Clarifier Inlet RadiationMonitor, and 1 -RM-LW-1 11, Clarifier Outlet Radiation Monitor, on the following valves?

1-LW-PCV-115, LW Effluent to Discharge Canal1-LW-FCV-100, Holdup Tank Influent

A failure (HIGH) of

________

A. either 1-RM-LW-11O or 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 ONLY.

B. either 1-RM-LW-11O or 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 and 1-LW-FCV-100.

C. 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 ONLY.

D. jjy 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1—LW-PCV-115 and 1-LW-FCV-100.

53.


Which ONE of the following describes the impact of a failure of 1-RM-LW-110, Clarifier Inlet Radiation Monitor, and 1-RM-L W-111, Clarifier Outlet Radiation Monitor, on the following valves?

1-LW-PCV-115, LW Effluent to Discharge Canal 1-LW-FCV-100, Holdup Tank Influent

A failure (HIGH) of __ _

A. either 1-RM-LW-110 or 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 ONLY.

B. either 1-RM-LW-110 or 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 and 1-LW-FCV-100.

C. only 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 ONLY.

D. only 1-RM-LW-111 will close 1-LW-PCV-115 and 1-LW-FCV-100.



• A WGDT release is in progress.

• HI and HI-HI alarms are received on 1-GW-RM-178-1, Process Vent RM Noble Gas Normal.

• The cause of the alarm was determined to be the detector spiking.

• 1-GW-RM-178-1 indication is trending back to normal.

Which ONE of the following describes the automatic action that the OATC will verify, AND includes theprocedural direction given to re-establish the WGDT release once the detector is operating normally?

A. Verity 1-GW-FCV-1O1, WGDTto Process Vents, CLOSED;the WGDT release can be re-established once the OATC verifies the HI alarm clears.

B. Verify 1-GW-FCV-1O1, WGDT to Process Vents, CLOSED;the WGDT release can be re-established once the Instrument Department resets the HI-HI alarmAND restores the MGP system to normal range monitoring.

C. Verify 1-GW-TV-106, Equipment Vents, CLOSED;the WGDT release can be re-established once the OATC verifies the HI alarm clears.

D. Verify 1-GW-TV-106, Equipment Vents, CLOSED;the WGDT release can be re-established once the Instrument Department resets the HI-HI alarmAND restores the MGP system to normal range monitoring.

54.



A WGDT release is in progress.

HI and HI-HI alarms are received on 1-GW-RM-178-1, Process Vent RM Noble Gas Normal.

The cause of the alarm was determined to be the detector spiking.

1-GW-RM-178-1 indication is trending back to normal.

Which ONE of the following describes the automatic action that the OATC will verify, AND includes the procedural direction given to re-establish the WGDT release once the detector is operating normally?

A. Verify 1-GW-FCV-101, WGDT to Process Vents, CLOSED; the WGDT release can be re-established once the OATC verifies the HI alarm clears.

B. Verify 1-GW-FCV-101, WGDT to Process Vents, CLOSED; the WGDT release can be re-established once the Instrument Department resets the HI-HI alarm AND restores the MGP system to normal range monitoring.

C. Verify 1-GW-TV-1 06, Equipment Vents, CLOSED; the WGDT release can be re-established once the OATC verifies the HI alarm clears.

D. Verify 1-GW-TV-106, Equipment Vents, CLOSED; the WGDT release can be re-established once the Instrument Department resets the HI-HI alarm AND restores the MGP system to normal range monitoring.


55.Per 1-FR-Cl, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling, SGs are depressurized at the maximum rate to(ultimately) atmospheric pressure in order to

_______________

A. reduce RCS temperature to collapse steam voids in the reactor vessel head.

B. reduce SG pressure to enable low-pressure sources of SG feedwater to restore RCS heat sink.

C. reduce RCS temperature to increase thermal driving head for natural circulation.

D. reduce RCS pressure to allow the SI accumulators and LHSI pumps to inject water to the RCS.


55. Per 1-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling, SGs are depressurized at the maximum rate to (ultimately) atmospheric pressure in order to _____ _

A. reduce RCS temperature to collapse steam voids in the reactor vessel head.

B. reduce SG pressure to enable low-pressure sources of SG feedwater to restore RCS heat sink.

C. reduce RCS temperature to increase thermal driving head for natural circulation.

D. reduce RCS pressure to allow the SI accumulators and LHSI pumps to inject water to the RCS.


56.Which ONE of the following identifies the normal and backup cooling water sources to the Control RoomChillers?

A. Bearing Cooling normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers;either Unit can be supplied from Service Water as a backup.

B. Bearing Cooling normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers;ONLY Unit 1 can be supplied from Service Water as a backup.

C. Service Water normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers;either Unit can be supplied from Bearing Cooling as a backup.

D. Service Water normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers;ONLY Unit 1 can be supplied from Bearing Cooling as a backup.

56.


Which ONE of the following identifies the normal and backup cooling water sources to the Control Room Chillers?

A. Bearing Cooling normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers; either Unit can be supplied from Service Water as a backup.

B. Bearing Cooling normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers; ONLY Unit 1 can be supplied from Service Water as a backup.

C. Service Water normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers; either Unit can be supplied from Bearing Cooling as a backup.

D. Service Water normally supplies both Units Control Room Chillers; ONLY Unit 1 can be supplied from Bearing Cooling as a backup.


57.Which ONE of the following parameters by itself can be used to discriminate between a voltage regulatormalfunction and a grid disturbance?

A. Generator Megawatts.

B. Generator Megavars.

C. Generator Output Voltage.

D. Exciter Field Current.

57.


Which ONE of the following parameters by itself can be used to discriminate between a voltage regulator malfunction and a grid disturbance?

A. Generator Megawatts.

B. Generator Megavars.

C. Generator Output Voltage.

D. Exciter Field Current.


58.Which ONE of the following identifies the power supplies to the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Instrument Aircompressors, 1-IA-C-i and 2-IA-C-i, respectively?

i-IA-C-i is powered from

____________,

and 2-IA-C-i is powered from

A. iH Emergency Bus ; 2H Emergency Bus

B. iH Emergency Bus; 2J Emergency Bus

C. 1J Emergency Bus; 2H Emergency Bus

D. iJ Emergency Bus; 2J Emergency Bus

58.


Which ONE of the following identifies the power supplies to the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Instrument Air compressors, 1-IA-C-1 and 2-IA-C-1, respectively?

1-IA-C-1 is powered from _____ , and 2-IA-C-1 is powered from ____ _

A. 1 H Emergency Bus; 2H Emergency Bus

B. 1 H Emergency Bus; 2J Emergency Bus

C. 1 J Emergency Bus; 2H Emergency Bus

D. 1J Emergency Bus; 2J Emergency Bus


59.If a Main Transformer deluge is inadvertently actuated, the Electric Fire Pump is started by

_____________

and the associated Main Transformer will

_____________

A. a limit switch on the deluge valve; de-energize

B. a limit switch on the deluge valve; remain energized

C. a pressure switch on the fire main ; de-energize

D. a pressure switch on the fire main ; remain energized


59. If a Main Transformer deluge is inadvertently actuated, the Electric Fire Pump is started by _____ , and the associated Main Transformer will ____ _

A. a limit switch on the deluge valve; de-energize

B. a limit switch on the deluge valve; remain energized

C. a pressure switch on the fire main; de-energize

D. a pressure switch on the fire main; remain energized


60.The crew is preparing for Unit I core off-load.

Which ONE of the following describes the method specified in 1-PT-91, Containment Penetrations, tocontrol containment penetrations, fjQ includes the approval required to breach a penetration during fuelmovement?

Containment penetrations shall be tagged with

_________

A. Danger tags, and an SRO or Shift Manager may approve breaching a penetration.

B. Danger tags, and FSRC approval is required for breaching a penetration.

C. Caution/Information tags, and an SRO or Shift Manager may approve breaching a penetration.

D. Caution/Information tags, and FSRC approval is required for breaching a penetration.

60.


The crew is preparing for Unit 1 core off-load.

Which ONE of the following describes the method specified in 1-PT-91, Containment Penetrations, to control containment penetrations, AND includes the approval required to breach a penetration during fuel movement?

Containment penetrations shall be tagged with ___ _

A. Danger tags, and an SRO or Shift Manager may approve breaching a penetration.

B. Danger tags, and FSRC approval is required for breaching a penetration.

C. Caution/lnformation tags, and an SRO or Shift Manager may approve breaching a penetration.

D. Caution/Information tags, and FSRC approval is required for breaching a penetration.


61.In accordance with 1-OP-2. 1, Unit Startup from Mode 2 to Mode 1, during a Unit ramp, all of the followingindications should be used to monitor real power EXCEPT

___________

A. U0980, Power, Calorimetric

B. U1201, Power, 1 Mm Avg STM

C. U1203, Power, 1 Mm Avg FW

D. U1231, Power, 1 Mm Avg UFM


61. In accordance with 1-0P-2.1, Unit Startup from Mode 2 to Mode 1, during a Unit ramp, all of the following indications should be used to monitor real power EXCEPT ___ _

A. U0980, Power, Calorimetric

B. U1201, Power, 1 Min Avg STM

C. U1203, Power, 1 Min Avg FW

D. U1231, Power, 1 Min Avg UFM


62With Unit 1 at 100% power, the following conditions exist:

1-CW-MOV-IOID, “D” Waterbox Inlet MOV, indicates mid-position.

• Condenser pressure is 2.2 inches Hg abs. and degrading.

Which ONE of the following identifies the immediate operator action, AND includes the action required by1-AP-14, Low Condenser Vacuum, to mitigate this event’?

A. Verify at least two Circulating Water pumps running;Close 1-VP-i 8, Air Ejector suction valve for ‘D’ water box.

B. Verify condenser pressure is 3.5 inches Hg abs or less and stable;Close i-VP-i 8, Air Ejector suction valve for D’ water box.

C. Verify at least two Circulating Water pumps running;Open 1-CW-MOV-100D, “D” CW pump Discharge MOV.

D. Verify condenser pressure is 3.5 inches Hg abs or less and stable;Open i-CW-MOV-100D, “D” CW pump Discharge MOV.

62.


With Unit 1 at 100% power, the following conditions exist:

1-CW-MOV-101D, "D" Waterbox Inlet MOV, indicates mid-position.

Condenser pressure is 2.2 inches Hg abs. and degrading.

Which ONE of the following identifies the immediate operator action, AND includes the action required by 1-AP-14, Low Condenser Vacuum, to mitigate this event?

A. Verify at least two Circulating Water pumps running; Close 1-VP-18, Air Ejector suction valve for 'D' water box.

B. Verify condenser pressure is 3.5 inches Hg abs or less and stable; Close 1-VP-18, Air Ejector suction valve for 'D' water box.

C. Verify at least two Circulating Water pumps running; Open 1-CW-MOV-100D, "D" CW pump Discharge MOV.

D. Verify condenser pressure is 3.5 inches Hg abs or less and stable; Open 1-CW-MOV-100D, "D" CW pump Discharge MOV.


63.The Backboards operator is conducting an infrequently performed PT.

One of the steps of the procedure is designated IV (Independent Verification).

The Backboards operator feels that CV (Concurrent Verification) would be a more appropriate method ofverification for the step.

As the OATC, you review the procedure and concur with the Backboards operators assessment.

Which ONE of the following describes the guidance provided by PI-AA-500, Verification Practices, toaddress this issue?

A. An inactive SRO on shift performing reactivation duties may authorize the use of CV in lieu of IV.

B. A procedure change is the ONLY acceptable method of changing the type of verification.

C. The Operations Manager MUST grant approval anytime CV is used in lieu of IV.

D. The Shift Manager or SRO may authorize the use of CV in lieu of IV.

63.


The Backboards operator is conducting an infrequently performed PT.

One of the steps of the procedure is designated IV (Independent Verification).

The Backboards operator feels that CV (Concurrent Verification) would be a more appropriate method of verification for the step.

As the OATC, you review the procedure and concur with the Backboards operator's assessment.

Which ONE of the following describes the guidance provided by PI-AA-500, Verification Practices, to address this issue?

A. An inactive SRO on shift performing reactivation duties may authorize the use of CV in lieu of IV.

B. A procedure change is the ONLY acceptable method of changing the type of verification.

C. The Operations Manager MUST grant approval anytime CV is used in lieu of IV.

D. The Shift Manager or SRO may authorize the use of CV in lieu of IV.



1-AP-2.2, Fast Load Reduction, has been entered.

Which ONE of the following describes the sequence of actions that must be performed when a fast loadreduction is required in accordance with 1-AP-2.2?

A. 1) Bypass AM SAC2) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL3) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs

B. 1) Bypass AMSAC2) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs3) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL

C. 1) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs2) Bypass AMSAC3) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL

D. 1) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL2) Bypass AMSAC3) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs

64.



1-AP-2.2, Fast Load Reduction, has been entered.

Which ONE of the following describes the sequence of actions that must be performed when a fast load reduction is required in accordance with 1-AP-2.2?

A. 1) Bypass AMSAC 2) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL 3) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs

B. 1) Bypass AMSAC 2) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs 3) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL

C. 1) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs 2) Bypass AMSAC 3) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL

D. 1) Transfer Rod Control to MANUAL 2) Bypass AMSAC 3) Transfer Feedwater Control to Bypass FCVs


65.Given the followinQ conditions:


• PRZR Pressure Control Transmitter, 1-RC-PT-1445, failed HIGH.

• The crew placed the control switch for 1-RC-PCV-1456, PRZR PORV, in CLOSE.

• RCS pressure subsequently returned to 2235 psig.

• PRT pressure and temperature have stabilized.

Which ONE of the following identifies the Technical Specification implications of these plant conditions?

1-.RC-PCV-1456

__________,and

1-RC-MOV-1 535, PRZR PORV Block Valve,

__________

A. is operable;MUST be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

B. is operable;is NOT required to be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

C. is NOT operable;MUST be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

D. is NOT operable;is NOT required to be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

65.




PRZR Pressure Control Transmitter, 1-RC-PT-1445, failed HIGH.

The crew placed the control switch for 1-RC-PCV-1456, PRZR PORV, in CLOSE.

RCS pressure subsequently returned to 2235 psig.

PRT pressure and temperature have stabilized.

Which ONE of the following identifies the Technical Specification implications of these plant conditions?

1-RC-PCV-1456 _____ , and 1-RC-MOV-1535, PRZR PORV Block Valve, ____ _

A. is operable; MUST be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

B. is operable; is NOT required to be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

C. is NOT operable; MUST be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.

D. is NOT operable; is NOT required to be closed to comply with Technical Specifications.



• Unit 1 is at 50% power and ramping up at 0.3%/minute.

• 1-CW-P-ID, “D” Circulating Water pump, trips.

• The crew enters 1-AP-13, Loss of One or More Circulating Water Pumps.

Which ONE of the following identifies the guidance provided by 1-AP-13 for controlling Liquid Wastereleases?

A. Liquid Waste releases must be immediately secured, and Chemistry Department approval must beobtained prior to resuming them.

B. Liquid Waste releases must be immediately secured, and Health Physics Department approval mustbe obtained prior to resuming them.

C. Inform Chemistry Department of Circulating Water Pumps status, and they will determine if LiquidWaste releases are required to be secured.

D. Inform Health Physics Department of Circulating Water Pumps status, and they will determine ifLiquid Waste releases are required to be secured.

66.



Unit 1 is at 50% power and ramping up at 0.3%/minute.

1-CW-P-1 D, "D" Circulating Water pump, trips.

The crew enters 1-AP-13, Loss of One or More Circulating Water Pumps.

Which ONE of the following identifies the guidance provided by 1-AP-13 for controlling Liquid Waste releases?

A. Liquid Waste releases must be immediately secured, and Chemistry Department approval must be obtained prior to resuming them.

B. Liquid Waste releases must be immediately secured, and Health Physics Department approval must be obtained prior to resuming them.

C. Inform Chemistry Department of Circulating Water Pumps status, and they will determine if Liquid Waste releases are required to be secured.

D. Inform Health Physics Department of Circulating Water Pumps status, and they will determine if Liquid Waste releases are required to be secured.


67.Which ONE of the following identifies the posting requirements, AND includes the MINIMUM entryrequirements for an area accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individualreceiving a deep dose equivalent in excess of 100 mrem in one hour at 30 centimeters from the source?

A. High Radiation Area; alarming dosimetry (DAD) OR continuous HP coverage

B. High Radiation Area; alarming dosimetry (DAD) AND continuous HP coverage

C. Locked High Radiation Area ; alarming dosimetry (DAD) OR continuous HP coverage

D. Locked High Radiation Area ; alarming dosimetry (DAD) AN D’ continuous HP coverage

67.


Which ONE of the following identifies the posting requirements, AND includes the MINIMUM entry requirements for an area accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving a deep dose equivalent in excess of 100 mrem in one hour at 30 centimeters from the source?

A. High Radiation Area; alarming dosimetry (DAD) OR continuous HP coverage

B. High Radiation Area; alarming dosimetry (DAD) AND continuous HP coverage

c. Locked High Radiation Area; alarming dosimetry (DAD) OR continuous HP coverage

D. Locked High Radiation Area; alarming dosimetry (DAD) AN[}continuous HP coverage


68.Which ONE of the following provides the correct value for the associated Federal Annual ExposureLim its?

Extremities Sk Lens of eye

A. 15 rem/yr 50 rem/yr 5 rem/yr

B. 50 rem/yr 50 rem/yr 15 rem/yr

C. 50 rem/yr 15 rem/yr 5 rem/yr

D. 50 rem/yr 15 rem/yr 15 rem/yr

68.


Which ONE of the following provides the correct value for the associated Federal Annual Exposure Limits?

Extremities Skin Lens of eye

A. 15 rem/yr 50 rem/yr 5 rem/yr

B. 50 rem/yr 50 rem/yr 15 rem/yr

c. 50 rem/yr 15 rem/yr 5 rem/yr

D. 50 rem/yr 15 rem/yr 15 rem/yr


69.In accordance with 0-FCA-1, Control Room Fire, RCS cooldown rate shall be

____________

and a29-hour hold is NOT required prior to depressurizing the RCS provided___________

A. less than 15°F/hr; at least one CRDM fan is running.

B. less than 15°F/hr; three CRDM fans are running.

C. less than 50°F/hr; at least one CRDM fan is running.

D. less than 50°F/hr; three CRDM fans are running.


69. I n accordance with O-FCA-1, Control Room Fire, RCS cooldown rate shall be ______ , and a

29-hour hold is NOT required prior to depressurizing the RCS provided ___ _

A. less than 15°F/hr ; at least one CRDM fan is running.

B. less than 15°F/hr ; three CRDM fans are running.

C. less than 50°F/hr ; at least one CRDM fan is running.

D. less than 50°F/hr ; three CRDM fans are running.


70.Which ONE of the following would result in an emergency event classification in accordance with the EALMatrix?

A. RCS identified leakage is determined to be 8.3 gpm.

B. Unit I enters TS 3.0.3.

C. An unconfirmed security threat is received.

D. Offsite power was lost one hour ago and has not been restored.

70.


Which ONE of the following would result in an emergency event classification in accordance with the EAL Matrix?

A. RCS identified leakage is determined to be 8.3 gpm.

B. Unit 1 enters TS 3.0.3.

C. An unconfirmed security threat is received.

D. Offsite power was lost one hour ago and has not been restored.



• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a spurious safety injection.

• The crew has transitioned to 1-ES-il, SI Termination.

The OATC is performing Step 1, Reset Both Trains of SI, and notes that annunciator 1 P-H2, AUTO SIBLKD TRNS A&B, is FLASHING.

Which ONE of the following identifies the SSPS status, AND includes the action the crew should take?

A. BOTH trains of SSPS have failed to RESET;reset both trains by closing and then opening Reactor Trip Breakers to clear the seal-in.

B. BOTH trains of SSPS have failed to RESET;place both trains of SSPS in TEST and locally reset BOTH trains.

C. ONE train of SSPS has failed to RESET;reset the affected train by closing and then opening Reactor Trip Breakers to clear the seal-in.

D. ONE train of SSPS has failed to RESET;place the affected train of SSPS in TEST and locally reset the affected train.

71.



Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a spurious safety injection.

The crew has transitioned to 1-ES-1.1, SI Termination.

The OATC is performing Step 1, Reset Both Trains of SI, and notes that annunciator 1 P-H2, AUTO SI BLKD TRNS A&B, is FLASHING.

Which ONE of the following identifies the SSPS status, AND includes the action the crew should take?

A. BOTH trains of SSPS have failed to RESET; reset both trains by closing and then opening Reactor Trip Breakers to clear the seal-in.

B. BOTH trains of SSPS have failed to RESET; place both trains of SSPS in TEST and locally reset BOTH trains.

C. ONE train of SSPS has failed to RESET; reset the affected train by closing and then opening Reactor Trip Breakers to clear the seal-in.

D. ONE train of SSPS has failed to RESET; place the affected train of SSPS in TEST and locally reset the affected train.



• Unit 1 was initially at 100% power with 1-FW-P-2 tagged out.

• A Reactor Trip occurred, and multiple failures have resulted in a loss of all AFW pumps.

• The crew has transitioned to 1-FR-Hi, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Attempts to start a MEW pump proved unsuccessful, and the crew is attempting to establish SG feed flowfrom the Condensate system.

Which ONE of the following describes how conditions are established to feed from the Condensatesystem, AND includes the reason?

A. Depressurize ONLY one SG to reduce the probability of a PTS condition.

B. Depressurize ONLY one SG to maximize time before bleed and feed criteria are met.

C. Depressurize ALL SGs to ensure even cooling of the RCS.

D. Depressurize ALL SGs to minimize the probability of an undesired SI actuation.

72.



Unit 1 was initially at 100% power with 1-FW-P-2 tagged out.

A Reactor Trip occurred, and multiple failures have resulted in a loss of all AFW pumps.

The crew has transitioned to 1-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

Attempts to start a MFW pump proved unsuccessful, and the crew is attempting to establish SG feed flow from the Condensate system.

Which ONE of the following describes how conditions are established to feed from the Condensate system, AND includes the reason?

A. Depressurize ONLY one SG to reduce the probability of a PTS condition.

B. Depressurize ONLY one SG to maximize time before bleed and feed criteria are met.

C. Depressurize ALL SGs to ensure even cooling of the RCS.

D. Depressurize ALL SGs to minimize the probability of an undesired Sl actuation.


73Following a large-break LOCA, the crew has completed 1-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation,Step 9, Align SI System For Cold Leg Recirculation.


• Amps and flow are oscillating on both Low-head SI pumps.

• The STA reports that a RED path exists on heat sink.

Which ONE of the following describes the correct actions AND implementation of procedures for theseconditions?

A. Perform l-ES-l.3, Attachment 3, Containment Sump Screen Blockage or Loss of Suction;Do NOT implement 1-FR-Hi, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, until directed in 1-E-1,Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

B. Perform 1-ES-I .3, Attachment 3, Containment Sump Screen Blockage or Loss of Suction;Do NOT implement i-FR-H. 1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, until directed inAttachment 3 OR i-ECA-I.I, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

C. Immediately transition to 1-FR-Hi, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

D. Immediately transition to 1-ECA-i.i, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

73.


Following a large-break LOCA, the crew has completed 1-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation, Step 9, Align SI System For Cold Leg Recirculation.


Amps and flow are oscillating on both Low-head SI pumps.

The STA reports that a RED path exists on heat sink.

Which ONE of the following describes the correct actions AND implementation of procedures for these conditions?

A. Perform 1-ES-1.3, Attachment 3, Containment Sump Screen Blockage or Loss of Suction; Do NOT implement 1-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, until directed in 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant.

B. Perform 1-ES-1.3, Attachment 3, Containment Sump Screen Blockage or Loss of Suction; Do NOT implement 1-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, until directed in Attachment 3 OR 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.

C. Immediately transition to 1-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

D. Immediately transition to 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.



• Unit 1 was initially at 100% power. -

• “B” SG faulted inside Containment.

• The crew is unable to terminate SI, and have determined that “B” SG is also ruptured.

The crew has completed the appropriate EOP transitions, and is now performing 1-ECA-3.1, SGTR WithLoss of Reactor Coolant - Subcooled Recovery Desired.

The STA reports the following:

• RWST Level is 38% and slowly decreasing.

• There is an ORANGE Path on Containment Sump Level (sump level is 11 feet and slowly

increasing).

• There are no other RED or ORANGE paths.

Which ONE of the following identifies the appropriate procedure transitions for these conditions?

A. DO NOT transition to 1-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level;remain in 1-ECA-3.1 and continue recovery actions.

B. DO NOT transition to 1-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level;transition to 1-ES-I .3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

C. Transition to 1 -FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level, to identify the source of water:then return to 1-ECA-3.l and continue recovery actions.

D. Transition to I-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level, to identify the source of water;transition to l-ES-I.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

74.




"B" SG faulted inside Containment.

The crew is unable to terminate SI, and have determined that "B" SG is also ruptured.

The crew has completed the appropriate EOP transitions, and is now performing 1-ECA-3.1, SGTR With Loss of Reactor Coolant - Subcooled Recovery Desired.

The ST A reports the following:

RWST Level is 38% and slowly decreasing.

There is an ORANGE Path on Containment Sump Level (sump level is 11 feet and slowly

increasing).

There are no other RED or ORANGE paths.

Which ONE of the following identifies the appropriate procedure transitions for these conditions?

A. DO NOT transition to 1-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level; remain in 1-ECA-3.1 and continue recovery actions.

B. DO NOT transition to 1-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level; transition to 1-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.

C. Transition to 1-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level, to identify the source of water: then return to 1-ECA-3.1 and continue recovery actions.

D. Transition to 1-FR-Z.2, Response to High Containment Sump Level, to identify the source of water; transition to 1-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation.



• Unit I core off-load is in progress.

• A recently-irradiated fuel assembly drops while placing it into the containment upender.

• Bubbles are coming to the surface of the reactor cavity.

The following radiation monitors are in alarm:

• 1-RM-RMS-159, Containment Gaseous R/M.

• I-RM-RMS-160, Containment Particulate R/M.

• 1-RM-RMS-162, Manipulator Crane Area R/M.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following describes actions that will initially be required inaccordance with O-AP-30, Fuel Failure During Handling?

A. Place Fuel Building ventilation in service through the charcoal filters; evacuate the Containment

B. Place Fuel Building ventilation in service through the charcoal filters; evacuate the Fuel Building andthe Containment.

C. Manually initiate Control Room bottled air dump; evacuate the Containment 2Jjy.

D. Manually initiate Control Room bottled air dump; evacuate the Fuel Building and the Containment.

75.



Unit 1 core off-load is in progress.

A recently-irradiated fuel assembly drops while placing it into the containment upender.

Bubbles are coming to the surface of the reactor cavity.

The following radiation monitors are in alarm:

1-RM-RMS-159, Containment Gaseous RIM.

1-RM-RMS-160, Containment Particulate RIM.

1-RM-RMS-162, Manipulator Crane Area RIM.

Based on these conditions, which ONE of the following describes actions that will initially be required in accordance with O-AP-30, Fuel Failure During Handling?

A. Place Fuel Building ventilation in service through the charcoal filters; evacuate the Containment only.

B. Place Fuel Building ventilation in service through the charcoal filters; evacuate the Fuel Building and the Containment.

C. Manually initiate Control Room bottled air dump; evacuate the Containment only.

D. Manually initiate Control Room bottled air dump; evacuate the Fuel Building and the Containment.



• Unit 1 is at 75% power and ramping up at 0.3% per minute.

• The crew notes that rods are withdrawing at maximum speed.

• The OATC places rods in MANUAL and reports that rods have stopped moving.

The following alarms are LIT:

• 1A-Di, ROD CONTROL URGENT FAILURE.

• 1A-G2, RPI ROD BOT ROD DROP.

• 1 D-E4, NIS PWR RGE HI FLUX RATE RX TRIP.

The OATC reports that Reactor Trip breakers are closed.

Which ONE of the following identifies the procedure flowpathto mitigate this event, AND includes theaction required if the crew is unable to verify adeguate negative reactivity insertion per 1-FR-Si,Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS?

A. Enter 1-FR-S.1 directly;manually align Charging Pump suction to RWST and inject the BIT.

B. Enter 1-FR-S.1 directly;initiate boration at greater than 10 gpm with the blender in BORATE mode.

C. Enter i-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, then transition to 1-FR-SI;manually align Charging Pump suction to RWST and inject the BIT.

D. Enter 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, then transition to 1-FR-Si;initiate boration at greater than 10 gpm with the blender in BORATE mode.

76.



Unit 1 is at 75% power and ramping up at 0.3% per minute.

The crew notes that rods are withdrawing at maximum speed.

The OATC places rods in MANUAL and reports that rods have stopped moving.

The following alarms are LIT:

1A-D1, ROD CONTROL URGENT FAILURE.

1A-G2, RPI ROD BOT ROD DROP.

1D-E4, NIS PWR RGE HI FLUX RATE RX TRIP.

The OATC reports that Reactor Trip breakers are closed.

Which ONE of the following identifies the procedure flowpathto mitigate this event, AND includes the action required if the crew is unable to verify adequate negative reactivity insertion per 1-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS?

A. Enter 1-FR-S.1 directly; manually align Charging Pump suction to RWST and inject the BIT.

B. Enter 1-FR-S.1 directly; initiate boration at greater than 10 gpm with the blender in BORATE mode.

C. Enter 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, then transition to 1-FR-S.1; manually align Charging Pump suction to RWST and inject the BIT.

D. Enter 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, then transition to 1-FR-S.1; initiate boration at greater than 10 gpm with the blender in BORATE mode.


77.Unit I is at 100% power.

Which ONE of the following places the Unit in a one hour Technical Specification required action, ANDincludes the Bases?

A. BIT boron concentration is 10,950 ppm;ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion in the injection phase of a design-basis LOCA.

B. BIT boron concentration is 10,950 ppm;ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion in the injection phase of a design-basis MSLB.

C. Service Water pump 1-SW-P-lA trips;ensures the system can perform its design function during a DBA with NO additional failures.

D. Service Water pump 1-SW-P-lA trips;ensures the system can perform its design function during a DBA with ONE additional failure.

77.



Which ONE of the following places the Unit in a one hour Technical Specification required action, AND includes the Bases?

A. BIT boron concentration is 10,950 ppm; ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion in the injection phase of a design-basis LOCA.

B. BIT boron concentration is 10,950 ppm; ensures adequate negative reactivity insertion in the injection phase of a design-basis MSLB.

C. Service Water pump 1-SW-P-1A trips; ensures the system can perform its design function during a DBA with NO additional failures.

D. Service Water pump 1-SW-P-1A trips; ensures the system can perform its design function during a DBA with ONE additional failure.



• Unit I is at 100% power.

• A Reactor Coolant System pressure transient causes a PRZR safety valve to open prematurely.

• The safety valve then sticks in the fully open position.

Which ONE of the following identifies the plant response to this event, AND includes the properprioritization of the procedures listed below?

1-AP-16, Increasing Primary Plant Leakage1-AP-44, Loss of RCS Pressure1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip ResponseI -E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant

RCS pressure will decrease requiring a reactor trip, and the rate of inventory loss will

A. exceed the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will be required;the crew should respond with 1-AP-16, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-E-1.

B. exceed the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will be required;the crew should respond with 1-AP-44, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-E-1.

C. be within the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will NOT be required;the crew should respond with 1-AP-16, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-ES-al.

D. be within the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will NOT be required;the crew should respond with 1 -AP-44, then 1 -E-0, followed by 1 -ES-0. 1.

78.




A Reactor Coolant System pressure transient causes a PRZR safety valve to open prematurely.

The safety valve then sticks in the fully open position.

Which ONE of the following identifies the plant response to this event, AND includes the proper prioritization of the procedures listed below?

1-AP-16, Increasing Primary Plant Leakage 1-AP-44, Loss of RCS Pressure 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant

RCS pressure will decrease requiring a reactor trip, and the rate of inventory loss will _____ _

A. exceed the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will be required; the crew should respond with 1-AP-16, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-E-1.

B. exceed the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will be required; the crew should respond with 1-AP-44, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-E-1.

C. be within the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will NOT be required; the crew should respond with 1-AP-16, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-ES-0.1.

D. be within the capacity of maximum normal charging flow - safety injection will NOT be required; the crew should respond with 1-AP-44, then 1-E-0, followed by 1-ES-0.1.



• The crew has just completed synchronizing Unit 1 Main Generator to the grid.

• 1-RC-PT-1444, PRZR Pressure Control transmitter, fails HIGH.

• The crew performs the immediate actions of 1-AP-44, Loss of Reactor Coolant System Pressure.

The OATC reports that PRZR spray valve 1-RC-PCV-1455A indicates fully open, even after placing1-RC-SOV-1455A, 1-RC-PCV-1455A Remote Close SOV, in CLOSE.

Which ONE of the following describes how the crew will mitigate this event?

A. Suspend performance of 1-AP-44, and perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection;stop the “A” RCP when directed by 1-E-O.

B. Suspend performance of 1-AP-44, and perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection;stop the “C” RCP when directed by 1-E-O.

C. Perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, while continuing with 1-AP-44;after 1-E-O Immediate Actions are complete, stop the “A” RCP.

D. Perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, while continuing with 1-AP-44;after 1-E-O Immediate Actions are complete, stop the “C” RCP.

79.



The crew has just completed synchronizing Unit 1 Main Generator to the grid.

1-RC-PT-1444, PRZR Pressure Control transmitter, fails HIGH.

The crew performs the immediate actions of 1-AP-44, Loss of Reactor Coolant System Pressure.

The OATC reports that PRZR spray valve 1-RC-PCV-1455A indicates fully open, even after placing 1-RC-SOV-1455A, 1-RC-PCV-1455A Remote Close SOY, in CLOSE.

Which ONE of the following describes how the crew will mitigate this event?

A. Suspend performance of 1-AP-44, and perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection; stop the "A" RCP when directed by 1-E-O.

B. Suspend performance of 1-AP-44, and perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection; stop the "c" RCP when directed by 1-E-O.

C. Perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, while continuing with 1-AP-44; after 1-E-O Immediate Actions are complete, stop the "A" RCP.

D. Perform 1-E-O, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, while continuing with 1-AP-44; after 1-E-O Immediate Actions are complete, stop the "c" RCP.


80.Unit 1 is at 75% power ramping up to 100% at 0.3% per minute.

AFD is currently indicating zero (0) on all channels.

Which ONE of the following conditions would place the unit closest to an AFD limit, ffl includes thereason for the Technical Specification limits on AFD?

A. Allowing AFD to drift up to a value of +5 during the ramp;ensures that the Heat Flux Hot Channel Factor (FQ(Z)) is not exceeded during operation.

B. Allowing AFD to drift down to a value of -5 during the ramp;ensures that the Heat Flux Hot Channel Factor (FQ(Z)) is not exceeded during operation.

C. Allowing AFD to drift up to a value of +5 during the ramp;ensures that the gross radial power distribution remains consistent with the design values used in theSafety Analyses.

D. Allowing AFD to drift down to a value of-S during the ramp;ensures that the gross radial power distribution remains consistent with the design values used in theSafety Analyses.

80.


Unit 1 is at 75% power ramping up to 100% at 0.3% per minute.

AFD is currently indicating zero (0) on all channels.

Which ONE of the following conditions would place the unit closest to an AFD limit, AND includes the reason for the Technical Specification limits on AFD?

A. Allowing AFD to drift up to a value of +5 during the ramp; ensures that the Heat Flux Hot Channel Factor (FQ(Z)) is not exceeded during operation.

B. Allowing AFD to drift down to a value of -5 during the ramp; ensures that the Heat Flux Hot Channel Factor (FQ(Z)) is not exceeded during operation.

C. Allowing AFD to drift up to a value of +5 during the ramp; ensures that the gross radial power distribution remains consistent with the design values used in the Safety Analyses.

D. Allowing AFD to drift down to a value of -5 during the ramp; ensures that the gross radial power distribution remains consistent with the design values used in the Safety Analyses.




• Containment Pressure Protection Channel I, 1-P-LM-100A, loses power.

• The crew has completed 1-AP-3, Loss of Vital Instrumentation.

• The crew has NOT yet performed any actions of the applicable MOP.

Which ONE of the following identifies the Technical Specification required action, AND includes the plantresponse if Containment Pressure Protection Channel II subsequently fails HIGH prior to any actionsbeing taken?

Place 1-P-LM-100A in BYPASS within

________

A. 1 hour; an ESF actuation will occur

B. 72 hours; an ESF actuation will occur

C. 1 hour; an ESF actuation will NOT occur

D. 72 hours; an ESF actuation will NOT occur

81.




Containment Pressure Protection Channell, 1-P-LM-100A, loses power.

The crew has completed 1-AP-3, Loss of Vital Instrumentation.

The crew has NOT yet performed any actions of the applicable MOP.

Which ONE of the following identifies the Technical Specification required action, AND includes the plant response if Containment Pressure Protection Channel II subsequently fails HIGH prior to any actions being taken?

Place 1-P-LM-100A in BYPASS within __ _

A. 1 hour; an ESF actuation will occur

B. 72 hours; an ESF actuation will occur

C. 1 hour; an ESF actuation will NOT occur

D. 72 hours; an ESF actuation will NOT occur



• Unit 1 core on-load is in progress.

• Reactor cavity water level is 28910’.

• “A” RHR pump is in operation.

• “B” RHR pump is tagged for seal repairs.

Electrical Maintenance requests to perform a work order to locally observe operation of breaker 15H14for “A” RHR pump. The work requires the breaker to be opened, and then re-closed, using the controlroom switch. No test equipment will be attached to the breaker, and the entire operation should take nomore than 30 minutes.

Which ONE of the following identifies how the SRO should respond to the Electrical Maintenancerequest, AND includes the Bases for this response?

A. Allow the activity. Tech Specs permit this since a duration time of 2 hours for an inoperable pumphas been previously evaluated and determined to be safe; therefore the activity is acceptable per TS3.9.5.

B. Allow the activity. Tech Specs provide an allowance which permits removing the required operatingRHR loop from operation for up to 1 hour per 8 hour period to accomodate maintenance on the RHRloop; therefore the activity is acceptable per TS 3.9.5.

C. DO NOT allow the activity. The bases for allowing the required RHR loop to be removed from servicedoes NOT apply since cavity water level is not sufficient to remove decay heat during the proposedtime period; therefore the activity is NOT acceptable per TS 3.9.5,

D. DO NOT allow the activity. The bases for allowing the required RHR loop to be removed from servicedoes NOT apply since it is to permit operations (e.g. fuel movement, core mapping, etc.) in thevicinity of the Hot Leg nozzles; therefore the activity is NOT acceptable per TS 3.9.5.

82.



Unit 1 core on-load is in progress.

Reactor cavity water level is 289' 10".

"A" RHR pump is in operation.

"B" RHR pump is tagged for seal repairs.

Electrical Maintenance requests to perform a work order to locally observe operation of breaker 15H14 for "A" RHR pump. The work requires the breaker to be opened, and then re-closed, using the control room switch. No test equipment will be attached to the breaker, and the entire operation should take no more than 30 minutes.

Which ONE of the following identifies how the SRO should respond to the Electrical Maintenance request, AND includes the Bases for this response?

A. Allow the activity. Tech Specs permit this since a duration time of 2 hours for an inoperable pump has been previously evaluated and determined to be safe; therefore the activity is acceptable per TS 3.9.5.

B. Allow the activity. Tech Specs provide an allowance which permits removing the required operating RHR loop from operation for up to 1 hour per 8 hour period to accomodate maintenance on the RHR loop; therefore the activity is acceptable per TS 3.9.5.

c. DO NOT allow the activity. The bases for allowing the required RHR loop to be removed from service does NOT apply since cavity water level is not sufficient to remove decay heat during the proposed time period; therefore the activity is NOT acceptable per TS 3.9.5,

D. DO NOT allow the activity. The bases for allowing the required RHR loop to be removed from service does NOT apply since it is to permit operations (e.g. fuel movement, core mapping, etc.) in the vicinity of the Hot Leg nozzles; therefore the activity is NOT acceptable per TS 3.9.5.


83.Unit 1 experiences a large-break LOCA. The crew was unable to align a flowpath from the containmentsump, and has transitioned to 1 -ECA-1 .1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.


• RWST level is 12% and slowly decreasing.

• Containment sump level is 5 foot 10 inches.

Given these conditions, 1-ECA-1.1 will direct the crew to start

____________,

and cautions the crew thatQuench Spray pumps must be stopped when RWST level decreases to

_____________

A. ONLY the Outside Recirc Spray pumps; 3%

B. ONLY the Outside Recirc Spray pumps ; 8%

C. ALL available Recirc Spray pumps ; 3%

D. ALL available Recirc Spray pumps; 8%

83.


Unit 1 experiences a large-break LOCA. The crew was unable to align a flowpath from the containment sump, and has transitioned to 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation.


RWST level is 12% and slowly decreasing.

Containment sump level is 5 foot 10 inches.

Given these conditions, 1-ECA-1.1 will direct the crew to start _____ , and cautions the crew that Quench Spray pumps must be stopped when RWST level decreases to ____ _

A. ONLY the Outside Recirc Spray pumps; 3%

B. ONLY the Outside Recirc Spray pumps; 8%

C. ALL available Recirc Spray pumps; 3%

D. ALL available Recirc Spray pumps; 8%



• A cavity seal ring failure causes a loss of reactor cavity water level during core off-load.

• Fuel failures during the previous cycle result in high airborne iodine concentration.

• Water level in the Containment basement stabilizes at four feet deep after the cavity drains.

• Painting was recently completed inside Containment.

Which ONE of the following identifies the appropriate actions to reduce containment airborne iodineconcentration, AND includes the Technical Specification implications?

A. Place Containment Purge in service through one Auxiliary Building Iodine Filter;enter TS 3.7.15 action for Fuel Building Ventilation System inoperable.

B. Place Iodine Filtration Fans 1-HV-F-3A and 38 in service;enter TS 3.7.15 action for Fuel Building Ventilation System inoperable.

C. Place Containment Purge in service through one Auxiliary Building Iodine Filter;enter TS 3.7.12 action for one PREACS train inoperable.

D. Place Iodine Filtration Fans 1-HV-F-3A and 3B in service;enterTS 3.7.12 action for one PREACS train inoperable.

84.



A cavity seal ring failure causes a loss of reactor cavity water level during core off-load.

Fuel failures during the previous cycle result in high airborne iodine concentration.

Water level in the Containment basement stabilizes at four feet deep after the cavity drains.

Painting was recently completed inside Containment.

Which ONE of the following identifies the appropriate actions to reduce containment airborne iodine concentration, AND includes the Technical Specification implications?

A. Place Containment Purge in service through one Auxiliary Building Iodine Filter; enter TS 3.7.15 action for Fuel Building Ventilation System inoperable.

B. Place Iodine Filtration Fans 1-HV-F-3A and 3B in service; enter TS 3.7.15 action for Fuel Building Ventilation System inoperable.

C. Place Containment Purge in service through one Auxiliary Building Iodine Filter; enter TS 3.7.12 action for one PREACS train inoperable.

D. Place Iodine Filtration Fans 1-HV-F-3A and 3B in service; enter TS 3.7.12 action for one PREACS train inoperable.


85.Unit 1 is at 100% power with the PRZR Level Channel Defeat Switch selected to position 461/460.

An instrument malfunction causes the following plant response:

Letdown automatically isolated.

• Normal charging flow control valve 1-CH-FCV-1122 fully open.

Which ONE of the following identifies the failed channel, AND includes the protection function describedby the Technical Specification Bases that is impacted by this failure?

A. 1-RC-LT-1460 is failed ; primary protection against RCS overpressurization.

B. 1-RC-LT-1460 is failed ; protection against water relief through the PRZR Safety Valves.

C. 1-RC-LT-1461 is failed; primary protection against RCS overpressurization.

D. 1-RC-LT-1461 is failed; protection against water relief through the PRZR Safety Valves.

85.


Unit 1 is at 100% power with the PRZR Level Channel Defeat Switch selected to position 461/460.

An instrument malfunction causes the following plant response:

Letdown automatically isolated.

Normal charging flow control valve 1-CH-FCV-1122 fully open.

Which ONE of the following identifies the failed channel, AND includes the protection function described by the Technical Specification Bases that is impacted by this failure?

A. 1-RC-LT-1460 is failed; primary protection against RCS overpressurization.

B. 1-RC-L T-1460 is failed; protection against water relief through the PRZR Safety Valves.

C. 1-RC-L T-1461 is failed; primary protection against RCS overpressurization.

D. 1-RC-L T-1461 is failed; protection against water relief through the PRZR Safety Valves.




• A loss of offsite power occurs.

• 1-MS-PCV-IO1A, A SG PORV, sticks fully open.

• The crew was able to locally override 1-MS-PCV-101A closed.

The plant has been stabilized, and the crew is continuing recovery actions in accordance with1-ES-C. 1, Reactor Trip Response.

Which ONE of the following identifies the current status of 1-MS-PCV-1OIA Jfl the LCO for TS 3.7.4,Steam Generator Power Operated Relief Valves?

A. 1-MS-PCV-1OIA is operable and LCO 3.7.4 is met.

B. 1-MS-PC\/-1O1A is inoperable and must be restored to operable prior to startup.

C. 1-MS-PCV-1O1A is inoperable and must be restored to operable status within 24 hours.

D. 1-MS-PCV-1OIA is inoperable and must be restored to operable status within 7 days.

86.




A loss of offsite power occurs.

1-MS-PCV-101A, "A" SG PORV, sticks fully open.

The crew was able to locally override 1-MS-PCV-1 01A closed.

The plant has been stabilized, and the crew is continuing recovery actions in accordance with 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response.

Which ONE of the following identifies the current status of 1-MS-PCV-101A AND the LCO for TS 3.7.4, Steam Generator Power Operated Relief Valves?

A. 1-MS-PCV-101A is operable and LCO 3.7.4 is met.

B. 1-MS-PCV-1 01A is inoperable and must be restored to operable prior to startup.

C. 1-MS-PCV-101A is inoperable and must be restored to operable status within 24 hours.

D. 1-MS-PCV-101A is inoperable and must be restored to operable status within 7 days.



• Unit 2 is at 100% power with Unit 1 core off-load in progress.

• A fuel assembly separates from its top nozzle while being withdrawn from the core.

• The crew enters 0-AP-30, Fuel Failure During Handling.

While the crew is performing time-critical actions of 0-AP-30, the Unit 2 reactor trips due to accidentaljarring of a reactor trip breaker.

Which ONE of the following identifies the requirements for prioritization of 0-AP-30 and Unit 2 EOPs(2-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, and 2-ES-0.1 Reactor Trip Response)?

A. Regardless of manpower availability, the crew should suspend performance of 0-AP-30 whileperforming the immediate actions of 2-E-0, and then perform 0-AP-30 in parallel with Unit 2 EOPs.

B. Regardless of manpower availability, the crew should suspend performance of 0-AP-30 whileperforming 2-E-0, and should not resume performing 0-AP-30 until Unit 2 is stable per 2-ES-0.1.

C. The crew should complete the time-critical actions of 0-AP-30 prior to entering 2-E-0, and thenperform Unit 2 EOPs in parallel with 0-AP-30.

D. If manpower permits, the crew should continue performing the time-critical actions of 0-AP-30 whileperforming the immediate actions of 2-E-0, and then perform 0-AP-30 in parallel with Unit 2 EOPs

87.



Unit 2 is at 100% power with Unit 1 core off-load in progress.

A fuel assembly separates from its top nozzle while being withdrawn from the core.

The crew enters 0-AP-30, Fuel Failure During Handling.

While the crew is performing time-critical actions of 0-AP-30, the Unit 2 reactor trips due to accidental jarring of a reactor trip breaker.

Which ONE of the following identifies the requirements for prioritization of 0-AP-30 and Unit 2 EOPs (2-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, and 2-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response)?

A. Regardless of manpower availability, the crew should suspend performance of 0-AP-30 while performing the immediate actions of 2-E-0, and then perform 0-AP-30 in parallel with Unit 2 EOPs.

B. Regardless of manpower availability, the crew should suspend performance of 0-AP-30 while performing 2-E-0, and should not resume performing 0-AP-30 until Unit 2 is stable per 2-ES-0.1.

c. The crew should complete the time-critical actions of 0-AP-30 prior to entering 2-E-0, and then perform Unit 2 EOPs in parallel with 0-AP-30.

D. If manpower permits, the crew should continue performing the time-critical actions of 0-AP-30 while performing the immediate actions of 2-E-0, and then perform 0-AP-30 in parallel with Unit 2 EOPs


88.The crew is performing 1-ECA-0.0, Loss of ALL AC Power, and has NOT yet been able to restoreEmergency Bus power.

Thirty (30) minutes have elapsed since the emergency busses were lost, and the crew is briefing anoperator to perform 1-ECA-0.0, Attachment 2, Turbine Building Operations.

In order to ensure adequate 125V DC bus voltage, which ONE of the following identifies the actionsrequired, AND includes the associated time frame per 1-ECA-0.0?

Within the next

___________,

stop the DC Turbine Oil Pump and the DC Air Side Seal Oil Pump.

A. 30 minutes, verify the turbine is stopped and generator hydrogen is vented, then

B. 60 minutes, verify the turbine is stopped and generator hydrogen is vented, then

C. 30 minutes, verify turbine speed is < 1000 rpm and generator hydrogen is vented, then

D. 60 minutes, verify turbine speed is < 1000 rpm and generator hydrogen is vented, then

88.


The crew is performing 1-ECA-0.0, Loss of ALL AC Power, and has NOT yet been able to restore Emergency Bus power.

Thirty (30) minutes have elapsed since the emergency busses were lost, and the crew is briefing an operator to perform 1-ECA-0.0, Attachment 2, Turbine Building Operations.

In order to ensure adequate 125V DC bus voltage, which ONE of the following identifies the actions required, AND includes the associated time frame per 1-ECA-0.0?

Within the next ____ , stop the DC Turbine Oil Pump and the DC Air Side Seal Oil Pump.

A. 30 minutes, verify the turbine is stopped and generator hydrogen is vented, then

B. 60 minutes, verify the turbine is stopped and generator hydrogen is vented, then

C. 30 minutes, verify turbine speed is < 1000 rpm and generator hydrogen is vented, then

D. 60 minutes, verify turbine speed is < 1000 rpm and generator hydrogen is vented, then


89.While attempting to synchronize and load the IH EDG per 1-PT-82H, 1H Emergency Diesel GeneratorSlow Start Test, the operator reported that EDG speed is oscillating and he is unable to sychronize theIH EDG.

The IH EDG is running with the output breaker open and speed is oscillating between 900 and 940 rpm.

Maintenance personnel at the EDG have requested to leave the EDG running to allow them to take somedata prior to shutting it down.

In accordance with 1 -PT-82H, the I H EDG should not be run unloaded for greater than minutesAND in accordance with Technical Specifications, a determination that IJ EDG is NOT inoperable due tocommon cause failure is required to be completed within

______

hours.

A. 5;4

B. 5;24

C. 30;4

D. 30;24

89.


While attempting to synchronize and load the 1H EOG per 1-PT-82H, 1H Emergency Diesel Generator Slow Start Test, the operator reported that EDG speed is oscillating and he is unable to sychronize the 1H EOG.

The 1 H EOG is running with the output breaker open and speed is oscillating between 900 and 940 rpm.

Maintenance personnel at the EDG have requested to leave the EDG running to allow them to take some data prior to shutting it down.

In accordance with 1-PT-82H, the 1 H EOG should not be run unloaded for greater than __ minutes ANO in accordance with Technical Specifications, a determination that 1J EOG is NOT inoperable due to common cause failure is required to be completed within hours.

A. 5; 4

B. 5; 24

c. 30; 4

D. 30; 24

NAPS 2010 NRC SRQ Exam



• The team has entered 1-AP-28, Loss of Instrument Air.

• The crew has completed the immediate actions of 1-AP-28.

The OATC reports that Instrument Air pressure is 95 psig and lowering.

Which ONE of the following identifies the MINIMUM instrument air pressure allowed by 1-AP-28 before atrip is required AND includes the AFW flow required by 1 -ES-0. 1, Reactor Trip Response, following thetrip (assuming RCPs are running)?

A. 70 psig; 340 gpm

B. 70 psig 400 gpm

C. 75 psig ; 340 gpm

D. 75 psig 400 gpm

90.




The team has entered 1-AP-28, Loss of Instrument Air.

The crew has completed the immediate actions of 1-AP-28.

The OATC reports that Instrument Air pressure is 95 psig and lowering.

Which ONE of the following identifies the MINIMUM instrument air pressure allowed by 1-AP-28 before a trip is required AND includes the AFW flow required by 1-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, following the trip (assuming RCPs are running)?

A. 70 psig ; 340 gpm

B. 70 psig ; 400 gpm

C. 75 psig ; 340 gpm

D. 75 psig ; 400 gpm


91.Which ONE of the following identifies the component whose isolation switch is required byTR 7.5, Appendix R Alternate Shutdown Equipment, JQ includes the required action and completiontime if the minimum requirement is not met?

A. 1-CH-TV-1204A, Letdown lsol Valve;Implement hourly fire watch within 14 days.

B. 1-CH-TV-1204A, Letdown Isol Valve;Restore equipment to functional status within 14 days or be in Mode 3 within the next 6 hours.

C. 1-RC-LCV-1460A, Letdown Isol Valve;Implement hourly fire watch within 14 days.

D. 1-RC-LCV-1460A, Letdown Isol Valve;Restore equipment to functional status within 14 days or be in Mode 3 within the next 6 hours.

91.


Which ONE of the following identifies the component whose isolation switch is required by TR 7.5, Appendix R Alternate Shutdown Equipment, AND includes the required action and completion time if the minimum requirement is not met?

A. 1-CH-TV-1204A, Letdown Isol Valve; Implement hourly fire watch within 14 days.

B. 1-CH-TV-1204A, Letdown Isol Valve; Restore equipment to functional status within 14 days or be in Mode 3 within the next 6 hours.

C. 1-RC-LCV-1460A, Letdown Isol Valve; Implement hourly fire watch within 14 days.

D. 1-RC-LCV-1460A, Letdown Isol Valve; Restore equipment to functional status within 14 days or be in Mode 3 within the next 6 hours.


92Unit I experienced a loss of offsite power followed by a small-break LOCA.

Operators are implementing 1-ES-i .2, Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.


• Containment pressure is 21 psia and slowly increasing.

• Containment radiation is 3.5RIhr and stable.

Assuming these plant conditions remain unchanged, which ONE of the following identifies how the CRDMFans are operated in accordance with 1-ES-i .2, AND includes the reason?

A. CRDM fans are left running to provide additional containment cooling.

B. CRDM fans are stopped to reduce emergency bus loading.

C. CRDM fans are stopped to prevent sump blockage due to degradation of the aluminum fan blading.

D. CRDM fans are stopped because of motor overload concerns.

92.


Unit 1 experienced a loss of offsite power followed by a small-break LOCA.

Operators are implementing 1-ES-1.2, Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization.


Containment pressure is 21 psia and slowly increasing.

Containment radiation is 3.5R/hr and stable.

Assuming these plant conditions remain unchanged, which ONE of the following identifies how the CRDM Fans are operated in accordance with 1-ES-1.2, AND includes the reason?

A. CRDM fans are left running to provide additional containment cooling.

B. CRDM fans are stopped to reduce emergency bus loading.

C. CRDM fans are stopped to prevent sump blockage due to degradation of the aluminum fan blading.

D. CRDM fans are stopped because of motor overload concerns.


93.Unit 1 is in Mode 6 with control rod unlatching in progress.

In accordance with 1-OP-4.15, Manipulator Crane, which ONE of the following identifies the ONLYindividual (by title) who is allowed to approve the use of crane interlock bypasses?

A. Refueling SRO.

B. Fuel Handling Supervisor.

C. Supervisor of Operations Support.

D. Operations Manager on Call.

93.

/


Unit 1 is in Mode 6 with control rod unlatching in progress.

In accordance with 1-0P-4.15, Manipulator Crane, which ONE of the following identifies the ONLY individual (by title) who is allowed to approve the use of crane interlock bypasses?

A. Refueling SRO.

B. Fuel Handling Supervisor.

C. Supervisor of Operations Support.

D. Operations Manager on Call.




• Maintenance is preparing to troubleshoot an indicating light bulb issue with 1-QS-P-1A.

• 1-QS-P-1A will need to be tagged out to support the troubleshooting.

• An SRO is reviewing MA-AA-103, Attachment 2, Troubleshooting Sheet.

lAW the Troubleshooting Sheet, the SRO must verify

___________________

operable.

A. ONLYthe1HEDG

B. BOTH IH EDG and 1-QS-P-1B

C. ONLYthe1JEDG

D. BOTH IJ EDG and 1-QS-P-1B

94.




Maintenance is preparing to troubleshoot an indicating light bulb issue with 1-QS-P-1A.

1-QS-P-1A will need to be tagged out to support the troubleshooting.

An SRO is reviewing MA-AA-103, Attachment 2, Troubleshooting Sheet.

lAW the Troubleshooting Sheet, the SRO must verify ________ operable.

A. ONLY the 1H EDG

B. BOTH 1 H EDG and 1-QS-P-1 B

C. ONLY the 1J EDG

D. BOTH 1J EDG and 1-QS-P-1 B

NAPS 2010 NRC SRD Exam

95.Technical Specifications have a note which prohibits starting an RCP with any RCS Cold-leg temperatureless than or equal to

______

unless the secondary side water temperature of each SG is less than or equalto 50°F above each of the RCS Cold-leg temperatures.The bases of this requirement is to

____________

A. 180°F; limit rate of change of temperature to restrict stresses caused by thermal gradients.

B. 180°F; prevent a low temperature overpressure event due to a thermal transient.

C. 280°F; limit rate of change of temperature to restrict stresses caused by thermal gradients.

D. 280°F; prevent a low temperature overpressure event due to a thermal transient.

95.


Technical Specifications have a note which prohibits starting an RCP with any RCS Cold-leg temperature less than or equal to __ unless the secondary side water temperature of each SG is less than or equal to 50°F above each of the RCS Cold-leg temperatures. The bases of this requirement is to ____ _

A. 180°F; limit rate of change of temperature to restrict stresses caused by thermal gradients.

B. 180°F; prevent a low temperature overpressure event due to a thermal transient.

C. 280°F; limit rate of change of temperature to restrict stresses caused by thermal gradients.

D. 280°F; prevent a low temperature overpressure event due to a thermal transient.



A large-break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

Which ONE of the following Emergency Ventilation fans can NOT be used when placing the MCR/ESGREmergency Ventilation system on Turbine Building Supply, AQ includes the Technical Specificationbasis for this restriction?

A. 1-HV-F-41 due to the location of the air intake

B. 1-HV-F-41 ; this fan is not seismically qualified

C. 2-HV-F-41 ; due to the location of the air intake

D. 2-HV-F-41 ; this fan is not seismically qualified

96.



A large-break LOCA has occurred on Unit 2.

Which ONE of the following Emergency Ventilation fans can NOT be used when placing the MCR/ESGR Emergency Ventilation system on Turbine Building Supply, AND includes the Technical Specification basis for this restriction?

A. 1-HV-F-41; due to the location of the air intake

B. 1-HV-F-41; this fan is not seismically qualified

C. 2-HV-F-41; due to the location of the air intake

D. 2-HV-F-41; this fan is not seismically qualified


97.The Waste Gas Decay Tanks (WGDT) were sampled to determine the quantity of radioactive materialcontained within each tank.

Confirmed sample results are as follows:

• “A” WGDT - 15,000 curies of noble gas.

• “B” WGDT - 6,000 curies of noble gas.

Based on these sample results, which ONE of the following identifies the implications per TR 3.1.3, GasStorage Tanks, AND includes the associated TRM BASES?

The quantity of radioactive material in the WGDTs

_____________.

The TRM bases for restricting thequantity of radioactive material is to limit dose at the exclusion boundary to

_____________

A. is within limits, entry into TR 3.10.3 action is NOT required ; 0.5 rem.

B. is within limits, entry into TR 3.10.3 action is NOT required ; 0.1 rem.

C. is NOT within limits, enterTR 3.10.3 action; 0.5 rem.

D. is NOT within limits, enter TR 3.10.3 action; 0.1 rem.

97.


The Waste Gas Decay Tanks (WGDT) were sampled to determine the quantity of radioactive material contained within each tank.

Confirmed sample results are as follows:

"A" WGDT - 15,000 curies of noble gas.

"B" WGDT - 6,000 curies of noble gas.

Based on these sample results, which ONE of the following identifies the implications per TR 3.1.3, Gas Storage Tanks, AND includes the associated TRM BASES?

The quantity of radioactive material in the WGDTs . The TRM bases for restricting the quantity of radioactive material is to limit dose at the exclusion boundary to ____ _

A. is within limits, entry into TR 3.10.3 action is NOT required; 0.5 rem.

B. is within limits, entry into TR 3.10.3 action is NOT required; 0.1 rem.

c. is NOT within limits, enter TR 3.10.3 action; 0.5 rem.

D. is NOT within limits, enter TR 3.10.3 action; 0.1 rem.


98Both units are at 100% power with Operations shift staffing at the minimum required by OP-AA-1 00,Conduct of Operations.

During the response to a fire, the scene leader is overcome by smoke, and is transported offsite formedical attention. The only other qualified scene leader on site is a licensed RO, who is currentlyassigned Backboards.

Which ONE of the following identifies the impact on shift staffing, AND includes the action required byOP-AA-1 00?

A. Fire brigade minimum manning requirements are NOT met: immediately initiate action to restore therequired fire brigade manning within 1 hour.

B. Fire brigade minimum manning requirements are NOT met: immediately initiate action to restore therequired fire brigade manning within 2 hours.

C. Fire brigade minimum manning requirements are NOT met: within 1 hour, initiate action to restore therequired fire brigade manning within 2 hours.

D. Assign the licensed RO to assume scene leader duties, and reassign Backboards duties to anon-licensed operator: Fire brigade and Shift minimum manning requirements are met.

98.


Both units are at 100% power with Operations shift staffing at the minimum required by OP-AA-1 00, Conduct of Operations.

During the response to a fire, the scene leader is overcome by smoke, and is transported offsite for medical attention. The only other qualified scene leader on site is a licensed RO, who is currently assigned Backboards.

Which ONE of the following identifies the impact on shift staffing, AND includes the action required by OP-AA-100?

A. Fire brigade minimum manning requirements are NOT met; immediately initiate action to restore the required fire brigade manning within 1 hour.

B. Fire brigade minimum manning requirements are NOT met; immediately initiate action to restore the required fire brigade manning within 2 hours.

C. Fire brigade minimum manning requirements are NOT met; within 1 hour, initiate action to restore the required fire brigade manning within 2 hours.

D. Assign the licensed RO to assume scene leader duties, and reassign Backboards duties to a non-licensed operator; Fire brigade and Shift minimum manning requirements are met.




• PRZR pressure and level began decreasing rapidly, and the crew manually tripped the reactor.

• Safety Injection automatically actuated.


• Containment pressure - 11.1 psia and stable.

• Containment gaseous, particulate, and area radiation monitors - stable at pre-event values.

• 1-VG-RI-180-1, MGP Vent Stack B Rad Monitor - HI alarm LIT.

• SG pressures - 1000 psig and stable.

The crew is performing 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

Which ONE of the following identifies the procedure the operators will transition to when leaving 1-E-0?

A. 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant

B. 1-ES-1.2, Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization

C. 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation

D. 1-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment

99.




PRZR pressure and level began decreasing rapidly, and the crew manually tripped the reactor.

Safety Injection automatically actuated.


Containment pressure - 11.1 psia and stable.

Containment gaseous, particulate, and area radiation monitors - stable at pre-event values.

1-VG-RI-180-1, MGP Vent Stack BRad Monitor - HI alarm LIT.

SG pressures - 1000 psig and stable.

The crew is performing 1-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

Which ONE of the following identifies the procedure the operators will transition to when leaving 1-E-0?

A. 1-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant

B. 1-ES-1.2, Post-LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization

C. 1-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation

D. 1-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment



• Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a loss of offsite power.

• Multiple failures have resulted in a loss of all AFW flow.

• Operators have implemented 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

The CAUTION prior to Step 2 of 1-FR-H.1 reminds the crew that RCS bleed and feed should be initiatedimmediately if wide-range level in

_____________

decreases to less that 14% because of a loss of heatsink. In accordance with the 1-FR-H.1 background document, the basis for this requirement is to

A. ANY SG; minimize core uncovery and prevent inadequate core cooling.

B. ANY SG; minimize challenges to SG tube integrity from creep rupture failure.

C. ANY 2 SGs; minimize core uncovery and prevent inadequate core cooling.

D. ANY 2 SGs; minimize challenges to SG tube integrity from creep rupture failure.

100.



Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a loss of offsite power.

Multiple failures have resulted in a loss of all AFW flow.

Operators have implemented 1-FR-H.1, Loss of Secondary Heat Sink.

The CAUTION prior to Step 2 of 1-FR-H.1 reminds the crew that RCS bleed and feed should be initiated immediately if wide-range level in decreases to less that 14% because of a loss of heat sink. In accordance with the 1-FR-H.1 background document, the basis for this requirement is to

A. ANY SG ; minimize core uncovery and prevent inadequate core cooling.

B. ANY SG ; minimize challenges to SG tube integrity from creep rupture failure.

C. ANY 2 SGs ; minimize core uncovery and prevent inadequate core cooling.

D. ANY 2 SGs ; minimize challenges to SG tube integrity from creep rupture failure.

Afs 2) L-

7?O/%O*

Answers —

# ID I

OOIAK1.03 I D2 002K4.072 C3 003K5.02 3 B4 004G2.1.194 B5 004K6.155 A6 005K6.03 6 D7 006K6.187 B8 007EK2.02 8 B9 007K4.01 9 B

10 007K5.02 10 B

11 008A3.10 11 C12 008AK3.02 12 A13 008G2.4.45 13 A14 009EA1.03 14 D

15 010A3.0.2 15 B

16 O11EK1.01 16 D17 012K2.01 17 C18 012K5.01 18 B

19 0131<2.01 19 C20 013K4.0620 B21 014A2.0221 B22 015AK2.0822 C23 015K2.01 23 B24 017A1.01 24 C

25 022A1.01 25 D26 025AK2.03 26 A27 026A2.05 27 D28 026AA1.0328 D

29 027AK3.01 29 D

30 029K1.03 30 C31 032AA2.0631 B32 033AA1.01 32 B

33 034A4.01 33 A34 036AK3.01 34 C35 037AG2.1.2035 C36 038EA2.1636 C37 039A4.01 37 B38 O4OAKI.0438 D

39 045K3.01 39 D40 055EK1.0240 A

41 055G2.4.3 41 B42 056AG2.4.9 42 C43 057AG2.4.45 43 C44 059A1.0744 A

lD =-=-:;;:;---;;;;;:;-=~==-:..-==:...-::::::====-==:-

001AKl.03 1

2 002K4.072

3 003K5.023

4 004G2.l.l9 4

5 004K6.155

6 005K6.036

7 006K6.187

8 007EK2.028

9 007K4.01 9

10 007K5.02 10

11 008A3.l0 11 12 008AK3.02 12

13 008G2.4.45 13

14 009EA 1.03 14

15 010A3.0.215

16 011EKl.01 16

17 012K2.01 17

18 012K5.01 18

19 013K2.01 19

20 013K4.0620

21 014A2.0221

22 015AK2.0822

23 015K2.0123

24 017Al.0124

25 022A1.01 25

26 025AK2.03 26

27 026A2.0527

28 026AA 1.03 28

29 027AK3.0129

30 029Kl.0330

31 032AA2.06 31

32 033AAl.0132

33 034A4.01 33

34 036AK3.01 34

35 037 AG2.1.20 35

36 038EA2.1636

37 039A4.0137

38 040AK1.0438

39 045K3.0139

40 055EKl.0240

41 055G2.4.341

42 056AG2.4.942

43 057 AG2.4.45 43

44 059Al.0744

,J A f S ~ <) I Q tJ ILc j,.L, CJ W {l1k1\ ~ 4.tl1\

. 710/ i(lJO bMttYU h~

1

D

C B

B A D B B

B

B

C

A

A

D

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D C

B

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B B

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D

A

D

D

D

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B

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A

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Answers#ID 1

45 059K1.0445 C46 061G2.1.2346 A47 062A1.03 47 B48 062AA2.01 48 B49 062K1.0449 B50 063K4.04 50 D51 064A4.1051 A52 065AG2.1.27 52 91 953 068K6.1053 D54 073A2.02 54 B55 074EK1.03 55 D56 076K1.0756 D57 077AA1.0257 A58 078K201 58 A59 086K5.03 59 D

60 103K3.03 60 C61 G2.1.1961 A62 G2.1.2062 A63 G2.1.963 D64 G2.2.2 64 B65 G2.2.37 65 B66 G2.3.1166 D67 G2.3.1367 A68 G2.3.4 68 B69 G2.4.27 69 B70 G2.4.4 70 D71 WEO2EK2.1 71 D72 WEO5EK3.3 72 D73 WEI1EA2.173 B74 WE15EK2.274 C75 WE16EG2.4.50 75 C76 OO1AA2.03 76 C77 006G2.2.39 77 B78 008AA2.25 78 B79 010G2.4.31 79 D80 015A2.03 80 A81 016A2.01 81 D82 025AG2.2.36 82 D83 026A2.02 83 C84 027G2.4.30 84 C85 028AA2.1285 D86 035A2.02 86 A87 036AG2.4.8 87 D88 058AA2.02 88 A

45

46

47

48

49

50

51 52

53 54

55

56

57

58

59

60 61

62

63 64

65

66

67

68

69

70 71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83 84

85

86

87

88

059K1.0445

061 G2.1.23 46

062Al.0347

062AA2.0148

062Kl.0449

063K4.0450 064A4.10 51

065AG2.1.27 52

068K6.10 53 073A2.0254

074EK1.03 55

076Kl.0756 077AAl.0257

078K2.0158

086K5.0359

103K3.0360

G2.1.1961

G2.1.20 62

G2.1.963

G2.2.2 64

G2.2.3765

G2.3.1166

G2.3.13 67

G2.3.4 68

G2.4.2769

G2.4.4 70

WE02EK2.1 71

WE05EK3.3 72

WEllEA2.173

WE15EK2.274

WEI6EG2.4.50 75

001AA2.0376

006G2.2.39 77

008AA2.25 78

010G2.4.31 79

015A2.0380

016A2.0181

025AG2.2.36 82

026A2.0283

027G2.4.30 84

028AA2.12 85

035A2.0286

036AG2.4.8 87

058AA2.02 88

C A

B

B B D

A

~S D

B

D

D

A A

D

C

A

A

D

B

B

D A

B

B D

D

D

B

C

C

C

B

B D

A

D

D C

C

D

A D A

Answers ------ ------------------

ID 1

89 064A2.06 89 B

90 065AA2.06 90 B91 068AG2.2.40 91 C92 02.1.3192 C93 02.1.3593 A94 02.2.20 94 D95 G2.2.39 95 D96 02.3.1496 A

97 02.3.6 97 A

98 02.4.26 98 B99 WEO4EA2.1 99 D100 WEO5G2.4.20 100 C

Answers

# ==::::::;:::-'"~--===~~--==="-

89 064A2.0689

90 065AA2.06 90

91 068AG2.2.40 91

92 G2.1.31 92

93 G2.1.3593 94 G2.2.20 94

95 G2.2.3995

96 G2.3.1496

97 G2.3.697

98 G2.4.2698

99 WE04EA2.199

100 WE05G2.4.20 100

B

B

C

C

A D D

A

A

B D

C

north anna initial exam 2010-301 final sro written exam. · 2019-10-30 · naps 2010 nrc sro exam...

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