part a (english)
TRANSCRIPT
Part A (English)
Q.1 Relics of ancient civilizations "GILUND" were found near which river and in which district?
A. Ruparel, Bharatpur B. Banas, Rajsaman
C. Luni, Pali D. Khari, Bhilwara
Q.2 The language of the book, ‘Prithviraj Vijaya’ written by Jayanayak Bhatt was:
A. Persian B. Dingal
C. Sanskrit D. Pingal
Q.3 The copper plant at Khetri and zinc plant in Debari was established in 1960's with support
from UK. Today majority holdings in Debari plant has been sold to which industrial group?
A. Vendanta B. Reliance
C. Tata D. Birla
Q.4 Ira; Chap and Moran are tributaries of which river?
A. Banas B. Chambal
C. Luni D. Mahi
Q.5 The biggest cannon in the world is in which fort?
A. Chittorgarh Fort B. Mehrangarh Fort
C. Jaigarh Fort D. Nahargarh Fort
Q.6 American Cotton (Kapas) is grown in which district of Rajasthan?
A. Ganganagar B. Sikar
C. Dausa D. Bharatpur
Q.7 Which Jaipur ruler can be credited for having the buildings of Jaipur painted pink?
A. Sawai Mansingh B. Kalyan Singh
C. Sawai Ram Singh II D. Mirza Raja Jaisingh
Q.8 Bharateshwar Bahubali Ghor (Year 1168) is the oldest Jain litrary work of Rajasthani
language. This describes the fierce fight between Bharateshwar & Bahubali. Who is
the writer of this book?
A. Jindutt Suri B. Brijsen Suri
C. Palhan D. Vijaysen Suri
Q.9 "Saraswati Bhandar" a museum famous for paintings is located in?
A. Jodhpur B. Udaipur
C. Bundi D. Kota
Q.10 Which bank on 15 November 2014 won Custodian of the Year 2014 award?
A. Standard Chartered Bank B. Deutsche Bank
C. Industrial & Commercial Bank of China D. Royal Bank of Canada
Q.11 Mangalyaan has been named amongst the first best ____________ inventions of 2014
in the list published by Time magazine?
A. 100 B. 50
C. 5 D. 25
Q.12 Barack Obama became the __________ President of America to participate in India's
Republic Day celebrations during January 26, 2015?
A. Second B. First
C. Third D. Fourth
Q.13 Indian Railways has recently flagged off the first CNG (Compressed Natural Gas)
based two trains from a station in which state?
A. Bihar B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Haryana D. Gujarat
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Q.14 Recently American geologists discovered the most abundant mineral named as
______________ on earth’s lower mantle.
A. Calcite B. Aragonite
C. Muscovite D. Bridgmanite
Q.15 World Health Organization, in November 2014, declared following country as free of
the Ebola virus?
C. Liberia D. Sudan
Q.16 Who among the following in January 2015 took charge as the first vice-chairman of
the newly-created NITI Aayog?
C. Sindhushree Khullar D. Arvind Panagariya
Q.17 Time bound Guarantee for per household per year under MGNREG
A. More than 100 days B. Up to 100 days
C. 50 days D. 75 days
Q.18 Wage and Material ratio for permissible works under MGNREGA
A. 50:50 B. 40 :60
C. 60:40 D. 30:70
Q.19 In 2013-14, total persons worked under MGNREGA in Rajasthan are
A. 40-50 Lakh B. 30-40 Lakh
C. Less than 20 lakh D. More than 50 Lakh
Q.20 Minimum percentage of Women in total under MGNREGA Work should be:
A. At least half B. At least one-third
C. One-fourth D. Two-third
A. A week of application B. 15 days of application
C. A month of application D. None of these
Q.22 Which statement is valid?
A. 1KB = 1024 bytes B. 1 MB=2048 bytes
C. 1 MB = 1000 kilobytes D. 1 KB = 1000 bytes
Q.23 The octal equivalent of 111010 is
A. 81 B. 72
Q.24 Antivirus software is an example of:
A. Application software B. Office software
C. Operating system D. Utility software
Q.25 A Student wants to create "Digital story Collection" on the famous storyline "Rabbit
and the tortoise. He has downloaded some images of tortoise, rabbit and forest. He
wants to add watermarks, stylish text and images but is not interested in any animation.
Which office tool should he use?
A. Word processing Software B. Presentation software
C. Spreadsheet software D. Database management system
Q.26 WAN stands for
3
Q.27 There are eight mango trees in a straight line. The distance between each mango tree
with other is 3 metres. What is the distance between first tree and eighth tree?
A. 24 m B. 27 m
C. 30 m D. 21 m
Q.28 A father is 30 years older than his son. He will be three times as old as his son after 5
years. What is the father's present age?
A. 35 B. 45
C. 40 D. 30
Q.29 If 34 men completed 2/5th of a work in 8 days, working 9 hours a day. How many
more men should be engaged to finish the rest of the work in 6 days, working 9 hours a
day?
A. 89 B. 98
C. 102 D. 142
Q.30 A man wants to reach a window which is 40 feet above the ground. The distance from
the foot of the ladder to the wall is 9 feet. How long should the ladder be ?
a) 9 feet b) 81 feet
c) 41 feet d) 49 feet
Q.31 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank
spaces.
A. 43 B. 47
C. 51 D. 53
Q.32 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank
spaces.
A. 513 B. 511
C. 523 D. 517
Q.33 In a certain code DOWN is written as 5@9# and NAME is written as #6%3. How
would MODE be written?
A. %653 B. %@63
C. %5@3 D. %@53
Q.34 At what angle the hands of the clock inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
A. 52
the/gifts/young/ones/on/give/elders/festivals A. young ones give gifts on festivals to elders
B. elders give the young ones gifts on festivals
C. ones give gifts the elders, young ones on festivals
D. give gifts to elders and young ones on festivals
Q.36 Make affirmatives of following negative:
I haven't had any tea
A. I have tea B. I have had some tea
C. I am having tea D. I has some tea
Q.37 Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
_____ passengers waited as _____ flying mail was ____ hour late.
A. The, a, an B. An, the, a
C. The, the, an D. The, an, the
4
Q.38 ^i{kho`Un uHk esa fopjrs gSaA* js[kkafdr 'kCn dk opu gS& A. Cgqopu B. ,dopu C. f}opu D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.39 ^lalkj ds lHkh izk.kh dsoy viuh vk¡[kksa ls gh ns[k ldrs gSaA* okD; dk js[kkafdr va’k dkSulk dkjd gS A. drkZ B. deZ C. dj.k D. vf/kdj.k
Q.40 ^ia- txUukFk feJ cgqr cM+s iafMr FksA* okD; ds js[kkafdr 'kCn ls Hkkookpd laKk cukb, A. iafMrkbu B. ikafMRo C. iaMk D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
PART B (ENGLISH)
A. 3600 J B. 860 kcal
C. 3600 W D. 4186 J
Q.42 The current Io of Figure 1 is:
Figure-1
A. - 4 A B. -2 A
C. 4 A D. 16 A
Q.43 The effect of connecting an additional parallel load to an electrical supply source is to
increase the
A. Resistance of the load B. Voltage of the source
C. Current taken from the source D. p.d. across the load
Q.44 A 10 resistor is connected in parallel with a 15 resistor and the combination in series
with a 12 resistor. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is:
A. 37 B. 18
C. 27 D. 4
Q.45 Flux in a magnetic circuit is analogous to
A. voltage in an electric circuit B. current in an electric circuit
C. power in an electric circuit D. resistance in an electric circuit
Q.46 Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are related to:
A. The e.m.f. of a chemical cell B. the e.m.f. of a generator
C. The current flowing in a conductor D. the strength of a magnetic field
Q.47 Lenz’s Law follows from
A. principle of conservation of mass B. principle of superposition
C. principle of conservation of energy D. principle of homogeneity
Q.48 The Norton current at terminals
circuit shown at Figure 2
A. 1 A
C. 2 A
A. 20 V
C. 40 V
Q.50 What is the form factor of pure sine wave?
A. 1.11
C. 1.57
Q.51 One 200 V, 100 W bulb is connected in series with primary of a 200 V, 10 kVA
transformer. If its secondary is left open circuited then the bulb would have
A. Full brightness
Q.52 A network with b branches,
following equations
Hz , the power factor for the circuit is
A. 0.86
C. 0.75
Q.54 Total losses occurring in a transformer when it is operating at its maximum efficiency are
2000 W. The total copper
A. 2000 W
C. 1500 W
A. Low speed applications in Hydro plants
B. High speed applications in Hydro plants
C. Low speed applications in Thermal plants
D. High speed applications in
Q.56 If a three-phase, 8–pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 735 r.p.m. then the slip is
A. 0.02
C. 0.04
Q.57 In an oil- filled transformer, oil is provided for
A. Cooling
c) Lubrication
A. DC circuits only
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The Norton current at terminals a and b of the
igure 2
of the circuit in Figure 3
Figure-3
B. 1.414
D. 0.909
One 200 V, 100 W bulb is connected in series with primary of a 200 V, 10 kVA
transformer. If its secondary is left open circuited then the bulb would have
B. poor brightness
a little less than full brightness D. more than full brightness
branches, n nodes, and l independent loops will satisfy which of the
B. b= n-l+1
D. b=l-n-1
A resistor of 100 is connected in series with a 50 µ F capacitor to a supply of 200 V, 50
Hz , the power factor for the circuit is
B. 0.63
D. 0.92
Total losses occurring in a transformer when it is operating at its maximum efficiency are
2000 W. The total copper losses at this load are
B. 1000 W
D. 800 W
Low speed applications in Hydro plants
High speed applications in Hydro plants
Low speed applications in Thermal plants
High speed applications in Thermal plants
, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 735 r.p.m. then the slip is
B. 0.03
D. 0.05
b) Insulation
Kirchoff’s Laws are applicable for
B. Circuits with rectified AC supply
Both AC and DC circuits D. AC circuits only
One 200 V, 100 W bulb is connected in series with primary of a 200 V, 10 kVA
transformer. If its secondary is left open circuited then the bulb would have
more than full brightness
independent loops will satisfy which of the
connected in series with a 50 µ F capacitor to a supply of 200 V, 50
Total losses occurring in a transformer when it is operating at its maximum efficiency are
, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 735 r.p.m. then the slip is
insulation
6
Q.59 In a Y-Y system, a line voltage of 220 V produces a phase voltage of:
A. 381 V B. 311 V
C. 220 V D. 127 V
Q.60 A commutator in a DC machine can convert
A. AC to DC B. DC to AC
C. Pulsating to DC D. Both A & B
Q.61 The main purpose of using a core in transformer is to
A. Decrease iron loss B. prevent eddy current loss
C. Eliminate magnetic hysteresis D. decrease reluctance of the magnetic circuit
Q.62 A moving coil instrument, having coil resistance of 4.5 gives a full scale deflection of
30mA. The resistance connected in parallel with this instrument to read up to 2.5A is,
A. 6.46 B. 0.0346
C. 0.0546 D. 0.0625
Q.63 In a particular meter, the operating torque is directly proportional to the current passing
through it , then the type of meter is
A. moving iron B. moving coil
C. electrostatic D. induction
Q.64 Short circuit test on transformer is conducted to obtain
A. Core losses at any load B. Hysteresis loss only
C. Ohmic Loss D. Eddy Current Loss only
Q.65 A differentially compound D.C motor runs at a full load speed of 1000 rpm. If its series
field winding is short circuited, then its full-load speed
A. Becomes more than 1000 rpm B. Becomes less than 1000 rpm
C. Remains 1000 rpm. D. Motor first accelerates and then stops with jerks
Q.66 Out of the following which machine is also known as a generalized transformer
A. DC motor B. Induction Motor
C. DC generator D. Synchronous motor
Q.67 The rating of a transformer is expressed in
A. KVA B. KW
C. HP D. W
Q.68 If the current through a 10-mH inductor increases from zero to 2 A, how much energy is
stored in the inductor?
A. 40 mJ B. 20 mJ
C. 10 mJ D. 5 mJ
Q.69 The total capacitance of two 40-mF series-connected capacitors in parallel with a 4-mF
capacitor is:
A. 3.8 mF B. 5 mF
C. 24 mF D. 44 mF
Q.70 The effect of an air gap in a magnetic circuit is to:
A. Increase the reluctance B. Reduce the flux density
C. Divide the flux D. Reduce the magnetomotive force
Q.71 When a magnetic flux of 10Wb links with a circuit of 20 turns in 2 s, the induced e.m.f. is:
A. 1V B. 4V
C. 100V D. 400V
Q.72 In pure silicon:
A. The holes are the majority carriers B. The electrons are the majority carriers
C. The holes and electrons exist in equal
numbers
electrons than holes
Q.73 Pentavalent impurities:
A. Have three valency electrons B. Introduce holes when added to a
semiconductor material
atoms to a semiconductor material
D. Increase the conduction of a semiconductor
material
A. are majority carriers B. take no part in conduction
C. are minority carriers D. exist in the same numbers as holes
Q.75 The base region of a p-n-p transistor is
A. very thin and heavily doped with holes B. very thin and heavily doped with electrons
C. very thin and lightly doped with holes D. very thin and lightly doped with electrons
Q.76 The current flow across the base-emitter junction of an n-p-n transistor consists of
A. mainly electrons B. equal numbers of holes and electrons
C. mainly holes D. the leakage current
Q.77 An alternating voltage of maximum value 100V is applied to a lamp. Which of the following
direct voltages, if applied to the lamp, would cause the lamp to light with the same brilliance?
A. 100V B. 63.7V
C. 70.7V D. 141.4V
Q.78 The value normally stated when referring to alternating currents and voltages is the:
A. instantaneous value B. r.m.s. value
C. average value D. peak value
Q.79 In a four-branch parallel circuit, there are 10 mA of current in each branch. If one of the
branches is open, the current in each of the other three branches is
A. 13.3 mA B. 10mA
C. 0A D. 30mA
Q.80 Thevenin's theorem converts a circuit to an equivalent form consisting of
A. a current source and a series resistance B. a voltage source and a parallel resistance
C. a voltage source and a series resistance D. a current source and a parallel resistance
Q.81 Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when
A. the load resistance is very large B. the load resistance is very small
C. the load resistance is twice the source
resistance
resistance
Q.82 A sine wave with a frequency of 12 kHz is changing at a faster rate than a sine wave with
a frequency of
Q.83 A phasor represents
A. the magnitude of a quantity B. the magnitude and direction of a quantity
C. the phase angle D. the length of a quantity
Q.84 One sine wave has a positive-going zero crossing at 10° and another sine wave has a
positive- going zero crossing at 45°. The phase angle between the two waveforms is
A. 55° B. 35°
C. 0° D. none of these
Q.85 In a series RC circuit, the voltage across the capacitor is
A. in phase with the source voltage B. lagging the resistor voltage by 90°
C. in phase with the current D. lagging the source voltage by 90°
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Q.86 The commutator segments are insulated from each other by
A. Mica B. wood
C. paper D. glass
Q.87 The number of p-n junctions in a thyristor (SCR) is/are
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Q.88 A circuit in which the output voltage remains constant irrespective of the value of load resistance uses
A. Silicon diode B. Zener Diode
C. n-p-n transistor D. p-n-p transistor
Q.89 Low power factor is usually not due to
A. incandescent lamp B. induction motor
C. arc lamps D. fluorescent tubes
Q.90 A fuse is inserted in
A. neutral B. earth continuity conductor
C. phase D. both phase and neutral
Q.91 The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
A. Fleming’s right hand rule B. Fleming’s left hand rule
C. Cork Screw rule D. Kirchoff’s law
Q.92 A charge of 360 C is transferred in 2 minutes. The current flowing is:
A. 180A B. 60A
C. 2A D. 3A
Q.93 The power factor of a purely inductive circuit is
A. zero B. leading
C. negative D. unity
Q.94 A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
A. zero B. unity
C. leading D. lagging
Q.95 When a 400-Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its rating is
A. reduced to 1/8 B. increased 8 times
C. unaffected D. increased 64 times
Q.96 Regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-cage induction motor, which statement is false?
A. it prevents cogging B. it increases starting torque
C. it produces more uniform torque D. it reduces rotor ‘hum’ during its operation
Q.97 A synchronous machine is called a doubly excited machine because
A. it can be overexcited B. it has two sets of rotor poles
C. both its rotor and stator are excited D. it needs twice the normal exciting current
Q.98 Synchronous condenser is
B. an overexcited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
C. an under- excited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
D. an overexcited synchronous motor running without mechanical load
Q.99 A UJT exhibits negative resistance region
A. before the peak point B. after valley point
C. both A & B D. between peak and valley points
Q.100 The slip of an induction generator is
A. equal to zero B. greater than zero
C. less than zero D. none of these
9
Part A (Hindi)
Q.1 izkphu lH;rk ^fxyw.M* ds vo’ks"k fdlh unh ds fdukjs vkSj fdl ftys esa feys gSa?
A. :ikjsy] Hkjriqj B. cukl] jktleUn C. ywuh] ikyh D. [kkjh] HkhyokM+k
Q.2 t;kud HkV~V jfpr ^iFohjkt fot;* dh Hkk"kk Fkh& A. Qkjlh B. fMaxy C. laL—r D. fiaxy
Q.3 [ksrM+h dk rkack la;a= vesfjdh daiuh ds lg;ksx ls vkSj nsokjh dk tLrk la;a= fczVsu ds lg;ksx ls 1960 ds n’kd esa LFkkfir fd;k x;kA vc nsckjh la;a= dk vf/kdka’k fgLlk bl lewg dks csp fn;k x;k gSA
A. osnkUrk B. fjyk;Ul C. VkVk D. fcM+yk
Q.4 bZjk] pki vkSj eksju] fdl unh dh lgk;d gS? A. cukl B. pEcy C. ywuh D. ekgh
Q.5 fo’o dh lcls cM+h rksi fdl fdys esa fLFkr gSa? A. fpRrkSM+x<+ nqxZ B. esgjkux<+ nqxZ C. t;x<+ nqxZ D. ukgjx<+ nqxZ
Q.6 vesfjdu dikl jktLFkku ds fdl ftys esa gksrh gSa? A. Jhxaxkuxj B. lhdj C. nkSlk D. Hkjriqj
Q.7 t;iqj dh bekjrksa ij xqykch jax djokus dk Js; bUgsa fn;k tkrk gS& A. lokbZ ekuflag B. dY;k.k flag C. lokbZ jkeflag f}rh; D. fetkZ jktk t;flag
Q.8 Hkjrs’oj ckgqcfy ?kksj ¼1168 bZ-½ jktLFkkuh Hkk"kk dk lcls izkphu tSu xzUFk gS] ftlesa Hkjrs’oj vkSj
ckgqcfy ds chp gq, ?kksj ;q) dk o.kZu gSA blds ys[kd dkSu Fks? A. ftunRr lwfj B. cztlsu lwfj C. iYg.k D. fot;lsu lwfj
Q.9 fp= dyk ds fy, izfl) laxzgky; ^ljLorh Hk.Mkj* dgka gS? A. tks/kiqj B. mn;iqj C. cwanh D. dksVk
Q.10 fdl cSad us uoEcj 2014 ess dLVfM;u vkWQ n bZ;j 2014 dk f[krkc thrk? A. LVsaMMZ pkVZMZ cSad B. M~;w’k cSad C. b.MLVªh;y ,.M dkWef’kZ;y cSad vkWQ pkbuk D. jkW;y cSad vkWQ dukMk
Q.11 Vkbe if=dk us eaxy;ku dks 2014 ds igys loZJs"B --------------- vkfo"dkjksa ds chp esa ukfer fd;k gSA A. 100 B. 50 C. 5 D. 25
Q.12 cjkd vksckek 26 tuojh 2015 ds nkSjku Hkkjr ds x.kra= fnol lekjksg esa Hkkx ysus okys------------vesfjdu
jk"Vªifr gSa? A. nwljs B. igys C. rhljk D. pkSFkk
Q.13 Hkkjrh; jsy us izFke lh,uth ¼daizsLM uspqjy xSl½ vk/kkfjr nks jsyxkM+h fdl jkT; ds LVs’ku ls jokuk dh? A. fcgkj B. tEew ,oa d’ehj C. gfj;k.kk D. xqtjkr
10
Q.14 gky gh esa vesfjdh HkwoSKkfudksa dks iFoh dh fupyh lrg ij lcls izpqj ek=k esa ---------------- [kfut dh [kkst dhA A. dsYlkbV B. ,ajsxksukbV C. ekLdksokbVh D. fcztesukbV
Q.15 fo’o LokLF; laxBu us uoacj 2014 esa fdl ns’k dks bZcksyk ok;jl ls eqDr ns’k ?kksf"kr fd;k gS? A. yksdrkaf=d x.kjkT; dkaxks B. ukbthfj;k C. ykbcsfj;k D. lwMku
Q.16 fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus tuojh 2015 esa uofufeZr uhfr vk;ksx ds mik/;{k dk dk;ZHkkj laHkkyk? A. oh-ds- lkjLor B. fccsd nscjkW; C. fla/kwJh [kqYyj D. vjfoan iuxfM;k
Q.17 eujsxk ds rgr izfr o"kZ izfr ?kj ds fy, le; ck/; xkjaVh& A. 100 fnuksa ls vf/kd B. 100 fnu rd ds fy, C. 50 fnu D. 75 fnu
Q.18 eujsxk ds rgr vuqer dk;ksZa gsrq osru vkSj lkexzh vuqikr& A. 50%50 B. 40%60 C. 60%40 D. 30%70
Q.19 2013&14 esa eujsxk ds rgr jktLFkku esa dk;Z djus okys dqy O;fDr& A. 40&50 yk[k B. 30&40 yk[k C. 20 yk[k ls de D. 50 yk[k ls T;knk
Q.20 eujsxk dk;ksZa esa efgykvksa dk U;wure izfr’kr gksuk pkfg,& A. de ls de ½ efgyk,a B. de ls de efgyk,a C. ¼ efgyk,a D. efgyk,a
Q.21 eujsxk ds rgr jkstxkj iznku fd;k tk;sxk& A. izkFkZuk i= ds ,d lIrkg esa B. izkFkZuk i= ds 15 fnu esa C. izkFkZuk i= ds ,d ekg esa D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.22 dkSulk c;ku ekU; gS& A. 1dsch = 1024 ckbV~l B. 1,ech = 2048 ckbV~l C. 1,ech = 1000 fdyksckbV D. 1dsch = 1000 ckbV~l
Q.23 111010 dk v"Vk/kkjh cjkcj ¼vkWDVy bDohysaV½ gS&
A. 81 B. 72 C. 71 D. mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.24 ,aVhok;jl lkW¶Vos;j fuEu dk ,d mnkgj.k gS& A. vkosnu lkW¶Vos;j B. dk;kZy; lkW¶Vos;j C. vkWijsfVax flLVe D. mi;ksfxrk lkW¶Vos;j
Q.25 ,d Nk= izfl) dgkuh ^ [kjxks’k vkSj dNqvk ij** fMftVy dgkuh laxzg ^cukuk pkgrk gSA og dqNqvk] [kjxks’k vkSj taxy ds dqN Nfo;ksa dks MkmuyksM djrk gSA og okVjekdZ Lvkbfy’k ikB vkSj Nfo;ksa dks tksM+uk pkgrk gS] ysfdu fdlh Hkh ,uhes’ku esa dksbZ fnypLih ugha gS A mls --------------------dk mi;ksx djuk pkfg,&
A. oMZ izkslsflax lkW¶Vos;j B. izLrqfr lkW¶Vos;j C. LizsM’khV lkW¶Vos;j D. MsVkcsl izca/ku iz.kkyh
Q.26 oSu (WAN) dk vfHkizk; gS& A. oSi ,fj;k usVodZ B. okbM ,fj;k usVodZ C. okbM vjs usV D. ok;jysl ,fj;k usVodZ
Q.27 ,d lh/kh ykbu esa vkB vke ds isM gSaA izR;sd vke ds isM dh nwjh nwljs ls 3 ehVj dh gSA igys ,oa vkBosa isM ds chp dh nwjh D;k gS?
A. 24 eh B. 27 eh C. 30 eh D. 21 eh
11
Q.28 ,d firk vius iq= ls 30 o"kZ cM+k gSA og ikap o"kZ ckn vius iq= ls 3 xquk cM+k gks tk,xkA firk dh orZeku vk;q D;k gS?
A. 35 B. 45 C. 40 D. 30
Q.29 ;fn 34 vkneh 2@5 dke] 8 fnu esa izfrfnu 9 ?kaVs djds iwjk djrs gSa] rks 'ks"k dk;Z dks 6 fnu esa izfrfnu 9 ?kaVs dk;Z djds iwjk djus ds fy, fdrus vf/kd vknfe;ksa dh vko’;drk gksxh?
A. 89 B. 98 C. 102 D. 142
Q.30 ,d vkneh ,d f[kM+dh rd igqapuk pkgrk gS tks tehu ls 40 QhV Åij gSA lh<+h dk fupyk fgLlk ¼iSj½ fnokj ls 9 QqV dh nwjh ij gSA lh<+h fdruh yEch gksxh?
A. 9 QhV B. 81 QhV C. 41 QhV D. 49 QhV
Q.31 lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa tks uh;r iSVuZ dks tkjh j[ksxk vkSj fjDr LFkku esa Hkjsa& 11] 13] 17] 19] 23] 29] 31] 37] 41]-------
A. 43 B. 47 C. 51 D. 53
Q.32 lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa tks uh;r iSVuZ dks tkjh j[ksxk vkSj fjDr LFkku esa Hkjsa& 15] 31] 63] 127] 255]-------
A. 513 B. 511 C. 523 D. 517
Q.33 ,d [kkl dksM esa DOWN dks 5@9# ds :i esa fy[kk tkrk gS ,oa NAME dks #6%3 ds :i esa fy[kk tkrk gS] rks MODE dks dSls fy[kk tk,xk?
A. %653 B. %@63 C. %5@3 D. %@53
Q.34 5 ctdj 15 feuV ij ?kMh dh lqbZ;ksa dk dks.k D;k gksxk? A. 52 ½ fMxzh B. 67 ½ fMxzh C. 88 ½ fMxzh D. 93 fMxzh
Q.35 Give the correct option in the following sentences:
the/gifts/young/ones/on/give/elders/festivals A. young ones give gifts on festivals to elders B. elders give the young ones gifts on festivals C. ones give gifts the elders, young ones on festivals D. give gifts to elders and young ones on festivals
Q.36 Make affirmatives of following negative: I haven't had any tea A. I have tea B. I have had some tea C. I am having tea D. I has some tea
Q.37 Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
____ passengers waited as ___flying mail was ______ hour late. A. The, a, an B. An, the, a C. The, the, an D. The, an, the
Q.38 ^i{kho`Un uHk esa fopjrs gSaA* js[kkafdr 'kCn dk opu gS& A. cgqopu B. ,dopu C. f}opu D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.39 ^lalkj ds lHkh izk.kh dsoy viuh vk¡[kksa ls gh ns[k ldrs gSaA* okD; dk js[kkafdr va’k dkSulk dkjd gS A. drkZ B. deZ C. dj.k D. vf/kdj.k
Q.40 ^ia- txUukFk feJ cgqr cM+s iafMr FksA* okD; ds js[kkafdr 'kCn ls Hkkookpd laKk cukb, A. iafMrkbu B. ikafMRo C. iaMk D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.41 kWh A. 3600 J
C. 3600 W
Q.42 1 Io
A. - 4 A
C. 4 A
A. )
C. & !
Q.44 10 Ω )
) .0 A. 37
C. 27
Q.45 3 ) A. ! 3 C. 3 (8
Q.46 ) A. C. )9
Q.47 : 3 A. <= > ? C. > ?
Q.48 2 9 3
A. 1 A
C. 2 A
PART-B (Hindi)
B. 860 kcal
D. 4186 J
1
B. -2 A
D. 16 A
& 38 )
B. & D
D. - (F F
) 15 Ω )
.0 | 3 (J ) D )
B. 18
D. 4
) (L8) M
D B. ! 3
8) D. 3 )
O:
B.
)9 D. > P
3
? B. Q ?
? D. ?
3 a b
2
F F ) .. (:)
12 Ω
D ) :
)
P
Q.49 3 9 3
D
A. 20 V
C. 40 V
Q.50 ? sine 8 A. 1.11
C. 1.57
Q.51 200 V, 100 W D
| 9 A. () C. ()
Q.52 b , n l U
Q.53 100 )
| 3 A. 0.86
C. 0.75
Q.54 >
A. 2000 W
C. 1500 W
Q.55 ) V ( A. W C.
Q.56 9 , 8-, 50
A. 0.02
C. 0.04
Q.57 Y A.
C. Z
Q.58 J O A. . . (9[
C. .. . . 3 F
13
3 1 2
D
-3
B. 1.414
D. 0.909
D 200 V, 10 kVA Y ) .0
3 M 9 D
B. D ()
D. ()
U F J [
B. b= n-l+1
D. b=l-n-1
) 50 µ F 3 () . 0
3 8 B. 0.63
D. 0.92
Y !
B. 1000 W
D. 800 W
) ) J
) B. W ^
) D. ^
50 _ ! ) 735 r.p.m.
B. 0.03
D. 0.05
) J
B.
D.
O
9[ ) 3 B. 9[ ()ab
3
.0
9 D
F J [
. 0 200 V, 50 Hz
2000 W |
U
)ab )
14
Q.59 Y-Y U , 220 V D D a :
A. 381 V B. 311 V
C. 220 V D. 127 V
Q.60 .. (983) 3
A. .. . . B. . . .. C. U . . D. A B F
Q.61 Y c de
A. B. C. 9U3 a D. 3 )[ (3 8:)
Q.62 4.5 ! ) ! 30 mA > | 2.5A
) A. 6.46 B. 0.0346
C. 0.0546 D. 0.0625
Q.63 () , ) (9) Q !
| )
A. B. ! C. U D. )
Q.64 Y J !> )j J A. J B. 9U3
C. k D.
Q.65 1000 rpm | 9 . >
! 3 9 A. 1000 rpm B. 1000 rpm C. 1000 rpm ! D. a3 J
m
Q.66 J : Y
A. .. B. )
C. .. D. D
Q.67 Y . (9) =8 :
A. kVA B. kW
C. HP D. W
Q.68 9 10-mH ) Q : 2 A ) J
p9 ?
15
Q.69 4-mF 3 40-mF .0 3F 3
:
A. 3.8 mF B. 5 mF
C. 24 mF D. 44 mF
Q.70 3 (J ) : ) :
A. )[ B. L8 a C. L8 D. Q.71 10Wb L8 2 20 F () 3
)3 :
A. 1V B. 4V
C. 100V D. 400V
Q.72 ? : A. D O B. 8Y O C. D 8Y c O D. D 8Y
Q.73 ?: A. 8Y O B. ?
D O C. ? D
O
D. ? O
Q.74 p - ) 8 8Y O
A. O B. 9U ! C. Dc O D. D M c O
Q.75 -- YU >
A. D j B. 8Y: j
C. D D j D. D 8Y:
j
Q.76 n-p-n YU a 8 ) O: A. c M 8Y B. D 8Y c
C. c M D D. >
Q.77 100V )ab D O |
)a> D 9 O , O !j ) ?
A. 100V B. 63.7V
C. 70.7V D. 141.4V
Q.78 )ab D : M 0 J :
A. a B. Q (r.m.s.)
C. D.
Q.79 3 )a 10 mA | 9
9 F )a : A. 13.3 mA B. 10mA
C. 0A D. 30mA
16
Q.80 ) 3 > M 3 A. & . ) B. D & ) C. D & . ) D. & )
Q.81 & 8 U3 J :
A. ) B. ) D
C. ) & ) D. ) & )
Q.82 12 kHz a ! x ( ) a ! x ( )
!
A. 20 kHz B. 15,000 Hz
C. 10,000 Hz D. 1.25 MHz
Q.83 )a
A. 3 B. 3 9 C. () D.
Q.84 x ( ) a 9 : 10° : x
( ) a 9 : 45° F
A. 55° B. 35°
C. 0° D. !
Q.85 .0 RC 3 3 D : A. & D () B. ) D 90° e C. D. & D 90° e
Q.86 983 () F () J A. y B. [
C. D.
Q.87 3U p-n 8F c () O A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Q.88 3 D ) > U ,
)
A. B.
C. n-p-n YU D. p-n-p YU
Q.89 8 !
A. dj O B. ) C. O D. L _{
Q.90 L
A. :Y B. ()
C. D. :Y F
17
Q.91 )3 9 !
A. L 9 B. L
C. U0 D. J
Q.92 360 C 2 J | ) : A. 180A B. 60A
C. 2A D. 3A
Q.93 ? ) 3 8
A. : B. p C. a D.
Q.94 Y a D 8
C. p D. e
Q.95 400-Hz Y 50 Hz J , 9
A. 1/8 F B. 8
C. ) D. 64
Q.96 (U ) )
?
A. B. )
C. ) D. (‘’)
Q.97 D a 8FJ
A. a J B. V O C. U F a J
O
D. : a 9
Q.98 D 3
A. U 3 O
B. a D ! C. a D ! D. a D
Q.99 UJT a ) >
A. B. !
C. A B F D. !
Q.100 ) U
A. : B. :
C. : D. ! ----END----
Electrical Engg_Diploma_FORMATTED
Electrical Diploma
Q.1 Relics of ancient civilizations "GILUND" were found near which river and in which district?
A. Ruparel, Bharatpur B. Banas, Rajsaman
C. Luni, Pali D. Khari, Bhilwara
Q.2 The language of the book, ‘Prithviraj Vijaya’ written by Jayanayak Bhatt was:
A. Persian B. Dingal
C. Sanskrit D. Pingal
Q.3 The copper plant at Khetri and zinc plant in Debari was established in 1960's with support
from UK. Today majority holdings in Debari plant has been sold to which industrial group?
A. Vendanta B. Reliance
C. Tata D. Birla
Q.4 Ira; Chap and Moran are tributaries of which river?
A. Banas B. Chambal
C. Luni D. Mahi
Q.5 The biggest cannon in the world is in which fort?
A. Chittorgarh Fort B. Mehrangarh Fort
C. Jaigarh Fort D. Nahargarh Fort
Q.6 American Cotton (Kapas) is grown in which district of Rajasthan?
A. Ganganagar B. Sikar
C. Dausa D. Bharatpur
Q.7 Which Jaipur ruler can be credited for having the buildings of Jaipur painted pink?
A. Sawai Mansingh B. Kalyan Singh
C. Sawai Ram Singh II D. Mirza Raja Jaisingh
Q.8 Bharateshwar Bahubali Ghor (Year 1168) is the oldest Jain litrary work of Rajasthani
language. This describes the fierce fight between Bharateshwar & Bahubali. Who is
the writer of this book?
A. Jindutt Suri B. Brijsen Suri
C. Palhan D. Vijaysen Suri
Q.9 "Saraswati Bhandar" a museum famous for paintings is located in?
A. Jodhpur B. Udaipur
C. Bundi D. Kota
Q.10 Which bank on 15 November 2014 won Custodian of the Year 2014 award?
A. Standard Chartered Bank B. Deutsche Bank
C. Industrial & Commercial Bank of China D. Royal Bank of Canada
Q.11 Mangalyaan has been named amongst the first best ____________ inventions of 2014
in the list published by Time magazine?
A. 100 B. 50
C. 5 D. 25
Q.12 Barack Obama became the __________ President of America to participate in India's
Republic Day celebrations during January 26, 2015?
A. Second B. First
C. Third D. Fourth
Q.13 Indian Railways has recently flagged off the first CNG (Compressed Natural Gas)
based two trains from a station in which state?
A. Bihar B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Haryana D. Gujarat
2
Q.14 Recently American geologists discovered the most abundant mineral named as
______________ on earth’s lower mantle.
A. Calcite B. Aragonite
C. Muscovite D. Bridgmanite
Q.15 World Health Organization, in November 2014, declared following country as free of
the Ebola virus?
C. Liberia D. Sudan
Q.16 Who among the following in January 2015 took charge as the first vice-chairman of
the newly-created NITI Aayog?
C. Sindhushree Khullar D. Arvind Panagariya
Q.17 Time bound Guarantee for per household per year under MGNREG
A. More than 100 days B. Up to 100 days
C. 50 days D. 75 days
Q.18 Wage and Material ratio for permissible works under MGNREGA
A. 50:50 B. 40 :60
C. 60:40 D. 30:70
Q.19 In 2013-14, total persons worked under MGNREGA in Rajasthan are
A. 40-50 Lakh B. 30-40 Lakh
C. Less than 20 lakh D. More than 50 Lakh
Q.20 Minimum percentage of Women in total under MGNREGA Work should be:
A. At least half B. At least one-third
C. One-fourth D. Two-third
A. A week of application B. 15 days of application
C. A month of application D. None of these
Q.22 Which statement is valid?
A. 1KB = 1024 bytes B. 1 MB=2048 bytes
C. 1 MB = 1000 kilobytes D. 1 KB = 1000 bytes
Q.23 The octal equivalent of 111010 is
A. 81 B. 72
Q.24 Antivirus software is an example of:
A. Application software B. Office software
C. Operating system D. Utility software
Q.25 A Student wants to create "Digital story Collection" on the famous storyline "Rabbit
and the tortoise. He has downloaded some images of tortoise, rabbit and forest. He
wants to add watermarks, stylish text and images but is not interested in any animation.
Which office tool should he use?
A. Word processing Software B. Presentation software
C. Spreadsheet software D. Database management system
Q.26 WAN stands for
3
Q.27 There are eight mango trees in a straight line. The distance between each mango tree
with other is 3 metres. What is the distance between first tree and eighth tree?
A. 24 m B. 27 m
C. 30 m D. 21 m
Q.28 A father is 30 years older than his son. He will be three times as old as his son after 5
years. What is the father's present age?
A. 35 B. 45
C. 40 D. 30
Q.29 If 34 men completed 2/5th of a work in 8 days, working 9 hours a day. How many
more men should be engaged to finish the rest of the work in 6 days, working 9 hours a
day?
A. 89 B. 98
C. 102 D. 142
Q.30 A man wants to reach a window which is 40 feet above the ground. The distance from
the foot of the ladder to the wall is 9 feet. How long should the ladder be ?
a) 9 feet b) 81 feet
c) 41 feet d) 49 feet
Q.31 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank
spaces.
A. 43 B. 47
C. 51 D. 53
Q.32 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank
spaces.
A. 513 B. 511
C. 523 D. 517
Q.33 In a certain code DOWN is written as 5@9# and NAME is written as #6%3. How
would MODE be written?
A. %653 B. %@63
C. %5@3 D. %@53
Q.34 At what angle the hands of the clock inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
A. 52
the/gifts/young/ones/on/give/elders/festivals A. young ones give gifts on festivals to elders
B. elders give the young ones gifts on festivals
C. ones give gifts the elders, young ones on festivals
D. give gifts to elders and young ones on festivals
Q.36 Make affirmatives of following negative:
I haven't had any tea
A. I have tea B. I have had some tea
C. I am having tea D. I has some tea
Q.37 Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
_____ passengers waited as _____ flying mail was ____ hour late.
A. The, a, an B. An, the, a
C. The, the, an D. The, an, the
4
Q.38 ^i{kho`Un uHk esa fopjrs gSaA* js[kkafdr 'kCn dk opu gS& A. Cgqopu B. ,dopu C. f}opu D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.39 ^lalkj ds lHkh izk.kh dsoy viuh vk¡[kksa ls gh ns[k ldrs gSaA* okD; dk js[kkafdr va’k dkSulk dkjd gS A. drkZ B. deZ C. dj.k D. vf/kdj.k
Q.40 ^ia- txUukFk feJ cgqr cM+s iafMr FksA* okD; ds js[kkafdr 'kCn ls Hkkookpd laKk cukb, A. iafMrkbu B. ikafMRo C. iaMk D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
PART B (ENGLISH)
A. 3600 J B. 860 kcal
C. 3600 W D. 4186 J
Q.42 The current Io of Figure 1 is:
Figure-1
A. - 4 A B. -2 A
C. 4 A D. 16 A
Q.43 The effect of connecting an additional parallel load to an electrical supply source is to
increase the
A. Resistance of the load B. Voltage of the source
C. Current taken from the source D. p.d. across the load
Q.44 A 10 resistor is connected in parallel with a 15 resistor and the combination in series
with a 12 resistor. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is:
A. 37 B. 18
C. 27 D. 4
Q.45 Flux in a magnetic circuit is analogous to
A. voltage in an electric circuit B. current in an electric circuit
C. power in an electric circuit D. resistance in an electric circuit
Q.46 Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are related to:
A. The e.m.f. of a chemical cell B. the e.m.f. of a generator
C. The current flowing in a conductor D. the strength of a magnetic field
Q.47 Lenz’s Law follows from
A. principle of conservation of mass B. principle of superposition
C. principle of conservation of energy D. principle of homogeneity
Q.48 The Norton current at terminals
circuit shown at Figure 2
A. 1 A
C. 2 A
A. 20 V
C. 40 V
Q.50 What is the form factor of pure sine wave?
A. 1.11
C. 1.57
Q.51 One 200 V, 100 W bulb is connected in series with primary of a 200 V, 10 kVA
transformer. If its secondary is left open circuited then the bulb would have
A. Full brightness
Q.52 A network with b branches,
following equations
Hz , the power factor for the circuit is
A. 0.86
C. 0.75
Q.54 Total losses occurring in a transformer when it is operating at its maximum efficiency are
2000 W. The total copper
A. 2000 W
C. 1500 W
A. Low speed applications in Hydro plants
B. High speed applications in Hydro plants
C. Low speed applications in Thermal plants
D. High speed applications in
Q.56 If a three-phase, 8–pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 735 r.p.m. then the slip is
A. 0.02
C. 0.04
Q.57 In an oil- filled transformer, oil is provided for
A. Cooling
c) Lubrication
A. DC circuits only
5
The Norton current at terminals a and b of the
igure 2
of the circuit in Figure 3
Figure-3
B. 1.414
D. 0.909
One 200 V, 100 W bulb is connected in series with primary of a 200 V, 10 kVA
transformer. If its secondary is left open circuited then the bulb would have
B. poor brightness
a little less than full brightness D. more than full brightness
branches, n nodes, and l independent loops will satisfy which of the
B. b= n-l+1
D. b=l-n-1
A resistor of 100 is connected in series with a 50 µ F capacitor to a supply of 200 V, 50
Hz , the power factor for the circuit is
B. 0.63
D. 0.92
Total losses occurring in a transformer when it is operating at its maximum efficiency are
2000 W. The total copper losses at this load are
B. 1000 W
D. 800 W
Low speed applications in Hydro plants
High speed applications in Hydro plants
Low speed applications in Thermal plants
High speed applications in Thermal plants
, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 735 r.p.m. then the slip is
B. 0.03
D. 0.05
b) Insulation
Kirchoff’s Laws are applicable for
B. Circuits with rectified AC supply
Both AC and DC circuits D. AC circuits only
One 200 V, 100 W bulb is connected in series with primary of a 200 V, 10 kVA
transformer. If its secondary is left open circuited then the bulb would have
more than full brightness
independent loops will satisfy which of the
connected in series with a 50 µ F capacitor to a supply of 200 V, 50
Total losses occurring in a transformer when it is operating at its maximum efficiency are
, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 735 r.p.m. then the slip is
insulation
6
Q.59 In a Y-Y system, a line voltage of 220 V produces a phase voltage of:
A. 381 V B. 311 V
C. 220 V D. 127 V
Q.60 A commutator in a DC machine can convert
A. AC to DC B. DC to AC
C. Pulsating to DC D. Both A & B
Q.61 The main purpose of using a core in transformer is to
A. Decrease iron loss B. prevent eddy current loss
C. Eliminate magnetic hysteresis D. decrease reluctance of the magnetic circuit
Q.62 A moving coil instrument, having coil resistance of 4.5 gives a full scale deflection of
30mA. The resistance connected in parallel with this instrument to read up to 2.5A is,
A. 6.46 B. 0.0346
C. 0.0546 D. 0.0625
Q.63 In a particular meter, the operating torque is directly proportional to the current passing
through it , then the type of meter is
A. moving iron B. moving coil
C. electrostatic D. induction
Q.64 Short circuit test on transformer is conducted to obtain
A. Core losses at any load B. Hysteresis loss only
C. Ohmic Loss D. Eddy Current Loss only
Q.65 A differentially compound D.C motor runs at a full load speed of 1000 rpm. If its series
field winding is short circuited, then its full-load speed
A. Becomes more than 1000 rpm B. Becomes less than 1000 rpm
C. Remains 1000 rpm. D. Motor first accelerates and then stops with jerks
Q.66 Out of the following which machine is also known as a generalized transformer
A. DC motor B. Induction Motor
C. DC generator D. Synchronous motor
Q.67 The rating of a transformer is expressed in
A. KVA B. KW
C. HP D. W
Q.68 If the current through a 10-mH inductor increases from zero to 2 A, how much energy is
stored in the inductor?
A. 40 mJ B. 20 mJ
C. 10 mJ D. 5 mJ
Q.69 The total capacitance of two 40-mF series-connected capacitors in parallel with a 4-mF
capacitor is:
A. 3.8 mF B. 5 mF
C. 24 mF D. 44 mF
Q.70 The effect of an air gap in a magnetic circuit is to:
A. Increase the reluctance B. Reduce the flux density
C. Divide the flux D. Reduce the magnetomotive force
Q.71 When a magnetic flux of 10Wb links with a circuit of 20 turns in 2 s, the induced e.m.f. is:
A. 1V B. 4V
C. 100V D. 400V
Q.72 In pure silicon:
A. The holes are the majority carriers B. The electrons are the majority carriers
C. The holes and electrons exist in equal
numbers
electrons than holes
Q.73 Pentavalent impurities:
A. Have three valency electrons B. Introduce holes when added to a
semiconductor material
atoms to a semiconductor material
D. Increase the conduction of a semiconductor
material
A. are majority carriers B. take no part in conduction
C. are minority carriers D. exist in the same numbers as holes
Q.75 The base region of a p-n-p transistor is
A. very thin and heavily doped with holes B. very thin and heavily doped with electrons
C. very thin and lightly doped with holes D. very thin and lightly doped with electrons
Q.76 The current flow across the base-emitter junction of an n-p-n transistor consists of
A. mainly electrons B. equal numbers of holes and electrons
C. mainly holes D. the leakage current
Q.77 An alternating voltage of maximum value 100V is applied to a lamp. Which of the following
direct voltages, if applied to the lamp, would cause the lamp to light with the same brilliance?
A. 100V B. 63.7V
C. 70.7V D. 141.4V
Q.78 The value normally stated when referring to alternating currents and voltages is the:
A. instantaneous value B. r.m.s. value
C. average value D. peak value
Q.79 In a four-branch parallel circuit, there are 10 mA of current in each branch. If one of the
branches is open, the current in each of the other three branches is
A. 13.3 mA B. 10mA
C. 0A D. 30mA
Q.80 Thevenin's theorem converts a circuit to an equivalent form consisting of
A. a current source and a series resistance B. a voltage source and a parallel resistance
C. a voltage source and a series resistance D. a current source and a parallel resistance
Q.81 Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when
A. the load resistance is very large B. the load resistance is very small
C. the load resistance is twice the source
resistance
resistance
Q.82 A sine wave with a frequency of 12 kHz is changing at a faster rate than a sine wave with
a frequency of
Q.83 A phasor represents
A. the magnitude of a quantity B. the magnitude and direction of a quantity
C. the phase angle D. the length of a quantity
Q.84 One sine wave has a positive-going zero crossing at 10° and another sine wave has a
positive- going zero crossing at 45°. The phase angle between the two waveforms is
A. 55° B. 35°
C. 0° D. none of these
Q.85 In a series RC circuit, the voltage across the capacitor is
A. in phase with the source voltage B. lagging the resistor voltage by 90°
C. in phase with the current D. lagging the source voltage by 90°
8
Q.86 The commutator segments are insulated from each other by
A. Mica B. wood
C. paper D. glass
Q.87 The number of p-n junctions in a thyristor (SCR) is/are
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Q.88 A circuit in which the output voltage remains constant irrespective of the value of load resistance uses
A. Silicon diode B. Zener Diode
C. n-p-n transistor D. p-n-p transistor
Q.89 Low power factor is usually not due to
A. incandescent lamp B. induction motor
C. arc lamps D. fluorescent tubes
Q.90 A fuse is inserted in
A. neutral B. earth continuity conductor
C. phase D. both phase and neutral
Q.91 The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
A. Fleming’s right hand rule B. Fleming’s left hand rule
C. Cork Screw rule D. Kirchoff’s law
Q.92 A charge of 360 C is transferred in 2 minutes. The current flowing is:
A. 180A B. 60A
C. 2A D. 3A
Q.93 The power factor of a purely inductive circuit is
A. zero B. leading
C. negative D. unity
Q.94 A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
A. zero B. unity
C. leading D. lagging
Q.95 When a 400-Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its rating is
A. reduced to 1/8 B. increased 8 times
C. unaffected D. increased 64 times
Q.96 Regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-cage induction motor, which statement is false?
A. it prevents cogging B. it increases starting torque
C. it produces more uniform torque D. it reduces rotor ‘hum’ during its operation
Q.97 A synchronous machine is called a doubly excited machine because
A. it can be overexcited B. it has two sets of rotor poles
C. both its rotor and stator are excited D. it needs twice the normal exciting current
Q.98 Synchronous condenser is
B. an overexcited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
C. an under- excited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
D. an overexcited synchronous motor running without mechanical load
Q.99 A UJT exhibits negative resistance region
A. before the peak point B. after valley point
C. both A & B D. between peak and valley points
Q.100 The slip of an induction generator is
A. equal to zero B. greater than zero
C. less than zero D. none of these
9
Part A (Hindi)
Q.1 izkphu lH;rk ^fxyw.M* ds vo’ks"k fdlh unh ds fdukjs vkSj fdl ftys esa feys gSa?
A. :ikjsy] Hkjriqj B. cukl] jktleUn C. ywuh] ikyh D. [kkjh] HkhyokM+k
Q.2 t;kud HkV~V jfpr ^iFohjkt fot;* dh Hkk"kk Fkh& A. Qkjlh B. fMaxy C. laL—r D. fiaxy
Q.3 [ksrM+h dk rkack la;a= vesfjdh daiuh ds lg;ksx ls vkSj nsokjh dk tLrk la;a= fczVsu ds lg;ksx ls 1960 ds n’kd esa LFkkfir fd;k x;kA vc nsckjh la;a= dk vf/kdka’k fgLlk bl lewg dks csp fn;k x;k gSA
A. osnkUrk B. fjyk;Ul C. VkVk D. fcM+yk
Q.4 bZjk] pki vkSj eksju] fdl unh dh lgk;d gS? A. cukl B. pEcy C. ywuh D. ekgh
Q.5 fo’o dh lcls cM+h rksi fdl fdys esa fLFkr gSa? A. fpRrkSM+x<+ nqxZ B. esgjkux<+ nqxZ C. t;x<+ nqxZ D. ukgjx<+ nqxZ
Q.6 vesfjdu dikl jktLFkku ds fdl ftys esa gksrh gSa? A. Jhxaxkuxj B. lhdj C. nkSlk D. Hkjriqj
Q.7 t;iqj dh bekjrksa ij xqykch jax djokus dk Js; bUgsa fn;k tkrk gS& A. lokbZ ekuflag B. dY;k.k flag C. lokbZ jkeflag f}rh; D. fetkZ jktk t;flag
Q.8 Hkjrs’oj ckgqcfy ?kksj ¼1168 bZ-½ jktLFkkuh Hkk"kk dk lcls izkphu tSu xzUFk gS] ftlesa Hkjrs’oj vkSj
ckgqcfy ds chp gq, ?kksj ;q) dk o.kZu gSA blds ys[kd dkSu Fks? A. ftunRr lwfj B. cztlsu lwfj C. iYg.k D. fot;lsu lwfj
Q.9 fp= dyk ds fy, izfl) laxzgky; ^ljLorh Hk.Mkj* dgka gS? A. tks/kiqj B. mn;iqj C. cwanh D. dksVk
Q.10 fdl cSad us uoEcj 2014 ess dLVfM;u vkWQ n bZ;j 2014 dk f[krkc thrk? A. LVsaMMZ pkVZMZ cSad B. M~;w’k cSad C. b.MLVªh;y ,.M dkWef’kZ;y cSad vkWQ pkbuk D. jkW;y cSad vkWQ dukMk
Q.11 Vkbe if=dk us eaxy;ku dks 2014 ds igys loZJs"B --------------- vkfo"dkjksa ds chp esa ukfer fd;k gSA A. 100 B. 50 C. 5 D. 25
Q.12 cjkd vksckek 26 tuojh 2015 ds nkSjku Hkkjr ds x.kra= fnol lekjksg esa Hkkx ysus okys------------vesfjdu
jk"Vªifr gSa? A. nwljs B. igys C. rhljk D. pkSFkk
Q.13 Hkkjrh; jsy us izFke lh,uth ¼daizsLM uspqjy xSl½ vk/kkfjr nks jsyxkM+h fdl jkT; ds LVs’ku ls jokuk dh? A. fcgkj B. tEew ,oa d’ehj C. gfj;k.kk D. xqtjkr
10
Q.14 gky gh esa vesfjdh HkwoSKkfudksa dks iFoh dh fupyh lrg ij lcls izpqj ek=k esa ---------------- [kfut dh [kkst dhA A. dsYlkbV B. ,ajsxksukbV C. ekLdksokbVh D. fcztesukbV
Q.15 fo’o LokLF; laxBu us uoacj 2014 esa fdl ns’k dks bZcksyk ok;jl ls eqDr ns’k ?kksf"kr fd;k gS? A. yksdrkaf=d x.kjkT; dkaxks B. ukbthfj;k C. ykbcsfj;k D. lwMku
Q.16 fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus tuojh 2015 esa uofufeZr uhfr vk;ksx ds mik/;{k dk dk;ZHkkj laHkkyk? A. oh-ds- lkjLor B. fccsd nscjkW; C. fla/kwJh [kqYyj D. vjfoan iuxfM;k
Q.17 eujsxk ds rgr izfr o"kZ izfr ?kj ds fy, le; ck/; xkjaVh& A. 100 fnuksa ls vf/kd B. 100 fnu rd ds fy, C. 50 fnu D. 75 fnu
Q.18 eujsxk ds rgr vuqer dk;ksZa gsrq osru vkSj lkexzh vuqikr& A. 50%50 B. 40%60 C. 60%40 D. 30%70
Q.19 2013&14 esa eujsxk ds rgr jktLFkku esa dk;Z djus okys dqy O;fDr& A. 40&50 yk[k B. 30&40 yk[k C. 20 yk[k ls de D. 50 yk[k ls T;knk
Q.20 eujsxk dk;ksZa esa efgykvksa dk U;wure izfr’kr gksuk pkfg,& A. de ls de ½ efgyk,a B. de ls de efgyk,a C. ¼ efgyk,a D. efgyk,a
Q.21 eujsxk ds rgr jkstxkj iznku fd;k tk;sxk& A. izkFkZuk i= ds ,d lIrkg esa B. izkFkZuk i= ds 15 fnu esa C. izkFkZuk i= ds ,d ekg esa D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.22 dkSulk c;ku ekU; gS& A. 1dsch = 1024 ckbV~l B. 1,ech = 2048 ckbV~l C. 1,ech = 1000 fdyksckbV D. 1dsch = 1000 ckbV~l
Q.23 111010 dk v"Vk/kkjh cjkcj ¼vkWDVy bDohysaV½ gS&
A. 81 B. 72 C. 71 D. mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.24 ,aVhok;jl lkW¶Vos;j fuEu dk ,d mnkgj.k gS& A. vkosnu lkW¶Vos;j B. dk;kZy; lkW¶Vos;j C. vkWijsfVax flLVe D. mi;ksfxrk lkW¶Vos;j
Q.25 ,d Nk= izfl) dgkuh ^ [kjxks’k vkSj dNqvk ij** fMftVy dgkuh laxzg ^cukuk pkgrk gSA og dqNqvk] [kjxks’k vkSj taxy ds dqN Nfo;ksa dks MkmuyksM djrk gSA og okVjekdZ Lvkbfy’k ikB vkSj Nfo;ksa dks tksM+uk pkgrk gS] ysfdu fdlh Hkh ,uhes’ku esa dksbZ fnypLih ugha gS A mls --------------------dk mi;ksx djuk pkfg,&
A. oMZ izkslsflax lkW¶Vos;j B. izLrqfr lkW¶Vos;j C. LizsM’khV lkW¶Vos;j D. MsVkcsl izca/ku iz.kkyh
Q.26 oSu (WAN) dk vfHkizk; gS& A. oSi ,fj;k usVodZ B. okbM ,fj;k usVodZ C. okbM vjs usV D. ok;jysl ,fj;k usVodZ
Q.27 ,d lh/kh ykbu esa vkB vke ds isM gSaA izR;sd vke ds isM dh nwjh nwljs ls 3 ehVj dh gSA igys ,oa vkBosa isM ds chp dh nwjh D;k gS?
A. 24 eh B. 27 eh C. 30 eh D. 21 eh
11
Q.28 ,d firk vius iq= ls 30 o"kZ cM+k gSA og ikap o"kZ ckn vius iq= ls 3 xquk cM+k gks tk,xkA firk dh orZeku vk;q D;k gS?
A. 35 B. 45 C. 40 D. 30
Q.29 ;fn 34 vkneh 2@5 dke] 8 fnu esa izfrfnu 9 ?kaVs djds iwjk djrs gSa] rks 'ks"k dk;Z dks 6 fnu esa izfrfnu 9 ?kaVs dk;Z djds iwjk djus ds fy, fdrus vf/kd vknfe;ksa dh vko’;drk gksxh?
A. 89 B. 98 C. 102 D. 142
Q.30 ,d vkneh ,d f[kM+dh rd igqapuk pkgrk gS tks tehu ls 40 QhV Åij gSA lh<+h dk fupyk fgLlk ¼iSj½ fnokj ls 9 QqV dh nwjh ij gSA lh<+h fdruh yEch gksxh?
A. 9 QhV B. 81 QhV C. 41 QhV D. 49 QhV
Q.31 lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa tks uh;r iSVuZ dks tkjh j[ksxk vkSj fjDr LFkku esa Hkjsa& 11] 13] 17] 19] 23] 29] 31] 37] 41]-------
A. 43 B. 47 C. 51 D. 53
Q.32 lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa tks uh;r iSVuZ dks tkjh j[ksxk vkSj fjDr LFkku esa Hkjsa& 15] 31] 63] 127] 255]-------
A. 513 B. 511 C. 523 D. 517
Q.33 ,d [kkl dksM esa DOWN dks 5@9# ds :i esa fy[kk tkrk gS ,oa NAME dks #6%3 ds :i esa fy[kk tkrk gS] rks MODE dks dSls fy[kk tk,xk?
A. %653 B. %@63 C. %5@3 D. %@53
Q.34 5 ctdj 15 feuV ij ?kMh dh lqbZ;ksa dk dks.k D;k gksxk? A. 52 ½ fMxzh B. 67 ½ fMxzh C. 88 ½ fMxzh D. 93 fMxzh
Q.35 Give the correct option in the following sentences:
the/gifts/young/ones/on/give/elders/festivals A. young ones give gifts on festivals to elders B. elders give the young ones gifts on festivals C. ones give gifts the elders, young ones on festivals D. give gifts to elders and young ones on festivals
Q.36 Make affirmatives of following negative: I haven't had any tea A. I have tea B. I have had some tea C. I am having tea D. I has some tea
Q.37 Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
____ passengers waited as ___flying mail was ______ hour late. A. The, a, an B. An, the, a C. The, the, an D. The, an, the
Q.38 ^i{kho`Un uHk esa fopjrs gSaA* js[kkafdr 'kCn dk opu gS& A. cgqopu B. ,dopu C. f}opu D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.39 ^lalkj ds lHkh izk.kh dsoy viuh vk¡[kksa ls gh ns[k ldrs gSaA* okD; dk js[kkafdr va’k dkSulk dkjd gS A. drkZ B. deZ C. dj.k D. vf/kdj.k
Q.40 ^ia- txUukFk feJ cgqr cM+s iafMr FksA* okD; ds js[kkafdr 'kCn ls Hkkookpd laKk cukb, A. iafMrkbu B. ikafMRo C. iaMk D. buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.41 kWh A. 3600 J
C. 3600 W
Q.42 1 Io
A. - 4 A
C. 4 A
A. )
C. & !
Q.44 10 Ω )
) .0 A. 37
C. 27
Q.45 3 ) A. ! 3 C. 3 (8
Q.46 ) A. C. )9
Q.47 : 3 A. <= > ? C. > ?
Q.48 2 9 3
A. 1 A
C. 2 A
PART-B (Hindi)
B. 860 kcal
D. 4186 J
1
B. -2 A
D. 16 A
& 38 )
B. & D
D. - (F F
) 15 Ω )
.0 | 3 (J ) D )
B. 18
D. 4
) (L8) M
D B. ! 3
8) D. 3 )
O:
B.
)9 D. > P
3
? B. Q ?
? D. ?
3 a b
2
F F ) .. (:)
12 Ω
D ) :
)
P
Q.49 3 9 3
D
A. 20 V
C. 40 V
Q.50 ? sine 8 A. 1.11
C. 1.57
Q.51 200 V, 100 W D
| 9 A. () C. ()
Q.52 b , n l U
Q.53 100 )
| 3 A. 0.86
C. 0.75
Q.54 >
A. 2000 W
C. 1500 W
Q.55 ) V ( A. W C.
Q.56 9 , 8-, 50
A. 0.02
C. 0.04
Q.57 Y A.
C. Z
Q.58 J O A. . . (9[
C. .. . . 3 F
13
3 1 2
D
-3
B. 1.414
D. 0.909
D 200 V, 10 kVA Y ) .0
3 M 9 D
B. D ()
D. ()
U F J [
B. b= n-l+1
D. b=l-n-1
) 50 µ F 3 () . 0
3 8 B. 0.63
D. 0.92
Y !
B. 1000 W
D. 800 W
) ) J
) B. W ^
) D. ^
50 _ ! ) 735 r.p.m.
B. 0.03
D. 0.05
) J
B.
D.
O
9[ ) 3 B. 9[ ()ab
3
.0
9 D
F J [
. 0 200 V, 50 Hz
2000 W |
U
)ab )
14
Q.59 Y-Y U , 220 V D D a :
A. 381 V B. 311 V
C. 220 V D. 127 V
Q.60 .. (983) 3
A. .. . . B. . . .. C. U . . D. A B F
Q.61 Y c de
A. B. C. 9U3 a D. 3 )[ (3 8:)
Q.62 4.5 ! ) ! 30 mA > | 2.5A
) A. 6.46 B. 0.0346
C. 0.0546 D. 0.0625
Q.63 () , ) (9) Q !
| )
A. B. ! C. U D. )
Q.64 Y J !> )j J A. J B. 9U3
C. k D.
Q.65 1000 rpm | 9 . >
! 3 9 A. 1000 rpm B. 1000 rpm C. 1000 rpm ! D. a3 J
m
Q.66 J : Y
A. .. B. )
C. .. D. D
Q.67 Y . (9) =8 :
A. kVA B. kW
C. HP D. W
Q.68 9 10-mH ) Q : 2 A ) J
p9 ?
15
Q.69 4-mF 3 40-mF .0 3F 3
:
A. 3.8 mF B. 5 mF
C. 24 mF D. 44 mF
Q.70 3 (J ) : ) :
A. )[ B. L8 a C. L8 D. Q.71 10Wb L8 2 20 F () 3
)3 :
A. 1V B. 4V
C. 100V D. 400V
Q.72 ? : A. D O B. 8Y O C. D 8Y c O D. D 8Y
Q.73 ?: A. 8Y O B. ?
D O C. ? D
O
D. ? O
Q.74 p - ) 8 8Y O
A. O B. 9U ! C. Dc O D. D M c O
Q.75 -- YU >
A. D j B. 8Y: j
C. D D j D. D 8Y:
j
Q.76 n-p-n YU a 8 ) O: A. c M 8Y B. D 8Y c
C. c M D D. >
Q.77 100V )ab D O |
)a> D 9 O , O !j ) ?
A. 100V B. 63.7V
C. 70.7V D. 141.4V
Q.78 )ab D : M 0 J :
A. a B. Q (r.m.s.)
C. D.
Q.79 3 )a 10 mA | 9
9 F )a : A. 13.3 mA B. 10mA
C. 0A D. 30mA
16
Q.80 ) 3 > M 3 A. & . ) B. D & ) C. D & . ) D. & )
Q.81 & 8 U3 J :
A. ) B. ) D
C. ) & ) D. ) & )
Q.82 12 kHz a ! x ( ) a ! x ( )
!
A. 20 kHz B. 15,000 Hz
C. 10,000 Hz D. 1.25 MHz
Q.83 )a
A. 3 B. 3 9 C. () D.
Q.84 x ( ) a 9 : 10° : x
( ) a 9 : 45° F
A. 55° B. 35°
C. 0° D. !
Q.85 .0 RC 3 3 D : A. & D () B. ) D 90° e C. D. & D 90° e
Q.86 983 () F () J A. y B. [
C. D.
Q.87 3U p-n 8F c () O A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Q.88 3 D ) > U ,
)
A. B.
C. n-p-n YU D. p-n-p YU
Q.89 8 !
A. dj O B. ) C. O D. L _{
Q.90 L
A. :Y B. ()
C. D. :Y F
17
Q.91 )3 9 !
A. L 9 B. L
C. U0 D. J
Q.92 360 C 2 J | ) : A. 180A B. 60A
C. 2A D. 3A
Q.93 ? ) 3 8
A. : B. p C. a D.
Q.94 Y a D 8
C. p D. e
Q.95 400-Hz Y 50 Hz J , 9
A. 1/8 F B. 8
C. ) D. 64
Q.96 (U ) )
?
A. B. )
C. ) D. (‘’)
Q.97 D a 8FJ
A. a J B. V O C. U F a J
O
D. : a 9
Q.98 D 3
A. U 3 O
B. a D ! C. a D ! D. a D
Q.99 UJT a ) >
A. B. !
C. A B F D. !
Q.100 ) U
A. : B. :
C. : D. ! ----END----
Electrical Engg_Diploma_FORMATTED
Electrical Diploma