pgimer may 2012
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PGIMER ENTRANCE EXAM
MAY 2012
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1. Most commonly used cylinder in anaesthesia machine is:
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. E
E. F
Ans: D(E)
[Ref:Ajay Yadav 1st/ 20-21 ; Miller 7th/ 675 ; Lee 13th/ 84-85 ]
Most commonly used cylinder in anaesthesia machine is E
“Cylinder: Smallest size available is AA and biggest is H. Commonly used cylinders
on anaesthesia machine are of type E”- Ajay Yadav 1st/ 20
“Anesthesia workstations have E-cylinders for use when a pipeline supply source is
not available or the pipeline system fails”- Miller 7th/ 675
2. Feature of malignant hyperthermia includes:
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Excessive sweating
D. ↓ed ETCO2
E. ↓ed O2 saturation
Ans: ACE
[Ref:Ajay Yadav 1st/101-02 ; Miller 7th/ 1187-89 ; Lee 13th/ 353 ; Morgan's clinical
aneasthesia 4th/945-950; Wylie's Anaesthesia 7th/365, 367]
“Clinical feature: Hypoxia, cyanosis,tachycardia, hypertension & cardiac arrhythmia”-
Ajay Yadav 1st/102
“Falling SpO2 despite increase in FiO2; cyanosis”-C.Y.Lee 2006/840
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“Cardiovascular instability with labile B.P”- C.Y.Lee 2006/840
“Unexpected change in B.P”- Lee 13th/ 353
Signs of malignant hyperthermia Lee, Wylie's
Hyperthermia : fever, sweating
3. Common Eye lid tumors are:
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma
E. Malignant germ cell tumor
Ans:ABCD
[Ref: Khurana 4th/359; Parson 20th/439-40 ]
Malignant tumours of eyelid: Commonly observed tumours include squamous cell
carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma and sebaceous gland
adenocarcinoma.
4. True about Sympathetic ophthalmitis :
A. Occur after trauma and surgery
B. Injured eye is exciting eye
C. Occur in opposite eye any time
D. B/l non-suppurative uveitis occur
Ans:ABD
[Ref: Khurana 4th/413 ; Parson 20th/374-76 ]
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“Sympathizing (sound) eye. It is usually involved after 4-8 weeks of injury in the other
eye, rarely earlier. Earliest reported case is after 9 days of injury. Most of the cases
occur within the first year. However, delayed and very late cases are also reported”-
Khurana 4th/413 ; Parson 20th/375
5. True about Retinoblastoma:
A. It is most common primary intraocular tumor of childhood
B. It is most common secondary intraocular tumor of childhood
C. Seen in young & middle-age adult
D. Most commonly seen in children
Ans:AD
[Ref: Khurana 4th/ 280-83 ; Parson 20th/357-58 ]
“Retinoblastoma is the most common primary ocular tumor of childhood. About 90%
cases are diagnosed by age 3-4 yrs & 98% by 5 yrs”-O.P.Ghai 7th/594
“The tumor is confined to infants & very young children & is frequently congenital,
although it may remain quiescent or pass unnoticed until the fifth or sixth year of life
or sometime even later”- Parson 20th/357
It is the most common intraocular tumour of childhood occurring 1 in 20,000 live
births.
6. Spirometry measures :-
A. Tidal volume
B. TLC
C. ERV
D. FRC
E. IRV
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Ans: A(Tidal..),C(ERV) &E(IRV)
[Ref: Harrison 18th/ ; Guyton 11th/ 476; Ajay Yadav 1st/7-8 Lee 13th/ 762 ]
“Spirometry measures: tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, inspiratory capacity,
expiratory reserve volume & vital capacity. It can not measure residual volume(RV),
so any lung volume requiring RV can not be measured i.e Functional residual
capacity(FRC) & Total lung volume(TLV)”- Ajay Yadav 1st/7-8
7. Which of the following score is/are not included in mild mental
retardation:
A. 85
B. 50
C. 45
D. 75
E. 65
Ans: ACD
[Ref:Park 21st/536; Niraj Ahuja 6th/169-72;Kaplan 10th/1139]
Degrees of Severity of Mental Retardation Kaplan 10th/1139-40
• Mild mental retardation (IQ range, 50 to 70) represents approximately 85
percent of persons with mental retardation.
• Moderate mental retardation (IQ range, 35-50)
• Severe mental retardation (IQ range, 20-35)
8. All have effects on oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve except:
A. 2,3-DPG
B. CO2 pressure
C. Cl- concentration
D.Acidosis
E.Temperature
Ans:C
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[Ganong 22th/667-669; Guyton 11th/507; Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/149; Harrison
17th/636, Lehninger 4th/173 Kumar & Clark 4th/357 6th/430]
9.Drug that increases QT interval :
A. Haloperidol
B. Fexofenadine
C. Amiodarone
D. Ebastine
E. Sotatol
Ans:CDE
[Ref: KDT 6th/510,495,428-29]
“Fexofenadine does not prolong QTc interval”- KDT 6th/158
Haloperidol also not mentioned as cause of QT prolongation
10. Positive benzidine test is/are seen in :
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Glucose
E. Bilirubin
Ans: A & B
[Ref : Harrison 16th / 608;P.J.Mehta 15th/404; Reddy 27th/394]
11. Polar amino acids are :
A. Serine
B. Tryptophan
C. Tyrosine
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D. Valine
E. Lysine
Ans:A(Serine),C(Tyrosine) & E(Lysine)
12. Ectopia lentis is/are seen in :
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. DM
D. Hypertension
E. Sulfite oxidase deficiency
Ans:ABE
[Ref: Khurana 4th/ 202-03,3rd / 210; Parson 20th/506]
13.False statement regarding diabetic retinopathy :
A. Flame shaped haemorrahges
B. Arteriovenous nipping
C. Neovascularisation
D. Hard exudates
E. Exudative macular edema
Ans: B
[Ref: Khurana 4th/260-62; Parson 20th/294-98]
“Arterio venous nipping is found in hypertensive retinopathy”- Khurana 4th/258
14. True about Parathyroid hormone :
A. It is steroid
B. Stimulate 1,25 D3 formation
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C. Inhibits Ca+2 absorption from the intestines
D. Increases the resorption of bone
Ans:BD
[Ref: Ganong 23nd/367-70 ; Guyton 11th/986-988 ]
• Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the peptide hormone (10 amino acids)
• PTH also increases renal synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D3
15. Second messengers is/are :-
A. Mg+2
B. P04-3
C. cAMP
D. Ca+2
E. Cl- ion
Ans:CD
[Ref: Ganong 23nd/446-48; Guyton 11th/912-15; Harper27/445; KDT6th/231-32]
Types of secondary messenger molecules
• Hydrophobic molecules: water-insoluble molecules, like diacylglycerol, and
phosphatidylinositols
• Hydrophilic molecules: water-soluble molecules, like cAMP, cGMP, IP3, and
Ca2+
• Gases: nitric oxide (NO), carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen sulphide
(H2S)
16. Central cyanosis not occurs when total Hb and reduced Hb level is
respectively (in gm%) :
A. 10.9 & 4.1
B. 10.9 & 5.1
C. 10.9& 6.1
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D. 8.9 & 4.1
E. 8.9 & 6.1
Ans:AD
[Ref: Ganong 23nd/ CMDT 06/222; A.K.Jain 5th/482; Guyton 11th/531; Harrison
17th/230-31; Nelson 18th/2033; P.J.Mehta 15th/15]
B Majority of textbooks favour cutoff limit of 5gm% reduced Hb(not 4gm%)
B So answer would be A & D (i.e option involving <5gm% reduced Hb- cyanosis
not occur)
“Cyanosis is due to increased amount of reduced Hb (>5mg%)Q in capillary blood”-
P.J.Mehta 15th/15
“In severe anaemia where Hb is less than 5 gm%, even if all the Hb is reduced in the
capillaries, it will be less than the critical level of 5 gm% & cyanosis does not occur”-
P.J.Mehta 15th/18
“In general, definite cyanosis appears whenever the arterial blood contain more than
5 gms of deoxygenated Hb in each 100 ml of blood”- Guyton 11th/531
“Cyanosis is due to increased amount of reduced Hb (>5mg%)Q in capillary blood”-P
A.K.Jain 5th/482 & CMDT 06/222
“In general, cyanosis becomes apparent when the concentration of reduced
hemoglobin in capillary blood exceeds 40 g/L (4 g/dL)Q”- Harrison 17th/230
17. In findings of SIADH includes:
A. ↑ Urine Na+
B. ↑ S. Na+
C. ↑ Urine osmolality
D. ↑Serum osmolality
E. Postural hypotention
Ans:AC
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[Ref: A.K.Jain 5th/698;Harrison 18th/2908-10;Williams Textbook of Endocrinology,
11th ed.]
Postural hypotention does not occur in SIADH as it is euvolemic hypoosmolality
Feature of SIADH A.K.Jain 5th/698
• ↑ urinary excretion of Na+, Hypernatriuria & hyponatremia
• ↑ Urine osmolality( become higher than plasma osmolality
18. Incorrect statement about Small cell Ca of lung:
A. Not associated with smoking
B. Surgery is treatment of choice
C. Associated with paraneoplastic syndrome
D. Most patients have distant metastases on diagnosis
E. Contain neurosecretory granules
Ans: AB
[Ref: Harrison 18th/737-745 ; Robbins 8th/758-63 ; CMDT 06/ 267 ]
Small cell Ca of lung(SCLC)
• Eighty-five percent of patients with lung cancer of all histologic types are
current or former cigarette smokers(Squamous> Small cell ca> adenocarcinoma)
• Most common variety associated with paraneoplastic syndrome
• Highly malignant tumor with least 5-yr survival rate
• Electron microscopy shows dense-core neurosecretory granules 100 nm in
diameter in two thirds of cases.
19. Features seen in Menke’s disease:
A. Increased serum Cu
B. Decreased circulating ceruloplasmin
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C. Hypopigmented & brittle hair
D. Mental retardation
E. Failure of thrive
Ans: BCDE
[Ref: Harrison 18th/ 604; Nelson 18th/2730]
“Menkes kinky hair syndrome is an X-linked metabolic disturbance of copper
metabolism characterized by mental retardation, hypocupremia, and decreased
circulating ceruloplasmin”- Harrison 18th/ 604
• It is characterized by sparse and coarse hair, growth failure, and deterioration
of the nervous system. Onset of Menkes syndrome typically begins during infancy.
Signs and symptoms of this disorder include weak muscle tone (hypotonia), sagging
facial features, seizures, mental retardation, and developmental delay. The patients
have brittle hair and metaphysealwidening.
20. Clubbing is /are seen in :
A. Mesothelioma
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. TB
E. Sarcoidosis
Ans: ACDE
[Ref: Harrison 18th/ 279,289-90; Robbins 8th/ ; P.J.M 15th/14;CMDT 06/ 221-22 ]
“Clubbing is seen in chronic interstitial lung diseases(Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis).
It does not normally accompany asthma or COPD;when seen in later, commitant
lung cancer should be suspected. It is observed less often in small cell cancer than
in other histological types”- CMDT 06/ 222
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•“Clubbing may be hereditary, idiopathic, or acquired and associated with a variety of
disorders, including cyanotic congenital heart disease, infective endocarditis, and a
variety of pulmonary conditions (among them primary and metastatic lung cancer,
bronchiectasis,asbestosis, sarcoidosis, lung abscess, cystic fibrosis,tuberculosis and
mesothelioma), as well as with some gastrointestinal diseases (including
inflammatory bowel disease and hepatic cirrhosis).”- Harrison 18th/ 290
21. Correct combinations are :
A. Apnoea = Airway blockage or no air entry through nasal aperture for ≥10
s sec
B. Hypopneas = ≥10 s events in which there is continued breathing but the
ventilation is reduced by at least 50% from the previous baseline during sleep
C. Snoring occur from obstruction of lower airway
D. Apnoea index- no of apnoeic episode/hr
E. Apnoea-Hypocapnia index > 10 indicates mild obstruction
Ans: ABDE
[Ref: Harrison 18th/ 2186; Guyton 11th/522-23; CMDT 06/1080,305-06 ]
• Obstructive sleep apnoea & Snoring are caused by blockage of the upper
airway- Guyton 11th/522
• Apneas are defined in adults as breathing pauses lasting ≥10 s and
hypopneas as ≥10 s events in which there is continued breathing but the ventilation
is reduced by at least 50% from the previous baseline during sleep. As a syndrome,
OSAHS is the association of a clinical picture with specific abnormalities on testing;
asymptomatic individuals with abnormal breathing during sleep should not be labeled
as having OSAHS.
• The apnea–hypopnea index (AHI) is an index of sleep apnea severity
thacombines apneas and hypopneas.
• The AHI, as with the separate apnea index and hypopnea index, is calculated
by dividing the number of events by the number of hours of sleep. (AHI values are
typically categorized as<5= Normal; 5–15/hr = mild; 15–30/hr = moderate; and >
30/h = severe.)
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22. Causes of secretory diarrhea is/are:
A. V. cholera
B. Laxatives
C. Excess Phenolphthalein intake
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
Ans: ABC
[Ref: Harrison 18th/313 ; Robbins 8th/832; Harrison 17th/249, 814; Manual of
Gastroenterology 4th/184; CMDT 09/496-97]
Ulcerative colitis causes inflammatory diarrhoea whereas Pancreatic exocrine
insufficiency Steatorrheal diarrhoea
23. CRF can differentiated from ARF by presence of :
A. Anemia in CRF
B. Small size kidney
C. Hyperphosphatemia
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Peripheral neuropathy
Ans: Ans: B(Small Kidneys) E( Peripheral neuropathy)
[Ref: Harrison 18th/ ;Harrison 17th/1761-1770 ; CMDT 09 / 797-807]
“Anaemia , metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia & hyperkalemia
can occur with both acute & chronic renal failure”- CMDT 06 / 908
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CRF : CMDT 09 / 797-807 : states
• Bilateral small kidneys in ultrasound are diagnosticQ.
• Peripheral neuropathiesQ manifest themselves as sensorimotor
polyneuropathies (stocking and glove distribution) and isolated or multiple isolated
mononeuropathies.
24. Feature of acute rheumatic fever includes:
A. Carey coombs murmur
B. Pancarditis
C. Always cause residual jt disease
D. Chorea
E. Group A Streptococcal infection
Ans:ABDE
[Ref: Robbins 7th/593-94; Harrison 18th/2752-55; Harrison’s 17th/2093-94;Ghai
7th/381-82,6th / 382]
“There is no residual damage to the joint”- Ghai 7th/381
“During acute RF, diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of
the three layers of the heart—pericardium, myocardium, or endocardium—hence the
lesion is called a pancarditis.”- Robbins 7th/593
25. 100 gram of dates contains:
A. Iron 7.3 gram
B. Vit C: 100 mg
C. Calorie: 317
D. Carotene:44 µg
E. Calcium 10 mg
Ans: ACD
TABLE 20(Park 21st): Nutritive value of some common fruits (per 100g of edible
portion)
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Date : 317 Calories; Calcium(120 mg); Iron(7.3mg); Carotene (44 µg); Vit. C 3 mg
26. Alkylating agents is/are:
A. Methotrexate
B. Busulfan
C. Doxorubicin
D. Daunorubicin
E. Chlorambucil
Ans:BE
[Ref : K.D.T. 6th/819-20; Katzung 10th/887-88; Goodman & Gilman 11th/1335-36]
1. Alkylating agents
Nitrogen mustard : Chlorambucil
Alkyl sulfonate BusulfanQ
27. Isolation is beneficial in :
A. Diphtheria
B. Measles
C. Typhoid
D. TB
E. Cholera
Ans: A (Diphtheria); B (Measles); C (Typhoid); D (T.B.);& E (Cholera)
[Ref:Park 21th / 111]
According to table ( Park 21th / 111), isolation is recommended in all diseases
given in option although its benefits is controversial in someQ
28. Ganciclovir true is :
A. Inhibits human DNA polymerase
B. Used in CMV
C. Used in HSV
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D. Active against Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
Ans:All
[Ref: KDT 6th/770-71 ;Katzung 10th/ 795-96]
Action Inhibits cytomegalovirus (CMV) and other virus replication by competitive
inhibition of viral DNA polymerases and direct incorporation into viral DNA.
“Ganciclovir has in vitro activity against CMV, HSV, VZV, EBV, HHV-6, and KSHV
(Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus). Its activity against CMV is up to 100
times greater than that of acyclovir”-Katzung 10th/ 796
29. True statement(s) is/are:
A. Hemicholinium leads to increased storage of Ach
B. Botulinum blocks Ach release
C. Tyramine inhibit release of NA
D. Imipramine is NA & 5-HT reuptake inhibitor
E. Black widow spider toxin induces massive release of Ach
Ans:BDE
[Ref : K.D.T. 6th/93 ; Katzung 10th/ 78,80,90 ]
Two toxins interfere with cholinergic transmission by affecting release: botulinus
toxin inhibits release, while black widow spider toxin induces massive release &
depletion”- K.D.T. 6th/93
“Tyramine is a indirectly acting sympathomimetics, acts on the adrenergic neurons to
release NA, which then acts on the adrenoreceptors”- K.D.T. 6th/120
“Hemicholinium-3 (HC3), also known as hemicholine, is a drug which blocks the
reuptake of choline by the high-affinitycholine transporter (ChT; encoded in humans
by the gene SLC5A7) at the presynapse. The reuptake of choline is the rate limiting
step in the synthesis of acetylcholine; hence, hemicholinium-3 decreases the
synthesis of acetylcholine. It is therefore classified as an indirect acetylcholine
antagonist .Acetylcholine is synthesized from choline and a donated acetyl group
from acetyl-CoA, by the action of choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)”- Katzung 10th/
78
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30.Which of the following is/are not calcium-channel blocking agent(s):
A. Verapamil
B. Propranolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Nicardipine
E. Nebivolol
Ans:BCE
[Ref : K.D.T. 6th/ 137 ; Katzung 10th/ 175]
“Nebivolol : It is a selective β1 blocker & also acts as a NO donor”- K.D.T. 6th/142
“Carvedilol is a β1 + β2+ α blocker”- K.D.T. 6th/143
31. Which of the following Drug-receptor pair correctly matched:
A. Buspirone : 5HT-1 agonist
B. Granisetrine 5HT-2 antagonists
C. Cisapride 5 HT-3 agonist
D. Methysergide-5 HT-4 antagonist
E. Imipramine :TNF-α inhibitor
Ans: A
[Ref : K.D.T. 6th/167 ; Katzung 10th/272]
“Methysergide is a potent 5HT-2A/2C antagonist with tissue specific agonistic
actions as well, but is non-selec tive –act on 5HT-1 receptor also”- K.D.T. 6th/167
“Methysergide have partial agonist effects at 5-HT2 vascular receptors”- Katzung
10th/272
“Imipramine inhibit monoamine reuptake & interact with a variety of receptors viz.
muscarinic, α adrenergic, histamine H1, 5-HT1, 5-HT2 &occasionally dopamine D2”-
K.D.T. 6th/441
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“Buspirone, a 5-HT1A agonist, has received wide attention for its usefulness as an
effective nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytic”- K.D.T. 6th/163
“Cisapride is a 5-HT4 agonist as well as weak 5-HT3 antagonist”- K.D.T. 6th/645
“Granisetron is a 5-HT3-receptor antagonists”-K.D.T. 6th/647
“TNF-α inhibitors are: infliximab adalimumab, certolizumab and golimumab
32. Acute hepatitis ‘B’ can be diagnosed by :
A. HBsAg
B. IgM anti-HBc Ab
C. HBeAg
D. IgG anti-HBc Ab
E. Core antigen
Ans: A (HBsAg); B (IgM...)& C (HBeAg)
[Ref : Park 21th/193-194;Harrison 17th / 1933-34;Ananthanarayan 8th/543]
HBcAg is called as core antigen.It is not demonstrable in circulation because it is
enclosed within the HBsAg coat, but its antibody, anti-HBc appears in serum a week
or two after the appearance of HBsAg”- Ananthanarayan 8th/543
“HBsAg is the first biomarker to appear in blood after infection.HBeAg appears in
blood concurrently with HBsAg or soon afterwards”- Ananthanarayan 8th/543
33. Vaccines NOT contraindicated in pregnancy :
A. Measles
B. Varicella
C. Mumps
D. Rabies
E. Hepatitis
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Ans: D (Rabies); E (Hepatitis)
[Ref: Park 21th/98]
Live vaccineS are C/I in pregnancy
34. Screening is effective in :
A. Carcinoma lung
B. Carcinoma prostate
C. Carcinoma ovary
D. Carcinoma breast
E. Carcinoma cervix
Ans : B (Carcinoma pros.) &D(Carcinoma b..)& E (Carcinoma Cervix)
[Ref: Harrison 18th/660-63,17th/490-91; Park 21st/356-572]
Screening is not helpful in Ca lung, Ca ovaries and Ca endometrium
“Effective screening have been developed for cervical cancer, breast cancer & oral
cancerQ”- Park 21st/356
•Prostate Ca: DRE and PSA estimationQ detects carcinoma in early resectable
stage. Hence decreases mortality
35. Disease infectious before onset of symptoms:
A. Hepatitis B
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Cholera
Ans: A (Hepatitis B); B (Measles); & C (Mumps)
[Ref: Park21th/91]
“As a rule, infectious diseases are not communicable during the incubation period,
but there are exceptions, as for example, measles, chickenpox, whooping cough or
hepatitis A Q are communicable during the later part of the incubation period”- Park
20
21th/94
Park21th/91: Writes: INCUBATORY CARRIERS: Measles, mumps, polio, pertussis,
influenza, diphtheria and hepatitis B
36. Endemic ascites is caused by :
A. Argimone mexicana seeds
B.Junjhunia seeds
C.Argot poisoning
D.Fusarium toxin
E. Aflatoxin
Ans: B (Jhunjhunia seeds)
[Ref: Park 21th/607-8]
Endemic ascites: On chemical analysis Jhunjhunia seeds were found to contain
pyrrolizidine alkaloids which are causative agent for Endemic ascites- Park 21th/608
37. True about HPV vaccination :
A. Given in woman of age group 25-40 years
B. Primary immunization consists of 2 dose
C. Efficacy >70% for cervical cancer
D. Two types of vaccine are available in the market
E. Protect against HPV 16 & 18
Ans: C (Efficacy..), D (Two types..) & E (Protect..) [Ref:Harrison 18th/1484-
85;Harrison 17th/1119;Internet]
“The ACIP recommends routine vaccination of females 11-12 years of age with 3
intramuscular dose; the second & third dose should be given 2 & 6 months after the
first”- CMDT 09/1173
“ACIP of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has recommended that
HPV vaccination be routinely offered to girls and young women 9–26 years of age”-
Harrison 18th/1484-85
“The quadrivalent vaccine has also been licenced in US for use in male(9-26 yr of
age) for prevention of anogenital warts”- Harrison 18th/1485
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38. Teratogenic drug(s) is/are:
A. Phenytoin
B. Methotrexate
C. Folic acid
D. Ampicillin
E. Enalapril
Ans:ABE
[Ref:;KDT 6th/84-85, 909-910; Drug in Pregnancy & Lactation by G.Briggs 6th/339]
“A recent report indicates 2.7 fold higher malformation rate in fetuses exposed to
ACE inhibitors(e.g Enalapril) in first trimester. ACE inhibitors must be stopped when
women conceives”- KDT 6th/484
“Prophylactic folic acid administration is given during pregnancy to reduce the risk of
neural tube defect”- KDT 6th/592
39. Drug that increases QT interval :
A. Haloperidol
B. Fexofenadine
C. Amiodarone
D. Ebastine
E. Sotatol
Ans:CDE
[Ref: KDT 6th/510,495,428-29]
“Fexofenadine does not prolong QTc interval”- KDT 6th/158
Drugs that prolong Q-T interval
Antiarrhythmics QuinidineQ, procainamideQ, disopyramide, propafenone,
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AmiodaroneQ, Sotalol
Antimicrobial Quinine, mefloquine, artemisinin, halofantrine, sparfloxacin, gatifloxacin
Antihistaminic TerfenadineQ, astemizole, ebastine
Antidepressants Amitryptyline & other tricyclics
Antipsychotics Thioidazine, risperidone, Ziprasidone(Katzung 10th/463)
Prokinetics CisaprideQ
40. Anti MRSA drugs are :
A. Linezolid
B. Vancomycin
C. Daptinomycin
D. Cefepime
E. Piperacillin-tazobactam
Ans: ABC
[Ref: clinicalpharmacy.ucsf.edu/idmp/whatsnew/dapto_monograph.htm ;Harrison
18th/2134 ;KDT6th/700,708,732,734; G & G 11th/1132; Jawetz, Melnick, &
Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24th Edition]
Piperacillin-tazobactam: spectrum include b-lactamase-producing strains of S aureus
as well as some b-lactamase-producing gram-negative bacteria”- Katzung 10th/741
“Cefepime (fourth-generation cephalosporin): It has good activity against P
aeruginosa, Enterobacteriaceae, S aureus, and S pneumoniae.”- Katzung 10th/741
“The drug of choice for these organism is vancomycinQ/linezolidQ, but ciprofloxacin
can also be used. ImipenemQ, DalfopristinQ/Quinupristin, Mupirocin, Teicoplanin are
also effective against MRSA”- KDT 6th/708,732,733,734
“Daptomycin is a newly-approved antibacterial agent, highly resistant species
(MRSA, VISA, VRSA, VRE”-
clinicalpharmacy.ucsf.edu/idmp/whatsnew/dapto_monograph.htm
“Daptomycin : Its spectrum of activity is similar to that of vancomycin except that it is
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more rapidly bactericidal in vitro and it is active against vancomycin-resistant strains
of enterococci and vancomycin-intermediate and -resistant strains of S aureus”-
Katzung 10th/741
41.MOA of verapamial is:
A. Inhibition of Ca+2 channel
B. Inhibition of Na+ channel
C. Inhibition of K+ channel
D. Block membrane repolarisation
E. Membrane stabilisation
Ans:A
[Ref: KDT 6th/ 511,517-18 ; Katzung 10th/ 221-23 ]
Classification of antiarrhythmic drugs: four classes
1. Class 1 action is sodium channel blockade(Membrane stabilizing drugs):
2. Class 2 action is sympatholytic. Drugs with this action reduce b-adrenergic activity
in the heart.
3. Class 3 action is manifest by prolongation of the APD. Most drugs with this action
block the rapid component of the delayed rectifier potassium current, IKr.
4. Class 4 action is blockade of the cardiac calcium current. This action slows
conduction in regions where the action potential upstroke is calcium dependent, eg,
the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes.
Class IV agents act by blocking voltage-sensitive calcium channels. Class IV drugs
slow conduction in the SA and AV nodes where action potential propagation
depends on slow inward Ca2+ current, slowing the heart and terminating SVT by
causing partial AV block. They shorten the plateau of the action potential and reduce
the force of contraction. Reduced Ca2+ entry reduces after-depolarisation and thus
suppresses premature ectopic beats.
42. Phenytoin causes:
A. Pure red cell aplasia
24
B. Megaloblastic anaemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Hemolytic anaemia
E. Thrombocytopenia
Ans:All
[Ref : K.D.T. 6th/ 404-05 ; A to Z Drug Facts 2003 by David S. Tatro ;Goodman &
Gilman 11th/335 ]
Adverse Reactions of of Phenytoin A to Z Drug Facts 2003 by David S. Tatro
HEMATOLOGICAL: Thrombocytopenia; leukopenia; granulocytopenia;
agranulocytosis; pancytopenia; macrocytosis; megaloblastic anemia; eosinophilia;
monocytosis; leukocytosis; simple anemia; hemolytic anemia; aplastic anemia.
“Phenytoin: Hematological reactions include neutropenia and leucopenia, or more
rarely, red-cell aplasia, agranulocytosis, and thrombocytopenia. Lymphadenopathy is
associated with reduced immunoglobulin A (IgA) production.Hypoprothrombinemia
and hemorrhage have occurred in the newborns of mothers who received phenytoin
during pregnancy; vitamin K is effective treatment or prophylaxis”- Goodman &
Gilman 11th/335
43. Morphological feature of rosacea includes:
A. Papules
B. Pustules
C. Vesicles
D. Telangiectasia
E. Comedones
Ans: ABDE
[Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/ 104 ; Harrison 18th/404;Roxburg 17th/162-63 ]
Vescicles not mentioned as feature in any above textbooks
“Acne rosacea or rosacea: It is characterized by the presence of erythema,
telangiectases, and superficial pustules , but is not associated with the presence of
comedones. Often, individuals with rosacea initially demonstrate a pronounced
flushing reaction. As the disease progresses, the flush persists longer and longer
and may eventually become permanent. Papules, pustules, and telangiectases can
25
become superimposed on the persistent flush”- Harrison 18th/404
44. Intra epidermal blisters are seen in :
A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Pemphigus folliaceous
C. Dermatitis herpeteformis
D. Hailey Hailey disease
E. Bullous impetigo
Ans:B (Pemphigus..) D (Hailey..)
[Ref: Pathology of Skin by Farmer & Hood 2nd/235,237,655 Neena Khanna 3rd/62-
65,67,1th/52;Roxburg 17th/255,82]
“Hailey Hailey disease(Benign familial pemphigus): It is a Intra epidermal bullous
disorder & present as flaccid vesicle, crusted erosion & circinate plaques
onerythematous base. Usually worse in summertime”- Neena Khanna
3rd/67;Roxburg 17th/255
Bullous ImpetigoQ is subcorneal disorder while Dermatitis herpeteformis, Bullous
SLE & Bullous pemphigoid are Dermo-epidermal (Subepidermal) lesionsQ
“Pemphigus group of diseases are intra-epidermal bullous disorderQ”- Neena
Khanna 1th/52
45. Wood’s lamp examination is used in diagnosis of:
A. Erythrasma
B. Lichen planus
C. Psoriasis
D. P. veriscolor
E. T.capitis
Ans: ADE
Wood’s lamp examination is not done in diagnosis of Psoriasis & Lichen planus
[Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/13,209 ; Harrison 18th/ 394 ; Rooks Textbook of
26
Dermatology 7th/ 5.11-5.14;Roxburg 17th/38,41]
46. Drugs used in scabies are all except :
A. Crotamiton
B. Permethrin
C. Gamma-benzene hexachloride(BHC)
D. Tacrolimus
E. Benzyl benzoate
Ans:D
[Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/297; Harrison 18th/3577;KDT 6th/863-64]
Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor(immunomodulator) used in atopic dermatitis,
vitiligo & rosacea”- Neena Khanna 3rd/345
“Scabicides used are: Permethrin creamQ (5%), Gamma benzene hexachloride(G-
BHC1%), Crotamiton (10%), Benzyl benzoate (25%) & Ivermectin (single oral dose
200 µg/kg)”- Neena Khanna 3rd/297
47. Cutaneous T.B includes:
A. Lupus vulgaris
B. Scrofuloderma
C. Lichen planus
D. Lupus erythematosus
E. Lupus pernio
Ans: AB
[Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/ 217 ; Harrison 18th/ 1349 ; Behl 7th/202;Rook’s
Dermatology 7th/28.10-28.30]
“Lupus erythematosus includes SLE(systemic lupus erythematosus, DLE & SCLE”-
Neena Khanna 3rd/ 186
“Lupus pernio is found in sarcoidosis. Microscopically, it resembles lupus vulgaris.
27
Biopsy shows granulomatous infiltration”- Harrison 18th/ 2808
“Cutaneous manifestations of tuberculosis include primary infection due to direct
inoculation, abscesses and chronic ulcers, scrofuloderma, lupus vulgaris (a
smoldering disease with nodules, plaques, and fissures), miliary lesions, and
erythema nodosum”- Harrison 18th/ 1349
48. Painful genital ulcer is/are seen in :
A. Chancroid
B. Lymphogranuloma Venereum
C. Primary syphilis
D. Herpes
E. G ranuloma inguinale
Ans: AD
[Ref :Neena Khanna 3rd/ 259-270; Ananthnarayan 8th/420; Harrison
18th/1108,17th/831-32]
“Primary syphilis cause Hunterian chancre(painless)”- Neena Khanna 3rd/259
“Lymphogranuloma Venereum:Primary lesion is a small painless papulovesicualar
lesion appearing on external genitalia”- Ananthnarayan 8th/420
“Granuloma inguinale begins as a painless papule on the genitalia, which leads to a
slowly progressive, autoinoculable ulcer”- Ananthnarayan 8th/396
49. Laparoscopy is /are C/I in :
A. Pregnancy
B. Distension of intestine
C. Severe cardio-pulmonary disease
D. Peritonitis
E. Inguinal hernia
Ans:ABCD
28
[Ref : L & B 25th/247-49 ;Washington Manual of Surgery 5th/642-43 ; Maingot's
Abdominal Operations; Mastery of Surgery 5th/ 1116
“Massive abdominal distention may result in an increased risk of iatrogenic bowel
injury”- Washington Manual of Surgery 5th/643
Pregnancy is a relative C/I
“C/I for Laparoscopy are relative & includes uncorrectable coagulation defects,
severe congestive heart failure, respiratory insufficiency, suspected acute & diffuse
peritonitis & presence of distended bowel”- emedicine.medscape.com/ article
50. Predisposing factors for Varicose vein includes :
A. Incompetent valve b/w superficial and deep vein
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Buerger’s disease
D. Female sex Hormone
E. Family history
Ans:ABDE
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 927,923-24 ; S.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/205-06;Sabiston
18th/2006 ;CSDT 11th/873;Manipal Surgery 3rd/103 ]
“Very often, the valve at saphenofemoral junction is incompetent/absent. The valves
can also be absent where the superficial vein join the deep vein”- Manipal Surgery
3rd/103
Buerger’s disease(thromboangitis obliterans) is occlusive diseases of small &
medium sized arteries”- L & B 25th/ 923
Although Buerger’s disease can cause migratory thrombophlebitis of superficial &
deep vein, but it is not mentioned as a cause of varicose vein in any above textbooks
51. Biopsy in Hirschsprung’s disease can be taken from :
A. 4 cm above the dentate line
B. 4 cm below dentate line
29
C. 6 cm below dentate line
D. At the level of dentate line
E. Anywhere feasible- site not important
Ans:A(Single best option)
[Ref : Sabiston 18th/2065 ; CSDT11th/1321 ; Nelson 18th/1565-67; S.Das Textbook
of Surgery 5th/1035-36]
“Biopsy should be taken atleast 2 cm above the dentate line”- S.Das Textbook of
Surgery 5th/1036
“Rectal biopsy:It is important to obtain the sample at least 2 cm above the dentate
line”-Sabiston 18th/2065
“Rectal suction biopsies are the procedure of choiceQ & should be performed no
closer than 2cm to the dentate line to avoid the normal area of hypoganglionosis at
the anal verge”-Nelson 18th/1566
“The definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease is made by rectal biopsy.
Samples of mucosa and submucosa are obtained at 1 cm, 2 cm, and 3 cm from the
dentate line”-Schwartz 8th
52. True about Keloid:
A. Seen in caucasians
B. Treatment is excision and grafting
C. Grows beyond margin
D. Precancerous lesion leading to cancer
E. Everted margin
Ans:BC
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 30,598-99, 24th/93 ; Sabiston 18th/206-07 ; CSDT11th/ 1243 ;
Scwartz 8th/ ]
“Coloured races are particularly liable to keloid formation. Negroes are commonly
affected”- S.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/123
“Shaving away the excess scar tissue & then resurfacing the area by a thin skin
30
graft, though advocated by a few surgeon to give encouraging results, yet such
treatment has never produced good result by large”- S.Das Textbook of Surgery
5th/123
“Everted edge(rolled out) is a characteristic feature of squamous cell Ca or ulcerated
adenocarcinoma”- S.Das Textbook of Surgery 5th/125
53. Breast conservative surgery is not done in :
A. Scleroderma
B. Multicentric lesion
C. 1st & 2nd trimester Pregnancy
D. Diffuse microscopic calcification
E. Fixity of tumor to chest wall
Ans: All
[Ref: Sabiston 18th/877; S.Das 5th/727; L & B 25th/843, 24th / 841; Devita 7th/1437;
CSDT 11th/330; Mastery of Surgery, 5th Edition]
“Clinically detectable multifocality is a relative contraindication to breast-conserving
surgery, as is fixation to the chest wall or skin or involvement of the nipple or
overlying skin.”- CSDT 11th/330
Contraindications for BCS:
1. Multicentric breast cancer.
2. Diffuse malignant looking micro calcifications on mammogram
5. Collagen vascular disease.
6. Early pregnancy.
54.Irreversible step(s) in glycolysis is/are:
A. Enolase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Glyceradehyde -3-phosphate dehydrogenase
31
E. Hexokinase
Ans:BCE
[Ref: Vasudevan 5th/85-88;Harper 28th/158; Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/306-09 ]
Phosphofructokinase catalyse conversion of Fructose – 6-P to F-1,6-bi-P
(Irreversible) Q- Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/308
Enolase catalyse conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol
pyruvate(Reversible)- Vasudevan 5th/87
Pyruvate kinase catalyse conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to
pyruvate(Irreversible) -Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/310
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate-dehydrogenase catalyse conversion of
Glyceraldehyde-3-p to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate-(Reversible) Q- Chatterjea & Shinde
7th/306
55. High energy phosphate compound is/are :
A. ATP
B. Creatine phosphate
C. Glucose- 1- phosphate
D. Glycerol -3-phosphate
E. ADP
Ans:AB
[Ref;Harper 28th/94; Vasudevan 5th/228; Satyanarayan 3rd/222-23 ]
Classification of high-energy compounds
There are at least 5 groups of high-energy compounds
1. Pyrophosphates e.g. ATP.
2. Acyl phosphates e.g. 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate.
3. Enol phosphates e.g. phosphoenolpyruvate.
4. Thioesters e.g. acetyl CoA.
5. Phosphagens e.g. phosphocreatine
56. Which of the following enzyme is not involved in Urea cycle :
32
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase
B. Argininosucinate synthetase
C. α- KG dehydorogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
E. Fumarase
Ans: ACDE
[Ref ; Harrison 18th/3216,3219;17th/2472-74; Harper 28th/243;Shinde 7th/450-51]
“α- KG dehydorogenase, fumarase & Isocitrate dehydrogenase are enzymes of
TCA(citric acid cycle”- Shinde 7th/317
Glutamate dehydrogenase catalyses the formation of glutamate & ammonia in
mitochondria. It provide ammonia for Carbamoyl phosphate synthase(1st step of
urea cycle- so Glutamate dehydrogenase is not part of urea cycle
57. Protein separation based on mass / molecular weight (size) is/are done in
all EXCEPT :
A. Ultrafiltration
B. Electrophoresis
C. 2D gel electrophoresis
D. Gel Filtration chromatography
E. Centrifugation
Ans:B
[Ref : Harper 28th/24,37-38;Satyanarayan 3rd/59; Lippincott 4th/21;
www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov › NCBI › LiteratureQ 25 June 2009;Harper27th/21-25;Protein
purification Handbook: laboratory Manual Chapter II;NMS Biochemistry 4th/19-23;
Shinde 7th/90; Vasudevan 5th/481-90]
Centrifugation: masses or densities
Ultrafiltration: concentrates a protein solution using selective permeable membranes.
The function of the membrane is to let the water and small molecules pass through
while retaining the protein.
33
Electrophoresis Separates Molecules according to Their Charge:Mass Ratio
SDS-PAGE: The proteins in SDS-PAGE are separated on the sole basis of their
size.
Two-Dimensional Gel Electrophoresis: Electrophoresis of all cellular proteins through
an SDS gel can separate proteins having relatively large differences in molecular
weight
58. Which is/are not transport proteins :
A. Transferrin
B. Collagen
C. Ceruloplasmin
D. Hb
E. Albumin
Ans:B
[Ref: Harper 28th/569,271 ;Satyanarayan 3rd/184;Vasudevan 5th/241 ]
“Hemoglobin is largely responsible for the transport of oxygen from the lungs to
tissue. It also helps to transport CO2 from the tissues to the lungs”- Harper 28th/197
“Transport protein: Hb, the transporter of oxygen is a tetrameric protein”- Vasudevan
5th/28
“Structural protein: Collagen is the most abundant protein in mammals & the main
fibrous component of skin, bone, tendon, cartilage & teeth”- Vasudevan 5th/28
59. Selenium deficiency causes:
A. Dermatitis
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Diarrhoea
D. Alopecia
E. Gonadal atrophy
34
Ans:B
[Ref: Harrison 18th/604,595; Shinde 7th/ 594;Satyanarayan 3rd/422:Vasudevan
5th/329 ]
Gonadal atrophy, alopecia, dermatitis & diarrhoea are the feature of zinc deficiency”-
Harrison 18th/595(table)
Alopecia, dermatitis & diarrhea are feature of selenium toxicity”- Satyanarayan
3rd/422
60.Copper containing enzymes is/are :
A. Superoxide dismutase
B. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Tyrosinase
E. Amine oxidase
Ans:ABDE
[Ref: Harper 28th/ 573 ]
Myeloperoxidase (MPO) is a peroxidase enzyme. It is a lysosomal protein stored in
azurophilic granules of the neutrophil. MPO has a heme pigment.
61. Gestational diabetes mellitus more likely occurs in:
A. Morbid obesity
B. Previous h/o GDM
C. Family history of GDM
D. Advanced age
E. H/o pregnancy losses
Ans: All
[Ref : Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/284-286 ;William’s Obstetrics 23rd/1109; CDTOG
10th/ch-18 ]
35
The potential candidates for GDM are Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics 6th/284
a) Positive family history of diabetes (parents or sibling). Family history should
include uncles, aunts and grand parents
b) Having a previous birth of and overweight baby of 4kg or more
c) Previous stillbirth with pancreatic islet hyperplasia revealed on autopsy
d) Unexplained perinatal lossQ
e) Presence of polyhydramnios or recurrent vaginal candidiasis in present
pregnancy
f) Persistent glycosuria
g) Age over 30 Q
h) ObesityQ
i) Ethnic group (East Asian, Pacific island ancestry)
62. Maneuver used in shoulder dystocia is/are:
A. Lovset maneuver
B. Woods corkscrew maneuver
C. Ritzen maneuver
D. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit technique
E. McRoberts maneuver
Ans: B (Woods..); E (Mc Roberts..)
[Ref : Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/407-408, 384 ;William’s Obstetrics 23rd/ ]
“Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit technique is used in delivery of after-coming head in
assisted breech delivery”- Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/382
Lovset maneuver is used in bringing down arm in breech deliver”- Dutta’s Obstetrics
6th/387
“Ritzen maneuver: It is assisted delivery of head in normal labour”- Dutta’s Obstetrics
6th/138
Mc Roberts maneuver & Wood’s maneuver Q are used in Shoulder dystocia-
Dutta Obstetrics 6th / 407-408
36
63. True statement related to Hormonal replacement therapy :
A. ↓ed chance of hip fracture
B. ↓ed Breast cancer
C. ↓ed Colon Ca
D. ↓ed Endometrial Ca
E. ↑ed risk of DVT
Ans: A(↓ed ..), C (↓ed Colon..); E (↑ed risk . .)
[Ref : Shaw’s Gynae 14th/57-59 ;Dutta Gynaecology 5th/59-60; CDTOG 10th/ch-59
;Novak’s 14th/1334-35 ]
Benefits of Hormonal replacement therapy Dutta Gynaecology 5th/59
• Decreased risk in vertebral & hip fracture(25-50%)
• Reduction in colorectal cancer(20%)
Risk of Hormonal replacement therapy Dutta Gynaecology 5th/60
• ↑Endometrial Ca
• ↑Breast Ca
• ↑Venous thromboembolism(DVT)
64. Risk factor for ectopic pregnancy is/are:
A. Tubal sterilization
B. Infertility
C. IUCD use
D. OCP
E. Multiparity
Ans: A (Tubal..); B (Infertility); C (IUCD)
[Ref: Q 202 Nov 2009;Shaw's 14th/208; Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/179-80;William’s
37
Obstetrics 23th/239]
65. Criteria for severe pre- eclampsia includes all except:
A. Fetal growth restriction
B. Prematurity
C. Proteinuria
D. Oliguria
E. Pulmonary edema
Ans: None (all are correct)
[Ref : Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/226-228 ;William’s Obstetrics 23rd/ 708 ; CDTOG
10th/ch-19 ]
“Fetal hazard in severe pre- eclampsia :Intrauterine death, IUGR, asphyxia &
prematurity’- Dutta’s Obstetrics 6th/228
66. Risk factor for Acute PID includes:
A. Advanced age
B. OCP use
C. IUCD users
D. Previous h/o PID
E. ↑ no of sexual partner
Ans: C (IUCD); D (Previous..); E (↑ no. of..)
[Ref : Shaw’s Gynae 14th/399-404; Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125 ; William’s Gynae 1st/73 ]
“PID is a disease of young women, who are sexually & reproductively active.Two
thirds are restricted to young women of less than 25 years & remaining one-third
limited among 30 years or older”- Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125
38
>>. Risk factor for Acute PID Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125
• Multiple sexual partner
• Absence of contraceptive pill use
• Previous history of acute PID
• IUD users
• Menstruating teenagers
Protection for Acute PID Dutta’s Gynae 5th/125
• Contraceptive methods- Barrier method & Oral steroidal
contraceptives(produce thick mucus plug & decrease in duration of menstruation)
• Women with monogamous partner who had vasectomy
• Pregnancy
• Menopause
• Husband who is azoospermic
67. Left gastric vein drain into:
A. IVC
B. Portal vein
C. Directly into splenic vein
D. Splenic vein through short gastric vein
E. Left gastro-epiploic vein
Ans:B
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.II 270 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 220]
“The Lt & Rt gastric veins drains directly into the portal vein. The short gastric veins
& the left gastroepiploic veins join the splenic. The right gastroepiploic veins joins the
superior mesenteric vein”- Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 220
68. A person met with Knife injury to face & resultant damage to facial nerve. It
lead to impaired/decreased secretion from:
39
A. Parotid gland
B. Sublingual gland
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Parotid gland, sublingual gland & submandibular gland
E. Submandibular gland
Ans: BCE
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.III 133, 140,161-61 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/765 ]
“The parotid gland receives its parasympathetic input from the glossopharyngeal
nerve(CN IX, Auriculotemporal nerve) via the otic ganglion, while the submandibular
and sublingual glands receive their parasympathetic input from the facial nerve (CN
VII) via the submandibular ganglion”- BDC4th/Vol.III 137
“Five terminal branch emerge along the anterior border of the parotid gland”-
BDC4th/Vol.III 137(But not supply)
“Greater petrosal nerve: The post-ganglinic fibres are secretomotor to the lacrimal
gland & the glands of the nose & the palate”- Snells' Anatomy 8th/765
69. Structures injured while resecting the free edge of lesser omentum :
A. Portal vein
B. Hepatic artery proper
C. Hepatic vein
D. Cystic duct
E. Common bile duct
Ans:ABE
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.II 240-41 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/249 ; Gray’s 40th/1102 ]
“Right free margin of the lesser omentum contains portal vein, common bile duct,
hepatic artery, portocaval lymph node & lymphatics & the hepatic plexus of nerves
40
ensheathed in a perivascular fibrous capsule”- Gray’s 40th/1102
70. Correct statement about tongue is/are:
A. Facial N. supplies filiform papillae
B. Glossophanygeal nerve supplies cirumvallate papillae
C. The posterior most part of tongue develops from Ist pharyngeal arch
D. Genioglossus is the safety muscle
E. Blood supply is derived from lingual artery
Ans:A(Most probably? could not got direct reference) BDE
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.III 250-253; Snells' Anatomy 8th/781 ; Gray’s 40th/ 503,507 ]
“Glossophanygeal nerve supplies cirumvallate papillae”- Snells' Anatomy 8th/781
“The posterior most part of tongue develops from 4th pharyngeal arch”-
BDC4th/Vol.III 253
Why genioglossus is called safety muscle of tongue? wiki.answers.com › Biology ›
Human Physiology › Muscular System; Gray’s 40th/ 503
The genioglossus muscle is the muscle of the tongue. it's attached the base of the
tongue to the inside
front of the jaw bone. It pulls the tongue forward. In the people with obstructive sleep
apnea, the genioglossus is more active in holding the airway open at rest. If it
relaxes during sleep, the airway narrows and collapses. as it keeps the airway open
thus saves life, it's called a life saving muscle.
Fliform papillae occurs on anterior part of tongue Gray’s 40th/ 503
Chorda tympani is nerve of taste for A2/3 of the tongue except cirumvallate papillae-
BDC4th/Vol.III 250-253
71. Tibial nerve injury/palsy causes :
A. Dorsiflexion of foot at ankle joint
41
B. Planter flexion of the foot at ankle joint
C. Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot
D. Paralysis of muscles of anterior compartment of leg
E. Loss of sensation over the medial border of foot
Ans:A
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.II 173,85-86 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/660 ;Gray’s 40th/1427 ]
“The muscles of anterior compartment of leg are supplied by deep peroneal nerve.
Paralysis of the muscles of anterior compartment of leg results in loss of the power
of dorsiflexion of the foot. As a result the foot is plantar flexed. The condition is called
foot drop”- BDC4th/Vol.II 100
Sensory supply of leg & foot Snells' Anatomy 8th/660
• Common peroneal nerve: anterior & lateral side of leg & dorsum of foot &
toes, including the medial side of the big toe
• Tibial nerve(through sural nerve): lower half of back of leg & lower 1/3 of
lateral area of calf & whole of lateral border of the foot till the tip of little toe
• Saphenous nerve(Branch of femoral nerve): medial area of leg & medial
border of the foot as far as the ball of the big toe
• Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh: upper half of the central area of calf
Tibial Nerve Injury Snells' Anatomy 8th/660
Motor: All muscle in the back of leg & the soles of the foot are paralyzed. The
opposing muscles dorsiflex the foot at ankle joint & evert the foot at the subtalar &
transverse tarsal joints, an attitude referred to as calcaneovalgus
Sensory: Sensation is lost on the sole of foot; later trophic ulcers develop
72. Breast is/are supplied by :
A. Lateral thoracic artery
B. Internal mammary artery
C. Musculophrenic artery
D. Superior thoracic artery
42
E. Superior epigastric artery
Ans: ABD
[Ref: BDC Vol. I 4th / 41-42,212 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/427]
Deep Arteries of anterior abdominal wall BDC Vol. II 4th / 204
“Musculophrenic (branch of Internal mammary artery) artery gives branch to the
diaphragm, the anterior abdominal wall & the seventh, eighth & ninth intercostals
spaces as the anterior intercostals arteries”-
“Superior epigastric artery (branch of Internal mammary artery) gives muscular,
cutaneous, anastomatic & hepatic branch”
73. In injury to upper trunk of the brachial plexus following seen:
A. Supination of forearm
B. Pronation of forearm
C. Inability to initiate abduction of shoulder
D. Decreased sensation of medial hand
E. Paralysis of deltoid muscle
Ans: BCE
[Ref : B.D.C. 4th/Vol I 51-54; Snell's Anatomy 8th/ 536-37 ]
Decreased sensation of medial hand occurs in lower trunk injury(Klumpke’s
paralysis)- B.D.C. 4th/Vol I 53
74. Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh supplies skin overlying:
A. Medial aspect of thigh
B. Posteroinferior aspect of buttocks
C. Scrotum
D. Back of thigh
E. Popliteal fossa
43
Ans: All
[Ref : B.D.C. 4th/Vol II 110 ; Snell's Anatomy 8th/ 565-66 ;Gray’s 40th/1384 ]
“Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh supplies skin of back & medial side of thigh, the
popliteal fossa & the proximal part of the back of the leg”- Gray’s 40th/1384
Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh (S1,S2,S3) B.D.C. 4th/Vol II 76
1. A perineal branch which supplies the skin of the posterior two-third of the
scrotum or labium majus
2. Gluteal branch which supply the skin of the posteroinferior quadrant of the
gluteal region
Sensory supply of legB.D.C. 4th/Vol II 110
• Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh: upper half of the central area of calf
75. Which of the following does not form boundary of femoral ring:
A. Femoral aretry
B. Femoral vein
C. Femoral nerve
D. Lacunar ligament
E. Inguinal ligament
Ans:AC
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.II 53 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 579]
Femoral ring BDC4th/Vol.II 53 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/ 579
It is the baseor upper end of the femoral canal.
It is directed upward and is oval in form, its long diameter being directed transversely
and measuring about 1.25 cm.
Boundaries
The femoral ring is bounded as follows:
anteriorly by the inguinal ligament.
posteriorly by the pectineal ligament.
44
medially by the crescentic base of the lacunar ligament.
laterally by the fibrous septum on the medial side of the femoral vein
76. True about anatomy of Fallopian tubes:
A. Length is 20 cm
B. Medial to lateral structures are isthmus, Interstitial part, Ampulla &
Fimbriae
C. Ovary is attached to uterus by Ovarian ligament
D. Uterine artery supplies medial 2/3 of tube
E. Ampulla is largest part
Ans:CDE
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol. II 355-57; Dutta Obs 6th/ 7]
“Uterine artery supplies medial 2/3 & ovarian artery supplies the lateral 1/3 of the
tube”- BDC4th/Vol. II 357
The fallopian tubes stretch from the uterus to the ovaries and measure about 8 to 10
cm (4 to 6 inches) in length. Segments of the fallopian
The fallopian tube is not just a passive pipe or a conduit, but an active organ with its
separate locations performing separate functions. Starting from the ovarian end
(fimbria) and proceeding toward the uterus, these are the:
• Fimbrial segment - faces the ovary
• Infundibular segment(1.25 cm) - funnel shaped segment behind the fimbria
• Ampullary segment(5 cm) - wide middle segment
• Isthmic segment (2.5 cm)- narrow muscular segment near the uterus
• Interstitial segment (1.25cm)- passes through the uterine muscle into the
uterine cavity
77. Blood brain barrier is/are formed by :
45
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Microglial cell
C. Astrocytes
D. Schwann cell
E. Neuroglial cell
Ans:CE
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.III386-87 ; Ganong 23rd/572-73;Robbins 7th/1349-50;‘Gray’s
40th/48-49;Guyton 11th/766]
Blood–brain barrier (BBB): made up of BDC4th/Vol.III386-87
1. Vessel wall
2. Arachnoid layer of the perivascular sheath
3. The perivascular space
4. Neuroglia & the ground substance of the brain
“ Some astrocytic processes are directed toward neurons and their processes and
synapses, where they are believed to act as metabolic buffers or detoxifiers,
suppliers of nutrients, and electrical insulators. Others surround capillaries or extend
to the subpial and subependymal zones, where they contribute to barrier functions
controlling the flow of macromolecules between the blood, the CSF, and the brain”-
Robbins 7th/1349-50:
78. During incision & drainage of ischiorectal abscess, which nerve is/are
affected/injured :
A. Superior rectal nerve
B. Inferior rectal nerve
C.Superior gluteal nerve
D.Inferior gluteal nerve
E. Ilioinguinal nerve
46
Ans: B
[Ref: BDC4th/Vol.II 328-29 ,76 ,196 ; Snells' Anatomy 8th/394 ]
Contents of the Ischiorectal fossa -
1. Ischiorectal pad of fat.
2. Inferior rectal nerve and vessels.
3. Posterior scrotal / posterior labial nerve and vessels.
4. Pudendal canal and its contents(pudendal nerve & internal pudendal vessel)
5. Perineal branch of fourth sacral nerve.
6. Perforating cutaneous branch of S2 , S3 nerve .
Ilioinguinal nerve: supply the skin of external genitalia & upper part of the medial side
of the
thigh”- BDC4th/Vol.II 196
79. True statement about Restriction endonuclease :
A. Palindromic sequences observed
B. Protects bacteria from infection by virus
C. Present only in eukaryotes
D. Restrict replication of DNA
Ans:ABD
[Ref:Lippincott 4th/465-66;Harper 28th/388-90,27th / 403; Satyanarayana 3rd / 580]
“A restriction enzyme (or restriction endonuclease) is an enzyme that cuts DNA at
specific recognition nucleotidesequences (with Type II restriction enzymes cutting
double-stranded DNA) known as restriction sites. Such enzymes, found in bacteria
and archaea, are thought to have evolved to provide a defense mechanism against
invading viruses”
“RE can specifically recognize DNA with particular sequence of 4-6 mucleotides and
cleave. The recognition sequences are palindromicQ (i.e., twofold rotational
symmetry”- Lippincott 4th/466
“RE restrict DNA replication”- Satyanarayana 3rd / 579
47
80. Non coding RNAs are :
A. siRNA
B. miRNA
C. tRNA
D. mRNA
E. rRna
. Ans: A (siRNA), B (miRNA), C (tRNA) E (rRna) [Ref: Harper 28th/310;
Lippincott 4th/ 417; .; en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-coding_RNA]
81.Technique(s) used detecting for Gene Mutation is/are:
A. RT- PCR
B. Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis
C. DNA sequencing
D. Restriction fragment polymorphism (RFLP)
E. Single-strand conformational polymorphism
Ans:All
[Ref: Harrison Table 18th/ 508, 17th/406 ; Vasudevan 5th/454-56]
82. MHC II is/are presented by:
A. Macrophage
B. Dendritic cells
C. Lymphocyte
D. Epithelial cell
E. Platelets
Ans: A(Macrophage), B(Dendr..) & C(Lymphocyte)
[Ref: Robbins 7th/203-04;Ananthanarayan 8/132-35; Harrison17/2045-53 ]
“In contrast to class I molecules, the tissue distribution of MHC class II molecules is
48
largely restricted to antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, and B
cells). Expression of class II molecules can be induced on several other cell types,
however, including endothelial cells and fibroblasts, by the action of IFN-γ”- Robbins
7th/204
83. Which of the following are activators of lymphocyte:
A. CD 79b
B. CD 3
C. CD 28
D. CD 14
E. LCK
Ans : All (A, B, C, D & E)
[Ref : Immunology by David male 7th/107-108, 192-193, 31 kuby Immunology
6th/259]
LCK (Internet)
• Lymphocyte specific tyrosine kinase, lck is critical for lymphocyte
development & activation
• LCK, is one of the eight members of the src family of tyrosine kinase, is
activated after T cell stimulation & is required for T-cell proliferation & IL-2
production.
• Inhibition of lck has been a target to prevent lymphocyte activation & acute
rejection
84. Dyeing declaration can be recorded by:
A. Doctor
B. Sister incharge
C. Village headman
D. Executive magistrate
E. Judicial magistrate
49
Ans: All
[Ref: Reddy 27th/ 9; Parikh 6th/ 1.15-1.16 ]
DYING DECLARATION
• If there is time a Magistrate should be called to record the declaration before
recording the statement, the doctor should certify that the person is conscious and
his mental faculties are normal (compos mentis).
• If the condidtion of the vicitim is serious, and there is no time to call a
Magistrate, the doctor should take the declaraton in the presence of two witnesses.
The statement can also be recorded by the village headman, police or any other
person, but its evidential value will be less.
“In a landmark judgment, the division bench comprising Justice M Sasidharan
Nambiar and Justice P Bhavadasan(Kerala High court) ruled that there is no law or
statute that dying declaration should be recorded only by a magistrate. The bench
said that dying declaration recorded by the doctor or anybody with credibility in the
society can be accepted as evidence after analysing its evidentiary value as per
law”- TOI Jul 4, 2012
Dying declaration recorded by police is valid: SC New Delhi, Thu May 17 2012
Indian Express
www.preservearticles.com/.../short-notes-on-the-value-of-dying-decl..
“Dying declaration should be recorded by the executive magistrate and police officer
to record
the dying declaration only if condition of the deceased was so precarious that no
other
alternative was left”
“Under the old CrPC, there was no distinction between the Executive and Judicial
Magistrates; some states still follow the old CrPC, e.g. Nagaland; there, the Collector
is also the head of the judicial branch of the district and can pass sentences,
including capital punishment, under IPC.”
85. Inquest not present in Indian court :
A. Magistrate inquest
50
B. Medical examiner’s system
C. Coroner inquest
D. Police inquest
E. Trial by jury
Ans: BCE
[Ref: Reddy 27th/ 5; Parikh 6th/1.3-1.7 ]
Two types of inquests are held in India: the police inquest & the magistrate’s inquest.
CORONER’S INQUEST : This is type of inquest done in U.K., some States in
U.S.A., and some other countries, but not in India.
MEDICAL EXAMINER’S SYSTEM : This is a type of inquest conducted in most of
the states in the United States of America.
JURY : Trial by jury has been abolished in India.
86. True about Incised looking wound:
A. Type of split laceration wound
B. Avulsion laceration wound with blunt object
C. Produced by blunt object
D. Incised wound
E. Commonly seen on Scalp
Ans: ACE
[Ref: Reddy 27th/ 165-66 ]
Type of Lacerations Reddy 27th/ 165-66
1. Split laceration: with excessive crushing & without excessive crushing (Incised
like or Incised-looking Wounds)
2. Stretch laceration
3. Avulsion(Shearing laceration)
4. Tears
51
5. Cut laceration
87. False statement(s) about postmortem staining is/are:
A. Occur immediately after death
B. Common in dependent part
C. Disappear with rigor mortis
D. Surface elevated
E. Not found in internal organ
. Ans: A (Immedi..), C ( Disappear..),D(Surf..) & E (Not..)
[Ref: Reddy 27th/136-39; Modi’s Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 22nd/226]
“PM staining persists until putrefaction sets in”- Reddy 27th/137
““PM staining does not appear elevated above the surface, but has sharply defined
edges”- Modi’s Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 23nd/429
88. True about Cadaveric spasm :
A. Seen in voluntary muscle
B. Some particular group of muscles are involved
C. Disappear with Rigor mortis
D. Occur 2-3 hour after death
E. Occur immediately after birth
Ans: ABCE
[Ref: Reddy 27th/143 ; Parikh 6th/3.18-3.19 ]
“Cadaveric spasm: This is usually limited to a single group of voluntary muscles &
frequently involves the hand. Occasionally, the whole body is affected as seen in
soldiers, shot in battle. No other condition simulates cadaveric spasm & it cannot be
produced by any method after death. It passes without interruption into normal rigor
52
mortis & disappears when rigor disappears”- Reddy 27th/143
89. In India law and punishment is in accordance with:
A. Indian panel code
B. Consumer Protection Act
C. Criminal Procedure Code
D. Indian Evidence Act
E. Coroner’s Act
Ans: ABCD
[Ref: Reddy 27th/5 ; Parikh 6th/ 1.5 ]
“Coroner’s Act 1871: in Maharshtra is likely to be repealed soon & the cononer’s
court in Mumbai will then be abolished(It was practice in High Courts of Calcutta and
Bombay)- Parikh 6th/ 1.5
“CORONER’S INQUEST: This is type of inquest done in U.K., some States in
U.S.A., and some other countries, but not in India” - Reddy 27th/5
Legal Procedure Reddy 27th/5,49
• Indian Penal Code(I.P.C) 1860
• Criminal Procedure Code(Cr.P.C) 1973
• Indian Evidence Act(I.E.A) 1872
• Consumer Protection Act(CPA/COPRA)1986 (amended in 2002)
90. As per who protocol, ATT drug C/I in pregnancy :
A. Rifampicin
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin
E. INH
53
Ans: D
[Ref: KDT 6th/ 748-49;Park 21st/ 175 ]
T.B Treament during pregnancy Park 21st/ 175
“During pregnancy, streptomycin can cause permanent deafness in the baby, so
ethambutol should be used instead of streptomycin. Isoniazid, rifampicin,
pyrazinamide & ethambutol are safe to use. Second-line drugs such as
fluoroquinolones,ethionamide & protionamide are tertogenic are tertogenic & should
not be used”
T.B Treament during pregnancy KDT 6th/ 748-49
“The WHO & British Thoracic Society consider H, R & Z to be safe to the foetus &
recommended the standard 6 month (2HRZ+4HR) regimen for pregnant women with
T.B. E can be added during late but not early pregnancy. S is contraindicated”
91. A female of 45 years has taken treatment of category I (DOTS) for 6 months, yet
she is AFB positive. According to DOTS, continuation phase of new treatment
regimen should continue for:
A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 7 months
E. 8 months
Ans: B(5 month)
[Ref: KDT 6th/ 747-48; Park 21st/ 173 ]
“Any patient treated with category I or category III who has a positive smear at 5,6,7
months of treatment should be considered a failure & started on Category II
treatment, afresh”- Park 21st/ 173
Category II treatment: 2(HRZES)3 + 1(HRZE)3
Continuation - 5(HRE)3
54
92. Which ATT is/are safe in chronic liver disease patients :
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
E. Streptomycin
Ans: DE
[Ref: KDT 6th/ 740-45;Park 21st/ 171;Katzung 10th/773-76]
Three drugs can induce hepatitis: Pyrazinamide, INH and Rifampicin (in decreasing
order of frequency).
“Pyrazinamide is C/I in patients with liver disease”- KDT 6th/ 742
“Rifampin imparts a harmless orange color to urine, sweat, tears, and contact lenses
(soft lenses may be permanently stained). Occasional adverse effects include
rashes, thrombocytopenia, and nephritis. It may cause cholestatic jaundice and
occasionally hepatitis.”- Katzung 10th/774
“Ethionamide is also hepatotoxic. Neurologic symptoms may be alleviated by
pyridoxine”- Katzung 10th/776
“Streptomycin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic”- Katzung 10th/775
93. Larvae which travel through lung during its life cycle :
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Necator Americanus
55
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Wuchereria bancrofti microfilarae
Ans:ABC
[Ref :Panikar 6th/ 159 ]
Trichuris trichiura larva pass trough caecum(not lung)- Panikar 6th/167
Confusion about option E Wuchereria bancrofti microfilarae??
“In Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia(occult filariasis), microfilariae and parasite
antigens are rapidly cleared from the bloodstream by the lungs. The clinical
symptoms result from allergic and inflammatory reactions elicited by the cleared
parasites”-Harrison
“Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia(occult filariasis): Microfilariae are not usually
detectable in blood, but lung biopsies have shown microfilarae in some cases. It has
been suggested that in these cases, there is failure in the suppression of immune
response to microfilarae antigens, so that microfilarae are filtered out & destroyed in
the lungs, with allergic inflammatory reactions”- Panikar 6th/204
Larvae that pass through lung during its life cycle
• Ascaris lumbricoides Panikar 6th/190
• A.duodenale Panikar 6th/179
• Necator Americanus Panikar 6th/180
• Echinococcus (Lung acts as 2nd filter) Panikar 6th/151
• Schistosoma hematobium(Lung acts as 2nd filter) Panikar 6th/119
• Paragonimus westermani(Lung flukes) Panikar 6th/135
• Strongyloides Stercoralis Panikar 6th/171
94. Arthropod borne disease is/are:
A. Brucellosis
56
B. Lyme disease
C. Borrelia recurrentis
D. Malaria
E. Plague
Ans:BCDE
[Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/343 ; Park 21st/708]
“Brucellosis is transmitted through ingestion, contact, inhalation or accidental
inoculation”- Ananthanarayan 8th/343
Lyme disease(Borrelia burgdorferi) is transmitted by bite of Ixodid ticks”-
Ananthanarayan 8th/381
95. Tick is a vector for :
A. Crimean Congo fever
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Endemic typhus
E. Scrub typhus
Ans:AB
[Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/406; Park 21st/720-21]
Crimean congo fever is transmitted by tick”- Ananthanarayan 8th/514
96. Diseases caused by cat reading is/are:
A. Bartonella hansellae
B. Bartonella bacilliformis
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Bartonella vinsoni
57
E. Yersinia pestis
Ans:ACE
[Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/ 324,326,411-12;Harrison 18th/ 1314 ]
B. bacilliformis is transmitted by Sandfly bite- Harrison 18th/ 1314
Bartonella vinsoni sub-species arupensis reservoir :Mice Harrison 18th/ 1314
Bartonella vinsoni sub-species berkhoffii reservoir :Domestic dogs, coyotes, gray
foxes Harrison 18th/ 1314
97. Bacillary Angiomatosis occur due to:
A. Mycoplasma
B. Gardenella
C. Bartonella bacilliformis
D. Hemophilus influenza
E. No relation with any above organism
Ans:E
[Ref : Ananthanarayan 8th/ 411-1;Harrison 18th/ 1314 -19 ]
“Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by B. henselae & B. quintana”- Harrison 18th/
1318
“Bartonellosis, or Carrión's disease, is caused by B. bacilliformis. The disease is
characterized by two distinct phases: (1) an acute febrile hematic phase, known as
Oroya fever; and (2) an eruptive phase manifested by cutaneous lesions, known as
verruga peruana”- Harrison 18th/ 1319
98. Single gene disorder(s) is/are:
A. Colon cancer
58
B. Huntingtions disease
C. DMD
D. β- thalassemia
E. Type II DM
Ans: ABCD
[Ref: Robbins 7th/ 150-160,170,181 ,287 ; Harrison 18th/499-505 ]
Diabetes mellitus II is Multifactorial Disorders
• Single Gene Disorders are of two types: (i) that follow classical mendelian
principles of inheritance &(ii) that follow Nonclassic Inheritance
• Classical Type: Mutations involving single genes typically follow one of three
patterns of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked. The
general rules that govern the transmission of single-gene disorders are well known
and are not repeated here.
99. Increased Prothrombin time is/are seen in:
A. Pt on oral anticoagulant
B. Pt with liver disease
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Factor VII deficiency
E. Vit. K deficiency
Ans: All
Prothrombin Time (PT) Robbins 7th/649
• This assay tests the extrinsicQ & common coagulation pathways
A prolonged PT can results from deficiency or dysfunction of factor V, factor VII,
factor X, prothrombin or fibrinogen
59
100. Both B and T cell defect presents in :
A. SCID
B. Common Variable immunodeficiency
C. Wiskot-Aldrich syndrome
D. X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
E. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
Ans: AC
[Ref: Ananthanarayan 8th/156]
Combined immunodeficiency(& T cell defect): Nezelof Syndrome, Ataxia
Telangiectasia, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome & Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
(SCID) Ananthanarayan 8th/156
101. True about Adult polycystic kidney disease :
A. Autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance
B. Most common pattern is One gene mutation
C. Most common pattern is two gene mutation
D. Somatic mutation can also occurs
E. Loss of heterozygosity may occur
Ans:ACDE
[Ref : Harrison 18th/2355-57; CMDT 06/928;Robbins 7th/962-964]
“At least two genes account for this disorder: AD PKD-1 gene on short arm of
chromosome 16 (85-90%) & ADPKD-2 gene on chromosome 4 (10-15%). Other
sporadic cases without these mutations have also been recognized”-CMDT 06/928
Genetic Considerations Harrison 18th/2355
“Over 90% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, with the remainder
likely representing spontaneous mutations. Mutations in the PKD-1 gene on
chromosome 16 (ADPKD-1) account for 85% of cases, whereas mutations in the
60
PKD-2 gene on chromosome 4 (ADPKD-2) represent the remainder. A few families
appear to have a defect at a site that is different from either of these loci. Direct
mutation analysis of isolated cysts suggests there is loss of heterozygosity, whereby
a somatic mutation in the normal "wild-type" allele of a small number of tubular
epithelial cells leads to unregulated clonal proliferation of the cells that ultimately
form the cyst lining”
102. Autosomal Dominant pattern of renal cyst is/are seen in:
A. Cystic renal dysplasia
B. Simple renal cyst
C. Adult polycystic kidney disease
D. Medullary cystic kidney disease
E. Acquired renal cyst
Ans: CD
[Ref : Harrison 18th/ 2356, 17th/1797-1799; Robbins 7th/962-964]
“The medullary cystic kidney diseases (MCKD) generally present in young adults.
Two genetic loci have been defined, both with autosomal dominant transmission ”-
Harrison 18th/ 2359
CYSTIC RENAL DYSPLASIA Robbins 7th/962
This sporadic disorder is due to an abnormality in metanephric differentiation
ACQUIRED (DIALYSIS-ASSOCIATED) CYSTIC DISEASE Robbins 7th/966
SIMPLE CYSTS Robbins 7th/966
These occur as multiple or single, usually cortical, cystic spaces that vary widely in
diameter. They are commonly 1 to 5 cm but may reach 10 cm or more in size.
103. Superior vena cava syndrome is/are commonly seen in :
A. Small cell lung carcinoma
B. Squamous cell lung carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Multiple myeloma
61
E. Scleroderma
Ans: ABC
[Ref: Swartz 8th/562;Robbins 7th/ 544,615,762 ; Harrison 18th/ 742,2266-
67,2762;CMDT06/267,302,475 ]
“Superior mediastinal tumors such as adenocarcinoma of lung, lymphoma, thyroid
carcinoma, thymoma, teratom, synovial cell sarcoma or andiosarcoma accounts for
over 80% of cases of SVC syndrome”- CMDT06/475
“Malignant tumors, such as lung cancer, lymphoma, and metastatic tumors, are
responsible for the majority of SVCS cases. With the expanding use of intravascular
devices (e.g., permanent central venous access catheters, pacemaker/defibrillator
leads), the prevalence of benign causes of SVCS is increasing. Lung cancer,
particularly of small cell and squamous cell histologies, accounts for approximately
85% of all cases of malignant origin. In young adults, malignant lymphoma is a
leading cause of SVCS. Hodgkin's lymphoma involves the mediastinum more
commonly than other lymphomas but rarely causes SVCS”- Harrison 18th/ 2266
104. CHARGE in CHARGE syndrome stands for :
A. C-Choanal atresia
B. H-Heart defects
C. A-Atrial septal defect
D. R-Retardation of growth
E. G- gonadal anomalies
Ans:BD
[Ref :O.P.Ghai 337]
CHARGE : The letters stand for-
C- coloboma of the eye,
H- heart defects,
A-atresia of the nasal choanae(i,e choanal atresia),
62
R- retardation of growth and/or development,
G- genital and/or urinary abnormalities(genitourinary defect), and
E- ear abnormalities and deafness.
105. VACTERAL stands for :
A. V-Vestibular anomalies
B. A-Anal anomalies
C. C-cardiac anomalies
D. TE-tracheaoesophageal anomalies
E. R- Rectal anomalies
Ans:BCD
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 579 ;Nelson 18th/1543 ]
VACTERAL stands for L & B 25th/ 579 en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
V - Vertebral anomalies
A - Anal atresia/anus
C - Cardiovascular anomalies
TE - Tracheoesophageal fistula/trachea
R - Renal (Kidney) and/or radial anomalies
L - Limb defects/limb buds
“VATER/VACTERL (vertebral, anorectal, [cardiac], tracheal, esophageal, renal,
radial, [limb]) syndrome”-Nelson 18th/1543
106. In Hypothyroidism following are seen:
A. Menorrhagia
B. Constipation
C. Warm & moist skin
D. Silky hair
63
E. Hirsutism
Ans:ABDE
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 775 ; Harrison 18th/2919-25;Sabiston 18th/ 926 ]
Warm & moist skin occurs in hyperthyroidism
Adult Hypothyroidism L & B 25th/ 775
The signs of thyroid deficiency are:
• bradycardia;
• cold extremities;
• dry skin and hair;
• periorbital puffiness;
• hoarse voice;
• bradykinesis, slow movements;
• delayed relaxation phase of ankle jerks.
The symptoms are:
• tiredness;
• mental lethargy;
• cold intolerance;
• weight gain;
• constipation;
• menstrual disturbance(menorrhagia)
• carpal tunnel syndrome.
107. Skin tags is/are seen in :
A. Pregnancy
B. Obesity
C. Endocrine disorder
D. Lichen planus
E. DLE
64
Ans:ABC
[Ref : Roxburg 17th/ 283; Neena Khanna 3rd/302-03;Harrison 18th/391,412,2487-
88; www.emedicinehealth.com/skin_tags/article]
“Etiology of skin tags is unknown, but skin tags may be: Familial ,Associated with
obesity”- Neena Khanna 3rd/302
People with diabetes and pregnant women tend to be more prone to skin
tags.www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/67317.php
Skin Tags
• Studies have shown existence of low-risk HPV 6 and 11 in skin tags hinting at a
possible role in its pathogenesis. Acrochorda have been reported to have an
incidence of 46% in the general population. A causal genetic component is thought
to exist.[6] They also are more common in women than men. Rarely, they can be
associated with the Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome, Acromegaly and polycystic ovary
syndrome.
• Risk factors - a risk factor is something which increases the likelihood of developing
a condition or disease. For example, obesity significantly raises the risk of
developing diabetes type 2. Therefore, obesity is a risk factor for diabetes type 2.
Skin tags are more common in:People who are overweight and obese,Pregnant
women - most likely because of the hormones secreted,Individuals with
diabetes.People with the human papilloma virus (low-risk HPV 6 and 11). & Illegal
steroid use - they interfere with the body and muscles, causing the collagen fibers in
the skin to bond, allowing skin tags to be formed.
108. A 6 yr old child has midline neck cystic swelling. D/D of this condition does NOT
includes:
A. Branchial cyst
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Lymphnode enlargement
D. Cystic hygroma
E. Carotid body tumor
65
Ans:ADC
[Ref : S.Das 5th/619;L & B 25th/ 726-29]
Midline cystic swelling: Thyroglossal cyst, enlarged submental LN, Goitre of thyroid
isthmus, Ludwig angina
Lateral Swelling
Carotid triangle: Carotid body tumor, branchial cyst, thyroid swelling
Posterior triangle:Cystic hygroma
109. Catgut is generally prepared from submucosa of :
A. Cat
B. Sheep
C. Human
D. Rabbit
E. Wild boar
Ans:B
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 238 ; Sabiston 18th/271 ; CSDT11th/94 ]
Sheep or cattle: L & B 25th/ 238
Sheep & beef- Sabiston 18th/271
Bovine: CSDT11th/94
110. True bout Typhlitis :
A. Perforation common
66
B. Most common site is ileum
C. CT scan is screening test of choice
D. Bacteria can be isolated from intestine
E. Neutrophil count decreases
Ans: ACDE
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 1211 ;Harrison 18th/1335,2276-77,716 Sabiston 18th/ ; CSDT11th/
750 ; Swartz 8th ]
“Early diagnosis is provided by a high index of suspicion and the use of CT
scanning”
“Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scanning with oral and intravenous contrast
is the preferred examination. The maximum normal colonic wall thickness on CT
scan is 3 mm. When the colon is distended with stool, fluid, or oral contrast, the
normal colonic wall is nearly imperceptible. Pericolonic fat should demonstrate
homogeneous fat attenuation”-
The cecum is almost always affected, and the process often extends into the
ascending colon and terminal ileum
Various bacterial and/or fungal organisms, including gram-negative rods, gram-
positive cocci, anaerobes (eg, Clostridium septicum), and Candida spp, are often
seen infiltrating the bowel wall. Polymicrobial infection is frequent. Only rarely are
inflammatory or leukemic infiltrates identified . Bacteremia or fungemia is also
common, usually with enteric organisms such as Pseudomonas or yeasts such as
Candida
The mortality rate for caecitis can be as high as 40 to 50%, mostly because it is
frequently associated with bowel perforation. Caecitis is diagnosed with a radiograph
CT scan showing thickening of the caecum and "fat stranding"
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111. True about apocrine gland :
A. Secrete odourless hypotonic fluid
B. Provide odour to body
C. Present in axilla & groin
D. Present all over body
E. Suppurative infection of gland cause Hidradenitis suppurativa
Ans: A(?)BCE
[Ref: Neena Khanna 3rd/109,1st/97-98; L & B 25th/1266;Gray’s 40th/153;Nelson
18th/2652]
Not confirmed about hypotonicity!!!
“Bacterial decomposition of apocrine sweat gland accounts for the unpleasant odour
associated with perspiration”- Nelson 18th/2652
“The secretion is initially sterile & odourless, but it undergoes bacterial
decomposition to generate potent odourous, musky compound”- Gray’s 40th/153
In humans, apocrine sweat glands are found only in certain locations of the body: the
axillae (armpits), the areola of the pages , and the genitoanal region. Specialized
types of apocrine sweat glands present on the eyelids are called Moll's glands. Most
of the human body contains eccrine sweat glands. Apocrine sweat glands secrete a
milky, viscous, odourless fluid which only develops a strong odour when it comes
into contact with bacteria on the skin surface.
An important distinction between an eccrine sweat gland and an apocrine sweat
gland structure is that an apocrine sweat gland has a larger lumen. Another
distinction is that apocrine sweat glands secrete a more viscous fluid.
68
112. Tube thoracostomy is indicated in :
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Surgical emphysema
D. Pneumo-hemothorax
E. Pulmonary contusion
Ans:ABD
[Ref : L & B 25th/ ; Sabiston 18th/ 1666-67,495,1672,1669 ; CSDT11th/ ]
Surgical emphysema (subcutaneous trapped air) is a complication of chest drain
insertion, or sometimes of the pneumothorax itself.
Surgical emphysema can form because of poor technique during drain insertion or
because of displacement of the drain such that a side hole near the end of the drain
lies within the subcutaneous tissues.
Surgical emphysema has the clinical characteristic of feeling like 'rice crispies' or
'bubble wrap' on palpation.
“Pulmonary contusion :Management is directed toward maintaining good
oxygenation and adequate pulmonary toilette. Judicious crystalloid infusion is
important to avoid fluid overload and pulmonary edema; however, intravascular
volume depletion should also be avoided to decrease the risk for global ischemia
and multiple organ failure. Patients with persistently low PaO2 who do not respond to
supplemental oxygen, pulmonary toilette, and pain control should be intubated and
mechanically ventilated”- Sabiston 18th/495
A chest tube (chest drain or tube thoracostomy in British medicine or intercostal
drain) is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the side of the chest into the
pleural space. It is used to remove air (pneumothorax) or fluid (pleural
effusion,blood, chyle), or pus (empyema) from the intrathoracic space. It is also
known as a Bülau drain or an intercostal catheter
Indications
69
Pneumothorax: accumulation of air in the pleural space
Pleural effusion: accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
Chylothorax: a collection of lymphatic fluid in the pleural space
Empyema: a pyogenic infection of the pleural space
Hemothorax: accumulation of blood in the pleural space
Hydrothorax: accumulation of serous fluid in the pleural space
Postoperative: for example, thoracotomy, oesophagectomy, cardiac surgery
113. Flail chest means fracture of :
A. 2 Ribs on same side
B. 2 Ribs on 2 side
C. 4 Ribs on 2 sides
D. Cervical or first rib on one side
E. Multiple ribs on both side
Ans:CE
[Ref : L & B 25th/ 343 ; Sabiston 18th/ 496 ; Schwartz 8th ; CSDT11th/ ]
“It is usually results from blunt trauma associated with multiple rib fracture i,e three or
more ribs fractured in two or more places”- L & B 25th/ 343
“Flail chest occurs when four or more ribs are fractured in at least two locations.
Paradoxical movement of this free-floating segment of chest wall may occasionally
be sufficient to compromise ventilation. However, it is of greater physiologic
importance that patients with flail chest frequently have an underlying pulmonary
contusion”-Schwartz 8th
Flail Chest
“By definition, a flail chest occurs in the presence of two or more fractures in three or
more consecutive ribs and causes instability of the chest wall; however, it can also
occur after costochondral separation ( Fig. 20-12 ). Flail chest is characterized by
70
paradoxical motion of the chest wall (inward with inspiration and outward with
expiration). Fractures can be located in the anterior, lateral, or posterior chest wall.
Flail chest occurs in 10% to 15% of patients sustaining major chest trauma, and the
chance of having an intrathoracic injury in this situation increases severalfold. Closed
head injury is the most frequently associated extrathoracic injury, and it contributes
to higher morbidity and mortality rates. Isolated flail chest carries a low mortality rate
in younger patients”- Sabiston 18th/ 496
114. Pulsus paradoxus is/are present in all except:
A. Haemorrhagic shock
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Right ventricular myocardial infarction
D. Cardiac tamponade
E. Severe COPD
Ans: C
[Ref: Harrison 18th/1972]
“Paradoxical pulse occurs not only in cardiac tamponade but also in approximately
one-third of patients with constrictive pericarditis . This physical finding is not
pathognomonic of pericardial disease because it may be observed in some cases of
hypovolemic shock, acute and chronic obstructive airways disease, and pulmonary
embolus”- Harrison 18th/1972
115. Loud S1 is /are present in:
A. MS with pliable valve
B. MS with calcified valve
C. MR
D. AS
E. TR
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Ans: A
[Ref: Harrison 18th/1826;Hurst 12th/261 ;PJM 15th/137]
MS with calcified valve, MR & TR cause soft S1
S1 is normal in AS-O.P.Ghai 7th/418
A loud, late M1 is the hallmark of hemodynamically significant mitral stenosis. When
calcific fixation of the stenotic mitral valve occurs, M1 is soft, and the opening snap is
absent
“AS: The cardiac impulse is heaving and sustained in character, and there may be a
palpable fourth heart sound (S4). An aortic systolic thrill is often present at the base
of the heart. In 80 to 90 percent of adult patients with severe AS, there is an S4
gallop sound, a midsystolic ejection murmur that peaks late in systole, and a single
second heart sound (S2) because A2 and P2 are superimposed or A2 is absent or
soft”- Hurst 12th/261
Intensity of S1
The primary factors determining intensity of S1 are (1) integrity of valve closure, (2)
mobility of the valve, (3) velocity of valve closure, (4) status of ventricular contraction,
(5) transmission characteristics of the thoracic cavity and chest wall, and (6) physical
characteristics of the vibrating structures.
INCOMPLETE QUESTIONS
1. Congenital ear disease classification:
A. Morquis/Marqueate I, II
B. Morquis I, II, III
C. Corp I, II
D. Corp I, II
E. None of above
72
2. Defect in 1st pharyngeal cleft results in :
a.thyroglossal cyst
b.Thyroglossal fistula
c.branchial cyst
d. Loss of sensation from posterior part of tongue
e. Choanal atresia
Ans:
First branchial anomalies
First branchial anomalies represent 1% of all branchial anomalies. Work reports the
following 2 types[1] :
• A type I branchial anomaly is ectodermally derived and is a duplication of the
external auditory canal (EAC). Type I branchial anomalies may manifest posteriorly,
adjacent to the pinna and concha. They may terminate near a bony plate at the level
of the mesotympanum.
• Type II branchial anomalies contain both ectoderm and mesoderm. They are more
common and can originate along the EAC, middle ear cleft, or nasopharynx. Type II
branchial anomalies often manifest with a fistula emanating from the concha, EAC,
or neck, with a tract extending medially and inferiorly to the EAC. They may pass
medial or lateral to the facial nerve and terminate at the level of the anterior border of
the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Often an opening is found in the EAC as well as
below the jaw.
First branchial anomalies do not usually involve the middle ear or tympanic
membrane.
Patients with first branchial anomalies may present with unilateral facial paralysis.
First branchial anomalies may be associated with hemifacial microsomia.
3. Host gene affect disease progression in:
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis B
C. HCV
73
D. HIV
E. P
4. Significance of Biomarker:
A. P
B. C
C. S
D. I
E. G
Provide options??
Ref: Harper
5. Which antiepilepties promotes growth hormone secretion :
A. Phemytoin
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbitone
E. Lacosamide
Lacosamide (INN, formerly known as erlosamide) is a medication developed by UCB
for the adjunctive treatment of partial-onset seizures and diabetic neuropathic pain
marketed under the trade name Vimpat.
6. Drug used for dementia in both disease parkinsonism & Alzeimer’s disease:
A. Donazapril
B. Revastigmine
C. Galantinum
D. Vincosentrin
E. Tacrine
F. Memantine
74
7. Contrast used in MRI :
A. Gadolinium
B. I odine
C. Myodinium
D. Technitium
E. Indium
Ans:A, other?
[Ref ;Bhadury 2nd/177]
The contrast dye used in these MRI Scans is generally gadolinium as complications
are rarer in comparison to the Iodine origin dye used for x-rays and CT scans
8. Hyperdense biconvex feature in CT seen in all except :
A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Extradural hemorrahage
C. Foreign body
D. Intracerebral hemorrhage
E. Hypertensive hemorrhage
9. Prophylactic cranial irradiation given in :
A. AML
B. ALL
C. Small cell Ca of lung
D. Glioblastoma multiforme
E. NHL
10. True about Imaging in gallbladder:
A. Cirrhosis:anteriorly shift
B. Polysplenia:Left shift
75
C. Never beyond superior surface
D. Wandering of gallbladder
11. Increased density of corticospinal tract in T2 MRI seen in:
A. Astrocytoma
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Hemochondromatosis
D. Wilson disease
E. Vascular Infarction
Ans: B?
Cortical motor neurone loss and corticospinal tract (CST) degeneration are typical of
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). It is a matter of debate whether qualitative
assessment of the CST by MRI is useful in the diagnosis. It is also an open question
whether quantitative determination of the T2 relaxation times can improve its value.
Signal intensity along the CST on 14 consecutive slices was assessed using
arbitrary visual rating on double-echo T2-weighted and proton-density spin-echo
images of 21 patients with ALS and 21 age- and sex-matched controls. T2 was
determined quantitatively. On the T2-weighted images the patients' ratings did not
differ from that of controls. The T2 of patients and controls showed no statistical
difference in any slice. There was no correlation between T2 and patient age,
duration of the disease, or predominant bulbar, lower or upper motor neurone signs.
The only correlation between MRI findings and disease was on the proton-density
images: all cases in which the CST was poorly seen were controls; a clearly high-
signal CST was seen only in the patients. High conspicuity of the CST was thus
specific but not sensitive for the diagnosis of ALS. T2-weighted images and
measurement of T2 were not useful for diagnosis.
76
12. Light bulb appearance in CT scan seen in:
a. pheochromocytoma
b.adrenal adenoma
c.adrenal cortical tumor
d. C
e. M
Ans:
[Ref : www.ajronline.org/content/194/6/1450.full]
MRI: Pheochromocytomas and other paragangliomas classically have a "light bulb"
(very intense)
MRI:Typically hemangiomas are homogeneously hypointense relative to the liver on
T1-weighted and markedly hyperintense (lightbulb sign) on T2-weighted images
relative to the liver
Up to 70% of pheochromocytomas show relatively high signal intensity on T2-
weighted images—a feature classically known as the light bulb sign, which was
originally thought to be characteristic of pheochromocytoma [56, 69]. Currently,
however, that description is not considered accurate, with at least 30% of
pheochromocytomas showing moderate or low T2-weighted signal intensity and
appearing similar to other adrenal diseases
13. Complete mole can be differentiated from partial mole by :
A. P57kip2
B. P53
C. P16inkga
D. P63
77
E. PED
Ans: A
ajcp.ascpjournals.org/content/133/2/196.full
The p57(KIP2) gene ( CDKN1C ) is strongly paternally imprinted and expressed from
the maternal allele. Because Complete Mole lacks a maternal genome, p57(KIP2)
immunostaining is correspondingly absent, whereas hydropic abortuses and partial
mole show positive staining
14. 70 yr female undergoing vaginal hysterectomy. The risk factor for post-op
infection :
A. Old age
B. DM
C. HTN
D. Obesity
E. Bacterial vaginosis
15. X-linked agammaglobinemia :
A. 3
B. 3
C. 19
D. A
E. T
What was exact question??
16. Oncogene tyrosine kinase involves :
78
A. PML-BRCA 1
B. BCR-ABL
C. HAAJ
D. JUN
E. NJKKR,JNP
[Ref: Robbins 7th/ 98-100,296-97]
17. what is true about Kerala in relation to India :
a. high literacy rate
b. high doctor/ population ratio
c. high growth rate
d. older age of marriage
e.
18. A 14 yr child restricted eye movements in all directions, ptosis, fatiguability of
proximal muscle myopathy.What is most useful test diagnosis:
A. C PK
B. E MG
C. Endrophonium test
D. Biopsy
E. D
Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia (CPEO), also known as progressive
external ophthalmoplegia (PEO), is a type of eye movement disorder. It is often the
only feature of mitochondrial disease, in which case the term CPEO may be given as
the diagnosis. In other people suffering from mitochondrial disease, CPEO occurs as
part of a syndrome involving more than one part of the body, such as Kearns-Sayre
syndrome. Occasionally CPEO may be caused by conditions other than
mitochondrial diseases.
Diagnosis
It is important to differentiate CPEO from other pathologies that may cause an
79
ophthalmoplegia. There are specific therapies used for these pathologies.
CPEO is diagnosed via muscle biopsy. On examination of muscle fibers stained with
Gömöri trichrome stain, one can see an accumulation of enlarged mitochondria. This
produces a dark red staining of the muscle fibers given the name “ragged red fibers”.
While ragged red fibers are seen in normal aging, amounts in excess of normal
aging give a diagnosis of a mitochondrial myopathy.