(physics, chemistry and mathematics)cv v cc = + c15f2 = μ 13. a particle is moving 5 times as fast...

20
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 300 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472 Answers & Solutions for for for for for JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2 Important Instructions : 1. The test is of 3 hours duration. 2. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300. 3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections. (i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. (ii) Section-II : This section contains 5 SA type questions. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer. (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics) 02/09/2020 Evening

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  • Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 300

    Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

    Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

    Answers & Solutions

    forforforforfor

    JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    Important Instructions :

    1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

    2. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

    3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics

    having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

    (i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question

    carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

    (ii) Section-II : This section contains 5 SA type questions. The answer to each of the questions is a

    numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking for

    wrong answer.

    (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

    02/09/2020

    Evening

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    2

    PART–A : PHYSICS

    SECTION - I

    Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20

    multiple choice questions. Each question has 4

    choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE

    is correct.

    Choose the correct answer :

    1. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the directions

    of electric field and magnetic field are

    represented by k̂ and −ˆ ˆ2i 2 j , respectively.What is the unit vector along direction of

    propagation of the wave?

    (1) +1 ˆ ˆ(i 2 j)5

    (2) +1 ˆˆ( j k)2

    (3) +1 ˆ ˆ(i j)2

    (4) +1 ˆ ˆ(2i j)5

    Answer (3)

    Sol. �C = � �E B×

    = �(i j)

    k2

    −×� �

    =i j

    2

    ⎛ ⎞+⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

    � �

    2. In a Young’s double slit experiment, 16 fringes

    are observed in a certain segment of the

    screen when light of a wavelength 700 nm is

    used. If the wavelength of light is changed to

    400 nm, the number of fringes observed in the

    same segment of the screen would be

    (1) 28 (2) 24

    (3) 30 (4) 18

    Answer (1)

    Sol. N1λ1 = N

    2λ2

    16 × 700 = N2 × 400

    ⇒ N2 = 28

    3. When the temperature of a metal wire is

    increased from 0°C to 10°C, its length

    increases by 0.02%. The percentage change in

    its mass density will be closest to

    (1) 2.3 (2) 0.06

    (3) 0.8 (4) 0.008

    Answer (2)

    Sol.M V

    100 100V V

    Δρ Δρ = ⇒ × = ×ρ

    100 3 T 100Δρ × = αΔ ×ρ ...(i)

    Given 42 10−Δ = ×��

    ⇒ αΔT = 2 × 10–4

    ⇒ α = 2 × 10–5

    From (i), 100Δρ ×ρ

    = 6 × 10–5 × 10 × 100

    = 0.06

    4. An ideal gas in a closed container is slowly

    heated. As its temperature increases, which of

    the following statements are true?

    (A) the mean free path of the molecules

    decreases.

    (B) the mean collision time between the

    molecules decreases.

    (C) the mean free path remains unchanged.

    (D) the mean collision time remains unchanged

    (1) (C) and (D)

    (2) (A) and (D)

    (3) (B) and (C)

    (4) (A) and (B)

    Answer (3)

    Sol. Mean free path is independent of temperature

    and relaxation time decreases as temperature

    increases.

    5. A heat engine is involved with exchange of heat

    of 1915 J, – 40J, + 125 J and –Q J, during one

    cycle achieving an efficiency of 50.0%. The

    value of Q is

    (1) 980 J (2) 40 J

    (3) 400 J (4) 640 J

    Answer (1)

    Sol. η = − Rg

    Q1

    Q

    1 (40 Q)1

    2 (1915 125)

    += −+

    ⇒ Q = 980 J

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    3

    6. In a hydrogen atom the electron makes a

    transition from (n + 1)th level to the nth level.

    If n >> 1, the frequency of radiation emitted is

    proportional to

    (1)1

    n(2) 2

    1

    n

    (3) 31

    n(4) 4

    1

    n

    Answer (3)

    Sol. 0 21

    E En

    = − ×

    ⇒ 0 32

    E E ( n)n

    Δ = − × × Δ

    ⇒ 0 31

    h 2E 1n

    ν = × ×

    ⇒3

    1

    nν ∝

    7. If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken

    to be the fundamental quantities then the

    dimensional formula for energy is

    (1)⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

    1

    –12P AT (2) [P2AT–2]

    (3)⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

    1

    –12PA T (4) [PA–1T–2]

    Answer (3)

    Sol. Energy = Force × Distance

    ⇒ P[Energy] AT

    = ×

    = PT–1A1/2

    8. The displacement time graph of a particle

    executing S.H.M is given in figure (sketch is

    schematic and not to scale)

    OT

    2T

    4

    3T

    4

    5T

    4

    T

    4

    time (s)

    displacement

    Which of the following statements is/are true

    for this motion?

    (A) The force is zero at =3T

    t4

    (B) The acceleration is maximum at t = T

    (C) The speed is maximum at =T

    t4

    (D) The P.E. is equal to K.E. of the oscillation at

    = Tt2

    (1) (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A) and (D)

    (3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (A), (B) and (D)

    Answer (3)

    Sol. At 3T

    t4

    = , particle is at mean position

    ⇒ Force = 0

    At t = T, particle is at extreme position

    ⇒ Acceleration is maximum

    At T

    t4

    = , particle is at mean position

    ⇒ Speed is maximum

    9. The figure shows a region of length ‘l’ with a

    uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in it and a proton

    entering the region with velocity 4 × 105 ms–1

    making an angle 60° with the field. If the proton

    completes 10 revolution by the time it cross the

    region shown, ‘l’ is close to (mass of proton =

    1.67 × 10–27 kg, charge of the proton =

    1.6 × 10–19 C)

    60°

    B

    l

    (1) 0.22 m (2) 0.11 m

    (3) 0.88 m (4) 0.44 m

    Answer (4)

    Sol. (v0 cosθ) × ΔT = l

    and, 2 m

    T 10qB

    πΔ = ×

    ∴27

    5

    19

    1 10 2 1.67 104 10 l

    2 1.6 10 0.3

    −× π× ×× × × =

    × ×

    ⇒ l = 0.44 m

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    4

    10. An inductance coil has a reactance of 100 Ω.When an AC signal of frequency 1000 Hz is

    applied to the coil, the applied voltage leads the

    current by 45°. The self-inductance of the coil is

    (1) 6.7 × 10–7 H (2) 5.5 × 10–5 H

    (3) 1.1 × 10–1 H (4) 1.1 × 10–2 H

    Answer (4)

    Sol. Impedance of coil = 100 Ω

    L45 R X 50 2φ = ° ⇒ = =

    ⇒ 50 2 L= ω×

    ⇒ 250 2L 1.1 10 H2 1000

    −= = ×π×

    Nearest value given is 1.1 × 10–2 H.

    11. A wire carrying current I is bent in the shape

    ABCDEFA as shown, where rectangle ABCDA

    and ADEFA are perpendicular to each other. If

    the sides of the rectangles are of lengths a and

    b, then the magnitude and direction of

    magnetic moment of the loop ABCDEFA is

    (1)⎛ ⎞

    +⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

    ˆĵ 2kabl, along

    5 5

    (2)⎛ ⎞

    +⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

    ˆĵ k2 abl, along

    2 2

    (3)⎛ ⎞

    +⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

    ˆĵ kabl, along

    2 2

    (4)⎛ ⎞

    +⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

    ˆĵ 2k2 abl, along

    5 5

    Answer (2)

    Sol.1 2

    M M M= +� � �

    1ˆM abI j=

    2ˆM abI k=

    ˆĵ kM 2abI

    2 2

    ⎛ ⎞= +⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟

    ⎝ ⎠

    12. A 10 μF capacitor is fully charged to a potentialdifference of 50 V. After removing the source

    voltage it is connected to an uncharged

    capacitor in parallel. Now the potential

    difference across them becomes 20 V. The

    capacitance of the second capacitor is

    (1) 20 μF (2) 10 μF

    (3) 15 μF (4) 30 μF

    Answer (3)

    Sol.1

    final

    1 2

    C VV

    C C=

    +

    2C 15 F= μ

    13. A particle is moving 5 times as fast as an

    electron. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength

    of the particle to that of the electron is 1.878 ×

    10–4. The mass of the particle is close to

    (1) 1.2 × 10–28 kg (2) 9.1 × 10–31 kg

    (3) 4.8 × 10–27 kg (4) 9.7 × 10–28 kg

    Answer (4)

    Sol. 1 2 2

    2 1 1

    m v

    m v

    λ=

    λ

    e

    1 –4

    mm

    5 1.878 10=

    × ×

    –289.7 10 kg= ×

    14. A small point mass carrying some positive

    charge on it, is released from the edge of a

    table. There is a uniform electric field in this

    region in the horizontal direction. Which of the

    following options then correctly describe the

    trajectory of the mass? (Curves are drawn

    schematically and are not to scale).

    x

    y

    E

    (1)

    x

    y

    (2)

    x

    y

    (3)

    x

    y

    (4)

    x

    y

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    5

    Answer (2)

    Sol. ˆ ˆF qEi mgj= +�

    Since initial velocity is zero. It will move in

    straight line.

    15. The height ‘h’ at which the weight of a body will

    be the same as that at the same depth ‘h’ from

    the surface of the earth is (Radius of the earth

    is R and effect of the rotation of the earth is

    neglected)

    (1)5 R -R

    2(2)

    3 R -R

    2

    (3)R

    2(4)

    5R -R

    2

    Answer (1)

    Sol.( )2 2GM GM h

    1–RRh R

    ⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠+

    ( ) ( )23R h R R–h= +

    Solving 5 –1

    h R2

    =

    16. A potentiometer wire PQ of 1 m length is

    connected to a standard cell E1. Another cell E

    2

    of emf 1.02 V is connected with a resistance ‘r’

    and switch S (as shown in figure). With switch

    S open, the null position is obtained at a

    distance of 49 cm from Q. The potential

    gradient in the potentiometer wire is

    Q

    G

    S

    r

    J

    E2

    P

    E1

    (1) 0.04 V/cm (2) 0.01 V/cm

    (3) 0.02 V/cm (4) 0.03 V/cm

    Answer (3)

    Sol. Potential gradient Potential drop

    length=

    1.02 V

    100 – 49 cm=

    V0.02

    cm=

    17. Two uniform circular discs are rotating

    independently in the same direction around

    their common axis passing through their

    centres. The moment of inertia and angular

    velocity of the first disc are 0.1 kg-m2 and 10

    rad s–1 respectively while those for the second

    one are 0.2 kg-m2 and 5 rad s–1 respectively. At

    some instant they get stuck together and start

    rotating as a single system about their common

    axis with some angular speed. The kinetic

    energy of the combined system is

    (1)20

    J3

    (2)5J

    3

    (3)10

    J3

    (4)2J

    3

    Answer (1)

    Sol. (I1 + I

    2)ω = I

    1ω1 + I

    2ω2

    0.1 10 0.2 5

    0.1 0.2

    × + ×ω =+

    20rad/s

    3=

    ( ) 21 21

    K.E. I I2

    = + ω

    20J

    3=

    18. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric

    conducting thin spherical shells radii r and

    R (R > r). If the surface charge densities on the

    two shells are equal, the electric potential at

    the common centre is

    r

    R

    (1)+

    πε +2 20

    1 (R r)Q

    4 (R r )(2)

    +πε +2 20

    1 (R 2r)Q

    4 2(R r )

    (3)+

    πε +2 20

    1 (R r)Q

    4 2(R r )(4)

    +πε +2 20

    1 (2R r)Q

    4 (R r )

    Answer (1)

    Sol. Let charges on shells be q1 and q

    2

    q1 + q

    2 = Q ....(i)

    1 2

    2 2

    q q

    4 r 4 R=

    π π....(ii)

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    6

    We get

    2 2

    1 22 2 2 2

    r Rq Q, q Q

    r R r R= =

    + +

    1 2

    0

    q q1V

    4 r R

    ⎛ ⎞= +⎜ ⎟πε ⎝ ⎠

    ( )( )2 20R r1

    Q4 R r

    +=

    πε +

    19. In the following digital circuit, what will be the

    output at ‘Z’, when the input (A, B) are (1, 0),

    (0, 0), (1, 1,), (0, 1)

    A

    B

    Z

    (1) 1, 1, 0, 1 (2) 0, 0, 1, 0

    (3) 1, 0, 1, 1 (4) 0, 1, 0, 0

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Truth Table

    A B W A.B X A B Y W.X Z W Y

    1 0 1 1 0 0

    0 0 1 0 0 0

    1 1 0 1 0 1

    0 1 1 1 1 0

    = = + = = +

    20. A capillary tube made of glass of radius 0.15

    mm is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with

    methylene iodide (surface tension = 0.05 Nm–1,

    density = 667 kg m–3) which rises to height h in

    the tube. It is observed that the two tangents

    drawn from liquid-glass interfaces (from opp.

    sides of the capillary) make an angle of 60°

    with one another. Then h is close to (g = 10 ms–2)

    (1) 0.049 m (2) 0.087 m

    (3) 0.137 m (4) 0.172 m

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Angle of contact = 30°

    30°

    60°

    2Tcosh

    r g

    θ=ρ –3

    32 0.05

    2

    0.15 10 667 10

    ⎛ ⎞× ×⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟

    ⎝ ⎠=× × ×

    = 0.087 m

    SECTION - II

    Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

    contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is

    a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the

    correct numerical value (in decimal notation,

    truncated/roundedoff to the second decimal place;

    e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) using

    the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad

    in the place designated to enter the answer.

    21. A square shaped hole of side =a

    l2

    is carved

    out at a distance =a

    d2

    from the centre ‘O’ of

    a uniform circular disk of radius a. If the

    distance of the centre of mass of the

    remaining portion from O is a

    –X

    , value of X (to

    the nearest integer) is __________.

    Od

    a

    =l a /2

    Answer (23)

    Sol.

    Let the density is σ

    Then original mass m0 = πa2σ

    Remaining mass 2

    2 2a 4 1m a a

    4 4

    ⎛ ⎞ π −⎛ ⎞′ = π − σ = σ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠

    Removed mass 2

    am

    4= ⋅σ

    σ∴ π σ = ⋅σ× + π −2 2

    2 a a aa (0) (4 1)r4 2 4

    a a ar

    2(4 1) 23.13 23

    − − −⇒ = = ≈

    π −

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    7

    22. A wire of density 9 × 10–3 kg cm–3 is stretched

    between two clamps 1 m apart. The resulting

    strain in the wire is 4.9 × 10–4. The lowest

    frequency of the transverse vibrations in the

    wire is (Young’s modulus of wire = × 10Y 9 10Nm–2), (to the nearest integer), __________.

    Answer (35)

    Sol.m

    m Al Al

    ⎛ ⎞= σ ∴ μ = = σ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

    Now,T

    v =μ

    andT

    Y (strain)A

    =

    ⇒T

    vA

    ⇒ 10 4T

    9 10 4.9 10A

    −= × × ×

    ∴10 4

    3

    9 10 4.9 10v

    9 10

    −× × ×=×

    ⇒ v = 70 m/s

    ∴ 0v 70

    f 35 Hz2L 2 1

    = = =×

    23. A particle of mass m is moving along the x-axis

    with initial velocity ˆu i . It collides elastically

    with a particle of mass 10 m at rest and then

    moves with half its initial kinetic energy

    (see figure). If θ = θ1 2

    sin nsin then value of n

    is _________.m

    10 m

    θ2

    θ1

    10 mˆuim

    Answer (10)

    Sol. m

    θ2

    10 m

    ˆuim x

    y

    θ1

    Since energy of m reduced by half ∴ 1u

    u2

    =

    and

    221 1

    1 1 u u10 m v m v

    2 2 2 20× ⋅ = ⇒ =

    Now, momentum in y direction will remain

    conserved

    ∴ mu1sinθ

    1 = 10mv

    1sinθ

    2

    ⇒ 1 2u u

    sin 10 sin2 20

    θ = θ

    ⇒1 2sin 10 sinθ = θ

    24. An ideal cell of emf 10 V is connected in circuit

    shown in figure. Each resistance is 2 Ω. Thepotential difference (in V) across the capacitor

    when it is fully charged is ______.

    10 V

    R1

    C

    R5

    R4

    R3

    R2

    Answer (8)

    Sol.

    2

    2

    2 Am

    2

    2

    A B

    1 Am

    3 A

    10 V

    2

    After solving the circuit we got the final current

    distribution as shown in the above diagram. So

    potential difference between A and B is

    0 + (2 × 3) + (2 × 1) = 8 volt

    25. A light ray enters a solid glass sphere of

    refractive index = 3μ at an angle of incidence60°. The ray is both reflected and refracted at

    the farther surface of the sphere. The angle (in

    degrees) between the reflected and refracted

    rays at this surface is _____.

    Answer (90)

    Sol.

    i′S

    TR

    rr

    r

    P60°

    Q

    O

    QR is reflected ray and QS is refracted ray. QT

    is tangent and OQ is normal.

    Now, μ.sin60° = 3 sinr

    ⇒3

    2sinr2

    = ⇒ 1

    sinr r 302

    = ∴ = °

    Yet again 3 sinr = sini′ ∴ i′ = 60°

    ∴ Angle between QR and QS ⇒ (∠RQS) = 90°

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

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    PART–B : CHEMISTRY

    SECTION - I

    Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20

    multiple choice questions. Each question has 4

    choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE

    is correct.

    Choose the correct answer :

    1. Consider the reaction sequence given below:

    BrOH

    H O2

    OH + Br

    rate = k[t-BuBr]

    ...(1)

    OH

    C H OH2 5 H C2

    CH3

    CH3

    + HOH + Br

    rate = k[t-BuBr][OH ]

    ...(2)

    Which of the following statements is true?

    (1) Changing the concentration of base will

    have no effect on reaction (2)

    (2) Changing the concentration of base will

    have no effect on reaction (1)

    (3) Changing the base from OH to OR will

    have no effect on reaction (2)

    (4) Doubling the concentration of base will

    double the rate of both the reactions

    Answer (2)

    Sol. For reaction 1

    rate = K [t-BuBr] ...(1)

    for reaction 2

    rate = K[t-BuBr][OH–] ...(2)

    Reaction 1 is independent of concentration of

    OH– where as reaction 2 is dependent on

    concentration of OH–

    Hence changing the concentration of base will

    have no effect on reaction 1

    2. Two elements A and B have similar chemical

    properties. They don’t form solid

    hydrogencarbonates, but react with nitrogen to

    form nitrides. A and B, respectively, are

    (1) Li and Mg

    (2) Cs and Ba

    (3) Na and Rb

    (4) Na and Ca

    Answer (1)

    Sol. – Solid hydrogencarbonates are not formed

    by lithium and magnesium.

    – 6Li + N2 2Li

    3N

    – 3Mg + N2 Mg

    3N

    2

    3. The major product obtained from

    2

    E elimination of 3-bromo-2-fluoropentane is

    (1) CH CH – CH – CH = CH 3 2 2

    Br

    (2) CH – CH = CH – CH – CH3 3

    F

    (3) CH CH CH = C – F3 2

    CH3

    (4) CH – CH – C = CH – CH3 2 3

    Br

    Answer (3)

    Sol. Base abstracts most acidic hydrogen and

    departure of better leaving group takes place

    simultaneously.

    CH – CH – CHCHCH3 2 3

    Br F

    Base

    E2

    CH – CH – CH = C – CH3 2 3

    F

    4. Cast iron is used for the manufacture of

    (1) wrought iron, pig iron and steel

    (2) pig iron, scrap iron and steel

    (3) wrought iron and pig iron

    (4) wrought iron and steel

    Answer (4)

    Sol. Cast iron is used for the manufacture of

    wrought iron and steel.

    5. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period

    of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and Z,

    respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic.

    The correct order of the atomic numbers of X,

    Y and Z is

    (1) X < Z < Y

    (2) Y < X < Z

    (3) Z < Y < X

    (4) X < Y < Z

    Answer (4)

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

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    Sol. In periodic table in a period on moving from left

    to right as atomic number increases the nature

    of oxide follows the order basic, amphoteric

    and acidic i.e., oxide of X is basic, oxide of Y

    amphoteric oxide of Z is acidic

    Hence atomic number follows the order

    Z > Y > X

    6. Arrange the following labelled hydrogens in

    decreasing order of acidity

    NO2

    C C – H a

    COO H b

    O – H C

    d H – O

    (1) b > c > d > a

    (2) b > a > c > d

    (3) c > b > d > a

    (4) c > b > a > d

    Answer (1)

    Sol. b > c > d > a

    7. The number of subshells associated with n = 4

    and m = –2 quantum numbers is

    (1) 2

    (2) 8

    (3) 4

    (4) 16

    Answer (1)

    Sol. 2 subshells are associated with n = 4 and

    m = –2.

    8. If you spill a chemical toilet cleaning liquid on

    your hand, your first aid would be

    (1) aqueous NaOH

    (2) aqueous NaHCO3

    (3) aqueous NH3

    (4) vinegar

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Aqueous NaHCO3 is used as the first aid.

    NaHCO3 is basic and not harmful.

    9. Simplified absorption spectra of three

    complexes ((i), (ii) and (iii)) of Mn+ ion are

    provided below; their max

    values are marked as

    A, B and C respectively. The correct match

    between the complexes and their max

    values is

    AB

    C

    Absorp

    tion

    max

    Wavelength (nm)

    max

    max

    (i) [M(NCS)6](–6 + n)

    (ii) [MF6](–6 + n)

    (iii) [M(NH3)

    6]n+

    (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)

    (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)

    (3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)

    (4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)

    Answer (4)

    Sol. (max

    )C

    > (max

    )B > (

    max)A

    From spectrochemical series

    F– < NCS– < NH3

    A - iii, B - i, C - ii

    10. The size of a raw mango shrinks to a much

    smaller size when kept in a concentrated salt

    solution. Which one of the following processes

    can explain this?

    (1) Osmosis

    (2) Reverse osmosis

    (3) Diffusion

    (4) Dialysis

    Answer (1)

    Sol. Osmosis can explain the given process. There

    are many phenomena which we observed in

    nature or at home. Raw mango shrivel when

    pickled in brine.

    The solvent molecules will flow through the

    membrane from pure solvent to the solution.

    This process of flow of the solvent is called

    osmosis.

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    11. Match the type of interaction in column A with

    the distance dependence of their interaction

    energy in column B

    A B

    (i) ion-ion (a)1

    r

    (ii) dipole-dipole (b) 21

    r

    (iii) London dispersion (c) 31

    r

    (d) 61

    r

    (1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d)

    (2) (I)-(b), (II)-(d), (III)-(c)

    (3) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c)

    (4) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)

    Answer (4)

    Sol. Ion-ion interaction energy 1

    r

    Dipole-dipole interaction energy 31

    r

    London dispersion 61

    r

    [Reference — NCERT (Page-137)]

    12. The one that is not expected to show isomerism

    is

    (1) [Pt(NH3)

    2Cl

    2]

    (2) [Ni(NH3)

    4 (H

    2O)

    2]2+

    (3) [Ni(en)3]2+

    (4) [Ni(NH3)

    2Cl

    2]

    Answer (4)

    Sol. [Ni(NH3)

    2Cl

    2]

    Ni2+ d8 sp3 hybridisation

    Tetrahedral complex

    [Ni(NH3)2Cl

    2] cannot show isomerism.

    [Pt(NH3)2Cl

    2] dsp2 shows geometrical

    isomerism

    [Ni(NH3)4(H

    2O)

    2]2+ Octahedral show

    geometrical isomerism

    [Ni(en)3]2+ Octahedral shows optical

    isomerism

    13. The results given in the below table were

    obtained during kinetic studies of the following

    reaction

    2 A + B C + D

    –1 –1 –1 –1

    –3

    –2

    –2

    –2

    –1

    [A] / [B] / Initial rate /Experiment

    molL molL molL min

    I 0.1 0.1 6.00 10

    II 0.1 0.2 2.40 10

    III 0.2 0.1 1.20 10

    IV X 0.2 7.20 10

    V 0.3 Y 2.88 10

    X and Y in the given table are respectively

    (1) 0.4, 0.3

    (2) 0.3, 0.4

    (3) 0.4, 0.4

    (4) 0.3, 0.3

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Rate = k[A]a [B]b

    6 × 10–3 = k(0.1)a (0.1)b ...(1)

    2.4 × 10–3 = k(0.1)a (0.2)b ...(2)

    1.2 × 10–3 = k(0.2)a (0.1)b ...(3)

    Solving eq (1), (2) and (3), we get

    a = 1, b = 2

    6 × 10–3 = k(0.1)1 (0.1)2 from (1)

    k = 6

    7.2 × 10–2 = 6(x)1 (0.2)2 x = 0.3

    2.88 × 10–2 = 6(0.3)1 (y)2 y = 0.4

    14. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral.

    What is the geometry of SF4 (including lone

    pair(s) of electrons, if any)?

    (1) Tetrahedral

    (2) Trigonal bipyramidal

    (3) Square planar

    (4) Pyramidal

    Answer (2)

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    Sol. SF4

    Bond pair = 4

    Lone pair = 1

    Steric Number = 5

    Hybridisation sp d3

    S

    F

    F

    F

    F

    Geometry Triagonal bipyramidal

    Shape See saw

    15. Amongst the following statements regarding

    adsorption, those that are valid are

    (a) H becomes less negative as adsorptionproceeds

    (b) On a given adsorbent, ammonia is

    adsorbed more than nitrogen gas

    (c) On adsorption, the residual force acting

    along the surface of the adsorbent

    increases

    (d) With increase in temperature, the

    equilibrium concentration of adsorbate

    increases

    (1) (c) and (d)

    (2) (a) and (b)

    (3) (d) and (a)

    (4) (b) and (c)

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Because of polar nature of NH3, it can be

    easily liquified as well as easily adsorbed as

    compared with non-polar N2 gas.

    H becomes, less negative as the adsorptionproceeds.

    16. Two compounds A and B with same molecular

    formula (C3H

    6O) undergo Grignard’s reaction

    with methylmagnesium bromide to give

    products C and D. Products C and D show

    following chemical tests.

    Test C D

    Ceric

    ammonium Positive Positive

    nitrate Test

    TurbidityTurbidity

    obtainedLucas Test obtained

    after fiveimmediately

    minutes

    Iodoform Test Positive Negative

    C and D respectively are

    (1) C = H C – CH – CH – CH3 2 3

    OH

    D = H C – C – OH3

    CH3

    CH3

    ;

    (2) C = H C – CH – CH – CH – OH3 2 2 2

    D = H C – CH – CH – CH 3 2 3

    OH

    ;

    (3) C = H C – CH – CH – CH – OH3 2 2 2

    D = H C – C – OH3

    CH3

    CH3

    ;

    (4) C = H C – C – OH;3

    CH3

    CH3

    D = H C – CH – CH – CH 3 2 3

    OH

    Answer (1)

    Sol.3 2 3

    OH|

    CH —CH —CH—CH can give positive CAN

    test, iodoform test, and with Lucas reagent it

    takes 5 minutes to give turbidity.

    3

    3

    3

    CH

    |CH —C— OH

    |CH

    can not give iodoform test

    but can give CAN test and Lucas test.

    17. The shape / structure of [XeF5]– and XeO

    3F

    2,

    respectively, are

    (1) Pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal

    (2) Trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal

    planar

    (3) Octahedral and square pyramidal

    (4) Trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal

    bipyramidal

    Answer (1)

    Sol. [XeF5]– is Pentagonal planar

    XeO3F

    2 is trigonal Pyramidal.

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    18. An organic compound ‘A’ (C9H

    10O) when treated

    with conc. HI undergoes cleavage to yield

    compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. ‘B’ gives yellow

    precipitate with AgNO3 where as ‘C’

    tautomerizes to ‘D’. ‘D’ gives positive iodoform

    test. ‘A’ could be

    (1) O – CH = CH – CH3

    (2) O – CH = CH2H C3

    (3) CH – O – CH = CH2 2

    (4) O – CH – CH = CH2 2

    Answer (3)

    Sol. CH2

    O CH CH2

    HI

    CH2

    I CH2

    CH OH

    Tautomerise

    CH3

    CHO

    +

    can give yellow ppt with AgI

    can give iodoform test

    19. The major product of the following reaction is:

    OH

    NO2

    CH3conc. HNO + conc.

    3

    H SO2 4

    (1)

    OH

    NO2

    H C3

    O N2

    (2)

    OH

    NO2

    H C3

    NO2

    (3)

    OH

    NO2

    H C3 NO

    2

    (4)

    OH

    NO2

    H C3 NO

    2

    NO2

    Answer (2)

    Sol.

    OH

    H C3

    NO2

    conc. HNO3

    +

    conc. H SO2 4

    OH

    H C3

    NO2

    NO2

    Position of electrophilic attack is directed by

    the electron donating group present in ring

    20. The correct observation in the following

    reactions is :

    Sucrose Glycosidic bond

    Cleavage (Hydrolysis)

    A + BSeliwanoff's

    reagent?

    (1) Gives no colour

    (2) Formation of red colour

    (3) Formation of violet colour

    (4) Formation of blue colour

    Answer (2)

    Sol.

    Seliwanoff’sreagent

    Red colour will

    be observed

    HydrolysisSucrose Glucose Fructose

    Ketose with seliwanoff’s reagent gives red

    colour. It is a specific test for ketose.

    SECTION - II

    Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

    contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is

    a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the

    correct numerical value (in decimal notation,

    truncated/roundedoff to the second decimal place;

    e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) using

    the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad

    in the place designated to enter the answer.

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    21. The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in

    K2Cr

    2O

    7, KMnO

    4 and K

    2FeO

    4, respectively, are

    x, y and z. The sum of x, y and z is _______.

    Answer (19)

    Sol.1 x 2

    2 72K Cr O

    2 + 2x – 14 = 0 x = +6

    y1 2

    4KMnO

    1 + y – 8 = 0 y = +7

    1 z 2

    2 4K FeO

    2 + z – 8 = 0 z = +6

    x + y + z = 6 + 7 + 6 = 19

    22. The work function of sodium metal is

    4.41 × 10–19 J. If photons of wavelength 300 nm

    are incident on the metal, the kinetic energy of

    the ejected electrons will be (h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s;

    c = 3 × 108 m/s) ________ × 10–21 J.

    Answer (222)

    Sol. w, work function of sodium metal

    = 4.41 × 10–19 J

    , wavelength of incident light = 300 nm

    = 3 × 10–7 m

    According to photoelectric effect

    hcw KE

    34 8

    19

    7

    6.63 10 3 104.41 10 KE

    3 10

    6.63 × 10–19 = 4.41 × 10–19 + KE

    KE = 2.22 × 10–19 J = 222 × 10–21 J

    23. The heat of combustion of ethanol into carbon

    dioxide and water is – 327 kcal at constant

    pressure. The heat evolved (in cal) at constant

    volume and 27°C (if all gases behave ideally) is

    (R = 2 cal mol–`1 K–1) ________.

    Answer (–326400)

    Sol. C2H

    5OH (l) + 3O

    2(g) 2CO

    2(g) + 3H

    2O(l)

    H = –327 kcal; ng = – 1

    H = U + ngRT

    U = – 327 + 2 × 10–3 × 300

    = – 326.4 kcal

    = – 326400 cal

    24. For the disproportionation reaction

    2Cu+(aq) � Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) at 298 K. ln K

    (where K is the equilibrium constant) is

    ___________ × 10–1.

    Given :

    20Cu /Cu

    E 0.16 V

    0Cu /Cu

    E 0.52 V

    RT0.025

    F

    Answer (144)

    Sol. 2 Cu+(aq) � Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq)

    2

    0

    Cu /CuE 0.16 V ;

    0

    Cu /CuE 0.52 V

    2

    0 0 0cell

    Cu /Cu Cu /CuE E – E

    = 0.52 – 0.16 = 0.36 V

    0cell

    RTE ln K

    nF

    10.36ln K 14.4 144 10

    0.025

    25. The ratio of the mass percentages of ‘C & H’

    and ‘C & O’ of a saturated acyclic organic

    compound ‘X’ are 4 : 1 and 3 : 4 respectively.

    Then, the moles of oxygen gas required for

    complete combustion of two moles of organic

    compound ‘X’ is ________.

    Answer (5)

    Sol. Let the masses of C, H and O in organic

    compound X be x, y and z respectively

    Mass Moles

    C x 4 12 1

    H y 1 3 3

    O z16

    316 1

    Empirical formula : CH3O

    Molecular formula : C2H

    6O

    2

    2 6 2 2 2 2(X)

    2C H O 5O 4CO 6H O

    Number of moles of O2 required to oxidise

    2 moles of (X) = 5.

    �����

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    PART–C : MATHEMATICS

    SECTION - I

    Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20

    multiple choice questions. Each question has

    4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE

    is correct.

    Choose the correct answer :

    1. Let a, b, c R be all non-zero and satisfya3 + b3 + c3 = 2. If the matrix

    a b c

    A b c a

    c a b

    satisfies ATA = I, then a value of abc can be :

    (1) 3 (2)13

    (3)1

    –3

    (4)23

    Answer (2*)

    Sol. AAT = I |A| = 1

    |A| = 3abc – (a3 + b3 + c3) = ±1

    {a3 + b3 + c3 = 2}

    3abc = 3 or 1

    1

    abc or 13

    * For the data given in the question, there existno real numbers a, b and c; because

    AAT = I a2 + b2 + c2 = 1 and ab + bc + ca = 0also a3 + b3 + c3 = 2 leads to no solutions.

    2. The imaginary part of

    1 1

    2 23 2 –54 – 3 – 2 –54 can be :

    (1) 6 (2) – 6

    (3) –2 6 (4) 6

    Answer (3)

    Sol. Let 3 6 6 i a ib

    a2 – b2 = 3 and ab 3 6 a2 + b2 = 15

    So, a = ±3 and b = ± 6

    3 + 6 6 i = ± 3 + 6 i

    Similarly, 3 – 6 6 i = ± 3 – 6 i

    Im 3 + 6 6 i – 3 – 6 6 i = ±2 63. Let A = {X = (x, y, z)T : PX = 0 and x2 + y2 + z2 =

    1}, where

    1 2 1

    P 2 3 4 ,

    1 9 1

    then the set A :

    (1) is an empty set.

    (2) contains more than two elements.

    (3) contains exactly two elements.

    (4) is a singleton.

    Answer (3)

    Sol. det(P) = 0

    So the system has infinitely many solutions.

    All solution lies on the line of intersection ofplanes

    x + 2y + z = 0, –2x + 3y – 4z = 0 and x + 9y – z =0

    ˆˆ ˆi j kˆˆ ˆ1 2 1 = – 11i 2 j 7k

    –2 3 –4

    So, x = –11 , y = 2, z = 7

    x2 + y2 + z2 = 1

    2 = 1

    174 = ±

    1

    174

    Two values of gives two triplets of (x, y, z)

    4. For some 0, ,

    2

    if the eccentricity of the

    hyperbola, x2 – y2sec2 = 10 is 5 times theeccentricity of the ellipse, x2sec2 + y2 = 5, thenthe length of the latus rectum of the ellipse, is :

    (1) 2 6 (2)2 5

    3

    (3)4 5

    3(4) 30

    Answer (3)

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    Sol.2 2 2

    e2

    x y cosE : 5 e 1 sin

    1 1cos

    2 22

    H2

    x yH : – 10 e = 1 + cos

    1 cos

    2 2H e1

    e = 5 e 1 + cos = 5sin sin =3

    Length of latus rectum of ellipse = 22a

    b

    22(5cos )=

    5

    = 2 4 5

    2 53 3

    5. The set of all possible values of in the interval(0, ) for which the points (1, 2) and (sin, cos)lie on the same side of the linex + y = 1 is :

    (1) 0, 2

    (2)3

    ,4 4

    (3) 0, 4

    (4)3

    0,4

    Answer (1)

    Sol. Let f(x, y) = x + y – 1

    f(1, 2).f(sin, cos) > 0

    2 sin + cos – 1 0 > sin+ cos > 1

    1

    sin +4 2

    3

    + ,4 4 4

    0,2

    6. Which of the following is a tautology?

    (1) (~ p)(p q) q

    (2) (~ q)(p q) q

    (3) (p q)(q p)

    (4) (q p)~ (p q)

    Answer (1)

    Sol. Truth table

    P

    T

    T

    F

    F

    q

    T

    F

    T

    F

    ~p

    F

    F

    T

    T

    p q

    T

    T

    T

    F

    (~p) (p q) q

    T

    T

    T

    T

    (~p) (p q)

    F

    F

    T

    F

    ~p (p q) q be a tautology

    7. The equation of the normal to the curve

    y = (1 + x)2y + cos2(sin–1x) at x = 0 is :

    (1) y = 4x + 2 (2) y + 4x = 2

    (3) x + 4y = 8 (4) 2y + x = 4

    Answer (3)

    Sol. y = (1 + x)2y + cos2 (sin–1x) ...(1)

    On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x we get

    dydx

    2y(1 + x)2y–1 + (1 + x)2y ln(1 + x).

    12

    sin 2sin xdy2

    dx 1 x

    ...(2)

    When x = 0 then y = (1 + 0)2y + cos2(0) = 2

    When x = 0 and y = 2 then

    dy4 0 0 4

    dx

    Slope of normal at x = 0 is 14

    Equation of normal : 1

    y 2 (x 0)4

    x + 4y = 8

    8. If the sum of first 11 terms of an A.P., a1, a2, a3,... is 0 (a1 0), then the sum of the A.P., a1, a3,a5, ..., a23 is ka1, where k is equal to :

    (1)121

    –10

    (2)72

    –5

    (3)725

    (4)12110

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Let common difference be d.

    a1 + a2 + a3 + ... + a11 = 0

    111

    2a 10.d 02

    a1 + 5d = 0

    1a

    d5

    ...(1)

    Now a1 + a3 + a5 + ... + a23= a1 + (a1 + 2d) + (a1 + 4d) + ... + (a1 + 22d)

    = 12a1 + 2d 11 12

    2

    = 11a

    12 a 11.5

    = 16

    12 a5

    = 172

    a5

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    9. Let f(x) be a quadratic polynomial such thatf(–1) + f(2) = 0. If one of the roots of f(x) = 0 is3, then its other root lies in :

    (1) (–1, 0) (2) (–3, –1)

    (3) (0, 1) (4) (1, 3)

    Answer (1)

    Sol. Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c

    Let roots are 3 and

    and f(–1) + f(2) = 0

    4a + 2b + c + a – b + c = 0

    5a + b + 2c = 0 ...(i)

    f(3) = 0 9a + 3b + c = 0 ...(ii)From equation (i) and (ii)

    a b c a b c1– 6 18 – 5 15 – 9 –5 13 6

    f(x) = k(–5x2 + 13x + 6)

    = –k(5x + 2)(x – 3)

    Roots are 3 and 2

    –5

    2

    –5

    lies in interval (–1, 0)

    10. Consider a region 2 2R = {(x, y) R : x y 2x}.

    if a line y = divides the area of region R intotwo equal parts, then which of the following istrue?

    (1) 23 – 8 + 8 = 0

    (2) 3 3/2– 6 – 16 = 0

    (3) 2 3/23 – 8 + 8 = 0

    (4) 3 2– 6 + 16 = 0 Answer (3)

    Sol. According to given condition

    xx

    y

    O

    y = x2

    y = 2x

    (2, 4)y =

    y

    4

    0

    y yy dy y dy

    2 2

    443/2 2 3/2 2

    00

    y y y y3 34 42 2

    2 2

    3/2 3/22 2 8 43 4 3 4

    23/24 4

    3 2 3

    3/2 28 3 8

    2 3/23 8 8 0 11. Let n > 2 be an integer. Suppose that there are

    n Metro stations in a city located along acircular path. Each pair of stations isconnected by a straight track only. Further,each pair of nearest stations is connected byblue line, whereas all remaining pairs ofstations are connected by red line. If thenumber of red lines is 99 times the number ofblue lines, then the value of n is :

    (1) 199 (2) 201

    (3) 101 (4) 200

    Answer (2)

    Sol. Number of two consecutive stations = n

    Number of two non-consecutive stations = 2Cn – n

    Now, According to the question,

    2Cn – n 99n

    n n – 1

    – 100n = 02

    n – 1 – 200 = 0

    n = 201

    12. Let S be the sum of the first 9 terms of theseries :

    {x + ka} + {x2 + (k + 2)a} + {x3 + (k + 4)a}+ {x4 + (k + 6)a} + ... where a 0 and x 1.

    If 10x x+ 45a(x 1)

    S ,x – 1

    then k is equal to :

    (1) –3 (2) 1

    (3) –5 (4) 3

    Answer (1)

    Sol. Seires (x + ka) + (x2 + (k + 2)a) + ...... 9 terms

    S = (x + x2 + x3 + ...... 9 terms) + a[k +(k + 2)+ (k + 4) + .... 9 terms]

    9x x – 1 9

    S = + 2ak + 8 × (+2a)x – 1 2

    1010 x + 45a x – 1x – x 9ka + 72a

    S = + = x – 1 1 x – 1

    (given)

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    10 10x – x + 9a k + 8 x – 1 x – x + 45a x – 1

    = x – 1 x – 1

    9a(k + 8) = 45a

    k + 8 = 5

    k = – 3

    13. Let EC denote the complement of an event E.Let E1, E2 and E3 be any pairwise independentevents with P(E1) > 0 and P(E1 E2 E3) = 0.

    Then P( C2E C3E /E1) is equal to :

    (1) C C3 2P E P E (2) C2 3P E P E(3) C3 2P E P E (4) C3 2P E P E

    Answer (4)

    Sol. Here

    C CC C 1 2 32 3

    1 1

    P E E EE EP =

    E P E

    1 1 2 2 3 1 2 3

    1

    P E – P E E + P E E – P E E E=

    P E

    1 1 2 2 3

    1

    P E – P E E – P E E + 0=

    P E

    = 1 – P(E2) – P(E3)

    = C C2 3 3 2P E – P E or P E – P E14. A plane passing through the point (3, 1, 1)

    contains two lines whose direction ratios are1, –2, 2 and 2, 3, –1 respectively. If this planealso passes through the point (, –3, 5), then is equal to :

    (1) 5 (2) 10

    (3) –10 (4) –5

    Answer (1)

    Sol. The equation of plane passing through (3, 1, 1) is-

    a(x – 3) + b (y – 1) + c(z – 1) = 0 ... (i)

    This plane contains the lines having drs(1, –2, 2) & (2, 3, –1)

    so,

    a – 2b + 2c = 0

    2a + 3b – c = 0 a b ca b c = = = =

    2 – 6 – –1– 4 3 + 4–2 2 1 2 1 –2 a b c = = 23 –1 2 –1 3–4 5 7

    So, equation of plane is

    –4(x – 3) + 5(y – 1) + 7(z – 1) = 0

    –4x + 12 + 5y – 5 + 7z – 7 = 0

    –4x + 5y + 7z = 0

    This also passes through (, –3, 5)

    So, –4 – 15 + 35 = 0

    –4 = –20

    = 5

    15. Let ƒ : R R be a function which satisfies

    ƒ(x + y) = ƒ(x) + ƒ(y) x, y R . If ƒ(1) = 2 and

    n 1

    k 1

    g(n) ƒ(k), n N then the value of n, for

    which g(n) = 20, is :

    (1) 20 (2) 9

    (3) 5 (4) 4

    Answer (3)

    Sol. f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), x, y R, f 1 2=

    f(x) = 2x

    Now, g(n) = n–1

    k 1

    f k

    = f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + .......f(n – 1)

    = 2 + 4 + 6 + ...... +2(n – 1)

    = 2[1 + 2 + 3 + ..... +(n – 1)]

    2n – 1 n= 2 × n – n2

    So, n2 – n = 20 (given)

    n2 – n –20 = 0

    (n – 5)(n + 4) = 0

    n 5

    16.

    1x

    x 0lim tan x

    4 is equal to :

    (1) e2 (2) 1

    (3) e (4) 2

    Answer (1)

    Sol.1/x

    x 0

    1 tanxlim

    1 tanx

    x 01 tanx (1 tanx) 1

    lim1 tanx xe

    x 02 tanx 1

    lim21 tanx xe e

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    18

    17. Let f : (–1, ) R be defined by f(0) = 1 and

    e1

    f(x) log (1 x), x 0.x

    Then the function f :

    (1) increases in (–1, )

    (2) increases in (–1, 0) and decreases in (0, )

    (3) decreases in (–1, 0) and increases in (0, )

    (4) decreases in (–1, )

    Answer (4)

    Sol.2

    xln(1 x)

    1 xf (x)x

    2x (1 x)ln(1 x)

    0 x ( 1, ) 0(1 x)x

    [ as g(x) = x – (1 + x)ln (1 + x) gives g(x) < g(0)for x (–1, 0) and g(x) < g(0) for x (0, )]

    18. If the equation cos4 + sin4 + = 0 has realsolutions for , then lies in the interval

    (1)

    1–1, –

    2(2)

    3 5– , –

    2 4

    (3)

    1 1– , –

    2 4(4)

    5– , – 1

    4

    Answer (1)

    Sol. sin4 + cos4 = –

    1 – 2sin2 cos2 = –

    2(sin2 )

    12

    as sin22 [0, 1]

    1

    1,2

    19. If a curve y = ƒ(x), passing through the point (1,2), is the solution of the differential equation,

    2x2dy = (2xy + y2)dx, then 1

    ƒ2

    is equal to :

    (1)e

    11 log 2

    (2)e

    11 log 2

    (3) 1 + loge2 (4)e

    11 log 2

    Answer (1)

    Sol.2

    2

    dy 2xy ydx 2x

    Put y = vx

    2dv vv x v

    dx 2

    2dv dx

    2xv

    2

    lnx cv

    2x

    lnx cy

    (1, 2) c = –1

    2xlnx 1

    y

    Hence, for 1

    x2

    1

    y1 ln2

    20. The area (in sq. units) of an equilateral triangleinscribed in the parabola y2 = 8x, with one of itsvertices on the vertex of this parabola, is :

    (1) 64 3 (2) 256 3

    (3) 128 3 (4) 192 3

    Answer (4)

    Let A = (2t2, 4t)

    B (2t2, 4t) (by symmetry as equilateraltriangle)

    Sol.

    (0, 0)

    A(2t , 4t)2

    B(2t , –4t)2

    O

    for equilateral triangle (angle at O is 60º)

    2

    4t 1t 2 3

    32t

    Area 1

    .8(2 3).2.24 192 32

    SECTION - II

    Numerical Value Type Questions: This sectioncontains 5 questions. The answer to each question isa NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter thecorrect numerical value (in decimal notation,truncated/roundedoff to the second decimal place;e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) usingthe mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypadin the place designated to enter the answer.

    21. If

    6

    –1

    k = 1

    3 4y k cos coskx – sinkx ,

    5 5 then

    dy at x = 0 is

    dx________.

    Answer (91)

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    19

    Sol.6

    –1

    k = 1

    3 4y k cos coskx – sinkx

    5 5

    Let 3 4

    cos and sin5 5

    6

    –1

    k = 1

    y k cos {coscoskx – sinsinkx}

    6

    –1

    k = 1

    k cos cos kx

    6 6

    2

    k = 1 k = 1

    k kx k x k

    6 2k 1

    dy 6 7 13k 91

    dx 6

    22. Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or

    equal to t. Then the value of 2

    1| 2x – [3x]| dx

    is ______.

    Answer (1)

    Sol. 2

    1| 2x – [3x]| dx

    21

    3x x dx

    21

    x 3x dx

    2 21 1

    xdx 3x dx

    13

    0

    4 13 3xdx

    2

    3 11

    2 2

    23. For a positive integer n, n1

    1 +x

    is expanded

    in increasing powers of x. If three consecutivecoefficients in this expansion are in the ratio, 2: 5 : 12, then n is equal to ____.

    Answer (118)

    Sol. n n nr 1 r r 1C : C : C 2 : 5 : 12

    n n

    r r 1n n

    r 1 r

    C C5 12and

    2 5C C

    n r 1 5 n r 12

    andr 2 r 1 5

    2n – 7r + 2 = 0 and 5n – 17r – 12 = 0

    Solving; x = 118, r = 34

    24. If the variance of the terms in an increasingA.P., b1, b2, b3, ..., b11 is 90, then the commondifference of this A.P. is ________.

    Answer (3)

    Sol. Variance

    211 112i i

    i 1 i 1

    b b

    11 11

    210 10

    21 1

    r 0 r 0

    b rd b rd

    11 11

    2 21 1

    10 11 10 11 2111b 2b d d

    2 611

    2

    110 11

    11b d2

    11

    22 2 21 1 1b 10b d 35d b 5d 10d Variance = 90

    10d2 = 90

    d = 3

    25. Let the position vectors of points ‘A’ and ‘B’ be

    ˆˆ ˆi + j+k and ˆˆ ˆ2i + j+3k, respectively. A point ‘P’

    divides the line segment AB internally in theratio : 1 ( > 0). If O is the origin and

    2OB.OP 3 OA×OP 6,

    then is equal to

    ________.

    Answer (0.8)

    Sol. Let position vector of P is b a

    OP1

    P B(1, 1, 1) (2, 1, 3)

    : 1

    Given 2

    OB OP 3 OA OP 6

    2

    b a b ab 3 a 6

    1 1

  • JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

    20

    2 2 2

    2

    a b b 3a b 6

    1 1

    ˆˆ ˆa b 2i j k

    2

    2

    6 14 186

    1 1

    2

    2

    8 186 6

    1 1

    Let t1

    18t2 – 8t = 0

    4t 0,

    9

    4

    1 9

    4

    0.85

    Que & Sol_JEE(Main)-2020_Phase-2_02-09-2020_Evening_Physics_FinalQue & Sol_JEE(Main)-2020_Phase-2_02-09-2020_Evening_Chemistry_FinalQue & Sol_JEE(M)-2020_P-II (02-09-2020) Evening_Maths