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Sample Paper (Medical) Aakash Talent Quest 2017

1

Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017(((((for Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Students)))))

SECTION-A : PHYSICS

(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and

pattern of questions that will be asked in ATQ 2017)

1. A stone is dropped into lake from a tower 500 m

high. The sound of splash will be heard by a man on

the tower after released approximately (speed of

sound = 330 m/s)

(1) 21 s (2) 10 s

(3) 11.5 s (4) 14 s

2. An aeroplane is moving on a circular path with a

speed 300 km/h. What is the magnitude of change

in velocity in half revolution?

(1) Zero (2) 600 km/h

(3) 300 km/h (4) 300 2 km/h

3. Choose correct statement

(1) Linear momentum is always conserved

(2) An external force is required to keep a body in

motion

(3) Inertia is equal to mass so its unit is kg

(4) Newton’s laws are applicable in inertial frames

4. In the given system, tension (T) in the string is

(assume pulley and string are light)

2 kg

3 kg

TT

(1) 12 N

(2) 24 N

(3) 6 N

(4) 8 N

5. A bomb of mass 10 kg explodes into two pieces of

masses 4 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of 6 kg mass

is 2 m/s, then kinetic energy of the other mass is

(1) 27 J

(2) 12 J

(3) 9 J

(4) 18 J

6. A sonometer wire is divided into 3 segments. If the

fundamental frequencies of these segments are f1,

f2 and f

3 respectively, then the fundamental frequency

of entire wire will be (when it oscillates in one

segment)

(1)

1 2 3

1 1 1 1

f f f f

(2)2 2 2 2

1 2 3

1 1 1 1

f f f f

(3)1 2 3

1 1 1 1

f f f f

(4)1 2 3

3

f f ff


Aakash Talent Quest 2017 Sample Paper (Medical)

2

7. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a

height 6R from earth surface, where R is the radius

of earth. The time period of an other satellite at a

height 2.5R from earth’s surface, is

(1) 12 2 h (2) 3 2 h

(3) 8 2 h (4) 6 2 h

8. Frequency of vibration of a particle in SHM is f.

Frequency of its acceleration is

(1) 2f (2) f

(3)2

f(4) 3f

9. A particle is projected at some angle from vertical

in ground to ground projectile such that its horizontal

range is 4 3 time the height attained by the

projectile, then is

(1) 45° (2) 30°

(3) 90° (4) 60°

10. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If K.E. of

rotation is 40% of K.E. of translation, then body is

(1) Ring (2) Disc

(3) Solid sphere (4) Hollow sphere

11. A charge Q0 is enclosed by three different surfaces

as shown.

Q0

Surface

Area = 2S

Surface

Area = 3S

Surface

Area = 4S

Q0

Q0

1. 2. 3.

The electric flux coming out from these surfaces are

1,

2,

3 then

(1)1 2 3

(2)1 2 3

(3)1 3

22

(4) 2 3

4

3

12. In the given circuit potential difference between

points A and B is equal to

6 F3 F

6 F3 F A

B

12 V

(1) 4 volt (2) Zero

(3) 6 volt (4) 2 volt

13. Three point charges Q, 6 C and 6 C are kept at

corners of a right angle isosceles triangle as shown

in the figure. If electrical potential energy of the

system is zero, then the value of Q is nearly

Q

r

r6 C6 C

(1) –1.5 C

(2) –2.5 C

(3) –3.5 C

(4) 2.5 C



3

14. The current I in the circuit shown below is

2 A

4 A10 A

8 A I

(1) 22 A

(2) 20 A

(3) 14 A

(4) 16 A

15. A current I is flowing through a uniform circular loop

of radius R as shown in figure. Magnetic field at its

centre O is

150°R

R OI

I

(1)0

3

2

I

R

(2)0

3

I

R

(3)0I

R

(4) Zero

16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with uniform

speed v. It produces magnetic field B at the centre.

The radius of the electronic orbit is proportional to

(1)B

v(2)

v

B

(3)v

B(4)

B

v

17. Magnetic field in a region around a coil changes

according to the graph in figure. The magnitude of

emf induced in the coil is

1 2 3 4 5t (s)

B(mT)

O

(1) Maximum at t = 0.5 s

(2) Maximum at t = 2 s

(3) Maximum at t = 4 s

(4) Equal at t = 0.5 s and t = 4 s

18. For an ideal transformer having NS

/ NP = 50, as

shown in figure, the current in the secondary open

coil is (If current in primary coil is 5 A)

NS

NP

50 Hz

200 V

(1) 100 mA (2) 250 mA

(3) 200 mA (4) Zero

19. For a series LCR circuit having capacitance C = 64 F

and inductor L = 4 H. The value of Q factor is to be

kept 50 then required resistance should be

(1) 50 (2) 5

(3) 7.5 (4) 10

20. The value of shunt which allows only 20% of main

current through a galvanometer of resistance 80 is

(1) 40 (2) 16

(3) 20 (4) 320



4

21. Consider the following reaction

CH3 — CH = CH

2 + Cl

2

800 K X + HCl

Identify the product X in the given reaction.

(1) CH3CH

2CH

2Cl

(2) CH — CH — CH3 2

Cl

Cl

(3) CH2Cl — CH = CH

2

(4) CH — CH — CH2 2

ClClCl

22. Which of the following will not give a primary amine?

(1) 2Br , KOH

3 2CH CONH

(2) 4LiAlH

3CH CN

(3) 4LiAlH

3CH NC

(4) 4LiAlH

3 2CH CONH

23. Specific rotation of -D-glucose is

(1) –54° (2) –111.9°

(3) +54° (4) +111.9°

24. The most stable free radical is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

CH

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY

25. The major product of the following reaction is

PhONa

dimethyl formamide

F

BrH C3

NO2

(1)

F

H C3

NO2

OPh

(2)

F

H C3

NO2

OPh

(3)

OPh

H C3

NO2

Br

(4)

OPh

H C3

NO2

OPh

26. A compound C3H

6O gives positive iodoform test but

negative silver mirror test. It was reacted with

hydroxylamine to form oxime. Compound must be

(1) CH2=CH–CH

2–OH

(2) CH –C–3

CH3

–

O

–

(3) CH –CH C–3 2

– H

–

O

–

(4)



5

27.

Cl

Br

+ Mg(1eq.)THF

A BCH COOH

3

A and B respectively are

(1)

Cl

MgBr

,

Cl

(2)

Cl

MgBr

,

Cl

COCH3

(3)

MgCl

Br

,

COCH3

Br

(4)

MgCl

Br

,

Br

28. Which of the following will be most readily

dehydrated?

(1)

OH

O

(2)

O

(3)O OH

(4)

O

29. KI in acetone undergoes SN2 reaction with each P,

Q, R and S. The rate of the reaction vary as

(P) H3C – Cl

(Q) Cl

(R)Cl

(S)Cl

O

(1) P > R > Q > S

(2) R > P > S > Q

(3) P > Q > R > S

(4) S > P > R > Q

30. Which of the following is/are polyamide?

(1) Nylon 2, 6

(2) Nylon 6, 6

(3) Proteins

(4) All of these

31. C

R1

R2 Cl

HS 2

N [X]

Compound X is obtained with

(1) Retention of configuration

(2) Inversion of configuration

(3) Racemic mixture

(4) All of these



6

32. Formation of polyethene from calcium carbide, takes

place as follows

CaC2 + 2H

2O Ca(OH)

2 + C

2H

2

C2H

2 + H

2 C

2H

4

nC2H

4 (CH – CH )

2 2 n––

The mass of CaC2 required to produce 28 kg of

polyethene is

(1) 32 kg (2) 64 kg

(3) 32 g (4) 64 g

33. The radius of second Bohr’s orbit for He+ ion will be

(1) 52.9 pm (2) 26.45 pm

(3) 105.8 pm (4) 211.6 pm

34. Pressure of a mixture of 4 g He and 8 g O2

confined

in a bulb of 10 litres at 27°C is

(1) 3.08 atm

(2) 6.16 atm

(3) 1.54 atm

(4) 2.06 atm

35. The entropy change involved in the isothermal

reversible expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas from

a volume of 10 dm3 at 27°C is to a volume of

100 dm3 is

(1) 42.3 J mol–1K–1

(2) 38.3 J mol–1K–1

(3) 19.15 J mol–1K–1

(4) 57.45 J mol–1K–1

36. Two solutions having pH 2 and 3 are mixed in a ratio

of 2 : 3 by volume. What is the pH of resulting

solution?

(1) 1.6 (2) 2.33

(3) 2.5 (4) 5.8

37. In the balanced chemical reaction

–2 –

4 2 2 2aSO bI cH dI eSO fH O

The values of a, b, c and d are respectively

(1) 1, 2, 4, 1

(2) 1, 1, 2, 4

(3) 1, 1, 2, 1

(4) 1, 2, 3, 4

38. Rate of effusion of LPG (a mixture of n-butane and

propane) is 1.25 times than that of SO3

under similar

conditions of temperature and pressure. Mole fraction

of n-butane in LPG is

(1) 0.25

(2) 0.51

(3) 0.75

(4) 0.85

39. Which statement is correct at Equilibrium?

(1) G = –2.303RT log Kc

(2) G° = –2.303RT log Kc

(3) G = 2.303T log Kc

(4) G° = 2.303T log Kc

40. At 25° C, the equilibrium constants for the reactions

are

3 2 2 12NH (g) N (g) 3H (g); K��⇀

↽��

2 2 3 2

1 3 1N (g) N NH ; K

4 4 2 ��⇀

↽��

Which of the following is correct relation between

K1 and K

2?

(1) K1 = 2

2

1

K(2) K

1 = 4

2

1

K

(3) K1 = K

2

2 (4) K1 = K

2

4



7

41. Which of the following is correct, if IA and IB alleles

are present together in an individual?

(1) Only A type of sugar is present on RBC surface

(2) Only B type of sugar is present on RBC surface

(3) Both A and B type of sugars are present on

RBC surface

(4) No sugar is present on RBC surface

42. A man with blood group AB marries a woman with

blood group B. This couple cannot have a child of

blood group

(1) A (2) B

(3) AB (4) O

43. In case of co-dominance, the F1-progeny

(1) Resembles both parents

(2) Resembles dominant parent only

(3) Resembles recessive parent only

(4) Have an intermediate phenotype

44. Which of the following statements are correct

regarding Erwin Chargaff’s rule?

a. A + G = T + C

b. The value of A+G/T+C varies from species to

species

c. Base ratio of A+T/C+G is less than one in

eukaryotes

d. Deoxy-ribose sugar and phosphate residues

occur in equal number in DNA

(1) Only a, b & c

(2) Only a & d

(3) Only c & d

(4) Only a & c

45. Choose the correct role of iron in the plants

(1) Splitting of water to liberate oxygen during

photosynthesis

(2) Helps in synthesis of coenzyme-A

(3) Helps in the formation of chlorophyll

(4) Helps in the formation of mitotic spindle

46. Select the statement which is incorrect for cells

given below in hypothetical arrangement.

OP = 10

DPD = 7

S = –8

TP = 3

S = –3

= –6w

A

B

C

(1) Cell A receives water from both cells i.e., from C

& B

(2) Cell C has more free water molecules

(3) Water potential of cell A is higher than other two

cells

(4) Water potential of cell A is –7 bars

47. Find out the correct statement

(1) Dark reaction is not directly dependent on light

(2) CO2 is required in all major steps of Calvin or C

2

cycle

(3) Sugarcane is more efficient in CO2 fixation than

maize

(4) Agranal chloroplast is found in mesophyll cell of

C4 plants

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY



8

48. Which of the respiratory substrate consumes more

O2 for oxidation by releasing less CO

2?

(1) OAA

(2) Malic acid

(3) Palmitic acid

(4) Sucrose

49. The phytohormone which plays major role in

development, maturation and inducing seed

dormancy is

(1) GA

(2) C2H

4

(3) ABA

(4) Cytokinin

50. Nutrient mobilisation in plants and _____ in leaf

senescence are the role of _____

(1) Delay, Auxin

(2) Promotion, GA

(3) Delay, Cytokinin

(4) Promotion, auxin

51. If the gene gun is used to transfer the gene of

interest, the most suitable competent host must be

(1) E. coli

(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(3) Arabidopsis thaliana

(4) Caenorhabditis elegans

52. Bt cotton, a transgenic crop is resistant to

(1) Cotton boll worm belonging to order Coleoptera

of insecta

(2) Helicoverpa armigera belonging to order

Lepidoptera of insecta

(3) Army worm of order Diptera of insecta

(4) Cotton boll worm belonging to order

Hymenoptera of Insecta

53. In the accompanying diagram of a human nephron,

the functional parts are labelled as A, B, C, D, E.

A

B

C

D

E

Study the diagram to answer the questions given

P : Active secretion of H+ and K+ into the filtrate,

occurs in which parts of nephron?

Q : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water is a

function of which part of nephron?

R : Reabsorption of water is maximum in which

segment?

Choose the correct option.

P Q R

(1) B, D C E

(2) A, B, C C E

(3) B, D, E D B

(4) A, D, E E C

54. Select the correct match of hormone listed, its

source and function.

Glucagon -cells ofpancreas

Increases blood glucose levels

Vasopressin

ACTH

LH

Hypothalamus Increases diuresis

Anterior lobe of pituitary

Stimulates synthesis andsecretion ofglucocorticoidsfrom adrenalcortex

Hypothalamus Stimulates gonadal activity

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Hormone Source Function



9

55. By the end of the first trimester, which of the

following has occurred in the foetus?

(1) The first movements of the foetus and the

appearance of hair on the head.

(2) The foetus starts using lungs to breathe.

(3) Organs of foetus have begun to form, the limbs

and external genitalia are well developed

(4) Embryo’s heart is formed and the body is

covered with fine hair

56. Higher number of RBCs in the blood of a mountain

dweller in comparison to a person residing in plains

can be explained by

(1) Lack of pollutants in higher mountainous regions

(2) Less 2O

P in atmospheric air in mountains

stimulates erythropoiesis to supply the required

amount of O2 to tissues

(3) Better nutrition intake of mountain dwellers

(4) Enhanced erythropoiesis in mountain dwellers

due to high exposure to UV rays

57. Anemia in a person indicates the lack of secretion

from

(1) Peptic cells of stomach

(2) Islets of pancreas

(3) Oxyntic cells of stomach

(4) Crypts of the duodenum

58. Find out the incorrect option w.r.t. the first heart

sound.

(1) It is lubb, a low pitch sound

(2) It marks the onset of ventricular systole

(3) Associated with the closure of the tricuspid and

bicuspid valves

(4) It lasts for short duration and can be properly

heard by a stethoscope

59. The lens and cornea do not have blood supply, so

the nutrients are supplied to them by

(1) Retina (2) Aqueous humor

(3) Vitreous humor (4) Blind spot

60. Identify the correct option from the given information:

A. Red muscle fibres have high content of

myoglobin.

B. The white muscle fibres do not get fatigued.

C. Cardiac muscles have long refractory period.

D. Mg2+ dependent ATPase activity is present in

the myosin head.

E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases the stored

Ca2+, which binds with calcium binding site of

tropomyosin on actin filaments.

(1) A, B, C, D are correct but E is incorrect

(2) B & E are incorrect while A, C & D are correct

(3) A & C are correct statements where as B, D &

E are incorrect

(4) D is the only incorrect statement while A, B, C

& E are the correct statements

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