polity material for ssc

8/12/2019 Polity Material For ssc

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Cut Off for various Exams

1) FCI Assistant cut-off is expected to be around 90-95.

2) The result of Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner(APFC) conducted by UPSC on 23 rd

September 2012 is expected to come out in 1st week of January. The expected cut-off is 65-70.

The result will be out on upsc.gov.in

Posted 30th December 2012by punit ranjan

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DEC

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Bank Related G.K. (important for Clerk and PO Interview)

BANKING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

21

DEC

Polity Material for SSC exams

Indian Polity

1. Idea for a Constituent Assembly for drafting a constitution for India was first provided by Bal Gangadhar

Tilakin 1895.

2. The elections for the first Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Initially it had 389 members, but

later the reformed Assembly had 324 members.

3. The State of Hyderabad did not participate in elections to the Constituent Assembly.

4. The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946 its president was Dr

Sachidanand Sinha.

18

DEC

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Name: Batch:

Time: 45 mins

1. On the recommendation of which committee was NABARD established?

(a) Shivraman (b) Rangarajan

(c) Malegam (d) Vijay Kelkar

2. Swabhiman, the financial inclusion scheme, comes under the purview of which ministry?(a) Ministry of Commerce (b) Ministry of Home

Affairs

(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Ministry of External

Affairs

3. RBI was established on ___________.

(a) April 1, 1925 (b) April 1, 1935

(c) April 1, 1945 (d) April 1, 1955

4. The one-rupee note bears the signature of____________.

(a) RBI Governor (b) Deputy Governor

(c) Finance Secretary (d) Finance Minister

5. Which among the following does the RBI not decide?

(a) CAR (b) CRR (c) BaseRate (d) Bank Rate

6. What does T in RTGS stand for?

(a) Transaction (b) Transfer (c) Tax (d) Time

7. In banking, IFSC code stands for_________________.

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(a) International Format System Code

(b) Indian Function System Code

(c) International Forex System Code

(d) Indian Financial System Code

8. If a customer does not get a satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within

_____ days, then he can approach the Banking Ombudsman.(a) 60 (b) 90 (c) 30 (d) 15

9. Which of the following organizations is the Mutual Fund Market regulator?

(a) AMFI (b) SEBI (c) CIBIL (d) CRISIL

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding RTGS system?

(a) The transactions take place in real time

(b) The system operates on DNS (Deferred Net Settlement) basis

(c) The minimum amount that can be remitted is Rs. 2 lakh

(d) Service charges for RTGS transactions vary from one bank to another

11. Banks have recently launched a service through which money can be transferred using

mobile phones. This service is known as

(a) MMTF (Mobile Money Transfer Facility)

(b) MTMT (Mobile To Mobile Transfer)

(c) IMPS (Inter Bank Mobile Payment Service)

(d) IBMPS (Internet Banking Mobile Payment Service)

12. Which among the following is at times mentioned as a kind of Direct Debit Facility?
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(a) ECS (b) RTGS (c) IMPS (d) UTR

13. The discounting rate at which RBI borrows government securities from commercial banks

is known as

(a) Repo Rate (b) Reverse Repo

(c) Deposit Rate (d) Base Rate

14. Which among the following is an instrument of monetary policy used by the RBI?

(a) Base Rate (b) PLR (c) CRR (d) BPLR

15. Which among the following statements is incorrect in the context of IMPS?

(a) Its a mobile-to-mobile fund transfer facility

(b) For this facility we need a GPS-enabled mobile phone

(c) Both the sender and the receiver must have an account in the same bank

(d) Both the customers must have an MMID (Mobile Money Identifier Number) number

16. ________is the organization that maintains the borrowers history in India.

(a) CRISIL (b) CIBIL (c) CARE (d) RBI

17. RBI has directed commercial banks to resolve ATM transaction-related complaints within

seven working days. If a commercial bank is unable to do so then it has to pay

Rs.________per day as compensation.(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 225

18. RTGS as well as NEFT uses:

(a) UTR Number (b) MICR (c) IFSC (d) DNS

19. Which of the following statement is incorrect about SEBI?


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(a) SEBI is a capital market regulator

(b) SEBI is the mutual fund regulator

(c) SEBI also regulates the credit rating agencies in India

(d) None of them is wrong

20. What does liquidity mean?(a) It means how cash is converted into gold

(b) It means how cheaply and quickly an asset is converted into cash

(c) It means how cash is converted into SDR (Special Drawing Rights)

(d) It means how uncertain the money market conditions are

21. SWIFT is a commonly used acronym in the banking industry. The I in SWIFT stands

for_____________.

(a) Interbank (b) International

(c) Intercom (d) Indian

22. What does the term Open Market Operations refer to?

(a) Selling of equities in the open market

(b) Selling of commodities in the open market(c) Buying and selling of government securities in the open market

(d) Buying and selling of products in the wholesale market

23. Under which act does RBI issue directives to banks?

(a) PMLA Act, 2002 (b) RBI Act, 1934

(c) DICGC Act, 1961 (d) Banking Regulation Act, 1949


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24. Which committee recommended the change in the base year of the Wholesale Price

Index?

(a) Narsimhan committee (b) Vijay Kelkar committee

(c) Srikrishna committee (d) Abhijit Sen committee

25. ____________is the base year of the New Consumer Price Index Series.

(a) 2009 (b) 2008 (c) 2006 (d) 2010

26. __________________isnt a method of measurement of National Income.

(a) Value-added method (b) Income method

(c) Investment method (d) Expenditure method

27. With which among the following countries has India signed a Comprehensive Economic

Partnership Agreement (CEPA)?

(a) Japan (b) Singapore

(c) Malaysia (d) France

28. In India, the commercial banks are required to provide_______% of their ANBC (Adjusted

Net Bank Credit) to priority sector.

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) 40

29. What does FSDC stand for?

(a) Financial Security and Development Council

(b) Financial Stability and Development Council


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(c) Fiscal Security and Development Council

(d) Fiscal Stability and Development Council

30. ___________________has been declared the first total banking state in India,

successfully implementing the total financial inclusion thereby ensuring banking facility to all

households.

(a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala

(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand

31. Since April 1, 2012__________has become the validity of cheques and bank drafts.

(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 4 months (d) 6 months

32. On what basis is Ad Valorem Tax levied?(a) Volume (b) Value (c) Imports (d) Exports

33. RBI is coming up with the concept of____________to protect banks against possible

harmful effects arising from the operations of their non-banking financial subsidiaries.

(a) Financial Holding Company

(b) Bank Holding Company

(c) Bureau of Credit Union(d) Financial Institutions Audit Cell

34. RBI has introduced Marginal Standing Facility with the objective of:

(a) Controlling Inflation

(b) Containing instability in long term inter-bank rates

(c) Containing instability in the overnight inter-bank rates


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(d) All of the above

35. _____________are the beneficiaries of the Reverse Mortgage Scheme.

(a) Government employees (b) Senior citizens

(c) Unemployed persons (d) Persons of BPL category

36. RBI was nationalized in the year(a) 1949 (b) 1952 (c) 1955 (d) 1964

37. Which of the following is/are associated with the fiscal policy?

1. Marginal Standing Facility 2. Devaluation of Currency 3. Market Stabilization Scheme

(a) 1 & 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 2 & 3 (d) Only 2

38. When was Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) started in

India?(a)1990 (b)1996 (c)1992 (d)1998

39. National income of India is estimated by

(a) NCAER (b) Ministry of Statistics

(c) Central Statistical Office (d) Ministry of Finance

40. What is understood by Fiduciary Issue of currency?(a) The issue of currency notes without keeping gold or silver as deposit

(b) The issue of currency notes keeping gold or silver as deposit

(c) The issue of currency notes with partial gold or silver deposits

(d) The issue of currency notes with comparative gold or silver deposits

41. _____________is the percentage of total deposits of a bank which it has to keep


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with itself in the form of liquid assets.

(a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

(c) Statutory Reserve Ratio (d) Cash Ratio

42. The exchange rate in India is dependent upon: 1. Government policy 2. Demand-

supply forces 3. Monetary policy objectives

(a) Only 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 1 & 2 (d) 1, 2 & 3

43. Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) is a/an ________.

(a) Money Market Instrument (b) Instrument of Monetary Policy

(c) Type of Risk Cover (d) Stock Market Instrument

44. Often, we read in newspapers that the RBI has changed the Repo rate and the

Reverse Repo rate by a few basis points. What is a basis point?

(a) Ten % of one hundredth point (b) One hundredth of 1%

(c) One tenth of 1% (d) Ten % of 100

45. Banks generally dont pay interest on money deposited in which of the following

accounts?

(a) Savings account (b) Current account

(c) Fixed deposit account (d) None of these

46. Fiat Money is defined as the money which is

(a) Accepted internationally

(b) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold

(c) Issued by keeping gold or silver as deposit

(d) Decreed as money by the government


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47. Demand-pull inflation can be caused by which of the following?

(a) A decline in consumption expenditure

(b) A sharp increase in lending rates

(c) A steep decline in income tax

(d) An increase in direct taxation

48. For obtaining which among the following does a customer not require a bankaccount?

(a) A loan (b) A cheque

(c) A bankers draft (d) A credit card

49. RBI isnt expected to perform the role of

(a) Acting as a clearing house

(b) Working as a banker to the government

(c) Managing forex(d) Accepting deposits from general public

50. For paying which among the following will a bank standing order be suitable?

(a) Telephone bills (b) Electricity bills

(c) Grocery bills (d) Mortgage repayments

51. A bank draft can be defined as a/an(a) Letter from commercial bank

(b) Cheque drawn on the bank itself

(c) Direction to a banker to collect a customers debt

(d) Instruction to dishonour a stop payment

52. When RBI sells government securities, its result is that


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(a) The liquidity in the banking system increases

(b) The liquidity in the banking system remains unchanged

(c) The liquidity in the banking system gets diminished

(d) None of the above

53. It has been made mandatory for NBFCs to get themselves registered with

before July 8, 1997.(a) RBI (b) SEBI

(c) Ministry of Finance (d) CBDT

54. Which of the following is not an instrument in the hands of the RBI to check

inflation in our country?

(a) Open Market Operations (OMO) (b) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)

(c) Bank Rate (BR) (d) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

55. In India, which among the following is/are a part of Legal Tender Money?

(a) Both coins and currency notes

(b) Both coins and bank drafts

(c) Both currency notes and SDRs

(d) Only currency notes issued by RBI

56. __________has become the first state in India to launch RBIs e- payment system for

commercial tax payers.

(a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra

57. In which among the following types occurs the Interest Rate Risk?

(a) Credit risk (b) Market risk


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(c) Operational risk (d) All the above

58. Which among the following is true regarding Forex (Foreign Exchange) markets?

(a) Foreign exchange markets are a type of localized markets

(b) Foreign exchange markets operate within the time zone of region

(c) Foreign exchange markets are dynamic and round-the-clock markets

(d) Foreign exchange markets are used only for business transactions

59. Securities Trading Corporation of India Limited (STCI) has been promoted jointly by

__________and Public sector Banks.

(a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) SIDBI (d) ICICI Ltd

60. ____________is an agreement under which an issuing bank at the request of the importer

undertakes to make payment to the exporter against certain specified documents.

(a) Bill of exchange (b) Letter of exchange(c) Letter of credit (d) Bill of entry

61. ____________is the duty applied by a government to control the exports of an article of

trade, so that the article of trade can be used by the local markets rather than in foreign

countries.

(a) Customs duty (b) Excise duty

(c) Anti-dumping duty (d) Dumping duty62. ____________________finalizes the market-borrowing programmes of state

governments in India.

(a) State governments (b) RBI

(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Planning Commission


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63. Which among the following is not incorrect?

(a) Money market provides long term source of finance

(b) Recession in the industrial sector in India is normally due to a fall in exports

(c) Ways and means advances given by RBI are nowhere related to the states

revenue

(d) Exchange rate is fixed by RBI

64. We have read in the newspapers that the Government of India has signed a DTAA to

broaden the scope of article of exchange of information to include exchange of banking

information. What does DTAA stand for?

(a) Double taxation article agreement

(b) Double taxation avoidance agreement

(c) Double taxation avoidance arrangements

(d) Dual tax agreement arrangement

65. Which of the statements mentioned below is/are correct?

1. T-bills are issued by the Government of India on behalf of the RBI

2. T-bills are short-term money market instruments

3. T-bills cannot be purchased by a resident of India

(a) All are correct (b) 2 & 3 are correct

(c) Only 2 is correct (d) Only 3 is correct

66. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(a) Reverse Repurchase operation by RBI is aimed at increasing the liquidity in the

banking system

(b) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are issued by IMF

(c) Rupee appreciation results in decrease in imports

(d) Increase in the inflation rate leads to decline in real interest rate


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67. What purpose does the MICR number, which is present on a cheque, serve?

(a) It is used to identify the genuineness of the cheque

(b) It is used to identify the bank branch

(c) It is nothing but a type of cheque number

(d) Both (a) and (b)

68. In TRIPS, what does I stand for?

(a) Intellectual (b) Information (c) Indian (d) Infra

69. Insurance companies use the bank sales channels to sell their products. Which of the

following terms describes this selling process?

(a) Scheduled banking (b) Scheduled Insurance

(c) Bankinsuring (d) Bancassurance

70. Which of the following acts is useful in controlling HAWALA transactions?

(a) FEMA Act (b) RBI Act

(c) DICGC Act (d) Banking Regulation Act

71. What does the term SME stand for?

(a) Small and Micro Enterprises (b) Small and Medium Enterprises

(c) State and Medium Economy (d) Small and Medium Economy

72. CAMELS is a type of Bank Rating System. In CAMELS, what does C stand for?

(a) Currency (b) Compensation

(c) Capital Adequacy (d) Capitalization

73. A Eurobond is

( ) A b d l d i f th E t i


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(a) A bond released in a currency of the European countries

(b) A bond released in an Indian currency in European nations

(c) A bond released in Euro in our country

(d) A bond released in a currency other than the currency of the country in which it is

issued

74. In banking parlance, NPA stands for

(a) Non Performing Asset (b) Net Producing Asset

(c) Net Performing Asset (d) Not Promoting Asset

75. LAF is an indirect instrument of monetary policy, which is used by \RBI to regulate

the liquidity in banking system. LAF stands for:

(a) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (b) Liquidity Account Facility

(c) Liquidity Allotment Facility (d) Long Adjustment Facility

76. On the basis of which commission was RBI established?

(a) Hilton Young Commission (b) British Commission

(c) Federal Commission (d) Federation Commission

77. Life insurance and general insurance companies like LIC, ICICI Prudential, ICICI

Lombard, and National Insurance etc. are regulated by which organization?

(a) RBI (b) PFRDA (c) IRDA (d) IBA

78. Bank rate is defined as the

(a) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers

(b) Rate of interest at which RBI lends money to banks against government securities

(c) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits

(d) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of

Commercial Banks


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Commercial Banks

79. An IDR (Indian Depository Receipt) is

(a) An instrument of monetary policy used by RBI

(b) A deposit account with a depository in India

(c) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository

against underlying equity shares of the issuing company

(d) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by an Indian depository

80. Fiscal deficit is_______

(a) total income less government borrowing

(b) total payments less total receipts

(c) total payments less capital receipts

(d) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing

81. _____________are NOT a part of the Scheduled Banking structure in India.

(a) Money lenders (b) Public sector banks

(c) Private sector banks (d) Regional rural banks

82. MAT is an acronym which stands for

(a) Maximum Alternate Tax (b) Minimum Alternate Tax(c) Minimum Affordable Tax (d) Maximum Affordable Tax

83. Often, we read in the newspapers that several Indian companies are taking the FCCB

route to raise capital. What does the term FCCB stand for?

(a) Foreign Currency Convertible Bond

(b) Foreign Convertible Credit Bond

(c) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau


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(c) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau

(d) Future Credit and Currency Bureau

84. Which of the following interest rates signifies RBIs long term stance of monetary policy?

(a) Repo Rate (b) CRR (c) Bank Rate (d) Reserve Repo Rate

85. As per RBI instructions, places having a population of 2000 and above have to be provided

with banking facilities by

(a) March 2011 (b) March 2012 (c) March 2013 (d) March 2015

86. ________________was the main objective of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget

Management Act, 2003.

(a) Achieving fiscal surplus (b) Eliminating revenue defici t

(c) Eliminating fiscal deficit (d) Stopping money laundering

87. DEPB (Duty Entitled Passbook) scheme which ended in September 2011 was related to

(a) Foreign direct investment (b) Foreign institutional investment

(c) Export promotion (d) Import substitution

88. Recently, the Ministry of commerce has introduced a new Niryat Bandhu scheme for the

guidance and mentoring of first generation entrepreneurs. Who are the Niryat Bandhus?(a) Entrepreneurs (b) Officers (c) Agents (d) Export assistants

89. In capital markets, the term arbitrage is used in reference to the

(a) purchase of securities to cover the sale

(b) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase

(c) concomitant sale and purchase of securities to make profits from price

(d) variation in different markets


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(d) variation in different markets

90. If RBI wants to limit the capital outflows and control currency depreciation, which of the

following would be the most viable action?

(a) Increase interest rates (b) Decrease interest rates

(c) Purchase government bonds (d) Decrease statutory liquidity ratio

91. The buying of shares and bonds of Indian firms by foreign institutional investors is known as

(a) FDI (b) Portfolio investment

(c) NRI investment (d) Foreign indirect investment

92. The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP) is a comprehensive and in-depth

analysis of a countrys financial sector. Which among the following bodies conducts this

programme?

(a) International Monetary Fund (b) G-20(c) World Economic Forum (d) World Bank

93. The abi lity of commercial banks to increase their deposits by expanding their loans and

advances is known as

(a) Capital expansion (b) Credit expansion

(c) Credit control (d) Credit creation

94. Which among the below mentioned is/are dealt by the Indian Capital Market?

1. Short-term funds 2. Medium-term funds 3. Long-term funds

(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3

(c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3

95. Net Interest Income is defined as the

(a) Interest earned on advances


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(a) Interest earned on advances

(b) Interest earned on investments

(c) Total interest earned on advances on advances and investment

(d) Difference between interest earned and interest paid

96. KYC (Know Your Customer) norms were implemented in the Indian banking system in

2002 as per the directive of

(a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) IBA (d) IRDA

97. ___________ has got RBIs nod to issue prepaid card to its clients.

(a) LIC (b) SIDBI (c) NABARD (d) GIC

98. If there is an inflationary trend in the economy, what would be the trend in the pricing of

banking services?

(a) Increasing trend (b) Decreasing trend (c) Constant trend (d) There is no relevance ofinflation in pricing of the banking products

99. The SBI (Amendment) Bill-2010, which was passed by the parliament, reduces the

statutory minimum shareholding of the Central Government in the bank from _______% to

______ %. Which among the following figures fills the blanks correctly?

(a) 59, 52 (b) 55, 51

(c) 59, 55 (d) 62, 51

100. Inflation happens when there are

(a) fewer goods and more buyers (b) more goods and fewer buyers

(c) fewer goods and fewer buyers (d) more goods and more buyers


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Posted 21st December 2012by punit ranjan

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Revised SSC CGL

The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in its report on Refurbishing of Public

Administration Scaling of New Heights had made recommendations to restructure the

examinations of the Staff SelectionCommission with a view to reducing the recruitment cycle to one

year. The Commission had constituted an Expert Group in July 2009 under the Chairmanship of the

then Director, Indian Institute of Public Administration, with members drawn from the Institute of

Banking Personnel Selection, IIM, Ahmedabad, IIT, Delhi and the National Productivity Council and aninternationally acclaimed expert on testing and assessment, to study the recommendations of the 2nd

ARC and to recommend restructuring of the Commissions examinations and interviews. Detailed

Notes, placed by the Chairman, SSC, were studied and recommendations made by the Expert Group

by and large on the lines of notes of the Commission. The recommendations of the Expert Group

were examined by the Commission and most of its recommendations were accepted for implementation

in a phased manner.2. The Commissions periodical proposals on Restructuring the Combined

21

DEC

Scheme of Combined Graduate Level Examination.

Graduate Level, Combined Higher Secondary Level, Stenographers Gr.C&D and Multi Tasking Staff
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, g y , g p g

(NT) Examinations, based on the recommendations of the Expert Group, have been accepted by

the Government. The Restructured Combined Graduate Level Examination with the following Scheme

has been in vogue for three years and has greatly facilitated in reducing the recruitment cycle - from

Notification of the Examination to Final Results to one year, despite the increased number of

applications and also the fact that the Scheme envisages four stages for the post of Assistant in CSS,

three stages for other interview posts, three stages for the post of Tax Assistant in CBEC and CBDT

and two stages for other non-interview posts. Scheme of the Examination

Different Tiers of existing Scheme of Examination for Combined Graduate Level Examination are as

follows:

Tier -I -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier -II -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier -III --Personality Test /Interv iew/Computer Proficiency

Test or Skill Test (wherever applicable).

There is negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Tier-I.In Tier-II, there is negative

marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-II and III and 0.50 marks in Paper-I for each wrong answer. Candidates

are advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

The Restructured Examination, which tests the native intelligence of the candidates with reduced

emphasis on mere reproduction from memory, has elicited appreciation from user departments, who

now get the

4. The Commission has been undertaking post-examination analysis

based on valid and sound statistical principles since 2011. Action taken by

the Commission in cancellation of candidature sometimes even after

selection-based on post examination analysis has been questioned in a


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p y q

few cases. There has also been a suggestion from a user department, the

Department of Personnel & Training, which recruits Assistants in CSS out

of the Combined Graduate Level Examination, for re-introduction of

descriptive papers, despite its rejection in the report of the 2nd ARC, on

account of time taken for examination and lack of consistency, objectivity,

and accuracy in evaluation.

5. While the restructured scheme of Combined Graduate LevelExamination has proved itself in the last three examinations, the

Commission has been considering, for some time now, incorporation of a

mechanism, without prolonging the recruitment cycle and without any

drastic modification of the existing scheme, to ensure that only bonafide

candidates finally qualify in the examination and those taking recourse to

mal-practices in examination, which has become possible with modern

communication technology are screened. This will also obviate the need for

detailed posts-examination analysis and wasting scarce human and

financial resources in fighting litigation.

6. It has, therefore, been decided by the Commission that the candidates

qualifying in Tier-II of the Examination, for Computer Proficiency Test and

Interview for posts of Assistant in CSS, Interview for other Interview posts,

Data Entry Skill Test for posts of Tax Assistant and document verification

for other non-interview posts, will be subjected to a short descriptive paper

of not more than one hours duration, with questions drawn from English

Language and Comprehension, Quantitative Abilities and General

Awareness. If adequate infrastructure with reliable real time connectivity

is available, at least in the Regional Headquarters and Lucknow, the

Commission will at its option, change this to an online examination. The

examination will be qualifying in nature and will not be taken into account

for determining the position of the candidates in merit order. This is

expected to screen those candidates who might have been able to take

advantage of unfair means in Tier-I and II examinations. The proposed


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short descriptive papers/online test will not only screen but deter those

candidates who intend to use unfair means in examination.

7. As the number of candidates qualifying for the final stage will be in

the range of 25,000 to 35,000 and also in view of the fact that

Interviews/Computer Skill Test/Data Entry Skill Test take about 8 to 10

weeks, the evaluation of the additional qualifying paper, even if it is not

administered online and is of descriptive type, is not expected to lead tolengthening of the recruitment cycle beyond the present one year. Analysis

of performance of the candidates in the qualifying examination and other papers will also be facilitated

due to very small number of candidates

qualifying for the final stage.

8. The Commissions decision is now placed on its website for the

information of the public, in particular candidates intending to apply for

the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2013, which is scheduled to

be notified on 19th January, 2013.

****

Posted 21st December 2012by punit ranjan

0 Add a comment

Recent Sarkari VacancyDEC

Sarkari Vacancies for now are:20
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Sarkari Vacancies for now are:

Enginee ring/ Science Related Vacancies

1) RITES walk-in for Civil Engineers in Kolkata on 12th Jan 2013.

Click Here for more details

2) Scientist, Senior Scientist, Senior Technical Officer in CSIR-Structural Engineering

Research Centre. Last Date: 31/01/2013


3) Chemical Engineers in Hindustan Newsprint Limited


4) Junior Research Fellowship in Physics and Biophysical Science in Saha Institute of Nuclear

Physics. Last Date: 31/12/2013


5) Asst. Engg Post in LIC. Last Date :14/01/2013. Click Here for more details

6) Junior Engg Uttrakhand PWD on conrtact.Last Date :06/01/2013. Click Here for more details

7) Scientist/ Engineer in AndhraPradesh Remote Sensing Application Centre. Last Date:27/01/2013

Click Here for more details.

8) Agriculture Research Service Examination 2012. Last Date:18/12/2012.


20

9) Executive Trainee Power Grid (Electrical) through GATE. Last Date:08/02/2013.
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10) Executive Trainee GAIL India Ltd. through GATE. Last Date:15/01/2013


11) Graduate Engg HPCL through Gate. Last Date:14/02/2013.


12) Mechanical Engineer BPCL through Gate.Last Date:09/02/2013.


13) Non-Teaching Scientific posts in NISER (National Institute of science Education and Research).

Last Date:11/01/2013. Click Here for more details

14)Recruitment in CSIR through CASE (Combined Administrative Service Examination). Last Date : 31/12/2012. Click Here for details

15) Managment Trainee in Mecon through GATE.Last Date: 14/02/2013


16) Managment Trainee in Container Cooperation of India through GATE. Last Date: Jan 2013


17) Graduate Engineer in NALCO through GATE. Last Date: 31/01/2013


18) Engineer Trainee in BHEL throughGATE. Last Date: Jan 2013


19) Assistant Executived Engineer in DDA through GATE. Last Date: 14/02/2013
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20) Probationary Engineer in BEL through GATE. Last Date: 14/02/2013


21) Engineer Trainee and Officer Trainee in MECL throughGATE. Last Date: 31/01 2013


22) Engineer Officer and Assistant Officer Trainee in Indian Oil throughGATE.

Last Date: 31/01 2013 Click Here for more details

23) Graduate Engineer Officer and Assistant Officer Trainee in Indian Oil throughGATE.

Last Date: 19/01/2013 Click Here for more details

24) Executive Trainee Engineer in NTPC throughGATE. Last Date: 31/12/2012


25)Executive Trainee Electrical Engineer in Power Grid through GATE.

Last Date: 08/02/2013 Click Here for more details

26) Stipendery Trainee BARC. Last Date:01/01/2013. Click Here for more details

Bank/Insurance Related Vacancies

1) Gurgaon Gramin Bank JMG Scale 1 and Office Assistant.Last Date:02/01/2013

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2) Central Bank Single Window Operator. CWE(Clerical Cadre) IBPS 2011-2012

Last Date :07/01/2013


2) Chartered Accountants Bank of Maharashtra.Last Date:29/12/2013


3) Officer and Office Assistants in Shreyas Gramin Bank. Last Date:22/12/2012


4) Officer and Office Assistants in Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank. Last Date:26/12/2012


5) Apprentice Development Officer LIC. Last Date:22/12/2012


6) Assistant Manager Baroda UP Grameen Bank through IBPS (RRB). Last Date:02/01/2013


SSC Related Vacancies

1) SSC- Recruitment of constables in CRPF and Rifleman in Assam Rifle. Last Date:11/01/2013


2) SSC- Eastern Region, Kolkata.Last Date:24/12/2012

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3) SSC- North Western Region, Chandigadh.Last Date:28/12/2012


UPSC Notification and vacancies

1) National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy Examination (1),2013.

Last Date:21/01/2013.


Defence/ Army Related Vacancies

1) Appointment of Ex-Serviceman in Banglore Metro Rail Corporation. Last Date: 30/01/2012


2) Multi Tasking Staff (MTS), Naval Armament Depot, Vishakapatnam. Details in Page 42

Employment News 22-28 Dec 2012

3) Sailors for Artificer Apprentice (AA). Last Date: 06/01/2013


4) Applications invited for Air Force Common Admission Test(AFCAT). Last Date: 08/01/2013.


5) I di A R li i T h L t D t 12/01/2013 Cli k H f d t il
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5) Indian Army Religious Teacher.Last Date:12/01/2013. Click Here for more details

6) Various jobs in Bharat Dynamics Ltd. Last Date:02/02/2013.


7) Posts in Defence Research and Defence Organisation on Deputation Basis. Details in Page 28

Employment News 15-20 Dec 2012

Railway Vacancies

1) Centralised Notification for Recruitment of Sports Person in South Eastern Railway.

Last Date:21/01/2013

Click here for more details

2) Sports Quota in Carriageband Wagon Workshop, Eastern Railway, Liluah.

Click here for more details

Miscellaneous Vacancies

1) Company Secretary cum Finance Officer and Accounts Officer

'Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve s Ltd.' Click Here for more details

2) Walk-in-Interviewfor Research Associatein 'Indian Veterinary Research Institute'.

Details in Page 9 Employment News 22-228 Dec 2012
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Details in Page 9 Employment News 22-228 Dec 2012

3) 200 Post Doctoral Fellowships for SC/ST Candidates by UGC


4) Junior Hindi Translator, CSIR- National Institute of Oceanography, Dona Paula, Goa

Last Date: 28/01/2013 Click Here for more Details


0 Add a comment

Top IAS Coaching institutes in DelhiDEC
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CWE held on 15.12.2012 in clerical grade cancelled

IBPS has cancelled CWE in clerical gradeheld on 15.12.2012. For more information please visit IBPS

officials site


19

DEC

0 Add a comment

Why Government Jobs?

Why Government Jobs?

Earlier the economic slow down was a decadal affair. But now-a-days every 2-3 years we come across

an economic slow down threatening jobs of millions. Over last 5 years we have seen 2 such slow downsfirstly due to housing bubble burst in USA and latter one due to liquidity crunch in European countries.

India is sustained by IT sector which boast to serve various clients across the globe. However, this

necessarily means that any bubble that bursts anywhere in this world threatens the employment

situation in our country.

Various studies have shown that there is an increased tendency of psychological disorder in

youths of India. The growing opportunities in various cities has led youths to leave their traditional

19

DEC

family support structure in small towns. In cities great challenges awaits these youths. Corporate jobs

with its 'hire and fire ethics' keep them on their toes round the year. Most of them also gets entrapped
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p y g pp

into the nets of EMI payments. With EMI payment staring at their face every month and continuous

possibility of a job loss which may make EMI payment more difficult, many people gets carried away to

the heights of despondency and frustration.

Government jobs in India provides stability to individuals. The Conclusion that the people who

donot want to work hard aspires for government jobs is no more valid. In private sectors even hard

working people's jobs are threatened with an onset of economic slow down. This is where governmentsector provides independence from continous fear.

With the emergence of private sector, public sector has modified its working ethics to exist in the

newly found competition. Best example of this is the change in working pattern of PSU Banks. They

have also become target oriented but at the same time employees there are not under perennial

tension of a job loss.

With good and ever increasing professional environment and good pay scale (Thanks to 6th pay

commission, now employees in govt sector are better paid than their friends in private sectors)

government jobs are the jobs to look for in India.


0 Add a comment

Top coaching institutes for banking and SSC Exams in DelhiDEC
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Top Banking and SSC Coaching institutes in Delhi

1) Bank Power

Website : www.bankpower.in

2) Banking Services Chronicle (BSC) Website:www.bsccareer.com

3) Edu Mentor

Website:www.edumentor.co.in

4) Sachdeva New P.T. College

Website : www.sachdevacollege.com

5) Tara Institute

Website:www.tarainstitute.in

6) Institute of Management Education(T.I.M.E.)

Website: www.time4education.com


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Polity Material for SSC exams

Indian Polity

1. Idea for a Constituent Assembly for drafting a constitution for India was first provided by Bal

Gangadhar Tilakin 1895.

2. The elections for the first Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Initially it had 389 members, but

later the reformed Assembly had 324 members.

3. The State of Hyderabad did not participate in elections to the Constituent Assembly.

4. The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946 its president was Dr

Sachidanand Sinha.

5. The second meeting was held on December 11, 1946. Its president was Dr Rajendra Prasad.

6. The Objectives Resolutionwas passed under chairmanship of J.L. Nehru.

18

DEC
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15. The Supreme Court judgement in Keshwanand Bharti vs Keralacase provided that Fundamental

Rights can be altered by the Parliament as long as the basic structure of the Constitution remains intact.


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16. The Minerva Mills caseruling of the Supreme Court, however, ruled that Fundamental rights arebasic part of the Constitution. The power to alter them was snatched away.

17. Fundamental Right of Equalityprovides for:

Equality in government jobs (Article 16).

No discriminations (Article 15).

No untouchability (Article 17).

Abolition of titles (Article 18).

18. The important freedoms granted are

a. Against exploitation (Article 23).

b. Against child labour (Article 24).


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19. The Right to Constitutional Remediesis provided under Article 32. Dr Ambedkar has called this

article as soul of the Constitution.

20. The Constitution provides that High Courts and the Supreme Court can issue various writs (written

orders) to safeguard freedom of an individual. There are five types of writs:

1. Habeas Corpusmay I have the bodyit orders to present reasons as well as physical presence of

a body in court, within 24 hours of arrest.

2. Mandamusissued to person, office or courtto enforce dutiesalso called Param Aadesh.

3. Prohibitionissued to inferior courts, by superior courtsit prohibits (stops) action of acts outsidetheir jurisdiction.

4. Quo Warrantoit asks how one has gained unauthorized office.

5. CertiorariHigher Court takes over case from lower courts.

20. Directive Principles of State Policy act as guidelines or morals for the government.

21. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution. They were borrowed from Ireland.

22. Some important directive principles are:

Gram Panchayats (Article 40).


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Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).

Free and Compulsory Education (Article 45).

23. Fundamental duties are contained in part IV (A). There are 11 fundamental duties listed in the

Constitution. This idea was borrowed from Russia.

24.

The Vice President is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. However, he is not a member of anyHouse.

25. If a member is found sitting in another House of Parliament, of which he is not a member, he has to pay

a fine of Rs 500.

26. Rajya Sabha has 250 members238 elected and 12 nominatedby the President. Uttar Pradesh

elects maximum number of members for the Rajya Sabha (34), followed by har (22) and Maharashtra

(19).

27. In one year time, the President must hold at least two meetings of the Rajya Sabha.

28. If a state of Emergency is declared, the Lok Sabha is dissolved, but not the Rajya Sabha (It is a

permanent House).


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29. Lok Sabha has 547 members545 elected and 2 nominatedfrom the Anglo-Indian Community.

30. During a state of emergency, the tenure of Lok Sabha can be extended by a maximum of one year.

31. Minimum age for becoming member of Lok Sabha is 25 years and Rajya Sabha is 30 years.

32. Minimum age to be eligible for the post of the President is 35 years.

33. The President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.

34. The Vice President is elected by all members of the Parliament.

35. To discuss an important topic, the normal procedure of the Parliament is stopped under the

Adjournment motion.

36. Decision about whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is taken by the Lok Sabha Speaker.

37. The first High Courts in India were established at Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras, in 1862. Allahabad

and Delhi were established next in 1866.

38. Maximum age to remain a High Court judge is 62 years and maximum age to remain a Supreme Court

j d i 65


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judge is 65 years.

39. The process for removal of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is same as that of judges

of the Supreme Court.

40. Attorney General is the law expert to government. He can participate and speak in both Houses of

Parliament, but is not allowed to vote.

41. The idea of having a Lokpal to check corruption at the highest level has been borrowed from

Ombudsman of Sweden. In the States, we have the Lokayukta.

42. There are three types of Emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President.

Emergency under Article 352due to war or internal rebellion. (Implemented three times

(1962, 71, 75).)

Emergency under Article 356Constitutional problems. (Implemented many times, in various

States like J&K, Punjab, etc.)

Emergency under Article 360Financial Emergency. (Not implemented so far).

43. The Constitution initially recognized 14 National Languages. Later, four more were added. These were:

Sindhi (21st amendment) Nepali Konkani and Manipuri (71st amendment)


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Sindhi (21st amendment), Nepali, Konkani and Manipuri (71st amendment).

44. To gain the status of a National Party, a political party must be recognized in four or more States,

attaining at least 4% votes on national scale and 9% in each State.

45. The flag of the Congress party was accepted as the National Flag (with few changes) on July 22, 1947.

46. The new Flag Code of India gives freedom to individuals to hoist the flag on all days, but with due

respect to the flag.

47. The Question hour in the Parliament is observed from 11 am to 12 noon. The Zero hour is observedfrom 12:00 noon to 1:00 pm.

48. Balwant Rai Mehta Committeesuggested a three-tier structure for Panchayati Raj-Gram

Panchayat village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level and Zila Parishad in districts.

49. First Constitutional Amendment1951; put a ban on propagating ideas to harm friendly relations withforeign countries.

50. Planning Commission is only an advisory and specialist body. Its chairman is the Prime Minister. It is

neither a statutory nor a constitutional body.


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59. The Indian Constitution endows the Judiciary with power of declaring a law as unconstitutional if it is

beyond the competence of the Legislature according to the distribution of powers provided by the

constitution or if it is in contravention of the fundamental rights or of any other mandatory provision e g


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constitution, or if it is in contravention of the fundamental rights or of any other mandatory provision, e.g.

Articles 286, 299, 301 and 304.

60. As part of the integration of various Indian States into the Dominion of India a three-fold process of

integration, known as the Patel Scheme, was implemented.

61. 216 States were merged into the respective Provinces, geographically contiguous to them. These

merged States were included in the territories of the States in Part B in the First Schedule of the

Constitution. The process of merger started with the merger of Orissa and Chhattisgarh States with the

then province of Orissa, on January 1, 1948. The last instance was merger of Cooch-Behar with West

Bengal in January 1950.

62. 61 States were converted into Centrally-administered areas and included in Part C of the First

Schedule.

63. The third form was consolidation of groups of States into new viable units, known as Union of States.

The first Union formed was the Saurashtra Union on February 15, 1948. The last one was Union of

Travancore-Cochin on July 1, 1949. As many as 275 States were integrated into five UnionsMadhyaBharat, Patiala and East Punjab States Union, Rajasthan, Saurashtra and Travancore-Cochin. These

were included in Part B of the First Schedule. Besides, Hyderabad, J&K and Mysore were also

included in Part B.

64. At the time of accession to the Dominion of India, the States had acceded only on three subjects


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