premix april 2020 - sleepyclasses.com · kolkata 2. arkhangai 3. dhaka 4. mandalay a. 1, 2 and 3...

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1. Geography 1 ....................................................................................................

2. History 11 ............................................................................................................

3. Polity 21 ...............................................................................................................

4. International Relations 35 ............................................................................

4. Economy 38 ........................................................................................................

5. Environment 51 ................................................................................................

6. Science & Tech And Defence 63.................................................................

Table of Contents

1. Geography To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below

• Video 1

• Video 2

• Video 3

• Video 4

1. BCIM Economic Corridor is a proposed multi-modal transport corridor that aims to connect:

1. Kolkata

2. Arkhangai

3. Dhaka

4. Mandalay

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation

• Bangladesh, China, India and Myanmar (BCIM) Economic Corridor is a multi-modal transport corridor

with the aim to connect India (Kolkata) and china (Kunming) via Bangladesh (Dhaka) and Myanmar

(Mandalay).

• The idea was given a shape in the form of

BCIM forum in 1999 in the first ‘Kunming

Initiative’. It is intended to advance multi-

modal connectivity, promote investment

and trade and facilitate people-to-people

contacts through a combination of road, rail,

water and air linkages in the region.

• The multi-modal corridor will be the first

expressway between India and China and

will pass through Myanmar and Bangladesh.

• Arkhangai is a province in Mongolia.

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2. Which of the following is not a member of OPEC+?

A. Oman

B. South Sudan

C. Azerbaijan

D. Iraq

Answer: D

Explanation

• OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman,

Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.

• The current OPEC members are the following: Algeria, Angola, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq,

Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia (the de facto leader), the United Arab

Emirates and Venezuela.

• The non-OPEC countries which export crude oil are termed as OPEC plus countries.

• OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman,

Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.

3. The term ‘Sahyadri Megha’ has been in news recently. It is a new variety of

A. Paddy

B. Sugarcane

C. Tea

D. Coffee

Answer: A

Explanation

Sahyadri Megha is a red variety of paddy that is resistant to blast disease and rich in nutrients.

4. Recently the manufacture, sale and distribution of Colistin has been prohibited. It is a/an

A. Antibiotic

B. Insecticide

C. Pesticide

D. None of the above

Answer: A


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Explanation

• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare had issued an order prohibiting the manufacture, sale and

distribution of Colistin and its formulations for food-producing animals, poultry, aqua farming and

animal feed supplements.

• The ban has been imposed under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.

• Colistin is an antibiotic for therapeutic purpose in veterinary.

• Also, colistin is a valuable, last-resort antibiotic that saves lives in critical care units but in recent

years, there have been cases being resistance to the drug.

• This move is likely to reduce the antimicrobial resistance within the country.

5. Identify the basic objective of Earth Ganga programme.

A. To provide to all households in rural India safe and adequate water through individual household

tap connections by 2024.

B. To accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and

rejuvenation of National River Ganga and its tributaries.

C. To promote economic activities related to Ganga .


Answer: C

Explanation

• During the first meeting of the National Ganga Council in Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh) in 2019, the Prime

Minister urged for a holistic thinking process where ‘Namami Gange’ evolves to ‘Arth Ganga’.

• In simple terms, ‘Arth Ganga’ implies a sustainable development model with a focus on economic

activities related to Ganga.

6. Consider the following statements about Biorock Technology?

1. Biorock, refers to the substance formed by electro-accumulation of minerals dissolved in

seawater.

2. This technology has recently been installed was installed in the Gulf of Khambat.

Choose the correct one/ones.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


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Answer: A

Explanation

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is attempting for

the first time a process to restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral accretion technology.

• Also called ‘Biorock Technology’, it is a method that applies safe, low voltage electrical

currents through seawater, causing dissolved minerals to crystallize on structures, growing into a

white limestone (CaCo3) similar to that which naturally makes up coral reefs and tropical white

sand beaches.

• Biorock, also known as Seacrete or Seament, refers to the substance formed by electro-accumulation

of minerals dissolved in seawater.

• A biorock structure was installed one nautical mile off the Mithapur coast in the Gulf of Kachchh on

19th January, 2020. The scientists have used solar panels for power in this case.

7. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?

1. 38th Parallel : USA and Canada

2. 49th Parallel : North Korea & South Korea

3. Durand Line : India and Afghanistan

4. Radcliffe line : India and Pakistan

A. Only 1

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: B

8. The African Great Lakes are a series of lakes constituting the part of the Rift Valley lakes in and

around the East African Rift. They do not include

A. Lake Victoria

B. Lake Tanganyika

C. Lake Malawi

D. Lake Baikal

Answer: D


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9. Identify the GIAHS sites in India among the following:

1. Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala

2. Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha

3. Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

Three recognised GIAHS sites in India:

• Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala

• Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha

• Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir

10.A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

(UPSC 2011)

1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.

2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

11.Which among the following is Endoheric?

A. Caspian Sea

B. Arabian Sea

C. Andaman Sea

D. South China Sea

Answer: A


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Explanation

12.The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the

year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region? (UPSC 2011)

A. Paddy and cotton

B. Wheat and Jute

C. Paddy and Jute

D. Wheat and cotton

Answer: C

13.Consider the following pairs (UPSC 2013)

National Park River flowing through the Park

1. Corbett National Park Ganga

2. Kaziranga National Park Manas

3. Silent Valley National Park Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3

D. None

Answer: D


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14.Consider the following rivers. (UPSC 2014)

1. Barak

2. Lohit

3. Subansiri

Which of the above flow(s) through Arunachal Pradesh?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

15.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (UPSC 2013)

Geographical Feature Region

A. Abyssinian Plateau Arabia

B. Atlas Mountains North-Western Africa


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C. Guiana Highlands South-Western Africa

D. Okavango Basin Patagonia

Answer: B

16.Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up the recent past due to human activities?

(UPSC 2018)

1. Aral Sea

2. Black Sea

3. Lake Baikal

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 2 only

D. 1 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

• As per NASA, over the last 50 years, Aral Sea has shrunk by about 75% of its original size mainly

because of water diversion for agricultural usages in surrounding areas. Also from a depth of 68

meters in the 1960s, today it stands at less than 10 meters.

• In Lake Baikal, water level has gone below the critical mark of 456 m eleven times since 1962.

• Thus, while Aral Sea has dried up immensely, Lake Baikal shows more of a fluctuating regime and

shrinkage is not comparable to that of Aral Sea.

17.Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2018)

Towns in news Country

1. Aleppo Syria

2. Kirkuk Yemen

3. Mosul Palestine

4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3


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D. 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Aleppo is in Syria, Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq while Majar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan.

18.Which one of the following is an artificial lake? (UPSC 2018)

A. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

B. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

C. Nainital (Uttarakhand)

D. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: A

Explanation

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in

Dindigul district in Tamilnadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was

instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the

British and early missionaries from USA

19.Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since

then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Barren Island is India’s only active volcano. It is located 140kms to the east of Port Blair (lies in South

Andaman) while Great Nicobar is southernmost region of Andaman & Nicobar and lies further south of

Port Blair. The Barren Island volcano had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a

major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995,

2005 and 2017


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20.Consider the following statements

1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.

2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia,

Indonesia and Philippines.

3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

• Most coral reefs are located in tropical shallow waters less than 50 meters deep, in the western

regions of the Indian ocean, Pacific Ocean and Greater Caribbean.

• Global distribution of coralsAustralia-17% Indonesia-16% Philippines-9% So, Australia, Indonesia and

Philippines together host more than one-third of world’s corals.

• 32 of the 34 recognised animal Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to only 9 Phyla in tropical

rainforests.


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2. History To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below

• Video 1

• Video 2

• Video 3

• Video 4

1. Who first translated Bhagvad Gita to English?

A. William Jones

B. Charles Wilkins

C. Alexander Cunningham

D. John Marshall

Answer: B

Explanation

• Sir Charles Wilkins was an English typographer who is notable as the first translator of Bhagavad

Gita into English, and as the creator, alongside Panchanan Karmakar,of the first Bengali typeface.

• In 1784, Wilkins helped William Jones establish the Asiatic Society of Bengal.

• Wilkins moved to Varanasi, where he studied Sanskrit under Kalinatha, a Brahmin pandit. At this

period he began work on his translation of the Mahabarata, securing strong support for his activities

from the governor of British India, Warren Hastings. Though he never completed the translation,

portions were later published.

• The most important was his version of the Gita, published in 1785 as Bhagvat-geeta, or Dialogues of

Kreeshna and Arjoon.

• In 1787 Wilkins followed the Gita with his translation of The Heetopades of Veeshnoo-Sarma, in a

Series of Connected Fables

2. First census in India was conducted at the time of

A. Lord Mayo

B. Lord Lytton

C. Lord Auckland

D. Sir John Napier

Answer: A


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Explanation

• The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011.

• While it has been undertaken every 10 years, beginning in 1872 under british Viceroy Lord Mayo, the

first complete census was taken in 1881.

• Post 1949, it has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under

the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

• All the censuses since 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act.

3. All India Harijan Sangha was established by Mahatma Gandhi in the year

A. 1935

B. 1932

C. 1920

D. 1927

Answer: B

Explanation

• After the Second Round Table Conference, British government agreed to give Communal Award to

the depressed classes on the request of B. R. Ambedkar.

• Gandhi opposed the government's decision which he considered it would divide the Hindu society

and subsequently went on to the indefinite fast in Yerwada Jail.

• He ended his fast after signed Poona Pact with Ambedkar on 25 September 1932.

• On 30 September 1932, Gandhi founded All India Anti Untouchability League, to remove

untouchability in the society, which later renamed as Harijan Sevak Sangh ("Servants of

Untouchables Society").

• At the time industrialist Ghanshyam Das Birla was its founding president with Amritlal Takkar as its

Secretary.

• It is headquartered in the historic Kingsway Camp area in north Delhi.

4. Dandi March was began on the date of

A. 12 March 1930

B. 15 March 1928

C. 15 April 1932

D. 30 March 1932

Answer: A


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Explanation

• On 5 February, newspapers reported that Gandhi would begin civil disobedience by defying the salt

laws.

• The salt satyagraha would begin on 12 March and end in Dandi with Gandhi breaking the Salt Act on

6 April.

• Gandhi chose 6 April to launch the mass breaking of the salt laws for a symbolic reason—it was the

first day of "National Week", begun in 1919 when Gandhi conceived of the national hartal (strike)

against the Rowlatt Act.

• As planned, the 21-day march began on 12 March 1932 and ended on 6 April.

5. Which one is the first fort built by British in India?

A. Fort William

B. Fort St George

C. Fort St Angelo

D. Fort St David

Answer: A

Explanation

• Fort St George is the first English fortress in India, founded in 1644 at the coastal city of Madras, the

modern city of Chennai.

• The construction of the fort provided the impetus for further settlements and trading activity, in what

was originally an uninhabited land.

• The East India Company (EIC), which had entered India around 1600 for trading activities, had begun

licensed trading at Surat, which was its initial bastion.

• However, to secure its trade lines and commercial interests in the spice trade, it felt the necessity of a

port closer to the Malaccan Straits, and succeeded in purchasing a piece of coastal land, originally

called Chennirayarpattinam or Channapatnam, where the Company began the construction of a

harbour and a fort.

• The fort was completed on 23 April 1644 at a cost of £3,000, coinciding with St George's Day,

celebrated in honour of the patron saint of England.

• The fort, hence christened Fort St George, faced the sea and some fishing villages, and it soon became

the hub of merchant activity.

• It gave birth to a new settlement area called George Town, which grew to envelop the villages and led

to the formation of the city of Madras


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6. Which of the following Gupta emperors is represented his coins as playing the lute or Veena?

A. Chandragupta-I

B. Chandragupta-II

C. Samudragupta

D. Skandagupta

Answer: C

Explanation

• Samudragupta's musical talents are corroborated by his gold coins

which depict him playing a veena

• He also loved listening to poems. He was titled ‘Kaviraj’ for his love

for poems

7. The system of philosophy with which the name of Kapila is prominently associated is:

A. Purva Mimamsa

B. Samkhya

C. Nyaya

D. Uttara Mimamsa

Answer: B

Explanation

• Sage Kapila is traditionally credited as a founder of the Samkhya school

• Sāmkhya philosophy regards the universe as consisting of two independent realities, puruṣa

(consciousness) and prakṛti (matter). These two realities exist parallelly, without affecting each other.

8. Which among the following writer's book gives the detail information about the invasion of India by

Alexander?

A. Herodotus

B. Megasthenes

C. Arrian

D. Ptolemy

Answer: C


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Explanation

• Of those who accompanied Alexander to India, Aristobulus, Onesicritus, and Nearchus wrote about

the Indian campaign.

• The only surviving contemporary account of Alexander's Indian campaign is a report of the voyage of

the naval commander Nearchus, who was tasked with exploring the coast between the Indus River

and the Persian Gulf.

• This report is preserved in Arrian's Anabasis (c. CE 150).

• Arrian provides a detailed account of Alexander's campaigns, based on the writings of Alexander's

companions and courtiers.

9. Dandi March finished on the date

A. 06th April 1930

B. 15th April 1930

C. 15th March 1930

D. 12th March 1930

Answer: A

Explanation

• On 5 February, newspapers reported that Gandhi would begin civil disobedience by defying the salt

laws.

• The salt satyagraha would begin on 12 March and end in Dandi with Gandhi breaking the Salt Act on

6 April.

• Gandhi chose 6 April to launch the mass breaking of the salt laws for a symbolic reason—it was the

first day of "National Week", begun in 1919 when Gandhi conceived of the national hartal (strike)

against the Rowlatt Act.

• As planned, the 21-day march began on 12 March 1932 and ended on 6 April.

10.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Aryankas?

1. It is a treatise of forest which explain the rituals while dwelling into the philosophical discussions of

the Brahmanas.

2. They record the transitions between ritualistic symbolism of Brahmanas and philosophical aspects

of Upanishads.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2


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D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• The Aranyakas constitute the philosophy behind ritual sacrifice of the Vedas.

• They typically represent the later sections of Vedas, and are one of many layers of the Vedic texts.

• Aranyakas describe and discuss rituals from various perspectives, but some include philosophical

speculations.

11.In which of the following sites, earliest evidence of settled agriculture in the Indian subcontinent is

found?

A. Dholavira

B. Lothal

C. Mohenjadaro

D. Mehrgarh

Answer: D

Explanation

• Mehrgarh is a Neolithic site, which lies on the Kacchi Plain of Balochistan.

• The earliest evidence of settled agriculture in the subcontinent is found in Mehrgarh

12.Which of the following is/are correct?

1. The capital of Chera Kingdom was Uraiyaur.

2. The capital of Chola Kingdom was Vanji.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

• The capital of Chera Kingdom was Vanji.

• The capital of Chola Kingdom was Uraiyaur.


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13.The following were the immediate successors of imperial Mauryas?

A. Pandyas

B. Kushans

C. Nandas

D. Sungas

Answer: D

Explanation

• The Shunga Empire was an ancient dynasty from Magadha that controlled areas of the central and

eastern Indian subcontinent from around 187 to 78 BCE.

• The dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga, after the fall of the Maurya Empire.

14.Which among the below were engraved in the Kushana coins?

1. Persian Deities

2. Greek Deities

3. Indian Deities

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

• The empire of the Kushanas experienced much prosperity due to the trading activities of the

merchants. They carried out their trade mainly in silk with the Roman Empire. Their commercial

activities generated huge amount of wealth; part of which find its way into the Kushana treasury.

• A characteristic of the Kushana coins is the depiction of various deities on the reverse of the coins.

• Various Greek, Iranian, Bactrian and Indian deities were featured in the Kushana coins. We found

the Indo-Iranian deities like Mazda, Mao, Athsho, etc. inscribed on the coins of the Kushanas.

• The prominence of the Indian god Shiva in the coins of Kanishka and later Kushanas is regarded by

numismatists as a proof of their conversion to Saivism in later days.

• Buddhism also had a profound effect on the Kushanas. It is well documented in the archaeological

remains. Buddha is also represented in various forms in their coins.


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15.The Kushans issues the coins made of ___________?

1. Gold

2. Silver

3. Copper

A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

• The Kushans issued coins of Gold, Silver and Copper.

• The first two Kushana kings, Kujula and Vima issued gold coins. Archaeologists and Numismatists

have also found their copper coins.

• We have also some specimens of silver coins issued by Vima. The silver coins were mainly circulated

in the area of lower Indus region.

16.The Public Service Commission of India (forerunner of the Union Public Service Commission) was

established on 1st October 1926 under the chairmanship of __________?

A. Sir Ross Barker

B. Sir Hugh Lorry

C. Sir Patrick Lawrence

D. Sir David Attenborough

Answer: A

Explanation

The Public Service Commission of India (forerunner of the Union Public Service Commission) was

established on 1st October 1926 under the chairmanship of Sir Ross Barker.

17.Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Up to 1853, the Directors of the British East India Company made appointments of covenanted

civil servants by nominations.

2. This nomination system was abolished in 1861 by the Parliament in England.

A. 1 only


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B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• The Charter Act of 1853 provided for an open competitive examination for the recruitment of civil

servants and had deprived the Court of Directors of the power of appointments based on patronage.

• This was recommended by a committee headed by Lord Macaulay.

• After the Government of India Act of 1858, the higher civil service in India came to be known as the

Indian Civil Services (ICS).

• This nomination system was abolished in 1861 by the Parliament in England via the India Civil

Services Act 1861 and it was decided that the induction would be through competitive examinations

of all British subjects, without distinction of race.


1. The ICS was headed by the Secretary of State for India

2. With the passing of the Government of India Act 1909, the Imperial Services were split into two –

All India Services and Central Services.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• The ICS was headed by the Secretary of State for India, a member of the British cabinet.

• With the passing of the Government of India Act 1909, the Imperial Services headed by the Secretary

of State for India, were split into two – All India Services and Central Services.


1. The Islington Commission in 1912 recommended that 25 % of the higher posts be filled by

Indians.

2. It also recommended that the recruitment to higher posts should be done partly in India and

partly in England.


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A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• In 1912 the Islington Commission suggested that 25 % of the higher posts be filled by Indians.

• It also recommended that the recruitment to higher posts should be done partly in India and partly in

England.


1. The Federal Public Service Commission and Provincial Public Service Commission set up under

the Government of India Act 1935 was recommended by Lee Commission (1924)

2. In 1922, Indian candidates were permitted to sit for the ICS examinations in Delhi

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• In 1922, Indian candidates were permitted to sit the ICS examinations in Delhi

• In 1924, the Lee Commission was set up, chaired by Arthur Lee, which eventually led to the

foundation of the Federal Public Service Commission and Provincial Public Service Commission under

the Government of India Act 1935

• One of its important recommendations was that future batches of ICS officers should be composed of

40% Europeans and 40% Indians, with the remaining 20% of appointments to be filled by direct

promotion of Indians from the Provincial Civil Services (PCS) and the examinations in Delhi and

London were to produce an equal number of ICS probationers.


20



3. Polity To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below

• Video 1

• Video 2

• Video 3

• Video 4

1. Which of the following is/are true about the following statements?

1. Lifeline UDAN was launched to rescue Indian citizens trapped in other countries during the Covid

Pandemic

2. The airlines included only the public entity of Air India and Indian Air Force

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

• As part of India’s war against COVID-19, the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India has

launched “Lifeline Udan” flights for movement of medical and essential supplies across the country

and beyond.

• Under this initiative, 62 Lifeline Udan flights have been operated during the five day period from 26th

to 30th March 2020, transporting over 15.4 tons of essential medical supplies. 45 out of the 62 flights

have been operated by Air India and Alliance Air.

• The carriers involved in Lifeline Udan operations include Air India, Alliance Air, Indian Air Force (IAF)

and Pawan Hans. Support is being provided by Airports Authority of India (AAI), AAICLAS (cargo

and logistics subsidiary of AAI), AI Airports Services (AIASL), PPP airports and private ground

handling entities. Private carriers like IndiGo, Spicejet and Blue Dart are operating medical cargo

flights on a commercial basis.

2. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. The Ministry of External Affairs has launched the ‘Stranded in India’ Portal.

2. The Portal provides help and information to the foreign tourists stranded in the country in the

wake of Covid pandemic.

A. 1 only


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https://youtu.be/jKbA8J4AnQE

https://youtu.be/naR0FDrSrIQ



B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

• The Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, with an aim to extend support to the foreign tourists

who are stranded in India, has come up with a portal to disseminate information regarding the

services that can be availed by foreign tourists who are stuck far away from their home land.

• The portal is titled ‘Stranded in India’ and aims to act as a support network for foreign tourists stuck in

various parts of the country.

• The lists Covid-19 helpline numbers or call-centres that the foreign tourists reach out to for help;

and covers comprehensive information around the Ministry of External Affairs control centre, along

with contact numbers. Additionally, it gives details on state-based/regional tourism support

infrastructure.

• This unique portal also helps ones in need of further information and connect foreign tourists to

concerned authorities. There is also a section on the web portal where foreign nationals need to fill up

an online form stating detailed information on – their last travel destination, the place where they are

stranded in the country with their contact details.

3. Which of the following is incorrect about the Prime Ministers National Relief Fund?

1. The PMNRF is registered as a Trust under the Income Tax Act

2. The PMNRF provides relief for both natural and man-made disasters

3. The PMNRF accepts conditional donations for chosen causes

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only


Answer: B

Explanation

• Prime Minister's National Relief Fund (PMNRF) in India is the fund raised to provide support for

people affected by natural and man-made disasters. Natural disasters covered under this include

flood, cyclone, earthquake etc. Man-made disasters include major accidents, acid attacks, riots etc.

• The fund is also allotted to the people for treatment like cancer, kidney transplantation, heart surgery

etc.


22



• To support the displaced people from Pakistan Jawaharlal Nehru created a fund collected from

public in January 1948.

• The fund is fully collected from the public and has no budgetary allocation from the government. The

fund collected is exempted from income tax to drive more people into the initiative.

• The fund is recognized as a Trust under the Income Tax Act and the same is managed by Prime

Minister or multiple delegates for national causes.

• PMNRF operates from the Prime Minister’s Office. Contributions flowing out of budgetary sources of

Government or from the balance sheets of the public sector undertakings are not accepted.

• Conditional contributions, where the donor specifically mentions that the amount is meant for a

particular purpose, are not accepted in the Fund.

4. Which of the following statements is correct about the National Pharmaceuticals Pricing Authority?

1. The NPPA is a statutory authority under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers

2. The NPPA recognised medical devices as drugs under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

• The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is a government regulatory agency that

controls the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India.

• National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) was constituted vide Government of India

Resolution dated 29th August, 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals

(DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to

ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.

• The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority stated that all medical devices shall be governed

under the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 (DPCO, 2013)w.e.f. 1st April 2020.

Thus, with effect from 1st April, 2020, all Medical Devices shall be regulated by the Government as

Drugs for quality control and price monitoring.

• Government is regulating 24 class of medical devices which have been notified/regulated as drugs

under Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Drugs & Cosmetics Rules, 1945.

5. Which of the following is correct about the Public Accounts Committee?

1. It was suggested as per the Monatgue-Chelmsford reforms.


23



2. The term of the committee is co-terminus with that of the Lok Sabha.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

• The Committee on Public Accounts was first set up in 1921 in the wake of the Montague-Chelmsford

Reforms which led to the coming in of the Government of India Act 1919.

• The Finance Member of the Executive Council used to be the Chairman of the Committee.

• The Public Accounts Committee is now constituted every year under Rule 308 of the Rules of

Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

• The Public Accounts Committee consists of not more than 22 members comprising of 15 members

elected by Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional

representation by means of single transferable vote and not more than 7 members of Rajya Sabha

elected by that House in like manner.

• The term of office of members of the Committee does not exceed one year at a time. A Minister is not

elected a member of the Committee, and if a member, after his election to the Committee is

appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.

• The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the

Committee from Lok Sabha.

6. Which of the following rights and privileges are conferred only on citizens by Indian Constitution?

1. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

2. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and

profession

3. Cultural and educational rights

4. Eligibility to hold public offices like attorney general of India and advocate general of states

A. 4 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Answer: D


24



Explanation

• Only the following rights are available to foreign nationals:

✓Article 14 - Right to equality before law and

equal protection of laws

✓Article 20 - Right to protection in respect of

conviction for offences

✓Article 21- Right to protection of life and

personal liberty

✓Article 21A - Right to elementary education

✓Article 22 - Right to protection against

arrest and detention in certain cases

✓Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human

beings and forced labour

✓Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of

children in factories etc.,

✓Article 25 - Right to freedom of conscience

a n d f r e e p r o f e s s i o n , p ra c t i c e a n d

propagation of religion

✓Article 26 - Right to freedom to manage

religious affairs

✓Article 27 - Right to freedom from payment

of taxes for promotion of any religion

✓Article 28 - Right to freedom from

attending religious instruction or worship in

certain educational institutions • While the foreigners enjoy the above FR, however they're not entitled to enjoy the rights like

✓Article 15

✓Article 16

✓Article 19

✓Article 29 (Protection of language, script and culture of minorities)

✓Article 30 (Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions)

7. Which of the following statements are true regarding Directive Principle of State Policies (DPSP)?

1. DPSPs are justiciable (legally enforceable) in nature

2. DPSPs hold primacy over Fundamental Rights as former are for greater good

3. 86th amendment (regarding elementary education) changed subject matter of one DPSP - Article

38

4. DPSPs provisions have been taken from 1935 Government of India Act.

A. 3 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. All of the above


Answer: D

Explanation

1. They are non-justiciable but it is the moral obligation of the state to implement them (Article 37)


25



2. Neither the DPSP, nor the FRs hold primacy over the other. Both have to exist in balance with each

other.

✓Champakam Dorairajan case - SC ruled that in case of any conflict between the FRs and DPSPs, the

former would prevail.

✓Golaknath case - SC held that Parliament cannot take away/abridge FRs

✓Parliament enacted 24th and 25th Constitutional Amendment Acts to nullify the SC verdict in

Golaknath

✓25th C.A.A. - No law which seeks to implement Art 39 (b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of

contravention of Art 14, 19, or 31 and there can be no judicial review of the said law

✓Kesavananda Bharti case - SC upheld the first provision of 25th C.A.A. but declared invalid the

clause preventing judicial review.

✓42nd C.A.A. - Any law seeking to give effect to any DPSP shall not be void on the ground of

contravention of Art 14, 19 or 31.

✓Minerva Mills case - This clause of 42nd C.A.A. was declared unconstitutional as it upset the

balance between FRs and DPSPs which is a part of the Basic Structure of the constitution.

✓Hence, balance was restored between FRs and DPSPs.

3. The 86th C.A.A. changed subject matter of Art 45

4. DPSPs have been borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the

Spanish Constitution.

8. Which of the following cases are concerned with the jurisprudence on privacy law?

1. M P Sharma case

2. Kharak Singh case

3. Bachan Singh case

4. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

• Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors was a recent case wherein the

Supreme Court unanimously declared Privacy as a fundamental right, overturning the existing

jurisprudence of MP Sharma and Kharak SIngh cases.


26



• Bachan Singh case - Rarest of the rare doctrine

9. Which of the following have been interpreted under Article 21, Right to Life, by the Supreme Court of

India?

1. Right to livelihood

2. Right to privacy

3. Right to shelter

4. Right to speedy trial

5. Right to health

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

1. Right to livelihood

2. Right to privacy

3. Right to shelter

4. Right to speedy trial

5. Right to health

6. The right to go abroad

7. The right to privacy

8. The right against solitary confinement

9. The right against hand cuffing

10. The right against delayed execution

11. The right to shelter

12. The right against custodial death

13. The right against public hanging

14. Doctors assistance

10.Which of the following statement(s) are correct?

1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act amended the Preamble of the Constitution

2. Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharti held that the Preamble can be amended

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C


27



Explanation

• The preamble has been amended only once so far.

• On 18 December 1976, during the Emergency in India, the Indira Gandhi government pushed through

several changes in the Forty-second Amendment of the constitution.

• In the Berubari Case (1960), Supreme Court held the view that Preamble cannot be a part of the

constitution.

• But later in Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court gave a comprehensive verdict. It

said that Preamble is part of the Constitution and is subject to the amending power of the parliament

as are any other provisions of the Constitution, provided the basic structure of the Constitution is not

destroyed.

11.Though the basic features of the Constitution have not been explicitly defined by the Judiciary, yet in

numerous cases, various features have been described as "basic" or "essential" by the Courts such as

1. Separation of Powers

2. Judicial Review

3. Secularism

4. To build a Welfare State

5. The principle of free and fair elections

A. 1, 2 and 5 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3, 4 and 5 only

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

The basic features of the Constitution are as follows:

1. Supremacy of the constitution

2. Republican and democratic form of

government

3. Secular character of the constitution

4. Federal character of the constitution

5. Separation of power

6. The mandate to build a welfare state

contained in the Directive Principles of

State Policy

7. Unity and integrity of the nation

8. Sovereignty of India

9. Democratic character of the polity

10. Unity of the country

11. Essential features of the individual

freedoms secured to the citizens

12. Mandate to build a welfare state

13. Sovereign democratic republic


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14. Parliamentary democracy 15. Three organs of the State

12.In the context of some of the provision of the Indian constitution being borrowed from other

Constitutions, which of the following are correct?

1. Irish Constitution - Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Canadian Constitution - The idea of Residual Powers

3. South African Constitution - a federal system with a strong central government

4. French Constitution - Charter of Fundamental Rights

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

From Ireland

• Concept of Directive Principles of States Policy (Ireland borrowed it from SPAIN)

• Method of election of President

• Nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President

From Canada

• Scheme of federation with a strong centre

• Distribution of powers between centre and the states and placing. Residuary Powers with the centre

From South Africa

• Election of members of the Rajya Sabha

• Amendment of the Constitution

From France

• Concept of “Republic”

• Ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity (contained in the Preamble)

From United States of America

• Charter of Fundamental Rights


29



13.The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.

Constitution (Article 12) has defined the term. Which of the following bodies can be defined as ‘State’?

1. Police department of Maharashtra

2. Panchayat of a village

3. Life Insurance Corporation of India

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. All of the above


Answer: C

Explanation

Article 12 has defined the State for Part III

1. Government and Parliament of India

2. Government and Legislature of States

3. All local authorities

4. Other statutory and non-statutory authorities - LIC, ONGC, SAIL etc.


1. The exchange of enclaves between India and Bangladesh was completed via an executive order

2. Ceding territory to resolve boundary dispute with China will require a Constitutional amendment

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

• The exchange of enclaves between India and Bangladesh was completed via 100th Constitutional

Amendment Act.

• Ceding territory to resolve boundary dispute can be done via an executive action.

• This position was clarified by the Supreme Court in the Berubari Union case.


30



15.Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?

1. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.

2. The writ of certiorari can be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities as well as

administrative authorities.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Prohibition

• It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its

jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess.

• The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.

• It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or

bodies.

Certiorari

• It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the

latter to it self or to squash the order of the latter in a case.

• It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.

• Thus, unlike prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative.

• Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and

not against administrative authories.

• However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against

administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals.

• Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or

bodies.


1. Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the states is taken from the

Australian Constitution

2. The procedure for the amendment of Constitution is taken from the South African constitution

A. 1 only


31



B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Australia

• Concept of Concurrent list

• Article 108 i.e. Joint sitting of the two houses

• Freedom of trade and commerce

South Africa

• Election of members of the Rajya Sabha

• Amendment of the Constitution

17.Which of the following statements is/are correct about Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

1. The post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was added to the Constitution via 27th

Constitution Amendment Act

2. Art 350 B prescribes that he is to be appointed by the President of India.

3. He submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority

Affairs Minister

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

• Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for

Linguistic Minorities

• Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard.

Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350 B in

Part XVII of the Constitution.

This article contains the following provisions:

• There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of

India. www.YouTube.com/SleepyClasses

www.SleepyClasses.com 32



• At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.

• Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority

Affairs Minister

18.Which of the following is/are correct?

1. Advocate General of the State is not a constitutional office.

2. The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.

3. The remuneration of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

• The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate general for the states.

• He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus, he corresponds to the Attorney General of India

• The advocate general is appointed by the governor.

• He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court.

• The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution

does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of

the governor.

• The remuneration of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such

remuneration as the governor may determine.

19.Which of the following statement(s) are true?

1. Various articles of Part-II (citizenship) came into force on 26 November 1949

2. No article of Part-III (Fundamental Rights) came into force on 26 November 1949.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C


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Explanation

• Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5-11) deals with the Citizenship of India.

• Article 5 speaks about the citizenship of India at the commencement of the Constitution (Nov 26,

1949).

• Article 11 gave powers to the Parliament of India to regulate the right of citizenship by law. This

provision resulted in the enactment of Citizenship Act 1955 by the Indian Parliament.

20.Which of the following statement(s) are true?

1. Effective majority is the total strength of the house minus the vacancies

2. It is required in the case of removal of Vice-President in Rajya Sabha

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Effective Majority

• This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the effective strength of the House.

• For example, in the Lok Sabha, out of the total strength of 545, suppose 5 are vacant seats. This

means, the effective strength of the House is (545 – 5) = 540. In this case, the effective majority is

270.

• In the Constitution, an effective majority is mentioned as “all the then members”.

Instances where an effective majority is needed:

• Removal of the Chairman (Vice President of India), Deputy Chairman in the Rajya Sabha (Article

67(b)).

• Removal of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislatures


34



4. International Relations To watch the following questions on YouTube click here

1. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. Berne Convention is related to protection of Literary and Artistic works

2. India signed the Berne Convention in 2016

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

• India has been the Member of Berne Convention since 28th April, 1928

• It deals with the protection of works and the rights of their authors. It is based on three basic

principles and contains a series of provisions determining the minimum protection to be granted, as

well as special provisions available to developing countries that want to make use of them

✓National Treatment

✓Automatic Protection (not subject to conditionality)

✓Independence of Protection (independent of the existence of protection in the country of origin)

• It allows certain limitations and exceptions on economic rights, that is, cases in which protected works

may be used without the authorization of the owner of the copyright, and without payment of

compensation.

✓These limitations are commonly referred to as "free uses" of protected works include

✤ reproduction in certain special cases,

✤quotations and use of works by way of illustration for teaching purposes,

✤reproduction of newspaper or similar articles and

✤use of works for the purpose of reporting current events and ephemeral recordings for

broadcasting purposes

2. Beijing Treaty under the WTO was signed in 2012. It relates to

A. Industrial Designs

B. New Varieties of Plants


35

https://youtu.be/DJiaVijx0Po



C. Audiovisual Performances

D. Patents

Answer: C

Explanation

• The Beijing Treaty on Audiovisual Performances was adopted in Beijing in 2012

• It grants performers four kinds of economic rights for their performances fixed in audiovisual

fixations, such as motion pictures:

✓the right of reproduction;

✓the right of distribution;

✓the right of rental;

✓and the right of making available

3. Marrakesh Treaty to Facilitate Access to Published Works for Persons Who Are Blind, Visually

Impaired, or Otherwise Print Disabled (MVT) is the latest addition to the body of international

copyright treaties administered by

A. WEF

B. WIPO

C. UNESCO

D. UNCTAD

Answer: B

Explanation

• India established a dedicated Department for Disability Affairs as part of the Ministry of Social

Justice and Empowerment in 2012;

• It was the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty of 2014

• It launched the transformational ‘Accessible India’ campaign in 2015; and

• It passed the landmark Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act in 2016.

Moreover, critical amendments to India’s Right to Education Act have made education more accessible

to children with disabilities.

4. Which of the following are false?

1. Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) has a wider scope than the Paris Convention for Protection of IP

1883

2. All UN members are signatories to PCT www.YouTube.com/SleepyClasses




A. 1 only

B. Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT), commonly referred to as International Patent, provides a

common application mechanism for inventors wishing to protect their inventions around the world

✓While called “international” patent, not all countries are covered

• Paris Convention has a broader geographical scope and covers 177 countries (2020)

5. A/An _________ is an exclusive right granted for an invention—a product or process that provides a new

way of doing something, or that offers a new technical solution to a problem.

A. Trademark

B. Patent

C. Industrial Design


Answer: B

Explanation

• An industrial design refers to the ornamental or aesthetic aspects of an article. A design may consist

of three-dimensional features, such as the shape or surface of an article, or two-dimensional features,

such as patterns, lines or color.

• A trademark is a distinctive sign that identifies certain goods or services produced or provided by an

individual or a company. Its origin dates back to ancient times when craftsmen reproduced their

signatures, or “marks”, on their artistic works or products of a functional or practical nature


37



4. Economy To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below

• Video 1

• Video 2

• Video 3

• Video 4

1. Usually, in India Chickpea is a

A. Kharif Crop

B. Rabi Crop

C. Zaid Crop

D. It is grown throughout the year in India

Answer: B

Explanation

Why in News?

• Scientists develop new drought tolerant chickpea variety.

About Chickpea

• Chickpea is a major source of protein for the people in India.

• It is grown mainly in semi-arid regions during the post-monsoon season.

• It faces drought during flowering leading to huge drops in yield.

What is the drought tolerant variety

• Indian scientists have raised a GM chickpea variety.

• By reducing the level of a plant growth substance called cytokinin in the root, it shows high drought

tolerance and high iron and zinc content in seeds.

• Two major plant hormones auxin and cytokinin regulate root development.

• The study showed that reduction in cytokinin level resulted in increased root length and branching

enabling the plant to acquire water and nutrient from deep in the soil during drought.

Other important Crops and their Seasons

Kharif

• Rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean,

groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.


38

https://youtu.be/1iwzemFMXjA

https://youtu.be/Jqk_7pETrjM

https://youtu.be/T9A7TbcgPMc%5C

https://youtu.be/ODhlzwbBQrk



Rabi

• Wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.

2. In context of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), which of the following is/are

incorrect:

1. NIIF currently manages two funds each with its distinctive investment mandate.

2. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange

Board of India (SEBI).

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct


Answer: A

Explanation

Why in News?

• Asian Development Bank (ADB) will invest $100 million equivalent into the National Investment and

Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) of India’s Fund of Funds.

• With this investment the NIIF platform has now secured $700 million in commitments.

Who else has invested in NIIF FoF

• Government of India

• Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

About NIIF FoF

• NIIF Fund of Funds (FoF) was established in 2018.

• It’s objective is to create a vehicle to provide India-focused private equity fund managers with a go-to

institutional investor operating at scale and based in India.

• The FoF invests into a variety of sectors and strategies through third-party managed funds.

About NIIF

• National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is India's first sovereign wealth fund.

• It was set up by the Government of India in February 2015.

Three Funds of NIIF

• NIIF currently manages three funds each with its distinctive investment mandate.


39



• The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange

Board of India (SEBI).

Master Fund

• A fund focused on creating scalable sectoral platforms in core infrastructure and in collaboration with

strong and reputed operating and financial partners.

Fund Of Funds

• A fund focused on anchoring and investing in credible and reputed third party managers with a strong

track record across diversified sectors within infrastructure services and allied sectors.

Strategic Fund

• A fund focused on investing in strategic assets and projects with longer term horizon across various

stages of development.

3. In context of Asian Development Bank, which of the following is/are correct?

1. It was established in 1946 along with Brettonwood Twins.

2. It is headquartered in Manila, Phillippines.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) was established on 19 December 1966.

• It is headquartered in Manila, Philippines.

• From 31 members at its establishment, ADB now has 68 members.

• Japan holds the largest proportion of shares at 15.677%

• United States with 15.567% capital share, China 6.473%, India 6.359%

4. In context of ‘Exchange-rate pass-through’, consider the following:

1. It is a measure of how responsive international prices are, to changes in exchange rates.

2. When exchange-rate pass-through is greater, there is lesser transmission of inflation between

countries.

Which of the above is/are correct?


40



A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both are correct

D. None is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

• Recently RBI published a research paper on it.

• It is a measure of how responsive international prices are, to changes in exchange rates.

• A change in import prices affects retail and consumer prices. When exchange-rate pass-through is

greater, there is more transmission of inflation between countries.

• Exchange-rate pass-through is also related to the law of one price and purchasing power parity.

• It is also important from the point of view of inflation targeting, which in turn impacts monetary

policy.

5. Often mentioned in WTO’s parlance, which of the following is/are true in context of Peace Clause:

1. It refers to an article of the WTO's Agreement on Agriculture.

2. WTO members adopted a decision at the Nairobi Ministerial Conference in 2015 on public

stockholding for food security purposes.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Peace Clause

• It refers to Article 13 of the World Trade Organization's Agreement on Agriculture.

• The ‘peace clause’ says that no country would be legally barred from food security programmes even

if the subsidy breached the limits specified in the WTO agreement on agriculture.

• WTO members adopted a decision at the Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013 on public stockholding

for food security purposes. In the nature of an interim solution, this decision allows developing

members to invoke the peace clause, which protects their public stockholding programmes for food

security purposes from legal challenge, even if they lead to a breach of commitments.


41



• As there was some ambiguity about the duration of the Bali Decision, a complementary decision

taken by the WTO members in 2014 permits the peace clause to be available until a permanent

solution to the issue of food security is negotiated. Thus, the peace clause could theoretically

continue in perpetuity.

• The gains from this hard-fought battle are evident now in ensuring the food supply during COVID-19

Pandemic.

6. Which of the following might be counted as the sub-components of the CONSUMPTION (C)

component of GDP

1. Food

2. Rent

3. Jewellery

4. Purchase of new housing

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

• Consumption is normally the largest GDP component in the economy, consisting of private

expenditures in the economy (household final consumption expenditure).

• These personal expenditures fall under one of the following categories: durable goods, nondurable

goods, and services.

• Examples include food, rent, jewellery, gasoline, and medical expenses, but not the purchase of new

housing.

• New houses are included in investment.

7. With respect to ‘Advance Pricing Agreements’, which of the following is/are correct

1. It endeavours to provide certainty to taxpayers in the field of transfer pricing.

2. India is yet to finalise an APA with any country.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct


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D. None of the above is correct

Answer: A

8. Which of the following Oil Refineries are correctly matched with their corresponding state

1. Barmer Refinery Gujarat

2. Manali Refinery Himachal Pradesh

3. Bina Refinery Madhya Pradesh

4. Bongaigaon Refinery Karnataka

A. 2 and 3 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 3 Only

D. All

Answer: C

Explanation

• Barmer Refinery – Rajasthan

• Manali Refinery – Tamil Nadu

• Bina Refinery – Madhya Pradesh

• Bongaigaon Refinery - Assam

9. Which of the following GI Tags is/are correctly matched with their corresponding state

1. Gobindobhog Rice Odisha

2. Kani Shawl Assam

3. Bastar Dhokra Jharkhand

4. Arani Silk Tamil Nadu

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation

• Gobindobhog Rice – West Bengal (Burdwan District) www.YouTube.com/SleepyClasses




• Kani Shawl – Kashmir (Two other kinds of shawls, the Pashmina and the Kashmiri Sozni also have GI

tag)

• Bastar Dhokra – Chhatisgarh (Dhokra (also spelt Dokra) is non–ferrous metal casting using the lost-

wax casting technique)

• Arani Silk – Tamil Nadu (famous for Arani Silk Saree)

10.Mark the correct statements with respect to new Wholesale Price Index;

1. In the new series of WPI, prices used for compilation do not include indirect taxes in order to

remove impact of fiscal policy.

2. Item level aggregates for new WPI are compiled using Arithmetic Mean (AM) following

international best practices.

3. The new Base Year is 2010-11.

4. While the weights of Primary Articles has increased in new series, the weights of Fuel & Power

and Manufactured Products have decreased.

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the Above

Answer: B

Explanation

• In the new series of WPI, prices used for compilation do not include indirect taxes in order to remove

impact of fiscal policy.

• Item level aggregates for new WPI are compiled using Geometric Mean (AM) following international

best practices.

• The new Base Year is 2011-12.

• While the weights of Primary Articles has increased in new series, the weights of Fuel & Power and

Manufactured Products have decreased.

11.A country has high Gini Coefficient. What does it signify about the country

A. High Inequality

B. High Equality

C. High Inflation

D. Low Inflation


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Answer: A

Explanation

• Gini coefficient attempts to measure the income or wealth distribution of

a nation's residents.

• It is the most commonly used as a measurement of inequality.

• A Gini coefficient of zero expresses perfect equality, where all

values are the same (for example, where everyone has the

same income).

• A Gini coefficient of one (or 100%) expresses

maximal inequality among values.

12. Which of the following comprise Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) under TRIPS

1. Copyright

2. GI Tag

3. Patents

4. Trade Secrets

5. Industrial Design

6. New Plant Varieties

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 only

B. 2, 3, 4, 5 only

C. 3, 4, 5, 6 only

D. All

Answer: B

Explanation

Intellectual property Rights

• They are the rights given to people over the creations of their minds.

• They usually give the creator an exclusive right over the use of his/her creations for a certain period of

time.

• Intellectual property rights are traditionally divided into two main categories:

1. Copyright and Rights related to copyright

✓These are the rights granted to authors of literary and artistic works, and the rights of performers,

producers of phonograms and broadcasting organizations.


45



✓The main purpose of protection of copyright and related rights is to encourage and reward creative

work.

2. Industrial Property

✓the protection of distinctive signs such as trademarks and geographical indications

✓Industrial property protected primarily to stimulate innovation, design and the creation of

technology.

✓In this category fall inventions (protected by patents), industrial designs and trade secrets.

13.Global Financial Development Report is released by

A. IMF

B. World Bank

C. BIS (Bank for International Settlements)

D. WTO

Answer: B

Explanation

• Global Financial Development Report 2019/2020 released by the World Bank focused on Bank

regulation and supervision a decade after the global financial crisis.

• It asked countries to design and enforce regulations that are appropriate for the institutional

environment, strength of market discipline, supervisory capacity, and business models of banks in a

given country.

• The Global Financial Development Report 2019/2020 is the fifth in a World Bank series.

14.What are the benefit(s) of receiving an upgrade from credit rating agencies (like Moody’s Investors

Services) to India

1. It will boost sentiments which play a role in influencing private investment decisions.

2. It will allow Indian companies to raise debt overseas at lower interest rates.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both

D. None

Answer: B


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Explanation

• A credit rating agency rates a debtor's ability to pay back debt by making timely principal and interest

payments and the likelihood of default.

• Individual consumers are rated for creditworthiness not by credit rating agencies but by credit

bureaus (also called consumer reporting agencies or credit reference agencies), which issue credit

scores.

• The "Big Three" credit rating agencies are Moody’s, Standard & Poor's (S&P) and Fitch Ratings.

15.What are the possible implications of Printing Money to finance the Fiscal Deficit?

1. Rise in Inflation

2. Appreciation of Domestic Currency

3. Increased Tax Collection

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the Above

Answer: B

16.The construction of the Strategic Crude Oil Storage facilities is being managed by

A. Oil India Limited (OIL)

B. Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL)

C. Gail (India) Limited (GAIL)

D. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

Answer: B

Explanation

• To ensure energy security, the Government of India decided to set up 5 million metric tons (MMT) of

strategic crude oil storages at three locations namely, Visakhapatnam, Mangalore and Padur (near

Udupi).

• These strategic storages would be in addition to the existing storages of crude oil and petroleum

products with the oil companies and would serve as a cushion during any supply disruptions.

• The construction of the Strategic Crude Oil Storage facilities is being managed by Indian Strategic

Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), a Special Purpose Vehicle, which is a wholly owned subsidiary of

Oil Industry Development Board (OIDB) under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.


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• The crude oil storages are constructed in underground rock caverns and are located on the East and

West coast of India.

• Crude oil from these caverns can be supplied to the Indian Refineries either through pipelines or

through a combination of pipelines and coastal movement.

• Underground rock caverns are considered as the safest means of storing hydrocarbons.

17.Which of the following is/are true in context of renewable energy capacity in India

1. The cumulative grid-connected installed renewable power capacity in India has crossed 100 GW.

2. The total installed capacity of wind power sector is higher than Solar Sector.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both are correct

D. None is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

• According to the data provided by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)

• As on March 31, 2020, cumulative grid-connected installed renewable power capacity in India stood

at 87,027 MW.

• The solar segment had a cumulative installed capacity of 34,627 MW (includes 32,112 MW of

ground-mounted and 2,515 MW of rooftop capacity).

• The total installed capacity of wind power sector stood at 37,694 MW as of March 2020.

• Small hydro, biomass (bagasse cogeneration), biomass (non-bagasse/captive power) and small hydro

had cumulative capacities of 4,683 MW, 9,200 MW and 675 MW respectively.

18.Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is prescribed under the

A. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

C. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007

D. It is not mentioned in any act and is only a regulation

Answer: B

Explanation

• The public deposits form part of a bank’s net demand and time liabilities.


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• The Statutory liquidity ratio requires a bank to keep a percentage of such liabilities in liquid form as

prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

• Statutory liquidity ratio is a minimum percentage prescribed by RBI from time to time.

• The RBI regulates the SLR in its policy meetings with a view to keep a check on inflation and credit

growth.

• An increase in SLR will help in containing inflation, while a decrease in SLR will facilitate economic

growth.

• SLR is prescribed under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

• It helps in maintaining and keeping a check on the solvency of commercial banks.

• In a case of falling demand and slowing economic growth, SLR is cut to infuse more liquidity in the

economy, facilitating loan growth and so on.

• A cut in SLR means banks have to keep less money in liquid form with RBI.

19.Which of the following is/are not a part of Monetary Policy?

1. Repo Rate

2. Reverse Repo Rate

3. Personal Income Tax Rate

4. Corporate Income Tax Rate

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3 only

C. 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above are part of Monetary Policy

Answer: C

Explanation

• Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank.

• It involves management of money supply and interest rate and is the demand side economic policy

used by the government of a country to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation,

consumption, growth and liquidity.

• It includes Repo, Reverse Repo, SLR, CRR, Quantitative Easing, etc.

• Taxes are part of Fiscal Policy.


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20.The Indian basket of Crude Oil comprises of:

1. Sour grade (Saudi & Dubai average)

2. Sweet grade (Brent Dated)

3. The Sweet grade comprises of 24.50 percent of the total

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the Above

Answer: C

Explanation

The Indian basket of Crude Oil represents a derived basket comprising of:

• Sour grade (Oman & Dubai average)

• Sweet grade (Brent Dated) of Crude oil processed in Indian refineries in the ratio of 75.50: 24.50

during 2018-19.


50



5. Environment To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below

• Video 1

• Video 2

• Video 3

1. Which of the following pollutants are monitored under National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP)?

1. SO2

2. NO2

3. PM 2.5

4. PM 10

5. NH3

6. O3

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

C. 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

D. All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

• Government is executing a nation-wide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as

National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP).

• The network consists of Six hundred and ninety-one (691) manual operating stations covering Three

Hundred and three (303) cities/towns in twenty-nine (29) states and six (6) Union Territories of the

country.

• Under NAMP, four air pollutants viz. Sulphur Dioxide (S02), Oxides of Nitrogen as N02, Suspended

Particulate Matter (PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular

monitoring at all the locations.

• In addition, there are hundred and one (101) real-time Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring

stations (CAAQMS) in 57 cities monitoring 08 pollutants viz. PM10, PM2.5, S02, NOx, ammonia

(NH3J,CO, ozone (03) and benzene.


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https://youtu.be/IgCpJCOW0Tg

https://youtu.be/oFr-HIWV2eI

https://youtu.be/I-eKdXgP2uE

2. Which of the following SDGs are correctly matched?

1. Goal 1 – No Poverty

2. Goal 2 - Reduced Inequality

3. Goal 4 - Quality Education

4. Goal 7 – Clean Water and Sanitation

5. Goal 11 – Sustainable Cities and Communities

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 3 and 5 only

C. 1, 4 and 5 only

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

The 17 sustainable development goals (SDGs) to transform our world: • GOAL 1: No Poverty

• GOAL 2: Zero Hunger

• GOAL 3: Good Health and Well-being

• GOAL 4: Quality Education

• GOAL 5: Gender Equality

• GOAL 6: Clean Water and Sanitation

• GOAL 7: Affordable and Clean Energy

• GOAL 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth

• G O A L 9 : I n d u s t r y, I n n o v a t i o n a n d

Infrastructure

• GOAL 10: Reduced Inequality

• GOAL 11: Sustainable Cities and Communities

• GOAL 12: Responsible Consumption and

Production

• GOAL 13: Climate Action

• GOAL 14: Life Below Water

• GOAL 15: Life on Land

• GOAL 16: Peace and Justice Strong

Institutions

• GOAL 17: Partnerships to achieve the Goal

3. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to

the UNFCCC

1. The targets are valid for the year 2015 to 2030.

2. One of the target include reducing Emission Intensity of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by

33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 level.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only


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C. Both of the above


Answer: B

Explanation

Under the Paris Agreement, India has submitted its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to the

UNFCCC outlining eight (8) targets for 2021-2030, including

1. to reduce Emission Intensity of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 33 to 35 percent by 2030

from 2005 level,

2. to achieve about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel based

energy resources by 2030 with the help of transfer of technology and low cost international finance

including from Green Climate Fund (GCF),

3. to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional

forest and tree cover by 2030.

The other targets pertain to sustainable lifestyles; climate friendly growth path; climate change

adaptation; climate change finance; and capacity building and technology.

4. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are considered a pollutant because

1. Of their part in ozone depletion.

2. They are greenhouse gas in nature.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above


Answer: C

Explanation

• A chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) is an organic compound that contains only carbon, chlorine, and fluorine,

produced as a volatile derivative of methane, ethane, and propane.

• They are also commonly known by the DuPont brand name Freon.

• Because CFCs contribute to ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere, the manufacture of such

compounds has been phased out under the Montreal Protocol, and they are being replaced with other

products.

• They also cause global warming having high GWP (Global Warming Potential).


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5. Emissions Gap Report is released by

A. IPCC

B. UNDP

C. UN Environment


Answer: C

Explanation

• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released its annual Emissions Gap Report.

• Produced annually since 2010, the UNEP flagship report assesses the gap between anticipated

emission levels in 2030 and levels consistent with a 2°C/1.5°C temperature target.

• The report warns that unless global greenhouse gas emissions fall by 7.6 per cent each year between

2020 and 2030, the world will miss the opportunity to get on track towards the 1.5°C temperature

goal of the Paris Agreement.

• The ‘Emissions Gap Report 2019’ presents the latest data on the expected gap in 2030 for the 1.5°C

and 2°C temperature targets, exploring different scenarios, from no new climate policies since 2005

to full implementation of all national commitments under the Paris Agreement

6. Plan Bee is related to which of the following?

A. It is a plan to help reduce the amount of pesticides that are killing our honey bees and other

pollinators.

B. It is plan to ensure the well keep of bee keepers.

C. An amplifying system imitating the buzz of a swarm of honey bees to keep wild elephants away from

railway tracks.


Answer: C

Explanation

• Plan Bee, an amplifying system imitating the buzz of a swarm of honey bees to keep wild elephants

away from railway tracks, has earned the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) the best innovation

award in Indian Railways for the 2018-19 fiscal.

• A device was designed to generate the amplified sound of honey bees audible from 700-800 metres.

• The first instrument was installed at a level crossing west of Guwahati on a track adjoining the Rani

Reserve Forest, an elephant habitat.

• NFR now has 46 such devices installed at vulnerable points.


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• NFR officials said that a mix of Plan Bee and other measures have helped them save 1,014 elephants

from 2014 to June 2019.

7. Miyawaki method, a Japanese technique, is related to which of the following?

A. Farming without soil

B. Urban afforestation by turning backyards into mini-forests

C. Farming with hydrogel – a super absorbent material


Answer: B

Explanation

• Having been entrusted with the huge task of planting around 3.29 crore saplings under the fifth phase

of the Telanganaku Haritha Haaram (TKHH) in the district, the Forest department has introduced the

famous Japanese “Miyawaki” method of afforestation in the Velugumatla urban park here on a pilot

basis to supplement the green drive.

• Miyawaki method originated in Japan, and is now increasingly adopted in other parts of the world.

• It has revolutionised the concept of urban afforestation by turning backyards into mini-forests.

• Using this, it’s possible to grow a variety of native species in as little a space as 600 sq.ft. (divided into

four layers — shrub, sub-tree, tree, and canopy).

• The advantage of Miyawaki method is that the saplings need minimum maintenance.

8. Consider the following statements regarding Orchids found in India

1. The highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh.

2. Maximum number of endemic species are found in Kerala.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• The Botanical Survey of India has come up with the first comprehensive census of orchids of India

putting the total number of orchid species to 1,256.


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• Orchids of India : A Pictorial Guide, a publication detailing all the species of India was unveiled by the

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

• A State-wise distribution of orchid species point out that the Himalayas, North-East parts of the

country and Western Ghats are the hot-spots of the beautiful plant species.

• The highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh with 612 species, followed

by Sikkim 560 species and West Bengal; Darjeeling Himalayas have also high species concentration,

with 479 species.

• While north-east India rank at the top in species concentration, the Western Ghats have high

endemism of orchids.

• There are 388 species of orchids, which are endemic to India of which about one-third (128) endemic

species are found in Western Ghats.

• The publication points out that Kerala has 111 of these endemic species while Tamil Nadu has 92 of

them.

• Among the 10 bio geographic zones of India, the Himalayan zone is the richest in terms of orchid

species followed by Northeast, Western Ghats, Deccan plateau and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

9. Consider the following statements regarding Whale Shark

1. Their IUCN status is critically endangered.

2. They belong to Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

• Whale sharks are harmless, slow-moving that feed on phytoplanktons, micro-algae and small sea

animals.

• It is the largest known extant fish species.

• They have many rows of teeth that play no role in feeding.

• They suck water and close their mouth to expel the water through their gills.

• During this ‘filter feeding’ process, they also suck up their food.

• It is found in open waters of the tropical oceans.

• Whale sharks are annual visitors to the Odisha coast, usually from January to March. www.YouTube.com/SleepyClasses




• In the past, carcasses of whale sharks have been found near Gopalpur, the mouth of the Rushikulya

and Devi rivers, the Chilika lake coast, and along Bhitarkanika and Balasore.

• IUCN Status - Endangered

• Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 - Schedule I

10.Consider the following statements regarding National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)

1. It is a statutory Board constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. It is chaired by the Minister of Environment.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

• National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory Board constituted under the Wild Life (Protection)

Act, 1972.

• It is chaired by the Prime Minister.

• Its vice chairman is Minister of Environment.

• Its role is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures

for conservation of wildlife in the country.

• Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and

forests.

• It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks

and sanctuaries.

• No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval

of the NBWL

11.Consider the following states

1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Maharashtra

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Mizoram www.YouTube.com/SleepyClasses




Arrange the above in the increasing order of forest cover in India

A. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

B. 2 – 4 - 1 – 3

C. 2 – 4 - 3 – 1

D. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Answer: D

Explanation

As per the ISFR 2019 report,

• Largest forest cover in India

✓ Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Maharashtra

• Forest cover as percentage of total geographical area

✓Mizoram (85.41%) > Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%) > Meghalaya (76.33%) > Manipur (75.46%) >

Nagaland (75.31%)

12.Consider the following statements regarding Great Hornbill

1. It is the State bird of both Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.

2. Its IUCN status is near threatened.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

• It’s the State bird of both Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.

• Sound of their take off is akin to the start of the steam locomotive of the Nilgiri Mountain Railway

• Great Hornbill, commonly found in many parts of the Blue Mountains flying from one tree to another,

may in a matter of time become extremely rare if habitat loss continues at the rate at which it has

been happening for some time now.

• The magnificent birds which were also a common sight in the evergreen rain forests of the Western

Ghats are now forced, due to deforestation, to adapt themselves to hollows in silver oak trees which

form part of thick coffee plantations in Singara and Moyar and some tea plantations in the lower part

of the hills. www.YouTube.com/SleepyClasses




• Pakke TR is known for its amazing sightings of four resident hornbill species.

13.Consider the following statements regarding CMS COP 13

1. The theme of CMS COP-13 is ‘Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home’.

2. India hosted the CMS COP for the first time.

3. The CMS COP 13 took place in Delhi.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

CMS COP-13

• India marks the beginning of super year of Biodiversity with the hosting of the 13th Conference of

Parties (COP) of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), an

environmental treaty under the aegis of United Nations Environment Programme, from 17th to 22nd

February 2020 at Gandhinagar in Gujarat.

• It is for the first time that India is hosting CMS COP.

• The theme of CMS COP-13 is ‘Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home’.

• The CMS COP 13 logo is inspired by ‘Kolam’, a traditional art form from southern India.


59



• In the logo of CMS COP-13, Kolam art form is used to depict key migratory species in India like Amur

falcon, humpback whale and marine turtles.

• The mascot for CMS COP-13 is ‘Gibi – The Great Indian Bustard’.

• It is a critically endangered species and is listed in Schedule I under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

14.Operation Clean Art has been conceived to crackdown the smuggling of which of the following

species?

A. Tiger

B. Pangolin

C. Mongoose


Answer: C

Explanation

Operation Clean Art

• It was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.

• It was conceived by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) with the singular aim of ensuring that the

mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.

• The mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act and any smuggling or

possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.

• Persons using brushes made of mongoose hair should be aware of it.

• The reason why painters prefer brushes made of mongoose hair is because they are superior and hold

colour better.


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15.Consider the following Tiger Reserves

1. Dampa

2. Namdapha

3. Nameri

4. Pakke

Which of the above is/are located in Arunachal Pradesh?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation

• Dampa TR is in Mizoram.

• Nameri TR is in Assam.

• Rest two is in Arunachal pradesh.


61




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6. Science & Tech And Defence To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below

• Video 1

• Video 2

• Video 3

1. Lopinavir and Ritonavir are used to treat which of the following ailments?

A. HIV-AIDS

B. Tuberculosis

C. Malaria

D. Covid-19

Answer: A

Explanation

• Anti-HIV drugs Lopinavir and RItonavir are no longer recommended for use against COVID-19

• Instead, a combination of hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) which is drug for autoimmune disorders, and

the antibiotic azithromycin are recommended for use in severe patients

2. Which of the following are true w.r.t. PM CARES?

5. PM is the proverbial ‘judge, jury and executioner’ of the fund

6. It was created in 1948 to mitigate the consequences of untold disasters among others

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

• PM National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was launched in 1948 and PM Citizens Assistance and Relief in

Emergency Situations (PM CARES) fund is launched by PM Modi in 2020

✓Both mitigating the consequences of untold disasters and consequent human flights to escape

misery and destitution


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https://youtu.be/a01cLeijHvg

https://youtu.be/82AP6aTCMqw

https://youtu.be/FA3xIilfAls

• PM CARES delegates the power of deliberation and decision making to three other ministers of the

government, who handle some of the most crucial portfolios. Apart from PM Modi who will chair the

trust, it also has his top three ministers

3. Which of the following are true in the context of Defence Sector?

1. Indian exports are rising and imports are on a decline

2. Indian defence exports have experienced a rise since last 5 years

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C


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Explanation

• Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report states that in the period between

2009-13 and 2014-18, Indian defence imports fell even as exports increase

• The period between 2012 and 2019 saw Indian defence exports experiencing a considerable jump

sourced from Indian public and private sector enterprises. In the last two fiscal years, 2017-18 and

2018-19, exports have witnessed a surge from ₹7,500 crore to ₹11,000 crore, representing a 40%

increase in exports

4. Under Operation Sanjeevani, India supplied essential medicines to which of the following country?

A. Maldives

B. China

C. Italy

D. Spain

Answer: A

5. World Economic Situation and Prospects report is released by

A. IMF

B. UNCTAD

C. World Bank

D. WEF

Answer: B

Explanation

• UNCTAD observed that the Covid-19 would cost $1 trillion to the global economy in 2020

• UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body headquartered at Geneva and publishes

✓Trade and Development Report

✓World Investment Report

✓Technology and Innovation Report

6. Sahyog-Kaijin is a joint military exercise between India and

A. Japan

B. Bangladesh

C. Sri Lanka


65



D. Australia

Answer: A

7. US administration has recently cleared the sale of Harpoon missiles to India? These missiles are

A. anti-tank missiles

B. anti-ship missiles

C. anti-aircraft missiles


Answer: B

Explanation

• Harpoon missiles are air-launched anti-ship missiles

• These will be integrated into the P-8I anti-submarine warfare aircraft to conduct anti-surface warfare

missions in defence of critical sea lanes while enhancing interoperability with the US and other allied

forces

• While the Harpoon missiles will be manufactured by Boeing

8. Draft Defence Procurement Procedure-2020 was recently unveiled. Which of the following are true

in this context?

1. It proposes to raise by 10% the indigenous content stipulated in DPP 2016

2. It introduced a new procurement category entitled Buy (Global-Manufacture in India)

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Buy (Global-Manufacture in India) category stipulates a minimum indigenous content of 50% of the

value of contract. This category would be given a higher preference than the current Buy Global

category

9. Which of the following are the operational aircraft carriers of Indian Navy

1. INS Virat


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2. INS Vikramaditya

3. INS Vikrant

4. INS Vishal

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

• INS Viraat was decommissioned in 2017

• India’s only operational aircraft carrier is Russia built INS Vikramaditya. It joined the fleet in 2013

• Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL) will make INS Vikrant fully operational by 2022

• Navy has proposed to build a second indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vishal

10.Which of the following are true?

1. India’s budgetary allocations for defence sector are more for defence’s revenue expenditure

2. The largest increase in terms of budgetary allocation for capital expenditure is for the Indian

Army

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

• There is only a marginal increase in the defence budget allocation from INR 318,000 crore in

Financial Year (FY) 2019-20 to INR 337,533 crore for FY 2020-21

• The allocation for the revenue head continues to be more than the capital expenditure

✓Revenue allocation is essential for the maintenance of the weapons, equipment, transport and

ammunition for the smooth functioning of the armed forces, apart from repairs, overhauls and

procurements for the recoupment of stores and reserves

• The largest increase in terms of budgetary allocation for capital expenditure is for the IAF followed by

Army


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11.Kisan-Rath app relates to

A. Facilitate transport of food grains and perishables during lockdown

B. Divert industry labour stranded during lockdown to farms

C. On-field soil testing for better produce


Answer: A

Explanation

It is an app developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) to facilitate farmers & traders in

searching transport vehicles for Primary and Secondary transportation for movement of agriculture and

horticulture produce.

12.Which of the following are true in the context of Swayam Prabha

1. It is a group of 32 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational programmes

on 24x7 basis

2. There will be new content for at least 4 hours which would be repeated 5 more times in a day

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• Swayam Prabha is a group of 32 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high quality educational

programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite

• Every day, there will be new content for at least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times in a

day, allowing the students to choose the time of their convenience

• It will cover

✓Higher Education: Contents at post-graduate and under-graduate level covering diverse disciplines

✓School Education: 9-12 levels

✓Curriculum-based courses that can meet the needs of life-long learners of Indian citizens in India

and abroad

✓Assist students (class 11th & 12th) prepare for competitive exams


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13.Which of the following is/are true in the context of e-Raktkosh Portal?

A. IT solution to standardize and streamline the standard operating procedures, guidelines and

workflow of blood banks across nation

B. Provide information on availability of nearest blood bank, status of blood group etc.

C. It enforces Drug & Cosmetic Act, National Blood Policy Standards and Guidelines

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

• e-RaktKosh is a comprehensive IT solution attempting to address the problem of blood stock

availability by providing means to collect, disseminate, standardize and streamline the standard

operating procedures, guidelines and workflow of blood banks across the nation

• It enforces Drug & Cosmetic Act, National Blood Policy Standards and Guidelines, thus ensuring

proper collection & donation, effective management and monitoring the quality and quantity of the

donated blood

• Salient Features

✓Web based application on open source platform

✓Configurable to support varied size & flow of Blood Banks

✓Enforcing Mechanism - to ensure compliance with Standard protocols

✓Biometric Interfacing - to restrict professional donors

✓Adhere to Drug & Cosmetic act, NACO & NABH Guidelines

✓Provision of Multilingual Questionnaire & Consent Printing

✓Generation of alerts, MIS Reports, trends, forecasting etc.

14.COVID India Seva falls under the purview of

A. NITI Aayog

B. Ministry of Health & Family Welfare

C. Prime Minister’s Office

D. Ministry of Science & Technology

Answer: B

Explanation

• Ministry of Health & Family Welfare has launched COVID India Seva for establishing a direct channel

of communication with millions of Indians during novel coronavirus pandemic


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• The interactive platform is aimed at enabling transparent e-governance delivery in real-time and

answering citizen queries without delay especially in crises like the ongoing COVID-10 pandemic.

15.Sahyog App relates to which of the following?

A. Geospatial application to support corona fighters

B. Complaints and grievances in context of Income tax department

C. Raising legal awareness


Answer: A

Explanation

• Survey of India has developed an e-platform that will collect geotagged information on the nation’s

critical infrastructure in order to help the government and public health agencies take critical

decisions in response to the COVID-19 pandemic

• Survey of India has introduced the Sahyog app to compliment Aarogya Setu


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