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(NEETS) MODULE 1 TURNING TO ELECTRICITY ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Matter can be found in which of the following forms? A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gaseous D. Each of the above * 2. A substance that CANNOT be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means is called a/an A. element * B. mixture C. compound D. solution 3. A molecule is the smallest possible particle that retains the characteristic of which of the following substances? A. An element B. A mixture C. A compound * D. A solution 4. An atom is the smallest possible particle that retains the characteristic of which of the following substances? A. An element * B. A mixture C. A compound D. A solution 5. What subatomic particle has a negative charge and a small mass? A. Proton B. Electron * C. Positron D. Neutron 6. What subatomic particle has a positive charge and a large mass? A. Proton * B. Electron C. Positron D. Neutron 7. What subatomic particle has no charge? A. Proton B. Electron C. Positron D. Neutron * 8. When light is represented as a tiny packet of energy, what are these packets of energy called? A. Angstroms B. Photons * C. Wavelengths D. Frequencies 9. If light energy collides with an orbiting electron, what happens to the electron? A. The electron will move around the same orbit faster B. The electron will jump to an orbit further from the nucleus* C. The electron will jump to an orbit closer to the nucleus D. The electron will merge with the nucleus 10. If light energy collides with an orbiting electron, the electron will jump to an orbit further from the nucleus. The electron will return to the condition it had before being acted upon by the light. When the electron returns to this condition, which of the following actions occurs? A. The nucleus becomes lighter B. The atom becomes an ion C. Light energy is emitted * D. The valence of the atom changes 11. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom determines which of the following characteristics of the atom? A. Valence * B. Atomic weight C. Atomic number D. Number of shells 12. When an atom gains or loses an electron, which of the following terms applies? A. Unbalanced B. Lightened C. Neutral D. Ionized* 13. What is the main difference between conductors, semiconductors, and insulators? A. The temperature differences B. The physical state of their mass C. The number of free electrons* D. The designations of the outer shells 14. A substance with an excess of electrons is considered to be in what electrical state? A. Neutral B. Positive C. Negative* D. Discharged 15. Which of following actions describes the easiest way to accumulate a static electric charge? A. Friction between two conductors B. Friction between two insulators* C. Pressure between two conductors D. Pressure between two insulators 16. An atom that contains 6 protons and 5 electrons has what electrical charge? A. Positive * B. Negative C. Neutral D. Intermediate 17. How do "like" and "unlike" charges react to one another?

A. Unlike charges repel each other, like charges repel each other B. Unlike charges attract each other, like charges attract each other C. Unlike charges repel each other, like charges attract each other D. Unlike charges attract each other, like charges repel each other * 18. What is/are the term(s) applied to the space between and around charged bodies in which their influence is felt? A. Electric field of force B. Electrostatic field C. Dielectric field D. Each of the above * 19. Electrostatic lines of force are drawn in which of the following manners? A. Entering negative charge, entering positive charge B. Entering negative charge, leaving positive charge * C. Leaving negative charge, leaving positive charge D. Leaving negative charge, entering positive charge 20. Which of the following devices use magnetism? A. Batteries B. Light bulbs C. High-fidelity speakers * D. Each of the above (NEETS) MODULE 1 TURNING TO ELECTRICITY ASSIGNMENT 2 21. Magnetic materials have which of the following qualities? A. They are attracted by magnets B. They can be magnetized C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. They are electrical insulators 22. Ferromagnetic materials have which of the following qualities? A. They are all alloys B. They all contain nickel C. They make very weak magnets D. They are relatively easy to magnetize * 23. A material with low reluctance and high permeability such as iron or soft steel is used to make what type of magnet? A. Temporary * B. Permanent C. Residual D. Natural 24. The ability of a material to retain magnetism is called A. permeability B. retentivity * C. reluctance D. ionization 25. The law of magnetic poles states which of the following relationships? A. Like poles attract, unlike poles attract B. Like poles attract, unlike poles repel C. Like poles repel, unlike poles repel D. Like poles repel, unlike poles attract * 26. The north indicating pole of a compass needle is attracted to which of the following poles of the earth? A. The geographic north pole B. The magnetic north pole * C. The geographic south pole D. The magnetic south pole 27. Weber's theory of magnetism assumes that magnetic material is composed of A. tiny molecular magnets * B. domains of magnetic influence C. large blocks of material acting as magnets D. atoms with electrons spinning different directions 28. According to the domain theory, if an atom with 26 electrons has 20 electrons spinning counterclock-wise, the atom is considered to be A. charged B. insulated C. neutralized D. magnetized * 29. If a glass plate is placed over a magnet and iron filings are sprinkled over the glass, a pattern will be visible. What does this pattern indicate? A. The magnetic field * B. The electrostatic field C. The piezoelectric effect D. The chemical reaction of the magnet and the filings 30. An imaginary line used to illustrate a magnetic effect is known as a/an A. magnetic pole B. force field pole C. magnetic line of force * D. electrostatic line of force 31. Which of the following is NOT a property of magnetic lines of force?

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A. They form closed loops around the magnet B. They leave the magnetic material at right angles to the surface C. They cross each other at right angles * D. They leave the north pole and enter the south pole of the magnet 32. A magnetic shield or screen used to protect a delicate instrument should be made of which of the following materials? A. Plastic B. Copper C. Soft iron * D. Aluminum 33. Bar magnets should be stored in which of the following manners? A. Separately B. In pairs at 90 degree angles C. In pairs with north poles together D. In pairs with a north pole and a south pole together * 34. What is the term applied to the ability to do work? A. Power B. Energy * C. Voltage D. Current 35. An object that is in motion has what type of energy? A. Kinetic * B. Magnetic C. Newtonian D. Potential 36. A book sitting on a shelf has what kind of energy? A. Kinetic B. Potential * C. Newtonian D. Magnetic 37. Which of the following term(s) apply(ies) to the difference of potential between two bodies? A. Voltage B. Electromotive force C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. Current 38. Which of the following terms is equal to "2.1 kV?" A. 210 V B. 2100 V * C. 21,000 V D. 2.1 x 106 V 39. 250μV is equal to which of the following terms? A. .25 mV B. .00025 V C. 250 x 10-6 V D. All of the above * 40. What is the general term that describes a device which supplies a voltage? A. A voltage source * B. A voltage supply C. A voltage generator D. A voltage producer 41. In addition to friction, magnetism, and chemical action, which of the following methods can be used to produce a voltage? A. Pressure B. Heat C. Light D. Each of the above * (NEETS) MODULE 1 TURNING TO ELECTRICITY ASSIGNMENT 3 42. Radio receiver's oscillator A. Heat B. Pressure * C. Magnetism D. Chemical action 43. Thermocouple A. Heat * B. Pressure C. Magnetism D. Chemical action 44. Automobile battery A. Heat B. Pressure C. Magnetism D. Chemical action * 45. Automobile generator A. Heat B. Pressure C. Magnetism * D. Chemical action 46. Flashlight cell A. Heat B. Pressure C. Magnetism D. Chemical action * 47. Current in an electric circuit is caused by which of the following actions? A. Electrons moving from negative to positive * B. Electrons moving from positive to negative C. Protons moving from negative to positive D. Protons moving from positive to negative 48. When directed drift takes place, at what speed does the effect take place? A. 100,000 miles per hour B. 186,000 miles per second * C. 300,000 meters per hour D. 500,000 meters per second 49. If the voltage in a circuit increases, what happens to the current? A. Current increases * B. Current decreases

C. Current remains the same D. Current fluctuates rapidly 50. Which of the following values is equal to 100mA? A. 1.0 ampere B. 10.0 amperes C. 0.10 ampere * D. 0.01 ampere 51. What symbol is used to represent the ohm? A. A B. O C. μ D. Ω * 52. If low weight is the major factor, which of the following materials should be used as a conductor? A. Aluminum * B. Copper C. Silver D. Gold 53. What material is MOST widely used as a conductor in electrical equipment? A. Aluminum B. Copper * C. Silver D. Gold 54. Resistance of a conductor will increase with which of the following changes to the cross-sectional area and length of the conductor? A. Cross-sectional area is increased, length is increased B. Cross-sectional area is increased, length is decreased C. Cross-sectional area is decreased, length is increased * D. Cross-sectional area is decreased, length is decreased 55. A material whose resistance decreases as the temperature increases has what temperature coefficient? A. Positive B. Negative * C. Zero D. Neutral 56. A material whose resistance remains constant as the temperature increases has what temperature coefficient? A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero * D. Neutral 57. Which of the following units is NOT a unit of conductance? A. Siemens B. S C. G D. Ohm * 58. Resistance bears which, if any, of the following relationships to conductance? A. A direct relationship B. A reciprocal relationship * C. An inverse square relationship D. None 59. How is the ability of a resistor to dissipate heat indicated? A. By the wattage rating * B. By the voltage rating C. By the resistance rating D. By the tolerance 60. Carbon resistors have which of the following disadvantages? A. A high cost factor B. An extremely large physical size C. The resistance value changes with age * D. A limited range of resistance values 61. Which of the following types of resistors will overcome the disadvantages of a carbon resistor? A. Rheostat B. Potentiometer C. Molded composition D. Wirewound resistor * 62. What is the total number of connections on (a) a rheostat and (b) a potentiometer? A. (a) Two (b) two B. (a) Two (b) three * C. (a) Three (b) two D. (a) Three (b) three (NEETS) MODULE 1 TURNING TO ELECTRICITY ASSIGNMENT 4 63. Which, if any, of the following types of variable resistors is used to control a large amount of current? A. Rheostat * B. Potentiometer C. Wirewound potentiometer D. None of the above 64. A carbon resistor is color-coded orange, orange, orange. What is the resistance value of this resistor? A. 2.2 kΩ B. 3.3 kΩ C. 33.0 kΩ * D. 440.0 kΩ 65. What are the allowable limits of ohmic value in a resistor color coded blue, green, yellow, gold? A. 682.5 kΩ to 617.5 kΩ * B. 715.0 kΩ to 585.0 kΩ C. 7.98 MΩ to 7.22 MΩ D. 8.36 MΩ to 6.84 MΩ 66. Of the following, which color of the fifth band on a resistor indicates the LEAST chance of failure? A. Red B. Brown C. Yellow D. Orange * (NEETS)MODULE 1 BATTERIES ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Which of the following is the purpose of an electrical cell? A. To change mechanical energy to electrical energy

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B. To change chemical energy to electrical energy * C. To change electrical energy to mechanical energy D. To change electrical energy to chemical energy 2. What are the three basic parts of a cell? A. Electrodes, electrolyte, container * B. Electrodes, acid, water C. Anode, cathode, ions D. Anode, load, depolarizer 3. Electrolyte A. negative electrode B. positive electrode C. solution acting upon the electrode * D. mounting for the electrode 4. Container A. negative electrode B. positive electrode C. solution acting upon the electrode D. mounting for the electrode * 5. Anode A. negative electrode B. positive electrode * C. solution acting upon the electrode D. mounting for the electrode 6. Cathode A. negative electrode * B. positive electrode C. solution acting upon the electrode D. mounting for the electrode 7. What term is given to the process that takes place inside a cell? A. Electromagnetic action B. Piezoelectric action C. Electromechanical action D. Electrochemical action * 8. With respect to recharging a primary or secondary cell, of the following statements, which one is correct? A. The secondary cell can be recharged by passing current through it in the proper direction * B. The primary cell can be recharged by passing current through it in the proper direction C. The secondary cell can only be recharged by changing the electrodes D. The primary cell can only be recharged by changing the electrolyte 9. What determines the amount of current that a cell can deliver to the external circuit? A. The internal resistance of the cell only B. The resistance of the external load only C. The circuit resistance and the internal resistance of the cell * D. The circuit capacitance and number of free electrons in the load 10. Which of the following actions will lower the internal resistance of a cell? A. Decreasing the size of the electrodes B. Increasing the size of the electrodes * C. Increasing the spacing between the electrodes D. Increasing the resistance of the electrolyte 11. What causes negative ions to be attracted to the cathode of a primary cell while the cell is discharging? A. A negative charge caused by a loss of electrons B. A negative charge caused by an excess of electrons C. A positive charge caused by a loss of electrons * D. A positive charge caused by an excess of electrons 12. What causes hydrogen to be attracted to the anode of a primary cell when the cell is discharging? A. A negative charge caused by a loss of electrons B. A negative charge caused by an excess of electrons * C. A positive charge caused by a loss of electrons D. A positive charge caused by an excess of electrons 13. What causes the cathode to be "eaten away" in the primary cell while the cell is discharging? A. The material of the cathode combines with the negative ions to form a new substance. * B. The material of the cathode dissolves in the electrolyte. C. The material of the cathode leaves the negative terminal of the cell and goes through the load to the anode. D. Bacteria in the electrolyte erodes the material in the cathode. 14. The primary cell is completely discharged when which of the

following conditions exists? A. The cathode is completely eaten away B. The active ingredient in the electrolyte is used up C. The voltage of the cell is reduced to zero D. Each of the above * 15. In a zinc-carbon primary cell, what is the function of the carbon electrode? A. To generate electrons B. To supply a return path for current * C. To speed electrolysis D. To collect hydrogen 16. The lead-acid cell is an example of which of the following types of cells? A. The dry cell B. The voltaic cell C. The primary cell D. The secondary cell * 17. In a fully charged lead-acid cell, what is the composition of the anode, cathode, and electrolyte respectively? A. Zinc, carbon, and water B. Carbon, lead, sulfuric acid and water C. Lead peroxide, sponge lead, sulfuric acid, and water * D. Nickel, cadmium, potassium hydroxide, and water 18. Which of the following actions will recharge a secondary cell? A. Adding more water to the electrolyte B. Adding more active ingredient to the electrolyte C. Connecting the negative terminal of a voltage source to the cathode of the cell and the positive terminal of the voltage source to the anode of the cell * D. Connecting the negative terminal of a voltage source to the anode of the cell and the positive terminal of the voltage source to the cathode of the cell 19. When all the lead sulfate in a lead-acid cell is converted to sulfuric acid, lead peroxide, and sponge lead, what is the condition of the cell? A. Fully charged * B. Discharged C. Sulfated D. Unusable (NEETS)MODULE 1 BATTERIES ASSIGNMENT 2 20. Polarization has what effects on an electrical cell? A. Decreases internal resistance, thereby increasing the output voltage B. Decreases internal resistance, thereby decreasing the output voltage C. Increases internal resistance, thereby increasing the output voltage D. Increases internal resistance, thereby decreasing the output voltage * 21. Which of the following methods is used to control polarization in a cell? A. Venting the cell * B. Heating the electrolyte C. Adding mercury to the electrode material D. Using an electrolyte that absorbs oxygen 22. Which of the following is caused by local action in a cell? A. Shelf life is reduced * B. Hydrogen is generated in large quantities C. Impurities rise to the surface of the electrolyte D. Mercury coating of the zinc electrode is worn away 23. In a dry cell, what is the consistency of the electrolyte? A. Solid B. Liquid C. Paste * D. Powder 24. What serves as the cathode in a common type of dry cell? A. Carbon electrode B. Zinc container * C. Steel cover D. Nickel terminal 25. How should the dry cell be stored to obtain maximum shelf life? A. In a dark container B. In a heated cabinet C. In a ventilated area D. In a refrigerated space * 26. The blotting paper in a dry cell serves which of the following purposes? A. Separates the paste from the zinc B. Permits the electrolyte from the paste to filter through to the zinc slowly C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. Keeps the electrolyte dry 27. Of the following characteristics, which one describes the mercury cell? A. It is physically one of the largest cells B. It has a very stable output voltage * C. It is designed to be rechargeable

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D. It produces a large amount of current but has a short shelf life 28. Which of the following describes the shorting of a cell? A. Decreasing the length of a cell B. Connecting the anode and cathode together without a load * C. Using the cell below its full potential D. Providing a recharge voltage that is not sufficient to recharge the cell 29. What is/are the advantages(s) of using a manganese-dioxidealkaline- zinc cell over the zinc-carbon cell? A. Better voltage stability B. Longer storage life C. Operates over a wide temperature range D. All the above * 30. What is the common name for manganese dioxide- alkalinezinc cell? A. Alkaline cell * B. Long-life cell C. Moz cell D. Manganese-dioxide cell 31. Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a primary cell as a power source? A. Power requirement * B. Type of electrolyte used C. Container material D. All of the above 32. Of the following types of cells, which one is a primary cell? A. Nickel cadmium B. Silver zinc C. Lithium organic * D. Silver cadmium 33. Which of the following is/are the difference(s) in the construction of a NICAD cell as compared to a lead-acid cell? A. The electrolyte used B. The material of the anode C. The material of the cathode D. All of the above * 34. What is the most common use of a silver zinc cell? A. Flashlight batteries B. Automobile batteries C. Aircraft storage batteries D. Emergency equipment batteries * 35. In addition to the nickel-cadmium and silver-zinc cells, which of the following cells uses potassium hydroxide as the active ingredient in the electrolyte? A. Lead-acid cell B. Silver-cadmium * C. Lithium-inorganic cell D. Magnesium-manganese dioxide cell 36. What is the minimum number of cells necessary to form a battery? A. One * B. Two C. Three D. Four 37. What is the first step in performing maintenance on a secondary-cell battery? A. Check the level of the electrolyte B. Check the technical manual for information on the specific type of battery * C. Check the terminals for cleanliness and good electrical connection D. Check the battery case for cleanliness and evidence of damage 38. When a hydrometer is used to check the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery, to what level should the electrolyte be drawn? A. Enough to just wet the float B. Enough so the float will rise without entering the suction bulb * C. Enough so the top one-third of the float will rise into the suction bulb D. Enough so the float is completely covered by the electrolyte 39. To flush a hydrometer, which of the following liquids should be used? A. Sulfuric acid B. Salt water C. Fresh water * D. A solution of baking soda and water (NEETS)MODULE 1 BATTERIES ASSIGNMENT 3 40. If the electrolyte level in a battery is low, what should be added to the electrolyte to bring it to the proper level? A. Tap water B. Sulfuric acid C. Potassium hydroxide D. Distilled water * 41. Which one of the following safety precautions for batteries is NOT correct? A. Terminals should be electrically connected together before transporting a battery * B. Care should be taken to prevent the spilling of electrolyte C. Smoking, open flames, and electrical sparks are prohibited around charging batteries D. Protective clothing, such as rubber apron, rubber gloves, and face shield, should be worn when working on batteries

42. If electrolyte comes in contact with the skin, what first aid treatment should be given immediately to the affected area? A. Cover with petroleum jelly B. Wrap with a sterile bandage C. Apply an antiseptic lotion D. Flush with fresh water * 43. A battery with a capacity of 600 ampere-hours should provide 3 amperes for a maximum of how many hours? A. 100 hr B. 200 hr * C. 300 hr D. 600 hr 44. A battery is rated according to a 20-hour rate of discharge at 300 ampere-hours. Which of the following currents is the maximum current that will allow the battery to deliver its rated capacity? A. 15 amperes * B. 20 amperes C. 25 amperes D. 30 amperes 45. Which of the following types of routine charges follows the nameplate data in restoring a battery to its charged condition during the ordinary cycle of operation? A. Initial B. Floating C. Normal * D. Fast 46. Initial charge A. Used in emergency only B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery * 47. Equalizing charge A. Used in emergency only B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine * C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery 48. Floating charge A. Used in emergency only B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle * D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery 49. Fast charge A. Used in emergency only * B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery 50. If violent gassing occurs during the charging of a battery, which of the following actions should be taken? A. Increase the room ventilation B. Decrease the room temperature C. Increase the charging rate D. Decrease the charging rate * 51. If a battery is being charged at the proper rate, which, if any of the following types of gassing should occur? A. Steady gassing * B. Intermittent gassing C. Violent gassing D. None (NEETS)MODULE 1 DIRECT CURRENT ASSIGNMENT 1 1. If circuit voltage is held constant, circuit current will react in what manner as the resistance (a) increases, and (b) decreases? A. (a) Increase (b) decrease B. (a) Increase (b) increase C. (a) Decrease (b) decrease D. (a) Decrease (b) increase * 2. If circuit resistance is held constant, circuit current will react in what manner as the voltage (a) increases, and (b) decreases? A. (a) Increase (b) decrease * B. (a) Increase (b) increase C. (a) Decrease (b) decrease D. (a) Decrease (b) increase 3. According to Ohm's law, what formula should be used to calculate circuit voltage if resistance and current value are known? A. E=R/I B. E=I/R C. E = IR * D. E=I/IR 4. Which of the following terms applies to the rate at which an electrical force causes motion? A. Power * B. Energy C. Inertia D. Each of the above 5. Which of the following circuit quantities can be varied ONLY by varying one of the other circuit quantities?

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A. Voltage B. Current * C. Resistance D. Each of the above 6. Which of the following is a correct formula for determining power in an electrical circuit? A. P = EI B. P = I

2R

C. P=E2/R D. Each of the above *

7. What is the current in a circuit with 15 ohms of resistance that uses 135 watts of power? A. 10 A B. 15 A C. 3 A * D. 9 A 8. What is the total power used by a 15-ohm resistor with 4 amps of current? A. 60 W B. 240 W * C. 360 W D. 900 W 9. What type of resistor should be used if the 15-ohm resistor with 4 amps of current? A. Carbon B. Wirewound * C. Precision D. Composition 10. How much total energy is converted by a 1-horsepower motor in 10 hours? A. 7.46 kWh * B. 8.32 kWh C. 8.59 kWh D. 9.32 kWh 11. If the energy used by the motor is 9.5 kWh in 10 hours, what is the efficiency of the 1-hp motor? A. .981 B. .904 C. .876 D. .785 * 12. When Kirchoff's voltage law is used to assign polarities to the voltage drop across a resistor, which of the following references is used to indicate the end of the resistor that the current enters? A. Ground B. Neutral C. Negative * D. Positive 13. Which of the following terms applies to a circuit in which there is NO complete path for current? A. Open * B. Short C. Closed D. Grounded 14. A circuit in which the resistance is almost zero ohms is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Open B. Short * C. Closed D. Broken 15. Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when the value of the load resistance is of what value when compared to the source resistance? A. Equal * B. Twice C. One-half D. Several times 16. When maximum power is transferred from a source to a load, what is the efficiency of power transfer? A. 5% B. 25% C. 50% * D. 95% 17. A circuit consists of three resistors connected in parallel. R1 = 30 ohms, R2 = 15 ohms, and R 3 = 10 ohms. If the current through R2 = 4 amperes, what is the total source voltage? A. 20 V B. 60 V * C. 120 V D. 220 V 18. What is the relationship of total current to the current through a component in (a) a series circuit, and (b) a parallel circuit? A. (a) Divides (b) divides B. (a) Divides (b) equals C. (a) Equals (b) equals D. (a) Equals (b) divides * (NEETS)MODULE 1 DIRECT CURRENT ASSIGNMENT 2 19. If a current has a negative polarity when Kirchoff's current law is applied, which of the following, statements is true of the current? A. It is from a battery B. It is from a generator C. It is entering a junction D. It is leaving a junction * 20. Three equal resistors are connected in parallel and each resistor has an ohmic value of 300 ohms. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit? A. 100Ω * B. 150Ω C. 600Ω D. 900Ω 21. Three resistors with ohmic values of 120 ohms, 60 ohms, and 40 ohms are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit? A. 10 Ω B. 20 Ω * C. 30 Ω D. 40 Ω 22. Two resistors with ohmic values of 90 ohms and 45 ohms are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?

A. 10 Ω B. 20 Ω C. 30 Ω * D. 40 Ω 23. Which of the following terms describes a single resistor that represents a complex circuit? A. Equal resistor B. Phantom resistor C. Schematic resistor D. Equivalent resistor * 24. If an open occurs in a series portion of a circuit, what is the effect on (a) total resistance, and (b) total current? A. (a) Decreases to zero (b) Becomes infinite B. (a) Decreases to zero (b) Decreases to zero C. (a) Becomes infinite (b) Becomes infinite D. (a) Becomes infinite (b) Decreases to zero * 25. If an open occurs in a parallel branch of a circuit, what is the effect on (a) total resistance, and (b) total current? A. (a) Increases (b) decreases * B. (a) Increases (b) increases C. (a) Decreases (b) decreases D. (a) Decreases (b) increases 26. If a short circuit occurs in a series portion of a circuit, what is the effect on (a) total resistance, and (b) total current? A. (a) Increases (b) decreases B. (a) Increases (b) increases C. (a) Decreases (b) decreases D. (a) Decreases (b) increases * 27. If a short circuit occurs in a parallel branch of a circuit, what is the effect in (a) total resistance, and (b) total current? A. (a) Increases (b) decreases B. (a) Increases (b) increases C. (a) Decreases (b) decreases D. (a) Decreases (b) increases * 28. If one branch of a parallel network shorts, what portion of the circuit current, if any, will flow through the remaining branches? A. An amount determined by the combined resistance of the remaining branches B. All C. One-half D. None * 29. Which of the following circuit quantities need NOT be known before designing a voltage divider? A. The current of the source * B. The voltage of the source C. The current requirement of the load D. The voltage requirement of the load 30. A single voltage divider provides both negative and positive voltages from a single source voltage through the use of a A. ground between two of the dividing resistors * B. ground to the positive terminal of the source C. ground to the negative terminal of the source D. ground to the input of all loads requiring a negative voltage 31. Which of the following voltages are considered dangerous? A. Voltages above 115 volts only B. Voltages above 230 volts only C. Voltages above 450 volts only D. All voltages * 32. If you discover a possible malfunction in an electric circuit, which of the following actions should be taken? A. Attempt repairs yourself B. Report the malfunction to a qualified technician * C. Ignore the malfunction unless you were assigned to repair it D. Secure the circuit immediately by removing power at the nearest switch 33. If a person has stopped breathing and there is NO detectable heartbeat, who should perform CPR? A. Medical personnel only B. The first person on the scene * C. Emergency Medical Technicians only D. Trained, qualified personnel only (NEETS) MODULE 3 CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Circuit measurement is used for which of the following purposes? A. To find the weight of a circuit B. To increase the power used in a circuit C. To discover the length and width of a circuit D. To determine the reason a circuit is not functioning properly * 2. An in-circuit meter is used for which of the following purposes?

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A. To reduce circuit losses B. To monitor circuit operation * C. To control power to a circuit D. To prevent circuit overload conditions 3. Out-of-circuit meters have which of the following advantages over in circuit meters? A. They can be used on more than one device * B. They are lighter weight C. They are more rugged D. All of the above 4. The d'Arsonval meter movement is based on which of the following principles? A. Moving vane B. Electrostatic C. Electrodynamic D. Permanent-magnet moving-coil * 5. Current through a meter results in the pointer. In d'Arsonval meter movement, what force produces this deflection? A. Thermocouple action B. Electrostatic repulsion C. Mechanical spring tension D. The interaction of magnetic fields* 6. The hairsprings in a d'Arsonval meter movement perform which of the following functions? A. They keep the pointer in the position of the last indication when current is removed B. They aid the movement of the pointer when there is current through the meter C. They make electrical connections to the meter movement * D. All of the above 7. What device allows a d'Arsonval meter movement to measure ac by converting ac to pulsating dc? A. A pulsator B. A modulator C. A rectifier * D. A converter 8. What is meant by the term "meter damping"? A. Moistening the felt pads B. Smoothing the oscillations of the pointer * C. Preventing excessive current through the coil D. Compensating for electromagnetic induced interference 9. Which of the following methods is used to dampen a meter? A. Mount the meter in a mu-metal case B. Install a fuse in one of the input leads C. Incorporate an airtight chamber containing a van * D. Provide a fluid reservoir and sponge arrangement next to the pads 10. A d'Arsonval meter movement reacts to which of the following values of voltage? A. Peak B. Average * C. Effective D. Peak-to-peak 11. What value of ac is indicated by a meter scale? A. Peak B. Average C. Effective * D. Peak-to-peak 12. Which of the following meter movements will measure either ac or dc without the use of a rectifier? A. GMS B. d'Arsonval C. Electrostatic D. Electrodynamic * 13. What electrical property is reacted to by the electrodynamic, d'Arsonval, moving vane, and thermocouple meter movements? A. Power B. Current * C. Voltage D. Resistance 14. What electrical property is measured by an ammeter? A. Power B. Current * C. Voltage D. Resistance 15. How are ammeters connected in an electrical circuit? A. In series with the load * B. In parallel with the load C. In accordance with Lenz's Law D. In series-parallel with the load 16. How does an ammeter affect the circuit being measured? A.It acts as a resistances in series and lowers the circuit current * B. It acts as a resistance in series and raises the circuit current C. It acts as a resistance in parallel and lowers the circuit current D. It acts as a resistance in parallel and raises the circuit current 17. How is the effect that an ammeter produces in a circuit kept to a minimum? A. By using a large resistor in series with the ammeter B. By using a large capacitor in parallel with the ammeter C. By ensuring that the meter resistance is low compared to circuit resistance *

D. By ensuring that the meter resistance is high compared to circuit resistance 18. The ammeter with the greatest sensitivity has which of the following characteristics? A. The lowest amount of current for full-scale deflection indication* B. The highest amount of current for full-scale deflection indication C. A low ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indication D. A high ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indication 19. Ammeters measure various ranges through the addition of which of the following components? A. Shunt resistors in series with the meter movement B. Shunt resistors in parallel with the meter movement * C.Capacitors in series with the meter movement D.Capacitors in parallel with the meter movement (NEETS) MODULE 3 CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES ASSIGNMENT 2 20. What range of an ammeter should you use for an initial measurement? A. The lowest range B. The highest range * C. The mid-scale range 21. What portion of the ammeter scale should be used to take a final reading? A. The upper half B. The lower half C. The mid-scale portion * D. Anywhere on the meter face 22. When, if ever, can you use a dc ammeter to measure ac values? A. When the ac is high frequency B. For low values C. Always D. Never * 23. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed prior to connecting an ammeter into a circuit? A. Switch to the highest range B. Observe proper dc polarity C. Deenergize the circuit D. All of the above * 24. What electrical property is measured by a voltmeter? A. Power B. Current C. Voltage * D. Resistance 25. A voltmeter should be connected in an electrical circuit in what manner? A. In series with the load B. In parallel with the load * C. In accordance with Lenz's Law D. In series-parallel with the load 26. A voltmeter has an effect on the circuit being measured; what is this effect called? A. Loading * B. Damping C. Rectification D. Eddy-current drag 27. To keep the effect of a voltmeter on a circuit to a minimum, the internal resistance of the voltmeter must have which of the following relationships to the circuit load? A. Equal to B. Lower than C. Higher than * D. In proportion to 28. Which of the following types of meters can be made from a current sensitive meter movement? A. Ammeter B. Ohmmeter C. Voltmeter D. Each of the above 8 29. A voltmeter has a high sensitivity when it has which of the following characteristics? A. Low deflection indication B. High deflection indication C. Low ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indication D. High ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indication * 30. Which of the following configurations extends the range of a voltmeter? A. A resistor in series with the meter movement * B. A resistor in parallel with the meter movement C. A capacitor in series with the meter movement D. A capacitor in parallel with the meter movement 31. What voltmeter range should be used for initial measurements? A. The lowest B. The highest * C. The mid-scale

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32. The electrostatic meter movement reacts to which of the following electrical properties? A. Power B. Current C. Voltage * D. Resistance 33. Electrostatic meter movements are used to measure which of the following current/voltage values? A. Low voltage B. Low current C. High voltage * D. High current 34. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when a voltmeter is used? A. Deenergize the circuit before connecting the meter * B. Start with the lowest range of the meter C.Connect the meter in series with the circuit D.All of the above 35. What electrical property is measured with an ohmmeter? A. Power B. Current C. Voltage D. Resistance * 36. An ohmmeter is used to check for which of the following conditions? A. Continuity * B. Overheating C. Overcurrent D. Undercurrent 37. How should an ohmmeter be connected in an electrical circuit? A. In series with the load B. In parallel with the load * C. In parallel with the source D. In series-parallel with the load 38. An ohmmeter can measure different ranges because of the use of which of the following components? A. Range coils B. Range resistors * C. Range capacitors D. Range potentiometers 39. What area of an ohmmeter scale should be used when a measurement is taken? A. Upper half B. Lower half C. Mid-scale portion * D. Anywhere on the meter face (NEETS) MODULE 3 CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES ASSIGNMENT 3 40. Ohmmeters are classified by type. What are the two types of ohmmeters? A. Series and shunt * B. Normal and reverse C. Full- and half-scale 41. What is the most obvious differences in the two types of ohmmeters? A. The ranges of the meters B. The scales of the meters * C. The power sources of the meters D. The size of the test leads of the meters 42. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when an ohmmeter is used? A. Always start with the highest scale ofthe meter B. Deenergize the circuit before connecting the meter C. Observe proper polarity D. All of the above * 43. Meggers (megohmmeters) are used to measure which of the following quantities? A. Low voltage B. High voltage C. Low resistance D. High resistance * 44. When a megger is used to check the insulation of a wire, which of the following indications should be considered normal? A. ∞ *` B. 0 C. 500 V D. 1000 V 45. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed when a megger is used? A. Do not use a dc megger to measure circuits that are powered by ac B. Always start with the highest scale selection of the meter C. Do not touch the meter leads when a measurement is being taken * D. All of the above 46. A multimeter can be used to measure which of the following electrical properties? A. Voltage B. Current C. Resistance D. Each of the above * 47. The function switch on a multimeter does NOT perform which of the following functions? A. Selection of the meter range B. Determination of the proper scale*

C. Selection of ac or dc capability D. Changing of the multimeter from an ammeter to a voltmeter 48. One of the problems encountered in building a multimeter is that the meter movement gives different readings for the same values of ac and dc. Which of the following features of a multimeter will solve this problem? A. A rectifier B. An ac/dc switch C. Separate scales for ac and dc * D. A mirror on the face of the meter 49. Why is there a mirror on the face of a multimeter? A. To illuminate the meter face B. To aid in reducing parallax error* C. To reduce the friction between the pointer and the meter face D. To compensate for the difference in ac and dc measurement 50. If the mirror on the face of a multimeter is used properly, where will the image of the pointer appear? A. Hidden behind the pointer * B. Barely visible on either side of the pointer C. Clearly visible to the left of the pointer D. Clearly visible to the right of the pointer 51. Which of the following safety precautions does NOT apply to a multimeter? A. Observe proper dc polarity when measuring dc B. Deenergize the circuit before connecting the meter C. Be sure the meter is switched to ac for ac measurements D. Never apply power to the circuit when measuring voltage with the meter * 52. If a multimeter has no OFF position, and it is returned to storage, on which of the following positions should the meter be set? A. +dc; highest voltage range B. −dc; higher resistance range C. Ac; highest voltage range * D. Ac; highest current range 53. When the current in a conductor is measured without the conductor being disconnected, which of the following meters could be used? A. Multimeter B. Hook-on voltameter * C. Induction wattmeter D. Transformer voltmeter 54. Which of the following electrical quantities is measured by a wattmeter? A. Power * B. Energy C. Voltage D. Current 55. Which of the following electrical quantities is measured by a watt hour meter? A. Power B. Energy * C. Voltage D. Current (NEETS) MODULE 3 CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Circuit control devices should NOT be used for which of the following reasons? A. To adjust the power level of a device * B. To remove power from a malfunctioning device C. To apply power to a device when work is completed on it D. To select the function or circuit desired within a device 2. Which of the following are types of circuit control devices? A. Relays C. Solenoids B. Switches D. All of the above * 3. Which of the following is a manual switch? A. A light switch * C. A thermostat B. A limit switch D. A distributor 4. Which of the following is an automatic switch? A. An ignition switch on a motor vehicle * B. A switch that turns on a light in a refrigerator C. A channel selector on a television D. A dial or push button on a telephone 5. Control or selection of one or more circuits is a function of which of the following switches? A. A manual switch B. An automatic switch C. A multicontact switch * D. A single contact switch 6. A switch actuator is described by which of the following terms? A. Momentary C. Toggle * B. Two-position D. Four-position 7. What is the maximum number of different single-pole, single throw switch positions possible? A. One C. Three

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B. Two D. Four 8. What is the maximum number of different single-pole, double throw switch positions possible? A. One C. Three * B. Two D. Four 9. Control of a circuit requiring a temporary actuation signal is provided by which of the following switches? A. Momentary * C. Locked-out B. Locked-in D. Rotary 10. To guard against the accidental actuation of a circuit, which of the following types of switches are used? A. Momentary C. Locked-out * B. Locked-in D. Rotary 11. To guard against the accidental turning off of a circuit, which of the following types of switches are used? A. Momentary B. Locked-in * C. Locked-out D. Rotary 12. What is the common name for an accurate snap-acting switch? A. Maxiswitch C. Miniswitch B. Multiswitch D. Microswitch * 13. Designation of switch current rating is based on which of the following current values? A. Maximum * C. Nominal B. Minimum D. Average 14. Designation of switch voltage rating is based on which of the following voltage values? A. Maximum * C. Nominal B. Minimum D. Average 15. Checking a switch with the circuit power NOT applied is accomplished by using which of the following meters? A. Wattmeter C. Temperature meter B. Frequency meter D. Ohmmeter * 16. Checking a switch with the power applied is accomplished by using which of the following meters? A. Megger C. Wattmeter B. Ohmmeter D. Voltmeter * 17. When you perform preventive maintenance on a switch, which of the following items should be checked? A. The terminals for corrosion B. The physical condition of the switch C. The switch operation for smooth and correct operation D. All of the above * 18. A solenoid is based upon which of the following principles? A. A bimetallic strip bends when it is heated B. A thermocouple produces a current when heated C. A coil attracts a soft iron core when current flows in the coil * D. A soft iron core moving in a magnetic field creates a current 19. A solenoid is commonly used in which of the following devices? A. A fuel quantity indicating system B. A shipboard lighting system C. A sound-powered telephone system D. A starter for a motor vehicle * 20. If a solenoid is not operating properly, which of the following items need NOT be checked? A. Coil C. Plunger B. Armature * D. Energizing voltage 21. If a relay is hermetically sealed with an opaque cover, which of the following methods should be used to determine whether the relay is operating? A. Shake the relay and listen for loose parts B. Place your finger on the cover and feel the relay contact movement * C. Remove the cover and visually observe the relay contacts when the relay is activated D. Activate the relay and observe whether a metal object is attracted by the magnetic field 22. If a relay is NOT operating properly, which of the following items need NOT be checked? A. The armature resistance B. The terminal leads C. The contact surfaces D. The contact spacing * 23. What should be used to clean the contacts of a relay? A. Sandpaper C. A jelweler’s file B. Emery cloth D. A burnishing tool * 24. What should be used to adjust contact clearances on a relay?

A. A point bender * B. A burnishing tool C. A pair of pliers D. A pair of hemostats (NEETS) MODULE 4 ELECTRICAL WIRING ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Why has a "unit size" for conductors been established? A. To compare the size and resistance of one conductor with that of another * B. To establish a uniform style for conductors C. To determine the requirements for conductors D. To ensure all conductors are interchangeable 2. What is the decimal equivalent of one (1) mil? A. 1.000 in. B. 0.100 in. C. 0.010 in. D. 0.001 in. * 3. If a conductor has a diameter of 1/4 inch, what is its diameter in mils? A. 250.0 mil * B. 25.0 mil C. 2.50 mil D. 0.250 mil 4. What is the definition of a mil foot? A. A conductor .001 foot in length with a diameter of .001 millimeter B. A conductor 1 foot in length with a diameter of .001 foot C. A conductor 1 foot in length with a diameter of 1 mil * D. A conductor .001 foot in length with a diameter of .001 inch 5. A square mil is defined as the area of a square, the sides of which are each equal in length to what dimension? A. 1 mil-foot B. 1 mil * C. 1.0 inch D. .001 mil 7. A circular mil is defined as the area of a circle having what dimension? A. A radius of 1 mil B. A diameter of 1 mil * C. A circumference of 1 mil D. A chord of 1 mil 8. If you have a 12-strand conductor and each strand has a radius (one-half the diameter) of 2/10 inch, what is the circular mil area of the conductor? A. 1,920,000 cir. mil * B. 57,680 cir. mil C. 48,000 cir. Mil D. 2,400 cir. mil 9. What If you have a 12-strand conductor and each strand has a radius (one-half the diameter) of 2/10 inch, what is the square mil area of the conductor? A. 244,344,097 sq. mil B. 1,507,965 sq. mil * C. 61,115 sq. mil D. 45,239 sq. mil 10. What is the definition of specific resistance? A. The resistance of a length of conductor, at a given temperature, to voltage B. The resistance of a cross-sectional area of a conductor, at a given temperature, to the flow of current C. The resistance of a unit volume of a substance to the flow of current expressed in ohms * 11. What factor(s) must be known to compute the resistance of a conductor? A. The length of the conductor B. The cross-sectional area of the conductor C. The specific resistance of the substance of the conductor D. Each of the above * 13. When a wire gauge is used to determine the size of a wire, the measurement should be made in what part of the gauge? A. In the slot * B. In the semicircular opening C. Either 1 or 2 above, depending on wire size 14. Which of the following factors is used to determine the current rating of a wire? I. Conductor size II. Material of conductor III. Load requirement IV. Wire ductility V. Type of insulation VI. Location of wire in circuit VII. Source voltage A. II, III, V, and VII B. I, IV, V, and VII C. II, IV, V, and VI D. I, II, V, and VI * 15. What types of insulation are best suited for use in a hightemperature environment? A. Cotton, polytetrafluoroethylene, and oiled paper B. FEP, silicone rubber, and extruded polytetrafluoroethylene * C. Oiled paper, FEP, and rubber D. Rubber. polytetrafluoroethylene, and silk 16. What is the "ambient" temperature of a conductor?

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A. It is the normal temperature of a conductor through which current is flowing B. It is the heat generated by external sources and affecting a conductor’s temperature * C. It is the maximum heat a conductor can withstand according to its current rating D. It is the temperature at which the insulation of a conductor begins to break down 17. Which of the following metals is the best conductor of current? A. Aluminum B. Copper C. Silver * D. Manganin 18. When electricity is carried over long distances, which of the following are advantages for using aluminum as the conductor as opposed to copper? I. High cost II. High ductility III. High tensile strength IV. Easily soldered V. Very light in weight VI. Difficult to solder VII. Reduces corona VIII. Generally uninsulated IX. High conductivity A. II and III B. IV and V C. III and IX D. V and VII * (NEETS) MODULE 4 ELECTRICAL WIRING ASSIGNMENT 2 19. Which of the following are advantages for using copper as the conductor as opposed to aluminum? I. High cost II. High ductility III. High tensile strength IV. Easily soldered V. Very light in weight VI. Difficult to solder VII. Reduces corona VIII. Generally uninsulated IX. High conductivity A. II, IV, and IX * B. III, V, and VII C. II, V, and VIII D. I, VI, and IX 20. Because its resistance changes very little with temperature changes, what conductor is best suited for use in measuring instruments? A. Copper B. Aluminum C. Manganin * D. Silver 21. If a 75-ohm sample of copper wire at 0ºC is heated to 30ºC, what is the approximate total resistance? (The temperature coefficient of resistance of copper at 0ºC is 0.00427). A. 0.32 ohm B. 9.61 ohms C. 65.39 ohms D. 84.61 ohms * 22. What definition best describes an insulating material? A. A material that has a very high resistance * B. A material that has a very low resistance C. A material that has a very high conductivity D. A material that has a very low dielectric strength 23. The dielectric strength of an insulating material is a measurement of the material's ability to resist electrostatic stress caused by what factor? A. Resistance B. Current C. Voltage * D. Chafing or friction 24. Insulation resistance can best be defined as the ability of an insulating material to resist what action? A. Current leakage * B. Electrostatic stress C. Breakdown by voltage D. External factors acting upon the conductor 25. For a material to be a good insulator, what two properties are most important? A. High dielectric strength and low insulation resistance B. High dielectric strength and high insulation resistance * C. Low dielectric strength and high insulation resistance D. Low dielectric strength and low insulation resistance 26. When rubber is used as the insulating material over a copper conductor, why is a thin coating of tin used between the two materials? A. To decrease the electrostatic stress B. To increase the insulation resistance of the rubber C. To prevent a chemical action from taking place between the copper and rubber * D. To reduce the amount of insulating material required. 27. What is the NEC for a rubber heat resistance compound? A. RHH * B. RWH C. RTW D. RWT 28. Latex rubber is a high-grade compound consisting of what percentage of unmilled grainless rubber?

A. 70% B. 80% C. 90% * D. 95% 29. Plastic insulation is normally used for what levels of voltage? A. Very high to high B. High to medium C. Medium to low * D. Low to very low 30. When dealing with NEC type designators for thermoplastics, the letter "W" stands for what type of insulation? A. Oil-resistant B. Moisture-resistant * C. Heat-resistant D. Asbestos 31. When you work on synthetic insulated wiring, what safety precaution must be observed? A. Wear protective goggles at all times B. Avoid breathing the vapors when the insulation is heated * C. Wear a dust mask in confined spaces D. Wear protective gloves if there are cuts or abrasions on your hands 32. What nonmetallic material is most commonly used to protect wires and cables? A. Rubber B. Jute and asphalt covering C. Fibrous tape D. Fibrous braid * 33. What is the common name for woven covers? A. Yarn B. Loom * C. Fibrous tape D. Unspun felted cotton 34. What percentage of tin is used in alloy lead sheathing? A. 6% B. 2% * C. 8% D. 4% 35. Why is the use of asbestos being discontinued as an insulating material in the Navy? A. It breaks down rapidly with continued use B. It is not as effective as other types of insulation C. It has not proven suitable for a shipboard environment D. It poses a health hazard to personnel * 36. What happens to asbestos insulation when it gets wet? A. Its insulation resistance becomes too high B. It emits dangerous fumes C. It acquires too great a dielectric strength D. It becomes a conductor * 37. What insulating materials are best suited for use with high voltage? A. Thermoplastic and rubber B. Varnished cambric and oil impregnated paper * C. Teflon and silk D. Silk and cotton (NEETS) MODULE 4 ELECTRICAL WIRING ASSIGNMENT 3 38. What is the common name for enamel-insulated wire? A. Winding wire B. Motor wire C. Magnet wire * D. Coil wire 39. What types of conductor protection are normally used for shipboard wiring? A. Wire braid armor and nonmagnetic steel tape * B. Lead cable and Jute C. Jute and nonmagnetic steel tape D. Lead sheathing and rubberized tape 40. What are the basic requirements for a splice or terminal connection? A. To be mechanically and electrically effective * B. To be pre-insulated and nonconductive C. To have minimum cost and maximum efficiency D. To have circuit continuity and minimum cost 41. The preferred method for removing insulation from most types of insulated wire is by using what tool? A. Razor blade B. Electrician’s pliers C. Wire stripper * D. Knife 42. When a wire is insulated with glass braid or asbestos and requires stripping, which of the following tools should NOT be used? A. Knife B. Rotary wire stripper C. Hand wire stripper D. Hot-blade wire stripper * 43. What is the preferred tool to use to strip aluminum wire? A. Knife * B. Rotary wire stripper C. Hand wire stripper D. Hot-blade wire stripper 44. When a Western Union splice is used to connect two wires, why should the twisted ends of the wires be pressed down as close as possible to the straight portion of the wire? A. To increase the strength of the splice B. To prevent the wires from puncturing the tape covering *

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C. To minimize the resistance change in the circuit D. To increase the dielectric strength of the insulation 45. When multi-conductor cables are spliced, why are the splices staggered? A. To prevent possible shorting between conductors B. To increase the strength of the individual splices C. To decrease insulated resistance D. To reduce the overall size of the joint * 46. When is a rattail joint normally used? A. When a branch circuit is required and a junction box is used to join conduit * B. When a Western Union splice would be too bulky C. When asbestos or glass braid is used as insulation D. When the branch wire will be subjected to a heavy strain 47. If a fluorescent light is to be attached to a branch circuit, which of the following splices should normally be used? A. Staggered splice B. Knotted tap joint C. Western Union splice D. Fixture joint * 48. When is a knotted tap joint normally used? A. When a branch circuit is joined to a continuous wire (main wire) * B. When a Western Union splice would be too bulky C. When a lighting fixture is joined to a branch circuit D. When a wire nut is used to complete the joint 49. Which of the following splices is NOT butted? A. Fixture joint B. Rattail joint C. Knotted tap joint * D. Western Union splice 50. Why is friction tape used over a splice? A. To provide a protective covering over the rubber tape * B. To provide maximum insulation to the splice C. To prevent shock when latex rubber is used D. To reduce the amount of rubber tape required 51. Why would you use a crimped terminal instead of a soldered terminal? A. Connections can be made more rapidly B. Less operator skill is required C. Connections are more uniform in construction D. Each of the above * 52. When non-insulated splices and terminal lugs are insulated, what types of insulation are most commonly used? A. Rubber tape and friction tape B. Spaghetti and heat-shrinkable tubing * C. Spaghetti and friction tape D. Rubber tape and heat shrinkable tubing 53. When heat-shrinkable tubing is used, what is the maximum temperature to which the wire should be subjected? A. 180ºF B. 220ºF C. 300ºF * D. 340ºF 54. When a large aluminum terminal lug or splice is installed, why is it NOT necessary to clean the aluminum wire? A. It is done automatically by the tubing B. The wire is cleaned by the abrasive compound in the lug or splice * C. Oxide film does not form on aluminum D. The insulation used provides the necessary cleaning agent 55. When aluminum terminals lugs or splices are installed, which of the following tools is generally recommended for use? A. Pliers B. Power crimping tool * C. Hand crimping tool D. Vise grips 56. Why is a lockwasher NOT used with an aluminum terminal? A. The washer will reduce conductivity at the terminal B. The washer will gouge the lug and cause deterioration * C. The washer will set up a corrosive action between dissimilar metals D. The washer will increase resistance and heat causing eventual failure 57. The most common method of terminating and splicing wires is by using pre-insulated terminal lugs and splices. A. True * B. False 58. Which of the following is an advantage of using pre-insulated splices and terminal lugs? A. Heat shrinkable tubing is not required B. Spaghetti is not required C. They offer extra supporting strength to the wire insulation * D. Each of the above 59. Color codes are used on pre-insulated terminal lugs and splices to indicate what information? A. The resistance, in ohms, of the lugs and splices

B. The style of crimping tool to be used C. The type of circuit in which they are to be used D. The wire sizes on which they are to be used * (NEETS) MODULE 4 ELECTRICAL WIRING ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Why must materials to be soldered be cleaned just prior to the soldering process? A. To ensure the solder will adhere to the surface * B. To prevent the solder from becoming brittle from impurities and eventually failing C. To prevent an uneven flow of solder to the surface D. Each of the above 2. What is meant by the term "tinning"? A. Removing the oxide coating of the material to be soldered B. Preheating the material to be soldered to remove any impurities left from the stripped insulation C. Coating the material to be soldered with a light coat of solder * D. Applying pure tin to the material to be soldered to ensure adherence of the solder 3. When a wire is soldered to a connector, why should the wire be stripped approximately 1/32 inch longer than the depth of the solder barrel? A. To prevent burning the wire insulation B. To allow the wire to flex more easily at stress points C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. To prevent the flux from touching the insulation 4. When a wire has been properly stripped and is to be soldered to a connector, what total length of the exposed wire should be tinned? A. One-third B. One-half * C. Two-thirds D. The entire exposed length 5. What action generally causes a fractured solder joint? A. Movement of the soldered parts during the cooling process * B. Application of too much heat to the parts C. Introduction of impurities to the joint from dirty solder or flux D. Application of too much solder to the joint 6. What term defines the capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the joint being soldered? A. Iron current flow B. Thermal inertia * C. Resistance soldering D. Self-regulating heat 7. Why should a small wattage soldering iron NOT be used to solder large conductors? A. The current flow is limited B. The iron cannot reach a high enough temperature C. The iron cannot maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the conductor * D. The tip of a small wattage iron is too small for large conductors 8. Which of the following features BEST describes a well designed soldering iron? A. It may be used for both large and miniature soldering jobs B. It is light weight with an all-purpose tip C. It can be automatically switched from a low wattage to a high wattage output D. It has a built-in self-regulating element * 9. What should be done with the removable tip of a soldering gun after it becomes pitted? A. Dip it in flux and continue to use it B. Discard the tip and replace it C. Grind the tip down to the next smaller size and reuse it D. File the tip smooth and retin it * 10. If, during the soldering process, the soldering gun switch is depressed for longer than 30 seconds, what danger exists? A. The insulation of the wire may be burned * B. An oxide film will rapidly form on the conductor C. The flux may ignite D. The finger switch may be locked in the depressed position from the heat 11. What condition causes the nuts or screws which hold the tip of a soldering gun to loosen? A. The trigger is depressed for too long a period B. The gun is pulsed too often C. The heating and cooling cycle loosens them * D. The gun is used for soldering items beyond its capacity 12. Which of the following electronic components should NOT be installed or removed by the use of a soldering gun? A. Transistors B. Resistors C. Capacitors D. Each of the above *

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13. Why are resistance soldering irons safer for electrical equipment components than other soldering irons or guns? A. The current flow is very low B. The tips are hot only during the brief period of actual soldering* C. The transformer provides a high voltage for a measured period of time D. The tips are made from highly conductive ferrous iron which heat and cool very rapidly 14. For which of the following reasons is antisieze compound used with a pencil iron equipped with removable tips? A. To allow the tip to be easily removed * B. To prevent the tip form loosening during repeated soldering operations C. To minimize the number of times the tip must be retinned D. Each of the above 15. If you do not have a suitable tip for desoldering, how can one be improvised? A. File an available tip down to the desired size B. Bend a piece of wire to the desired shape and insert the ends of the wire into the barrel C. Bend a piece of copper wire to the desired shape after wrapping it around a regular tip * D. File a piece of round stock, preferably steel, to the desired shape and insert it in the barrel 16. What are the two metals most often used to form soft solder? A. Lead and antimony B. Tin and lead * C. Bismuth and tin D. Tin and cadmium 17. What chemical or physical change causes a joint of soldered copper conductors to become one common metal? A. A physical change takes place as the solder flows between the molecules of copper joining them together when cooled B. A physical change takes place as both metals displace one another C. A chemical change takes place as the copper is dissolved into the solder thereby forming an alloyed metal * D. A chemical change takes place when the additional materials added to the solder are heated causing a gluing effect between the solder and the copper 18. When you solder electrical connectors, splices, and terminal lugs, what type of solder should you use? A. 65/35 solder B. 63/37 solder C. 60/40 solder * D. 57/43 solder (NEETS) MODULE 4 ELECTRICAL WIRING ASSIGNMENT 2 19. Why is flux used in the soldering process? A. It dilutes the molten solder and allows it to flow B. It acts as a cleaning agent to remove oxide * C. It acts as the bonding agent between the solder and metal D. It forms a conductive bond between the metal and the solder 20. When electrical and electronic components are soldered, what type of flux must be used? A. Hydrochloric acid B. Sal ammoniac C. Zinc chloride D. Rosin * 21. What two properties must a solvent have? A. Noncorrosive-nonconductive * B. Corrosive-conductive C. Noncorrosive-conductive D. Corrosive-nonconductive 22. Why are solvents used in the soldering process? A. To remove the flux from the metal surface being soldered B. To remove contaminants from the soldered connection * C. To dilute the flux and allow it to flow freely D. To improve the conductivity of the flux 23. Why are heat shunts used in the soldering process? A. To conduct heat from the component being soldered back to the iron B. To increase the temperature of the soldering iron or gun C. To prevent damage to adjacent heatsensitive components * D. To decrease the temperature to the conductor being soldered 24. For which of the following reasons are conductors laced together? A. To present a neat appearance B. To help support each other C. To aid in tracing conductors D. Each of the above * 25. Although it may be used, why is the use of round cord discouraged for lacing conductors? A. It is bulkier than the flat type B. It is more difficult to handle C. It is not fungus resistant D. It has a tendency to cut into wire insulation *

26. If you are preparing to single lace conductors, what total length must the lacing be in relationship to the longest conductor? A. One and one-half times the length B. Twice the length C. Two and one-half times the length * D. Five times the length 27. Why is a lacing shuttle used when conductors are laced in bundles? A. It helps prevent the conductors from twisting together B. It helps prevent the cord or tape from fouling * C. It keeps the "lay" of the cord or tape D. It ensures that hitches are evenly spaced 28. Under certain circumstances, it is permissable to twist conductors together prior to lacing. A. True B. False * 29. When coaxial cables are laced, the use of round cord is prohibited. What additional precaution must be observed? A. Coaxial cables may not be laced with other conductors B. Bundles containing coaxial cables must be double laced C. Half hitches must be used in place of marling hitches D. Coaxial cables must not be tied so tightly as to deform the dielectric * 30. How should a single lace be started? A. With a square knot and two marling hitches * B. With a marling hitch and a telephone hitch C. With a telephone hitch and two half hitches D. With a square knot and two half hitches 31. Under which of the following conditions should a double lace be used? A. Three coaxial cables form the bundle B. A maximum of six conductors form the bundle C. The bundle is larger than one inch in diameter * D. The bundle exceeds 10 feet in length 32. How should a double lace be started? A. With a square knot B. With a half hitch C. With a marling hitch D. With a telephone hitch * 33. How should laced cable groups that run parallel to each other be bound together? A. With marling hitches B. With telephone hitches * C. With square knots D. With half hitches 34. What tool or technique should be used to install self-clinching cable straps? A. Military standard hand tool * B. Circle snips C. Electrician’s pliers D. Hand installation 35. If a bundle of conductors passes through a very hightemperature area, what restraint should be used to tie the bundle? A. High-temperature pressure-sensitive tape * B. Flat glass fiber tape C. Self-clinching cable straps D. Double lacing 36. Why do cables and wires require identification? A. To assist the technician in troubleshooting a circuit B. To assist the technician in making repairs C. To permit the tracing of a circuit D. Each of the above * 37. Of the following publications, which should be used to determine the wire identification system for a specific piece of equipment? A. The damage control manual B. The technical manual for the equipment * C. The maintenance material management manual D. The illustrated parts breakdown of the equipment (NEETS) MODULE 4 ELECTRICAL WIRING ASSIGNMENT 3 38. What is the purpose of the green conductor in a power tool or electric appliance cable? A. To complete the circuit B. To act as the "hot" lead C. To prevent electrical shock to the operator * D. To prevent the motor of the unit from overloading 39. Which of the following diagrams is primarily used to identify the components of a system? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III. Wiring diagram IV. Block diagram V. Isometric diagram VI. Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram

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A. I B. III C. IV D. VI * 40. Which of the following diagrams is primarily used to locate the components of a system? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III. Wiring diagram IV. Block diagram V. Isometric diagram VI. Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram A. II B. IV C. V * D. VII 41. What two diagrams are used in conjunction with text materials to explain basic functions of a circuit? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III. Wiring diagram IV. Block diagram V. Isometric diagram VI. Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram A. II and IV * B. III and VII C. V and VI D. VII and I 42. Which of the following diagrams is primarily used to explain the overall operation of a system? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III.Wiring diagram IV.Block diagram V.Isometric diagram VI.Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram A. I * B. II C. III D. VII 43. What diagram must be used in conjunction with a schematic to troubleshoot a system? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III. Wiring diagram IV. Block diagram V. Isometric diagram VI. Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram A. VI B. V C. IV D. III * 44. What diagram shows the most details of a system? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III.Wiring diagram IV.Block diagram V.Isometric diagram VI.Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram A. I B. III * C. VI D. VII 45. If you are required to wire a relay into a circuit, what diagram would be most useful? I. Schematic diagram II. Single-line diagram III. Wiring diagram IV. Block diagram V. Isometric diagram VI. Pictorial diagram VII. Terminal diagram A. VII * B. VI C. III D. I 46. K 47. L 48. When you solder or hot-wire strip fluoroplastic insulated wire, which of the following safety precautions should be observed? A. Wear a safety mask at all times B. Wear protective gloves C. Maintain good ventilation to carry off the fumes * D. Do not allow the resin to touch the insulation 49. If a circuit has power restored to it, what meter may be used to test the circuit? A. An ohmmeter B. A wattmeter C. A megohmmeter D. A voltmeter * 50. If excess solder adheres to the tip of a soldering iron, how should you remove it? A. Flow flux over the tip B. Wipe it off on a clean cloth * C. Dip the tip in water D. Shake it off (NEETS) MODULE 5 GENERATORS & MOTORS ASSIGNMENT 1 1. In generators, what principle is used to convert mechanical motion to electrical energy? A. Atomic reaction B. Electrical attraction C. Magnetic repulsion D. Magnetic induction *

2. When you use the left-hand rule for generators, what is indicated by the middle finger? A. Direction of flux B. Direction of motion C. Direction of current flow * D. Direction of the magnetic field 3. The output voltage of an elementary generator is coupled from the armature to the brushes by what devices? A. Slip rings * B. Interpoles C. Terminals D. Pigtails 4. An elementary generator consists of a single coil rotating in a magnetic field. Why is NO voltage induced in the coil as it passes through the neutral plane? A. Flux lines are too dense B. Flux lines are not being cut * C. Flux lines are not present D. Flux lines are being cut in the wrong direction 5. What components cause(s) a generator to produce a dc voltage instead of an ac voltage at its output? A. The brushes B. The armature C. The slip rings D. The commutator * 6. When two adjacent segments of the commutator on a singleloop dc generator come in contact with the brush at the same time, which of the following conditions will occur? A. The output voltage will be zero * B. The output voltage will be maximum negative C. The output voltage will be maximum positive 7. In an elementary, single-coil, dc generator with one pair of poles, what is the maximum number of pulsations produced in one revolution? A. One B. Two * C. Three D. Four 8. If an elementary dc generator has a two coil armature and four field poles, what is the total number of segments required in the commutator? A. 8 B. 2 C. 16 D. 4 * 9. How can you vary the strength of the magnetic field in a dc generator? A. By varying the armature current B. By varying the speed of armature rotation C. By varying the voltage applied to the electromagnetic field coils* D. By varying the polarity of the field poles 10. Under which of the following conditions does sparking occur between the brushes and the commutator? A. When operating under normal conditions B. When there is improper commutation * C. When there is an excessive load current D. When commutation is in the neutral plane 11. Distortion of the main field by interaction with the armature field defines what term? A. Commutation B. Mutual reaction C. Armature reaction * D. Mutual induction 12. Distortion of the main field by interaction with the armature field can be compensated for by the use of A. slip rings B. interpoles * C. a commutator D. special brushes 13. Motor reaction in a dc generator is a physical force caused by the magnetic interaction between the armature and the field. What effect, if any, does this force have on the operation of the generator? A. It tends to oppose the rotation of the armature * B. It tends to aid the rotation of the armature C. It causes the generator to vibrate D. None 14. In dc generators, copper losses are caused by which of the following factors? A. Reluctance in the field poles B. Resistance in the armature winding * C. Reactance in the armature and field windings D. All of the above 15. Eddy currents in armature cores are kept low by which of the following actions? A. Using powdered iron as a core material B. Limiting armature current C. Insulating the core D. Laminating the iron in the core * 16. What makes the drum-type armature more efficient than the Gramme-ring armature?

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A. The drum-type armature has more windings than the Gramme-ring armature B. The drum-type armature can be rotated faster than the Gramme-ring armature C. The drum-type armature coils are fully exposed to the magnetic field, while the Gramme-ring armature coils are only partially exposed to the magnetic field * D. The drum-type armature has laminated core, while the Gramme-ring armature has a solid core 17. What type of dc generator application best utilizes the features of the lapwound armature? A. High-voltage B. High-current * C. High-speed D. Variable-speed 18. Which of the following is NOT a major classification of dc generators? A. Compound-wound B. Series-wound C. Shunt-wound D. Lap-wound * 19. What characteristic of series-wound generators makes them unsuitable for most applications? A. They require external field excitation B. The output voltage varies as the speed varies C. They are not capable of supplying heavy loads D. The output voltage varies as the load current varies * 20. As the load current of a dc generator varies from no-load to full-load, the variation in output voltage is expressed as a percent of the full-load voltage. What term applies to this expression? A. Gain B. Voltage control C. Voltage regulation * D. Load limit (NEETS) MODULE 5 GENERATORS & MOTORS ASSIGNMENT 2 21. When two or more generators are used to supply a common load, what term is applied to this method of operation? A. Series B. Compound C. Split-load D. Parallel * 22. What special-purpose dc generator is used as a high-gain power amplifier? A. Lap-wound B. Shunt-wound C. Amplidyne * D. Compound-connected 23. The gain of an amplifying device can be determined by which of the following formulas? A. GAIN = INPUT + OUTPUT B. GAIN = INPUT x OUTPUT C. GAIN = OUTPUT - INPUT D. GAIN = OUTPUT / INPUT * 24. The maximum gain possible from an amplidyne is approximately A. 100 B. 5,000 C. 10,000 * D. 50,000 25. What determines the direction of rotation of a dc motor? A. The type of armature B. The method of excitation C. The number of armature coils D. The polarity of armature current and direction of magnetic flux* 26. When you use the right-hand rule for motors, what quantity is indicated by the extended forefinger? A. Direction of flux north to south * B. Direction of flux south to north C. Direction of current D. Direction of motion 27. Which, if any, of the following situations is a major electrical difference between a dc motor and a dc generator? A. The armatures are different B. The shunt connections are different C. The dc generator requires a commutator, the dc motor does not D. None of the above * 28. In a dc motor, what causes counter emf? A. Improper commutation B. Armature reaction C. Generator action * D. Excessive speed 29. In a dc motor, how, if at all, does counter emf affect speed? A. It causes the speed to increase * B. It causes the speed to decrease C. It causes rapid fluctuations of the speed D. It does not affect speed 30. What is the load on a dc motor? A. The field current B. The armature current C. The mechanical device the motor moves *

D. The total current drawn from the source 31. When a series dc motor is operated without a load, which of the following conditions occurs? A. The armature draws excessive current B. The voltage requirement increases C. The armature will not turn D. The armature speeds out of control * 32. A dc series motor is best suited for which of the following applications? A. Steady load, low torque B. Variable load, low torque C. Steady load, high torque D. Variable load, high torque * 33. What is the main advantage of a shunt motor over a series motor? A. A shunt motor develops higher torque at lower speeds than a series motor B. A shunt motor can be operated at higher speeds than a series motor C. A shunt motor draws less current from the source than a series motor D. A shunt motor maintains a more constant speed under varying load conditions than a series motor * 34. How can the direction of rotation be changed in a dc motor? A. Only by reversing the field connections B. Only by reversing the armature connections C. By reversing both the armature connections and the field connections D. By reversing either the armature connections or the field connections * 35. When the voltage applied to the armature of a dc shunt motor is decreased, what happens to the motor speed? A. It becomes uncontrollable B. It decreases * C. It increases D. The motor stops 36. In a dc motor, the neutral plane shifts in what direction as the result of armature reaction? A. Clockwise B. Counterclockwise C. In the direction of rotation D. Opposite the direction of rotation * 37. The current in the interpoles of a dc motor is the same as the A. armature current * B. field current C. total load current D. eddy current 38. In a dc motor, what is the purpose of the resistor placed in series with the armature? A. To counteract armature reaction B. To limit armature current * C. To increase field strength D. To prevent overspeeding 39. Magnetic induction in an alternator is a result of relative motion between what two elements? A. The rotor and the armature B. The armature and the field * C. The field and the stator D. The rotor and the field 40. Voltage is induced in what part of an alternator? A. The commutator B. The brushes C. The armature * D. The field 41. What are the two basic types of alternators? A. Multiphase and polyphase B. Alternating current and direct current C. Rotating field and rotating armature * D. Series-wound and shunt-wound 42. Which of the following alternator types is most widely used? A. Shunt-wound B. Rotating-armature C. Series-wound D. Rotating-field * 43. The purpose of the exciter in an alternator is to A. provide dc field excitation * B. compensate for armature losses C. compensate for counter emf D. counteract armature reaction (NEETS) MODULE 5 GENERATORS & MOTORS ASSIGNMENT 3 44. An alternator using a gas turbine as a prime mover should have what type of rotor? A. Turbine-driven * B. Salient-pole C. Armature D. Geared

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45. In alternators with low-speed prime movers, only what type of rotor may be used? A. Geared B. Armature C. Salient-pole * D. Turbine-driven 46. Alternators are rated using which of the following terms? A. Volts B. Watts C. Amperes D. Volt-amperes * 47. What does the term single-phase mean relative to singlephase alternators? A. All output voltages are in phase with each other * B. The voltage and current are in phase C. The phase angle is constant D. Only one voltage is produced 48. In a single-phase alternator with multiple armature windings, how must the windings be connected? A. Series * B. Parallel C. Wye D. Delta 52. What determines the phase relationship between the individual output voltages in a multiphase alternator? A. The speed of rotation B. The number of field poles C. The method of connecting the terminals D. The placement of the armature coils * 53. What is the phase relationship between the output voltages of a three-phase alternator? A. In phase B. 60º out of phase C. 90º out of phase D. 120º out of phase * 54. The ac power aboard ship is usually distributed as what voltage? A. 115-volt, three-phase B. 115-volt, single-phase C. 230-volt, single-phase D. 450-volt, three-phase * 55. The output frequency of an alternator is determined by what two factors? A. The number of poles and the number of phases B. The number of poles and the speed of rotation * C. The speed of rotation and the VA rating D. The number of phases and the VA rating 56. A four-pole, single-phase alternator rotating at 1800 rpm will produce what output frequency? A. 60 Hz * B. 400 Hz C. 1800 Hz D. 3600 Hz 57. Which of the following is the correct formula for determining the percent of regulation of an alternator? %R=(ENL-EFL)/EFL x 100 58. In most alternators, the output voltage is controlled by adjusting the A. rotor speed B. field voltage * C. armature resistance D. electric load 59. When alternators are to be operated in parallel, which of the following alternator characteristics must be considered? A. Voltage B. Frequency C. Phase relationship D. All the above * 60. Which of the following motors is/are types of ac motor? A. Series B. Synchronous C. Induction D. All of the above * 61. Which of the following types of motors is widely used to power small appliances? A. Universal * B. Synchronous C. Polyphase D. Compound 62. A universal motor is a special type of A. synchronous motor B. series motor * C. parallel motor D. polyphase motor 63. The number of pole pairs required to establish a rotating magnetic field in a multiphase motor stator is determined by which of the following factors? A. The magnitude of the voltage B. The magnitude of the current C. The number of phases * D. The size of the motor 64. In a two-phase motor stator, what is the angular displacement between the field poles? A. 0º B. 90º * C. 180º D. 360º

65. Adjacent phase windings of a 3-phase motor stator are what total number of degrees apart? A. 30º B. 90º C. 120º * D. 180º 66. Which of the following types of motors has a constant speed from no load to full load? A. Series B. Synchronous* C. Induction D. Universal 67. What type of ac motor is the simplest and least expensive to manufacture? A. Induction * B. Series C. Synchronous D. Two-phase 68. What term applies to the difference between the speed of the rotating stator field and the rotor speed? A. Slip * B. Synchronous C. Rotor error D. Torque (NEETS) MODULE 5 GENERATORS & MOTORS ASSIGNMENT 4 69. The speed of the rotor of an induction motor depends upon which of the following factors? A. The method of connecting the load B. The dc voltage applied to the rotor C. The torque requirements of the load * D. The current in the rotor 70. What type of ac motor is most widely used? A. Series B. Universal C. Synchronous D. Single-phase induction * 71. What type of ac motor uses a combination of inductance and capacitance to apply out-of-phase currents to the start windings? A. Three-phase B. Series C. Synchronous D. Split-phase induction * 72. Why are shaded-pole motors built only in small sizes? A. They have weak starting torque * B. They are expensive in large sizes C. They are unidirectional D. They require large starting current (NEETS) Module 6 ELECTRONS TUBE ASSIGNMENT 1 1. The electrons emitted by a heated conductor come from what source? A. An external battery B. An external ac source C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. The conductor itself 2. What is another name for thermionic emission? A. The gap effect B. The heat effect C. The Edison effect * D. The Fleming effect 3. Electrons emitted by a hot filament are able to cross the gap between the filament and the plate. What force enables them to do this? A. Magnetic repulsion B. Inductive reactance C. Thermionic emission D. Electrostatic attraction * 4. Name the two series circuits that are associated with a diode electron tube. A. The plate and anode circuits B. The plate and filament circuits * C. The battery and filament circuits D. The filament and cathode circuits 5. When an ac voltage is applied across the plate and filament of a diode, the current measured will represent what type of waveform? A. Pulsating dc * B. Dc C. Pulsating ac D. Ac 6. A filament that uses a one-molecule thick layer of barium and strontium is classified as what type of filament? A. Tungsten B. Oxide-coated * C. Tungsten-strontium D. Thoriated-tungsten 7. Which of the following ac filament voltages is most likely to be considered a common voltage? A. 1.5 volts B. 3.0 volts C. 6.3 volts * D. 9.0 volts 8. An ac directly heated filament has which of the following advantages? A. Even spacing relative to the plate B. Even emission across the filament C. Constant emission throughout the ac cycle D. Rapid heating effect *

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9. An indirectly heated cathode always uses what material for its emitting surface? A. An oxide coating * B. A thorium coating C. A tungsten coating D. A graphite coating 10. What is the principal advantage of an indirectly heated cathode over a directly heated cathode? A. It is larger B. It is immune to ac heater current variations * C. It reaches an operating temperature more quickly D. It has a lower operating temperature 11. When you view an electron tube and its socket connection from the bottom, in what direction are (a) the pins of the tube and (b) the pins of the socket numbered? A. (a) Counterclockwise (b) Clockwise B. (a) Counterclockwise (b) Counterclockwise C. (a) Clockwise (b) Counterclockwise D. (a) Clockwise (b) Clockwise * 12. Electron tubes are identified by a number preceded by which of the following letter designations? A. T B. V * C. ET D. VT 13. The getter in an electron tube serves what purpose? A. It protects the plate from overheating B. It allows the cathode to emit more electrons C. It helps to produce a better vacuum * D. It anchors the tube elements in the base 14. An electron tube is operated at 300 volts and a plate current of 60 milliamperes. 15. To avoid being damaged, the tube must have what minimum plate dissipation rating? A. 5000 watts B. 18 watts * C. 5 watts D. 0.18 watt 16. Under which of the following conditions can a tube be considered operating beyond its peak inverse voltage rating? A. When the plates glow cherry red B. When current flows from the plate to the cathode * C. When current flows from the cathode in the form of an arc D. When current flows from the cathode to the plate and damage occurs 17. Why does control grid voltage of a triode exercise greater control than plate voltage over conduction of the tube? A. The grid is operated at a higher voltage than the plate B. The grid adds electrons to the electron stream C. The grid is closer to the plate than the cathode D. The grid is closer to the cathode than the plate * 18. The plate load resistor in an electron tube circuit performs what function? A. It converts variations in plate voltage to current variations B. It limits the amount of plate voltage that can be applied to the tube C. It converts variations in plate current to variations in plate voltage * D. It limits the amount of plate current that can flow through the tube 19. Most amplifier circuits are designed to operate with the grid negative in relation to the cathode. This is done to avoid which of the following problems? A. Excessive grid current * B. Excessive plate current C. Distortion on small signals D. Distortion on large negative signals (NEETS) Module 6 ELECTRONS TUBE ASSIGNMENT 2 20. Overdriving can be considered a form of distortion for which of the following reasons? A. The output is not in phase with the input B. The output does not have the same polarity as the input C. The output is not a faithful reproduction of the input * D. The output does not have the same amplitude as the input 21. Electronic equipment that uses fixed bias for its tube circuit receives its grid bias voltage from what source? A. A portion of the plate voltage B. A power source internal to the circuit C. Both 1 and 2 above D. A power source external to the circuit * 22. The effect of both cathode and grid biasing is to make the cathode (a) what polarity, relative to (b) what other tube element? A. (a) Positive (b) the plate B. (a) Negative (b) the plate C. (a) Positive (b) the grid *

D. (a) Negative (b) the grid 23. Which of the following types of biasing is most likely to use a battery supply? A. Self B. Grid C. Fixed * D. Cathode 24. In an electron tube circuit using cathode biasing, the cathode is made positive in relation to the grid. This is done by a voltage dropped across what circuit element? A. RL B. Rk * C. Cc D. Ck 25. The cathode bias voltage level applied to the cathode is maintained at a constant level by what circuit component? A. RL B. Rk C. Cc D. Ck * 26. Which of the following undesirable characteristics is associated with cathode biasing? A. Plate voltage is increased by the voltage amount of biasing B. The cathode is forced to operate at a positive potential C. The maximum negative output is limited D. Current must flow in the circuit continuously * 27. Grid-leak biasing develops a biasing voltage from (a) what portion of the input signal and (b) by what type of action? A. (a) Negative (b) resistive B. (a) Negative (b) capacitive C. (a) Positive (b) capacitive * D. (a) Positive (b) resistive 28. During the charge cycle in grid-leak biasing, Cc, draws current through what circuit element? A. Rg B. rgk * C. RL D. Rk 29. During the discharge cycle in grid-leak biasing, Cc discharges across what circuit element? A. Rg * B. rgk C. RL D. Rk 30. The effect of grid-leak biasing is to rectify the input signal. Because of this, the amplitude of the biasing voltage depends upon which of the following factors? A. Amplitude of the input B. Frequency of the input C. Size of Rg and Cc D. All of the above * 31. During the charging cycle in grid-leak biasing, the effective size of rgk is decreased. This is caused by what electronic principle? A. Electrostatic repulsion between the grid and the plate B. Electrostatic repulsion between the grid and the cathode C. Electrostatic attraction between the cathode and the grid * D. Electrostatic attraction between the plate and the cathode 32. The charge and discharge of capacitor Cc, used in gridleak circuits, will be equal when what condition occurs? A. When Rgk becomes the same value as Rg * B. When Cc reaches its maximum charge-holding capacity C. When the charge on Cc cuts the tube off D. When Rg becomes larger than rgk 33. The amplification factor for an electron tube is identified by what electronic symbol? A. Ar B. Vg C. gm D. μ * 34. Transconductance is identified by what electronic symbol? A. μ B. gm * C. rgk D. tc 35. In a triode, what interelectrode capacitance has the greatest effect on tube operation? A. Cpg * B. Cgk C. Cpk D. Csg 36. Interelectrode capacitance (Cpg) affects the gain of a triode stage because of what electronic feature? A. Blocking B. Feedback * C. Transit time D. Phase inversion 37. For normal operation, the screen grid of a tetrode is operated at a positive voltage in relation to (a) what tube element, and negative in relation to (b) what other tube element? A. (a) Grid (b) plate * B. (a) Grid (b) cathode C. (a) Plate (b) grid D. (a) Cathod (b) grid (NEETS) Module 6 ELECTRONS TUBE ASSIGNMENT 3 38. Which of the following undesirable characteristics is/are associated with tetrode operation?

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A. The plate is isolated from the electron stream B. The plate emits secondary emission electrons C. The output is noisy D. Both 2 and 3 above * 39. Generally, tetrodes have a lower transconductance than triodes. This is caused by what feature of a tetrode? A. The plate is isolated from the electron stream B. The screen grid draws current from the electron steam * C. Secondary emission limits the amount of current the plate can draw from the electron stream D. The screen grid is operated at a negative potential relative to the plate and electrons are repelled from the plate 40. The suppressor grid of a pentode is operated at what potential relative to (a) the cathode and (b) the plate? A. (a) Positive (b) The same potential B. (a) Negative (b) The same potential C. (a) The same potential (b) Negative * D. (a) The same potential (b) Positive 41. Voltage is supplied to the suppressor grid in a pentode from what source? A. Through a resistor from the plate source voltage B. Through a resistor from ground C. By a separate voltage source * D. By a physical connection from the cathode 42. The suppressor grid is able to control the effects of secondary emission by using which of the following electronic actions? A. By attracting electrons emitted by the plate through electromagnetic attraction B. By repelling electrons emitted by the plate through electromagnetic repulsion C. By attracting electrons emitted from the plate through electrostatic attraction D. By repelling electrons emitted from the plate through electrostatic repulsion * (NEETS) MODULE 6 Power Supply MODULE 6 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four sections of a basic power supply? A. Transformer B. Oscillator * C. Rectifier D. Filter 2. The primary purpose of the transformer in an electronic power supply is to isolate the power supply from ground. A. True B. False * 3. What is the primary function of the rectifier section? A. To convert dc to ac B. To convert ac to pulsating dc * C. To increase average voltage output D. To decrease average voltage output 4. What is/are the functions of the filter section? A. To eliminate dc voltage B. To increase the amplitude of ac C. To convert pulsating dc to steady dc * D. All of the above 5. The purpose of a center tap in a transformer is to provide A. two separate dc voltages to the rectifier B. a step-down voltage to the rectifier C. pulsating dc to the rectifier D. two equal voltages from one transformer * 6. A diode is an ideal rectifier for which, if any, of the following reasons? A. Current flows through the diode in one direction only * B. Current flows through the diode in both directions C. Current will not flow through a diode D. None of the above 7. When the anode of a diode is negative with respect to the cathode, the diode is said to be in what state? A. Conduction B. Saturation C. Remission D. Cutoff * 8. In a simple half-wave rectifier, the diode will conduct for a maximum of how many degrees of the 360-degree input signal? A. 45 B. 90 C. 180 * D. 270 9. What term is used to describe current pulses that flow in the same direction? A. Average current B. Secondary current C. Pure direct current D. Pulsating direct current * 10. What is the ripple frequency of a halfwave rectifier with an input line frequency of 60 Hz? A. 30 Hz B. 60 Hz *

C. 90 Hz D. 120 Hz 11. In a half-wave rectifier, what is the average voltage output when the peak voltage is 300 volts? A. 190.8 volts B. 95.4 volts * C. 19.08 volts D. 9.4 volts 12. What is the peak value of the voltage pulse across the load? Assume that the voltage across the transformer secondary (Point A to Point B) has an RMS value of 480 volts ac. A. 169.7 volts B. 215.8 volts C. 339.4 volts * D. 480 volts

13. What is the average load voltage? Assume that the voltage across the transformer secondary (Point A to Point B) has an RMS value of 480 volts ac. A. 339.4 volts B. 240 volts C. 216 volts * D. 189.6 volts

14. What is the ripple frequency of a fullwave rectifier with an input line frequency of 60 Hz? A. 30 Hz B. 60 Hz C. 90 Hz D. 120 Hz * 15. The full-wave rectifier has which of the following advantages over the half-wave? A. Higher average voltage and current * B. Larger number of components C. Higher value of voltage D. Better regulation 16. What is the average voltage output of a full-wave rectifier that has an output of 100 volts peak? A. 3.18 volts B. 6.36 volts C. 31.8 volts D. 63.7 volts * 17. The primary disadvantage of the conventional full-wave rectifier is that the peak output voltage is only one-half that of the half-wave rectifier. A. True * B. False 18. When the voltage across the secondary of the transformer has the polarity shown, which of the diodes will conduct? A. D1 and D3 * B. D2 and D4 C. D1 and D2 D. D3 and D4

19. When the polarity reverses, which of the diodes will conduct? A. D3 and D1 B. D4 and D2 * C. D2 and D1 D. D4 and D3

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20. In filter circuits, inductors are used as what type of impedance(s)? A. Shunt impedance to oppose changes in current B. Shunt impedances to oppose changes in voltage C. Series impedances to oppose changes in current * D. Series impedances to oppose changes in voltage 21. To retain its charge, the capacitor in a simple capacitor filter must have a long charge time constant and a short discharge time constant. A. True B. False * 22. If you increase the value of a capacitor, the XC will increase. A. True B. False * (NEETS) MODULE 6 Power Supply MODULE 6 23. To obtain a steady dc output in a simple capacitor circuit, the capacitor must charge almost instantaneously to the value of the applied voltage. A. True * B. False 24. Which of the following factors, if any, determines the rate of discharge of the capacitor in a filter circuit? A. The value of the load resistance * B. The amount of voltage C. The type of capacitor D. None of the above 25. A half-wave rectifier has an output frequency of 60 hertz, a filter capacitor value of 40 microfarads, and a load resistance of 10 kΩ. What is the value of XC? A. 133.3 ohms B. 26.5 ohms C. 66.3 ohms * D. 40.0 ohms 26. A full-wave rectifier has an output frequency of 120 hertz, a filter capacitor value of 25 microfarads, and a load resistance of 10 kΩ. What is the value of XC? A. 5.3 ohms B. 53 ohms * C. 106 ohms D. 1060 ohms 27. What type of filter is the most basic power supply filter? A. Capacitor * B. LC choke-input C. LC capacitor-input D. RC capacitor-input 28. In a circuit with a capacitor filter, how is the capacitor connected? A. In series with the load B. In parallel with the load * C. In series with the input D. Both 2 and 3 above 29. The LC choke-input filter is used primarily where which of the following types of regulation is/are important? A. Frequency B. Current only C. Voltage only * D. Voltage and Current 30. In an LC choke-input filter circuit, the capacitor charges only to the average value of the input voltage. What component inhibits the capacitor from reaching the peak value of the input voltage? A. The diode B. The capacitor C. The filter choke * D. The load resistor 31. In an LC choke-input filter, the larger the value of the filter capacitor, the better the filtering action. Which of the following factors represents the major limitation in obtaining the maximum value of the capacitor used? A. Cost B. Reliability C. Availability D. Physical size * 32. What is the most common range of values, in henries, for a power supply choke? A. 1 to 20 * B. 5 to 25 C. 25 to 30 D. 10 to 200 33. If the impedance of the choke in an LC choke-input filter is increased, the ripple will A. increase B. decrease * C. oscillate D. remain the same

34. A full-wave rectifier has an output frequency of 120 hertz, a filter choke with a value of 10 henries, and a load resistance of 10 kΩ. What is the value of XL? A. 75 Ω B. 7.5 Ω C. 75 kΩ D. 7.5 kΩ * 35. The filter capacitor in the LC choke-input filter is NOT subject to extreme voltage surges because of the protection provided by what component? A. Shunt capacitor B. Series resistor C. Load resistor D. Inductor * 36. Shorted turns in the choke of an LC choke-input filter may reduce the value of inductance below the critical value. When this happens, which of the following problems may occur? A. Poor voltage regulation B. Excessive ripple amplitude C. Abnormally high output voltage D. Each of the above * 37. The use of the RC capacitor-input filter is limited to which of the following situations? A. When the load current is large B. When the load current is small * C. When the load voltage is large D. When the load voltage is small 38. Which of the components will have the highest failure rate? A. C1 * B. C2 C. R1 D. RL

39. Which of the components provides protection against voltage surges in the circuit? A. C1 B. C2 C. R1 * D. RL

40. Components L1 and C2 form what type of circuit? A. Ac voltage doubler B. Dc voltage doubler C. Ac voltage divider * D. Dc voltage divider

41. If component L1 shorts to the core, which of the following conditions will result? A. Low output ripple frequency B. Excessive ripple frequency C. Excessively high output D. No output *

42. In a voltage regulator, what percent of regulation would be ideal? A. 1 % B. 5 % C. 3 % D. 0 % * 43. If a power supply produces 30 volts with no load and 25 volts under full load, what is the percent of regulation? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 * D. 30

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44. If a power supply produces 10 volts with no load and 9 volts under full load, what is the percent of regulation? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 * 45. If a power supply produces 20 volts with no load and 20 volts under full load, what is the percent of regulation? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 0 * 46. Basic voltage regulators are classified as either series or shunt. Their classification is determined by which of the following factors? A. The type of regulating device used B. The type of regulation required C. The amount of regulation required D. The position of the regulating device in relation to the load (RL) * 47. The simple series voltage regulator was designed to function as what type of resistance? A. Fixed resistance in series with the load B. Fixed resistance in parallel with the load C. Variable resistance in series with the load * D. Variable resistance in parallel with the load 48. A series voltage regulator is designed so that what total percentage of current flows through the regulating device? A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100 * 49. When a series voltage regulator is used to control output voltages, any increase in input voltage results in a/an A. decrease in the voltage drop across the load resistance B. increase in the voltage drop across the Zener diode C. decrease in the resistance of the regulating device D. increase in the resistance of the regulating device * 50. The base-emitter bias across Q1 is determined by which of the components? A. R1 and CR1 * B. R1 and RS C. RS and CR1 D. RS and RL

51. What, if anything, happens to the forward bias of Q1 when the input voltage increases? A. It increases * B. It decreases C. Nothing, it remains the same

52. When the load current increases and the output voltage momentarily drops, what, if anything, happens to the resistance of Q1? A. It increases to compensate for the drop B. It decreases to compensate for the change * C. Nothing, it remains the same

53. What type of ammeter reading indicates that current regulator is functioning properly? A. Constant * B. Deflection in the negative direction C. Deflection in the positive direction D. Fluctuation around the center line

54. A major disadvantage of having good current regulation is that good voltage regulation is lost. A. True B. False * 55. To maintain a constant current flow when there is an increase in the load resistance (RL), variable resistance (RV) must compensate for this change by A. increasing its resistance * B. decreasing its resistance C. remaining the same 56. A decrease in the forward bias of a baseemitter junction has which of the following effects on the resistance of a transistor? A. It increases * B. It deceases C. It remains the same 57. Voltage multipliers are used primarily to develop what type of voltage? A. Low voltage where low current is required B. Low voltage where high current is required C. High voltage where low current is required * D. High voltage where high current is required 58. The classification of voltage multipliers depends on which of the following ratios? A. Input current to output current B. Input current to output voltage C. Output voltage to input voltage D. Input voltage to output current 59. A half-wave voltage doubler consists of what total number of half-wave rectifiers? A. One B. Two * C. Three D. Four 60. If a half-wave rectifier circuit is added to a half-wave voltage doubler circuit, what will be the resulting circuit? A. A voltage doubler B. A voltage tripler * C. A voltage quadruplet D. A voltage quintuplet 61. Which of the following methods is used by manufacturers of electronic equipment to reduce the cost of extensive wiring? A. Grounding the output of the power supply to the chassis B. Grounding the return side of the power transformer to the chassis * C. Connecting all components in parallel D. Connecting all components in series 62. When working on electronic equipment, the technician should observe which of the following safety precautions? A. Make certain that the electronic equipment is properly grounded B. Make certain that the test equipment is properly grounded C. Make certain that the rubber mats are in good condition D. All of the above * 63. Which of the following is/are the most widely used check(s) for testing electronic equipment? A. Smoke B. Visual C. Signal tracing D. Both B and C above * 64. Any connection that is located close to the chassis or to any other terminal should be examined for the possibility of which of the following problems? A. An open B. A short * C. A low resistance D. A high resistance 65. Which of the following statements applies to a transformer that is discolored or leaking? A. It is operational B. It is cracked * C. It is shorted D. It is open 66. As a technician, you notice that a resistor is discolored and charred. Which, if any, of the following conditions most likely caused the damage? A. Overload * B. Open circuit C. Ambient temperature D. None of the above 67. You are in the process of energizing a power supply. You hear a boiling or sputtering noise and notice smoke coming from a section of the power supply. Which, if any, of the following actions should you take first? A. Secure the power immediately B. Examine the problem area C. Remove the defective component D. None of the above * 68. Which, if any, of the following is the most rapid and accurate method for testing electronic circuits after completing visual inspection? A. Smoke test B. Current test C. Signal tracing * D. None of the above (NEETS) Module 9 TUNED CIRCUITS ASSIGNMENT 1

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1. An inductor presents which of the following types of electrical opposition to ac current flow? A. Reactance * B. Resistance C. Inductance D. Capacitance 2. Which of the following electrical characteristics determines the magnitude of inductive reactance? A. Resistance B. Frequency only C. Inductance only D. Frequency and inductance * 3. Which of the following values represents an inductive reactance? A. XC = 2,220 ohms B. XL = 220 ohms * C. L = 22 millihenries D. C = 22 microfarads 4. In an ac circuit, how does inductive reactance respond to an increase in applied frequency? A. Inductive reactance increases * B. Inductive reactance decreases C. Inductive reactance remains the same 5. What term describes the opposition to ac that causes current to lead voltage? A. Resistance B. Conductance C. Inductive reactance D. Capacitive reactance * 6. In an ac circuit, how does capacitive reactance respond to an increase in applied frequency? A. Capacitive reactance increases B. Capacitive reactance decreases * C. Capacitive reactance remains the same 7. In an ac circuit, what is the term that describes the TOTAL opposition to current flow? A. Impedance * B. Inductance C. Resistance D. Capacitance 8. In an ac circuit that contains an inductive reactance of 7,250 ohms and a capacitive reactance of 9,775 ohms, what is the resultant reactance? A. - 2,525 ohms * B. -10,250 ohms C. 2,525 ohms D. 10,250 ohms 9. When an ac circuit is at resonance, what is the relationship between XL and XC A. XL is equal to XC * B. XL is less than XC C. XL is greater than XC 10. In a tank circuit, how does the resonant frequency of the circuit respond to an increase in (a) capacitance and (b) inductance? A. (a) Increases (b) increases B. (a) Increases (b) decreases C. (a) Decreases (b) decreases * D. (a) Decreases (b) increases 11. In a resonant circuit, what is the phase angle between voltage and current? A. 0 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 180 degrees * D. 270 degrees 12. In a resonant circuit, how does resistance change, if at all, in response to an increase in frequency? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same * 13. In a series-LC circuit, which of the following component characteristics describes circuit action (a) below the resonant frequency and (b) above the resonant frequency? A. (a) Inductive (b) Capacitive B. (a) Inductive (b) Resistive C. (a) Capacitive (b) Inductive * D. (a) Capacitive (b) Resistive 14. In a series-resonant circuit operating at fr, what term describes the impedance of the circuit? A. Resistive * B. Inductive only C. Capacitive only D. Capacitive-inductive 15. As a parallel-resonant circuit approaches resonance, which of the following circuit actions takes place? A. Impedance decreases B. Oscillating current increases C. Inductance increases * D. Capacitance decreases 16. When a parallel-resonant circuit operates BELOW resonance, which of the following component characteristics describes circuit action? A. Inductive * B. Capacitive C. Resistive

17. When a parallel-resonant circuit operates ABOVE resonance, which of the following component characteristics describes circuit actions? A. Inductive B. Capacitive * C. Resistive 18. In a parallel-resonant circuit, which of the following circuit conditions is observed? A. Oscillating current is less than line current B. Oscillating current is greater than line current * C. Line current is maximum D. Impedance is minimum 19. What is the level of impedance offered at resonance in (a) a series-resonant circuit and (b) a parallel-resonant circuit? A. (a) High (b) high B. (a) High (b) low C. (a) Low (b) low D. (a) Low (b) high * 20. The ability of a resonant circuit to separate currents of desired frequencies from those of undesired frequencies makes them useful in which of the following circuit applications? A. Filters * B. Counters C. Amplifiers D. Voltage dividers 21. The Q of a circuit is a measure of circuit A. quality * B. permeance C. conductance D. inductive reactance 22. Which of the following circuit values has the greatest effect on the figure of merit of the circuit? A. Reactance B. Inductance C. Resistance * D. Capacitance 23. On which of the following coil characteristics is the Q of a coil dependent? A. Size B. Length C. Material D. All of the above * 24. In a parallel-resonant circuit, Q is used to figure which of the following circuit values? A. Voltage gain B. Voltage loss C. Circulating tank current * D. Circulating line current 25. To calculate the half-power points of a resonant circuit, which of the following mathematical expressions should you use? A. 0.707 x Imin B. 0.707 x Imax * C. 0.637 x Imin D. 0.637 x Imax 26. The action of a filter circuit that reduces the amplitude of unwanted frequencies below the amplitude of the desired frequency is known as A. attenuation * B. amplification C. discrimination D. impedance matching 27. The frequency beyond which a filter circuit no longer passes current is referred to as the A. filter frequency B. cutoff frequency * C. resonant frequency D. response frequency 28. In a series-resonant circuit that is operating at resonance, what is the amplitude of the applied voltage compared to (a) inductor voltage and (b) capacitor voltage? A. (a) Lower (b) lower * B. (a) Lower (b) higher C. (a) Higher (b) higher D. (a) Higher (b) lower (NEETS) MODULE 9 OSCILLATORS ASSIGNMENT 2 1. A sinusoidal oscillator can be regarded as which of the following types of amplifiers? A. One that produces a trapezoidal wave B. One that produces a sine wave * C. One that produces a square wave D. One that produces a sawtooth wave 2. Wave generators are classified according to the A. input wave shape B. output wave shape * C. current in the output D. voltage in the output 3. An IDEAL sinusoidal oscillator would produce which of the following outputs? A. A square wave of constant frequency and amplitude B. A square wave of varying frequency and amplitude C. A sine wave of constant frequency and amplitude * D. A sine wave of varying frequency and constant amplitude 4. What three circuits are most commonly used as frequency determining devices?

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A. Class C amplifier, class B amplifier, and class A amplifier B. Crystal-controlled oscillator, RC oscillator, and LC oscillator * C. Common-emitter amplifier, common base amplifier, and common-collector amplifier D. Transformer coupler, RC coupler, and direct coupler 5. Which of the following circuits is NOT a relaxation oscillator? A. A multivibrator B. A sawtooth generator C. A blocking oscillator D. A sinusoidal oscillator * 6. Which of the following definitions describes the basic oscillator? A. A nonrotating device producing alternating current * B. A rotating device producing alternating current C. A nonrotating device producing direct current D. A rotating device producing direct current 7. Amplitude stability in an oscillator is the ability to A. produce an increased amplitude in the output B. produce a variable amplitude in the output C. maintain a constant frequency in the output D. maintain a constant amplitude in the output * 8. Frequency stability in an oscillator refer to its ability to A. maintain a constant operating frequency * B. maintain a variable operating amplitude C. maintain a constant amplitude D. vary operating frequency 9. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier? A. To provide a direct connection between the oscillator and the load B. To amplify the output signal of the oscillator C.To remove frequency distortion from the oscillator D.To prevent load variations from affecting the oscillator * 10. Why is class A bias used in oscillators? A. To develop low power B. To develop maximum power C. To maintain low distortion * D. To maintain high efficiency 11. When a group of RC networks is used for regenerative feedback, which of the following waveform actions takes place in each successive stage? A. Waveform is rectified B. Amplitude is decreased * C. Amplitude is increased D. Amplitude is held constant 12. When RC networks are connected in cascade (series), what amount of phase shift should you see? A. The sum of the phase shifts of each RC network * B. The difference between the phase shifts of each RC network C. The product of the phase shifts of each RC network D. The square of the phase shifts of each RC network 13. Which of the following terms describes the gradual amplitude reduction in an oscillator? A. Damping * B. Phase shift C. Regeneration D. Flywheel effect 14. Which of the following actions best describes the piezoelectric effect? A. Produces a dc output voltage for a given ac input voltage B. Produces an output voltage for a given mechanical input C. Produces a mechanical output for a given input voltage D. Both B and C above * 15. The piezoelectric effect is the property of a crystal which produces which of the following electrical characteristics? A. Resistance B. Inductance C. Capacitance D. Each of the above * 16. What electrical characteristic makes the frequency stability of a crystal better than that of an LC tank circuit? A. Higher Q * B. Higher inductance C. Higher resistance D. Higher capacitance 17. How is feedback described? A. Control of a circuit output signal by the input signal B. Control of a circuit input signal by the output of the previous circuit C. Transfer of a portion of the output circuit energy to control the input of the circuit * D. Transfer of a portion of the input circuit energy to control the output circuit 18. Which of the following terms describes the types of feedback? A. Degenerative and regenerative B. Negative and positive C. Both A and B above * D. Bypassed and unbypassed 19. What type of feedback aids an input signal? A. Positive * B. Negative

C. Bypassed D. Degenerative 20. What type of feedback opposes an input signal? A. Positive B. Unbypassed C. Degenerative * D. Regenerative 21. What type of feedback is used to sustain oscillations? A. Bypassed B. Negative C. Degenerative D. Regenerative * 22. What oscillator uses a tickler coil for feedback? A. Hartley B. Colpitts C. Armstrong * D. RC phase-shift 23. What oscillator uses a tapped coil for feedback? A. Hartley * B. Colpitts C. Armstrong D. RC phase-shift 24. What oscillator uses split capacitors for feedback? A. Hartley B. Colpitts * C. Armstrong D. RC phase-shift 25. Which of the following statements best describes tank current in a series-fed oscillator? A. The dc path is through the tank circuit * B. The dc path does not go through the tank circuit C. The ac path is through the tank circuit D. The ac path does not go through the tank circuit 26. In a shunt-fed, tuned-collector Armstrong oscillator, what blocks the dc component from the tank circuit? A. A resistor B. A capacitor * C. An inductor D. A transistor 27. Which of the following circuit arrangements aid in the frequency stability of an oscillator? A. A regulated power supply B. A common bias source for the emitter and collector C. Both A and B above * D. Separate bias sources 28. What feature in a Hartley oscillator differs from an Armstrong oscillator? A. Tickler coil B. Split inductor * C. Split coupling D. Split capacitance 29. A tuned-base Hartley oscillator is described as "shunt fed" when A. ac flows through the tank circuit * B. dc flows through the tank circuit C. ac does not flow through the tank circuit D. dc does not flow through the tank circuit 30. Which of the following advantages does the Colpitts oscillator have over the Armstrong and Hartley oscillators? A. Easier to tune B. Wider frequency range C. Better frequency stability D. All of the above * 31. What class of biasing does the RC oscillator use? A. A * B. B C. C D. AB 32. In an RC network, (a) what type of impedance is presented and (b) does the current lead or lag? A. (a) Inductive (b) leads B. (a) Inductive (b) lags C. (a) Capacitive (b) lags D. (a) Capacitive (b) leads * 33. In the phase-shift oscillator, a phase shift of 180 degrees for regenerative feedback is provided by what minimum number of RC networks? A. One B. Two C. Three * D. Four 34. What determines the phase angle of an RC network? A. Input voltage B. Output voltage C. Values of resistance and inductance D. Values of resistance and capacitance * 35. Which of the following oscillators is used to provide a highly stable output at a very precise frequency? A. Crystal * B. Hartley C. Colpitts D. Armstrong 36. The frequency of a crystal-controlled oscillator is determined by which of the following physical actions? A. Type of cut B. Accuracy of cut C. Thickness of grinding D. All of the above * 37. Why is the crystal in a crystal-controlled oscillator often installed in a temperature-controlled oven?

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A. To increase frequency without changing the crystal B. To decrease frequency without changing the crystal C. To provide better amplitude stability D. To provide better frequency stability * 38. How is the Q of a crystal determined? A. Type of cut used * B. Type of holder used C. Accuracy of the grinding D. All of the above 39. An oscillator that is turned ON for a specific period of time, then is turned OFF and remains OFF until required at a later time, is which of following types? A. LC B. Pierce C. Pulsed * D. Crystal 40. What is the fourth harmonic of a 2-MHz signal? A. 6 megahertz B. 2 megahertz C. 8 megahertz * D. 4 megahertz 41. What is the highest multiplication factor normally used in frequency multipliers? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four * 42. As the multiplication factor in a frequency multiplier circuit is increased, what happens to the output signal (a) amplitude and (b) frequency? A. (a) Increases (b) increases B. (a) Increases (b) decreases C. (a) Decreases (b) decreases D. (a) Decreases (b) increases * 43. In a buffer amplifier, what is the impedance in the (a) input and (b) output? A. (a) Low (b) low B. (a) Low (b) high C. (a) High (b) high D. (a) High (b) low * (NEETS) MODULE 9 WAVEFORMS AND WAVE GENERATORS ASSIGNMENT 3 1. A waveform that repeats the same pattern of changes is a/an A. periodic wave * B. sporadic wave C. aperiodic wave D. transverse wave 2. Which of the following waveforms is sinusoidal? A. Sine wave * B. Square wave C. Sawtooth wave D. Rectangular wave 3. The time required to complete one full cycle of a square wave is referred to as the A. pulse-repetition rate B. pulse-repetition time * C. pulse-repetition cycle D. pulse-repetition frequency 4. What term(s) describes the number of times in one second that a square wave repeats itself? A. The pulse-repetition frequency (PRF) B. The pulse-repetition rate (PRR) C. Both A and B above * D. The pulse-repetition time (PRT) 5. A square wave with a PRF of 1,250 hertz has a PRT of A. 8 microseconds B. 80 microseconds C. 800 microseconds * D. 8,000 microseconds 6. What type of waveform is used to furnish a linear rise in current for electromagnetic cathode ray tubes? A. Square wave B. Sawtooth wave * C. Trapezoidal wave D. Rectangular wave 7. Which of the following multivibrators must have a signal applied (triggered) to change states? A. Astable B. Bistable C. Monostable D. Both B and C above * 8. Which of the following multivibrators is also called a free running multivibrator? A. Astable * B. Bistable C. Monostable D. Both B and C above 9. Which of the following waveforms could be the output of the astable multivibrator? A. Sine wave B. Sawtooth wave C. Rectangular wave * D. Trapezoidal wave 10. What multivibrator is a square or rectangular-wave generator with only one stable condition? A. Astable B. Bistable C. Monostable * D. Eccles-Jordan 11. What is the primary use for the monostable multivibrator circuit? A. Filter B. Amplifier C. Oscillator D. Pulse stretcher *

12. In a bistable multivibrator, what minimum number of triggers is required to produce one gate? A. One B. Two * C. Three D. Four 13. Which of the following pulses is used to change states in a flip flop? A. A trigger pulse * B. A clipping pulse C. A modulating pulse D. An interference pulse 14. The toggle input on a flip flop is used to cause which of the following circuit actions? A. SET the flip flop B. CLEAR the flip flop C. Both A and B above * D. Sample the condition of the flip flop 15. The blocking oscillator is NOT suitable for which of the following circuit applications? A. Counter circuit B. Frequency divider C. Switching circuit D. Sine-wave generator * 16. Which of the following circuit actions is a result of critical damping? A. Rapid transient response without overshoot * B. Rapid transient response with overshoot C. Slow transient response without overshoot D. Slow transient response with overshoot 17. What type of damping is caused by (a) high resistance and (b) low resistance? A. (a) Overdamping (b) Underdamping B. (a) Underdamping (b) Overdamping * C. (a) Critical damping (b) Underdamping D. (a) Overdamping (b) Critical damping 18. Applying synchronizing triggers with a frequency that is SLIGHTLY higher than the free-running frequency will cause a synchronized blocking oscillator to A. divide in frequency B. double in frequency C. lock in at the higher frequency * D. stay locked at the free-running frequency 19. The linearity of the rise voltage in a sawtooth wave is determined by which of the following circuit timing actions? A. The time the capacitor is allowed to charge * B. The time it takes the capacitor to fully charge C. The time the capacitor is allowed to discharge D. The time it takes the capacitor to fully discharge 20. In a sawtooth generator, a change in which of the following parameters will NOT affect the linearity of the output? A. VCC * B. Resistance C. Capacitance D. Gate length 21. If applied to a coil, what voltage waveform will cause a linear rise in current? A. Square wave B. Sawtooth wave C. Rectangular wave D. Trapezoidal wave * (NEETS) MODULE 9 WAVE SHAPING ASSIGNMENT 4 1. A wave-shaping circuit which restricts some portion of a waveform from exceeding a specified value is known as a/an A. divider B. clamper C. limiter * D. oscillator 2. Limiting circuits are used in which of the following circuit applications? A. Counting B. Amplification C. Wave generation * D. Circuit protection 3. In a series limiter, the diode is connected in ΩΩΩΩ(a)ΩΩΩΩ with the ΩΩΩΩ(b)ΩΩΩΩ. A. (a) Parallel (b) output B. (a) Parallel (b) input C. (a) Series (b) input D. (a) Series (b) output * 4. In a series limiter, a voltage is developed across the output resistor when A. the anode of the diode is negative with respect to the cathode B. the anode of the diode is positive with respect to the cathode * C. the cathode of the diode is positive with respect to the anode D. no current flows through the diode 5. The diode in a series-positive limiter is (a) forward biased by what portion of the input signal and (b) reverse biased by what portion of the input signal? A. (a) Positive (b) positive B. (a) Positive (b) negative

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C. (a) Negative (b) negative D. (a) Negative (b) positive * 6. In a series-positive limiter, where is the input signal applied? A. Directly to the anode of the diode B. Directly to the cathode of the diode * C. To the anode of the diode through a series input resistor D. To the cathode of the diode through the output resistor 7. With a sine wave applied, which of the following circuits limits only a portion of the positive input signal? A. Series-negative limiter with negative bias B. Series-negative limiter with positive bias C. Series-positive limiter with negative bias D. Series-positive limiter with positive bias * 8. With a sine-wave input, which of the following types of series limiter allows only a portion of the negative input to be developed in the output? A. Series-positive limiter without bias B. Series-positive limiter with negative bias * C. Series-positive limiter with positive bias D. Series-negative limiter without bias 9. In a series-negative limiter, how is the diode biased (a) by the positive half of the input sine wave and (b) by the negative half? A. (a) Reverse (b) forward B. (a) Reverse (b) reverse C. (a) Forward (b) reverse * D. (a) Forward (b) forward 10. In a parallel-diode limiter, (a) how is the output taken and (b) under what diode condition is it developed? A. (a) Across the resistor (b) When the diode is cut off B. (a) Across the resistor (b) When the diode is conducting C. (a) Across the diode (b) When the diode is conducting D. (a) Across the diode (b) When the diode is cut off * 11. In a parallel-positive limiter, where is the input sine wave applied? A. At the anode of the diode B. At the cathode of the diode C. Through a series resistor to the anode of the diode * D. Through a series resistor to the cathode of the diode 12. In a parallel-negative limiter, how is the diode biased (a) by the positive half of the input sine wave and (b) by the negative half? A. (a) Forward (b) forward B. (a) Forward (b) reverse C. (a) Reverse (b) reverse D. (a) Reverse (b) forward * 13. If a sine wave is applied to a parallel negative limiter with positive bias, what is the polarity of the output voltage? A. Positive at all times B. Negative at all times C. Positive during the positive portion of the input cycle and negative during the negative portion * D. Negative during the positive portion of the input cycle and positive during the negative portion 14. Which of the following circuits would be used to fix the upper or lower extremity of a waveform at a specific value? A. Clamper * B. Limiter C. Counter D. Amplifier 15. In a positive clamper with positive bias, (a) what extremity of the waveform is clamped and (b) to what potential is it clamped? A. (a) Upper (b) positive B. (a) Upper (b) negative C. (a) Lower (b) positive D. (a) Lower (b) negative 16. Which of the following waves is NOT a complex wave? A. Sine wave * B. Square wave C. Rectangular wave D. Trapezoidal wave 17. What is the harmonic content of a square wave? A. A combination of odd harmonics only * B. A combination of even harmonics only C. Both even and odd harmonic combinations 18. What is the harmonic composition within a sawtooth wave? A. Odd harmonics only B. Even harmonics only C. Both even and odd harmonics * 19. With a square wave applied to a resistive network, the circuit values of what components will NOT affect either the phases or amplitudes of the harmonics within the square wave? A. Inductors B. Resistors * C. Capacitors D. Transformers 20. The time constant for full integration in an RC circuit should be what minimum number of times greater than the input pulse duration? A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 * D. 20

21. Integration in a circuit takes place when the output is taken (a) across the capacitor in what type of circuit and (b) across the resistor in what type of circuit? A. (a) Resistive only (b) Resistive only B. (a) Resistive only (b) Resistive-inductive C. (a) Resistive only (b) Resistive-capacitive D. (a) Resistive-capacitive (b) Resistive-inductive * 22. In a short time-constant integrator circuit, the maximum amplitude of the input pulse is 100 volts and the time constant of the circuit is 1/10 the duration of the input pulse. At the end of three time constants, what is the maximum voltage across the capacitor? A. 36.8 volts B. 63.2 volts C. 86.5 volts D. 95 volts * 23. In a medium time-constant circuit, the maximum amplitude of the input pulse is 100 volts and the pulse length is one time constant. At the end of two time constants, what is the maximum voltage across the capacitor? A. 23.3 volts * B. 48.4 volts C. 71.7 volts D. 100 volts 24. In a short time-constant differentiator circuit, the maximum amplitude of the input pulse is 100 volts and the time constant of the circuit is 1/10 that of the input pulse. At the end of four time constants, what is the maximum voltage across the resistor? A. 5 volts B. 2 volts * C. 23.3 volts D. 48.4 volts 25. In an RC differentiator circuit, the time constant for the circuit and the input pulse are equal. At the end of one time constant, to what maximum percentage of the applied voltage is the capacitor charged? A. 5 percent B. 13.5 percent C. 36.8 percent D. 63.2 percent * 26. In an RC network that is used as a coupling circuit, (a) across what component is the output normally taken and (b) what is the relative length of the time constant? A. (a) Capacitor (b) short B. (a) Capacitor (b) long C. (a) Resistor (b) long * D. (a) Resistor (b) short 27. In a positive-diode counter that provides accurate counting, what is the only variable allowed in the input signal? A. Pulse width B. Pulse duration C. Pulse amplitude D. Pulse-repetition frequency * (NEETS) MODULE 13 1. Modern number systems are built around which of the following components? A. Unit, number, and radix * B. Number, base, and radix C. Position, power, and unit D. Digit, power, and position 2. What term describes a single object in a modern number system? A. Unit * B. Base C. Digit D. Number 3. What is a number? A. A quantity of objects B. A counting system based on symbols C. The decimal system D. A symbol representing a unit or a quantity * 4. Which of the following symbols is NOT an Arabic figure? A. C * B. 2 C. 7 D. 9 5. What term describes the number of symbols used in a number system? A. Power B. Radix * C. Exponent D. Subscript 6. What is the base of a number system using all the letters of the alphabet – A =0, B=1, C=2, and so forth? A. 29 B. 25 C. 28 D. 26 * 7. A number system uses the symbols 0 through 4. What is its base? A. 6 B. 5 * C. 3 D. 4 8. Using positional notation, what two factors determine the value of a number? A. Symbol and position * B. Position and base C. Radix and symbol D. Unit and symbol 9. How many decimal units are represented by the 5 in the number 157210? A. 100 B. 50

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C. 500 * D. 5000 10. The 1 in 157210 is equal to what power of ten? A. 10

1 B. 10

2

C. 103 * D. 10

4

11. The power of a number is indicated by the A. subscript B. exponent * C. radical D. radix 12. What is the value of 5 times 100? A. 1 B. 0.5 C. 5 * D. 50 13. Which of the following numbers is a mixed number? A. 14.03 * B. 156 C. 1,257 D. .0004 14. What term describes the symbol that separates the whole and fractional numbers in any number system? A. Exponent B. Radix point * C. Decimal point D. Position point 15. What is the MSD of (a) 0.4201, (b) 13, and (c) 32.06? A. (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 * B. (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 C. (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 2 D. (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 3 16. What term is defined as a number to be added to a preceding number? A. Addend * B. Augend C. Carry D. Sum 17. In subtraction, the (a) is subtracted from the (b). A. (a) Minuend (b) subtrahend B. (a) Remainder (b) subtrahend C. (a) Subtrahend (b) difference D. (a) Subtrahend (b) minuend * 18. The result of subtraction is known as the A. addend B. quotient C. difference * D. subtrahend 19. What are the (a) radix and (b) the symbols used in the binary number system? A. (a) 1 (b) 0, 1 B. (a) 2 (b) 1, 0 * C. (a) 3 (b) 0, 1, 2 D. (a) 0 (b) 1, 2 20. Positional notation for the binary system is based on powers of A. 1 B. 2 * C. 3 D. 0 21. What is the decimal equivalent of 23? A. 6 B. 2 C. 8 * D. 10 22. The decimal number 1 is equal to what power of two? A. 2

1 B. 2

2

C. 23 D. 2

0 *

23. Which of the following powers of two indicates a fraction? A. 2

1 B. 2

0

C. 2 – 2

D. 22

24. Which digit is the MSD in the binary number 1011001? A. The 0 farthest to the left B. The 1 farthest to the left * C. The 0 farthest to the right D. The 1 farthest to the right 25. Which of the following combinations of binary addition is INCORRECT? A. 1 + 1 = 1 with a carry * B. 1 + 0 = 1 C. 0 + 0 = 0 D. 0 + 1 = 1 26. Which of the following rules of binary subtraction requires the use of a borrow? A. 0 – 0 B. 1 - 0 C. 1 – 1 D. 0 – 1 * 27. In binary subtraction, what is the value of a borrow when it is moved to the next lower order column? A. 12 B. 22 C. 102 * D. 1010 28. Subtraction is accomplished by which of the following methods in a computer that can only add? A. Binary subtraction B. Decimal complement C. Complementary subtraction * D. Minuend complement

29. What is the R's-1 complement of 63310? A. 47710 B. 46610 C. 36610 * D. 37710 30. What is the R's-1 complement of 10111012? A. 01000102 * B. 10111102 C. 898889810 D. 898889910 31. What is the R's complement of 39510? A. 60410 B. 60510 * C. 71510 D. 71410 32. Which of the following parts of a subtraction problem must be complemented to perform complementary subtraction? A. Subtrahend * B. Difference C. Remainder D. Minuend 33. Which of the following numbers is the R's-1 complement of the binary number 10101? A. 101002 B. 010112 C. 011002 D. 010102 * 34. Which of the following statements regarding the forming of the R’s complement of a binary number is correct? A. Retain the MSD and complement all other digits B. Complement all digits and subtract 1 C. Complement all digits D. Retain the least significant 1 and complement all other digits to the left * 35. Which of the following numbers is the R’s complement of 1001012? A. 1010102 B. 0110112 * C. 1101102 D. 1010012 36. What is the radix of the octal number system? A. 1010 B. 0 to 7 C. 8 * D. 78 37. One octal digit is represented by how many binary digits? A. One B. Two C. Three * D. Four 38. Which, if any, of the following is a difference between subtracting octal numbers and subtracting decimal numbers? A. The amount of the borrow B. The octal minuend is converted to decimal C. The octal subtrahend is converted to decimal D. None; there is no difference 39. What is the sum of 778 and 38? A. 1278 B. 808 C. 1008 D. 1028 * 40. Which, if any, of the following is a difference between subtracting octal numbers and subtracting decimal numbers? A. The amount of the borrow * B. The octal minuend is converted to decimal C. The octal subtrahend is converted to decimal D. None; there is no difference 41. When a borrow is taken from a hex number, that number is reduced by how much? A. 1 B. 1016 * C. 1610 D. 1010 42. To begin conversion of a decimal number to a different base, divide the (a) by (b). A. (a) new base (b) 10 B. (a) decimal number (b) 2 C. (a) decimal number (b) the new base * D. (a) new base (b) the decimal equivalent 43. Which of the following terms describes the first remainder when converting decimal numbers to other bases? A. MSD B. LSD * C. Radix of the new base D. Exponent of the new base 44. Which of the following statements describes logic polarity? A. Negative logic is indicated by a vinculum B. Positive logic is always represented by a positive voltage C. A logic 1 is a positive voltage; a logic 0 is a negative voltage D. The change in voltage polarity to represent a logic 1 45. To convert fractional decimal numbers to binary, multiply the number by (a) and extract the portion of the product to the (b) of the radix point. A. (a) 2 (b) left * B. (a) 2 (b) right C. (a) 10 (b) left D. (a) 10 (b) right 46. Convert 33.3410 to base 2 (four places). A. 11110.10102 B. 100001.10102 C. 100001.01012 * D. 100010.10112

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47. Convert 506.6610 to octal (four places). A. 677.50638 B. 521.44018 C. 653.37748 D. 772.52178 * 48. What is the hex equivalent of 174.9510? Carry out two places. A. 9F.C416 B. AE.F316 * C. AE.9C16 D. BA.EC16 49. Convert 1001000.000111102 to Octal Equivalent. A. 110.0748 * B. 2. 440.0368 C. 3. 410.0708 D. 4. 220.0748 50. Convert 0.01001111002 to its Hexadecimal equivalents. A. 0.4 F16 * B. 0.9 E16 C. 0.13C16 D. 0.23616 51. Convert 24.738 to hex. A. 11.7616 B. 14.EC16 * C. 24.7D16 D. 20.A616 52. Convert 1603.758 to decimal (three places). A. 1219.84010 B. 907.65010 C. 899.95310 * D. 1143.15010 53. What term describes the use of four binary digits to represent one decimal digit? A. Decimal-coded binary B. Octal-coded binary C. Binary-coded decimal * D. Hexadecimal notation 54. How many binary digits are required to represent the decimal number 243 in BCD? A. 12 * B. 8 C. 3 D. 4 55. Convert 38910 to BCD. A. 0000 1110 0101BCD B. 0011 0001 1101BCD C. 0011 1000 1001BCD * D. 0011 0100 0101BCD 56. Convert 010001010111BCD to decimal. A. 89710 B. 85710 C. 49710 D. 45710 * 57. Add 0010 0011BCD to 0001 1000BCD. A. 0011 1011BCD B. 0011 0001BCD C. 0100 1011BCD D. 0100 0001BCD * 58. Which of the following examples represents positive logic? A. -5v equals 0, -10v equals 1 B. +5v equals 0, +10v equals 1 * C. +5v equals 1, +10v equals 0 D. -5v equals 1, +5v equals 0 59. Of the following examples, choose the one that represents negative logic. A. -15v equals 0, -10v equals 1 B. -10v equals 1, -15v equals 0 C. 0v equals 0, -10v equals 1 * D. -5v equals 0, 0v equals 1 60. If the letter X represents an input to a logic device, what logic state of X must exist to activate the device or contribute to the activation of the device? A. 0 B. 1 * C. Positive logic D. Negative logic 61. A chart that lists all possible input combinations and resultant output is called a A. Truth Table * B. Decision Table C. logic symbol listing D. polarity magnitude listing 62. What is a logic gate? A. A block diagram B. An astable multivibrator C. A bistable multivibrator D. A decision-making circuit * 63. Which of the following logic gates requires all inputs to be TRUE at the same time to produce a TRUE output? A. OR B. NOT C. AND * D. NAND 64. Which of the following output Boolean expressions is/are correct for an AND gate? A. f = AB B. f = A·B C. Both A and B above * D. A=B 65. What is the purpose of an inverter? A. To change logic polarity B. To change voltage levels C. To amplify the input D. To complement the input * 66. Which of the following gates produces a HIGH output when any or all of the inputs are LOW?

A. AND B. OR C. NAND * D. NOR 67. The output of a NOR gate will be HIGH under which of the following conditions? A. When all inputs are HIGH B. When all inputs are LOW * C. When one input is HIGH D. When one input is LOW 68. Boolean algebra is used primarily by which of the following groups? A. Fabricators B. Technicians C. Design engineers * D. Repair personnel 69. Which of the following Boolean laws states, "a term that is TRUE in one part of an expression will be TRUE in all parts of the expression"? A. Identity * B. Commutative C. Complementary D. Double negative 70. The examples AB = BA and A+B = B+A represent which of the following Boolean laws? A. Associative B. Commutative * C. Intersection D. Union 71. What type of logic gate is modified to produce an exclusive OR gate? A. AND B. NAND C. OR * D. NOR 72. What is the output of an exclusive NOR gate when (a) all inputs are LOW and (b) all inputs are HIGH? A. HIGH (b) HIGH B. LOW (b) HIGH C. HIGH (b) LOW D. LOW (b) LOW 73. Which of the following circuits will add two binary digits but not produce a carry? A. AND gate B. Half adder C. Quarter adder * D. Summation amplifier 74. Which of the following gates performs the same function as a quarter adder? A. Half adder B. Exclusive OR * C. NOR D. Exclusive NOR 75. What is the largest sum that can be obtained from a half adder? A. 012 B. 102 * C. 112 D. 1002 76. Which of the following statements describes the difference between a half adder and a full adder? A. A half adder produces a carry B. A full adder produces a carry C. A half adder will add a carry from another circuit D. A full adder will add a carry from another circuit * 77. What is the largest sum that can be obtained from a full adder? A. 102 B. 112 * C. 1002 D. 1112 78. How many full adders are required to form a parallel adder capable of adding 100012 and 10002? A. Five * B. Six C. Three D. Four 79. Which of the following statements describes the method used in computers to subtract binary numbers? A. R's complement the minuend and add to the subtrahend B. Add the minuend and subtrahend and complement the sum C. R's complement the subtrahend and add to the minuend * D. Subtract the subtrahend from the minuend and complement the difference 80. Flip-flops are what type of multivibrators? A. Astable B. Monostable C. Free running D. Bistable * 81. Flip-flops may NOT be used for which of the following operations? A. Temporary storage B. Subtraction * C. Division D. Transfer of information 82. When, if ever, will the outputs Q and Q of an R-S flipflop be the same? A. When R and S are both LOW B. When R is LOW and S is HIGH C. When R is HIGH and S is LOW D. Never * 83. Which of the following statements describes a toggle flip-flop? A. A monostable device

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B. An astable device that changes state only on a set pulse C. A two input bistable device D. A bistable device with a single input * 84. A T flip-flop is used primarily for which of the following functions? A. To divide the input frequency by two * B. To double the input frequency C. To amplify the input frequency D. To invert the input frequency 85. What are the inputs to a D flip-flop? A. Set and reset B. Set and clock C. Data and clock * D. Reset and data 86. What is the purpose of a D flip-flop? A. To eliminate the output of the equipment B. To divide the data input by the clock frequency C. To store data until it is needed * D. To toggle the data input 87. An inverter on the clock input has which of the following effects on the D flip flop? A. The output will change on the negative-going transition of the clock pulse * B. The output will change on the positive-going transition of the clock pulse C. The data input will change at the clock frequency D. The output will change at the clock frequency 88. Which of the following statements is true concerning CLR and PR pulses to the D flip-flop? A. CLR causes Q to go high, PR causes Q to go low B. CLR and PR override any existing output condition * C. Other inputs override CLR and PR D. CLR and PR have no effect on the output 89. Which of the following statements is correct concerning D flip-flops? A. The output is delayed up to one clock pulse * B. Input data is delayed until it coincides with the clock C. The clock is delayed until it coincides with the input data D. The output is always a square wave 90. Which of the following statements is correct concerning D flip-flops? A. The output is delayed up to one clock pulse * B. Input data is delayed until it coincides with the clock C. The clock is delayed until it coincides with the input data D. The output is always a square wave 91. The circuit which generates a timing signal to control operations is called a/an A. Clock * B. Counter C. Oscillator D. bistable multivibrator 92. Which of the following statements is true regarding astable multivibrators used as clocks? A. As multivibrator frequency increases, stability decreases B. Output 2 will have a higher voltage than output 1 C. The frequency stability may be increased by applying a higher frequency trigger * D. A trigger of lower frequency will\ stabilize the output frequency 93. Which of the following types of circuits will produce a stable clock when triggered by an outside source? A. R-S flip-flop B. Bistable multivibrator C. One-shot multivibrator * D. D flip-flop 94. Which of the following types of clocks would probably be used in a complex piece of equipment with a variety of timing requirements? A. Single triggered-monostable B. Single free-running C. Triggered-astable for each section of the equipment D. Multiphase * 95. What is the modulus of a 3-stage binary counter? A. 7 B. 8 * C. 3 D. 4 96. Counters may be used for which of the following purposes? A. Counting operations, quantities and time B. Dividing frequency C. Addressing information in storage D. Each of the above * (NEETS) MODULE 14 MICROELECTRONICS ASSIGNMENT 1 1. What term is used to describe electronic systems that are made up of extremely small parts or elements? A. Microelectronics * B. Modular packages

C. Integrated circuits D. Solid-state technology 2. During World War II, which of the following limitations were considered unacceptable for military electronics systems? A. Large size, heavy weight, and wide bandwidth B. Excessive power requirements, large size, and complex manning requirements C. Large size, heavy weight, and excessive power requirements * D. Heavy weight, complex circuits and limited communications range 3. The development of which of the following types of components had the greatest impact on the technology of microelectronics? A. Vacuum tubes and resistors B. Transformers and capacitors C. Vacuum tubes and transistors D. Transistors and solid-state diodes * 4. For a vacuum tube to operate properly in a variety of different circuit applications, additional components are often required to "adjust" circuit values. This is because of which of the following variations within the vacuum tube? A. Element size B. Warm-up times C. Plug-in mountings D. Output characteristics * 5. Point to point wiring in a vacuum tube circuit often caused which of the following unwanted conditions? A. Heat interactions B. Inductive interactions C. Capacitive interactions D. Both B and C above * 6. Functional blocks of a system that can easily be removed for troubleshooting and repair are called A. sets B. chassis C. modules * D. vacuum tubes 7. Which of the following characteristics of a printed circuit board (pcb) is NOT an advantage over a point-to-point wired tube circuit? A. The pcb weighs less B. The pcb eliminates the need for point-to-point wiring C. The pcb eliminates the need for a heavy metal chassis D. The pcb contains a limited number of components * 8. A module in which the components are supported by end plates is referred to as A. a pcb B. cordwood * C. a substrate D. encapsulated 9. A module which is difficult to repair because it is completely imbedded in solid material is one which has been A. balanced B. enveloped C. integrated D. encapsulated * 10. All components and interconnections are formed on or within a single substrate in which of the following units? A. Cordwood B. Integrated circuit * C. Equivalent circuit D. Printed circuit board 11. Monolithic integrated circuits are usually referred to as A. hybrids B. substrates C. silicon chips * D. selenium rectifiers 12. In integrated circuits, a conductive or nonconductive film is used for which of the following types of components? A. Capacitors and diodes B. Transistors and diodes C. Resistors and capacitors * D. Resistors and transistors 13. Which of the following types of electronic circuits is NOT a hybrid integrated circuit? A. Thick film and transistors B. Thin film and silicon chips C. Transistors and vacuum tubes * D. Silicon chips and transistors 14. What maximum number of logic gates should be expected in a large-scale integration circuit? A. 20 B. 200 C. 2,000 * D. 20,000 15. Integrated circuits containing more than 64,000 bits of memory are referred to as A. hybrid integration B. large-scale integration C. small-scale integration D. very large-scale integration * 16. Which of the following pieces of equipment is used to prepare component layout in complex ICs? A. A mask B. A camera C. A computer * D. A microscope

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17. A device that allows the depositing of material in selected areas of a semiconductor substrate, but not in others, is known as a A. blind B. screen C. filter D. wafer mask * 18. Which of the following types of material is preferred for film circuit substrates? A. Silicon B. Ceramic * C. Germanium D. Fiberglass 19. A typical silicon wafer has approximately (a) what diameter and (b) what thickness? A. (a) 2 inches (b) 0.01 to 0.02 inches * B. (a) 2 inches (b) 0.21 to 0.40 inches C. (a) 3 inches (b) 0.21 to 0.40 inches D. (a) 3 inches (b) 0.01 to 0.20 inches 20. Artificially grown silicon or germanium crystals are used to produce substrates for which of the following types of integrated circuits? A. Hybrid B. Thin-film C. Thick-film D. Monolithic * 21. Elements penetrate the semiconductor substrate in (a) what type of IC but (b) do NOT penetrate the substrate in what type of IC? A. (a) Diffused (b) thin-film B. (a) Diffused (b) epitaxial * C. (a) Thick-film (b) epitaxial D. (a) Thick-film (b) thin-film 22. Pn junctions are protected from contamination during the fabrication process by which of the following materials? A. Oxide * B. Silicon C. Germanium D. Photoetch 23. The prevention of unwanted interaction or leakage between components is accomplished by which of the following techniques? A. Isolation * B. Insulation C. Integration D. Differentiation 24. Vacuum evaporation and cathode sputtering are two methods used to produce which of the following types of components? A. Diodes B. Thin-film * C. Thick-film D. Transistors 25. To deposit highly reactive materials on a substrate, which of the following methods is used? A. Photoetching B. Photolithography C. Cathode sputtering D. Vacuum evaporation * 26. To produce thin film resistors, which of the following materials is/are used? A. Nichrome B. Tantalum C. Titanium D. Each of the above * 27. Which of the following is a major advantage of hybrid ICs? A. Ease of manufacture B. Ease of replacement C. Design flexibility * D. Easy availability 28. IC packaging is required for which of the following reasons? A. To dissipate heat B. For ease of handling * C. To increase shelf life D. To meet stowage requirements 31. Which of the following types of DIPs are most commonly used in the Navy's microelectronics systems? A. Glass B. Metal C. Ceramic * D. Plastic 32. In IC production, gold or aluminum bonding wires are used for which of the following purposes? A. To bond the chip to the package B. To provide component isolation C. To connect the package to the circuit board D. To connect the chip to the package leads * 33. IC packages that may be easily installed by hand or machine on mounting boards fall into which of the following categories? A. TO B. DIP * C. Flatpack D. Each of the above 34. The need for bonding wires has been eliminated by which of the following production techniques? A. LSI B. Beam lead C. Flip chip D. Both 2 and 3 above * 38. Letters and numbers stamped on the body of an IC serve to provide which of the following types of information? A. Use * B. Serial number C. Date of manufacture D. Applicable equipment

39. Descriptive information about a particular type of IC may be found in which of the following documents? A. The manufacturer's data sheet * B. The equipment Allowance Part List (APL) C. The National Stock Number (NSN) D. The IC identification number list 40. Assemblies made up EXCLUSIVELY of discrete electronic parts are classified as A. vacuum-tube circuits B. microcircuit modules C. hybrid microcircuits D. miniature electronics circuits * 41. An assembly of microcircuits or a combination of microcircuits and discrete components is referred to as a A. mother board B. microprocessor C. miniature module D. microcircuit module * 42. A technician has isolated a problem to a plug-in module on a printed circuit board. What is this level of system packaging? A. Level 0 B. Level I * C. Level II D. Level III 43. A faulty transistor would be identified as what level of packaging? A. Level 0 * B. Level I C. Level II D. Level III 44. A chassis located in a radar antenna pedestal would be identified as what level of system packaging? A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III * D. Level IV 45. Which of the following characteristics is NOT an advantage of multilayer printed circuit boards? A. Allows greater wiring density on boards B. Provides shielding for a large number of conductors C. Eliminates complicated wiring harnesses D. Reduces the number of components per board * 46. Which of the following circuit connection methods is NOT used in making interconnections on a multilayer printed circuit board interconnection? A. Terminal lug * B. Clearance hole C. Layer build-up D. Plated-through hole 47. The most complex to produce and difficult to repair printed circuit boards are those made using which of the following methods? A. Layer-buildup * B. Clearance-hole C. Step-down-hole D. Plated-through-hole 48. Environmental performance requirements for ICs are set forth in which of the following publications? A. 2M repair manual B. Military Standards * C. System maintenance manuals D. Manufacturer's data sheet 49. Ground planes and shielding are used to prevent which of the following electrical interactions? A. Cross talk B. External interference C. The generation of rf within the system D. All of the above * 50. Training requirements for miniature and microminiature (2M) repair personnel was established by which of the following authorities? A. Chief of Naval Education and Training B. Chief of Naval Technical Training C. Chief of Naval Operations * D. Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command 51. The standards of workmanship and guidelines for specific repairs to equipment are contained in which of the following Navy publications? A. Introduction to Microelectronics B. NAVSHIPS Technical Manual C. Electronics Installation and Maintenance Books (EIMB) D. Miniature/Microminiature (2M) 52. A technician is authorized to perform 2M repairs upon satisfactory completion of which of the following types of training? A. A 2M training class * B. On-the-job training C. NEETS, Module 14 D. Any electronics class "A" school 53. Repairs that are limited to discrete components and singleand double-sided boards are classified as what level of repairs? A. Intermediate B. Organizational C. Miniature component * D. Microminiature component

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54. To ensure that a 2M technician maintains the minimum standards of workmanship, the Navy requires that the technician meet which of the following requirements? A. Be licensed B. Be certified * C. Be experienced D. Be retrained 55. If a technician should fail to maintain the required standards of workmanship, the technician's certification is subject to what action? A. Cancellation B. Recertification C. Reduction to next lower level D. Withholding pending requalification * 56. The most extensive shop facilities and highly skilled technicians are located at what SM & R level of maintenance? A. Depot * B. Operational C. Intermediate D. Organizational 57. SM & R code D maintenance facilities are usually located at which of the following activities? A. Shipyards B. Contractor maintenance organizations C. Shore-based facilities D. All of the above * 58. Direct support to user organizations is provided by which of the following SM & R code maintenance levels? A. Depot B. Operational C. Intermediate * D. Organizational 59. Inspecting, servicing, and adjusting equipment is the function of which of the following SM & R code maintenance levels? A. Depot B. Operational C. Intermediate D. Organizational * 60. The maintenance level at which normal 2M repairs are performed is set forth in the maintenance plan and specified by the A. NAVSEA 2M Repair Program B. Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM & R) code * C. Chief of Naval Operations D. Equipment manufacturers' documentation 61. Boards or modules that are SM & R code D may be repaired at the organizational level under which of the following conditions? A. On a routine basis B. When parts are available C. To meet an urgent operational commitment * D. When code D repair will take six weeks or longer 62. Source, Maintenance, and Recovery (SM & R) codes that list where repair parts may be obtained, who is authorized to make the repair, and the maintenance level for the item are found in which of the following documents? A. Allowance Equipage Lists (AEL) B. Allowance Parts Lists (APL) * C. Manufacturer's Parts List D. Navy Stock System 63. Test equipment that continuously monitors performance and automatically isolates faults to removable assemblies is what category of equipment? A. On-line * B. Off-line C. General purpose D. Fault isolating 64. A dc voltmeter that is permanently attached to a power supply for the purpose of monitoring the output is an example of what type test equipment? A. General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE) B. Built in Test Equipment (BITE) * C. Off-line test equipment D. Specialized test equipment 65. Which of the following types of test equipment is classified as off-line automatic test equipment? A. Centralized Automatic Test System (CATS) B. Versatile Avionic Shop Test System (VAST) * C. General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE) D. Test Evaluation and Monitoring System (TEAMS) 66. Fault diagnosis using GPETE should only be attempted by which of the following personnel? A. Officers B. Technician strikers C. Experienced technicians * D. Basic Electricity and Electronics school graduates 67. During fault isolation procedures, a device or component should be desoldered and removed from the circuit only at which of the following times? A. After defect verification * B. For out-of-circuit testing

C. During static resistance checks D. At any time the technician desires 68. 2M repair stations are equipped according to the types of repairs to be accomplished. The use of microscopes and precisions drill presses would be required in which of the following types of repair? A. Miniature B. Microminiature * C. Both A and B above D. Emergency 69. In the selection of a soldering iron tip, which of the following factors should be considered? A. The complexity of the pcb B. The composition of the pcb C. The area and mass being soldered * D. The type of component being soldered 70. The handpiece that can be used for the greatest variety of operations is the A. solder extractor B. rotary-drive tool C. resistive tweezers D. lapflow and thermal scraper handtool 71. Regardless of location, 2M repair stations require adequate work surface area, lighting, power, and what other minimum requirement? A. Heat source B. Ventilation * C. Illumination D. Dust-free space 72. Solder used in electronics is an alloy composed of which of the following metals? A. Tin and zinc B. Tin and lead * C. Lead and zinc D. Lead and copper 73. A roll of solder is marked 60/40. What do these numbers indicate? A. 60% tin, 40% lead * B. 60% tin, 40% copper C. 60% lead, 40% tin D. 60% lead, 40% copper 74. Which of the following alloys will melt directly into a liquid and have no plastic or semiliquid state? A. Metallic alloy B. Eutectic alloy * C. Zinc-lead alloy D. Copper-zinc alloy 75. The PREFERRED solder alloy ratio for electronic repair is 63/37. Which of the following alloy ratios is also ACCEPTABLE for this type of repair? A. 30/70 B. 50/50 C. 60/40 * D. 70/30 (NEETS) MODULE 14 MICROELECTRONICS ASSIGNMENT 2 1. Which of the following requirements must be met by a 2M technician to be authorized to perform repairs at a particular level? A. Have knowledge of that level B. Be certified at that level * C. Be experienced at that level D. Be licensed at the next higher level 2. Protective materials applied to electronic assemblies to prevent damage caused by corrosion, moisture, and stress are called A. conformal coatings * B. isolation materials C. electrical insulation D. encapsulation coatings 3. Before working on a pcb, the conformal coating should be removed from what part of the board? A. The entire board B. The component side C. The area of the repair * D. The side opposite the component side 4. What are the approved methods of conformal coating removal? A. Peeling and abrading B. Stripping and heating C. Mechanical and thermal only D. Mechanical, thermal, and chemical * 5. Most methods of conformal coating removal are variations of which of the following types of removal? A. Thermal B. Chemical C. Mechanical * D. Electrical 6. What is the preferred method of removing epoxy conformal coatings? A. Solvent B. Ball mill C. Hot-air jet * D. Thermal parting tool 7. A conformal coating is considered to be thin if it is less than what thickness? A. 0.025 inches * B. 0.040 inches C. 0.050 inches D. 0.250 inches

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8. Of the various mechanical methods of conformal coating removal, physical contact with the work piece is NOT required using which of the following methods? A. Cutting B. Grinding C. Hot-air jet * D. Thermal parting 9. Cutting and peeling is an easy method of removing which ofthe following types of coatings? A. Epox B. Varnish C. Parylene D. Silicone * 10. Thin acrylic coatings are readily removed in which of the following ways? A. Routing B. Hot-air jet C. Cut and peel D. Mild solvents * 11. When applying an application of conformal coating, which of the following conditions is true? A. The board should be clean and moist B. The coating should be applied only to the component replaced C. The coating should be the same type as that used by the manufacturer * D. The coating should be applied only to the solder joints 12. The procedure of connecting circuitry on one side of a board with the circuitry on the other side is known as A. mounting B. termination C. hole reinforcement D. interfacial connections * 13. Reinforcement for circuit pads on both sides of the board is provided by which of the following types of eyelets? A. Flat-set * B. Roll-set C. Funnel-set 14. The manner in which wires and leads are attached to an assembly is described by which of the following terms? A. Termination * B. Solder joints C. Lead formation D. Interfacial connections 15. Clinched leads, straight-through leads, and offset pads are variations of what type of termination? A. Solder cup B. On-the-board C. Above-the-board D. Through-hole * 16. What total number of degrees of bend are (a) fully clinched leads and (b) semiclinched leads? A. (a) 45 (b) 90 B. (a) 45 (b) 45 C. (a) 90 (b) 45 * D. (a) 90 (b) 90 17. Which of the following types of terminals are used as tie points for interconnecting wiring? A. Pins B. Hooks C. Solder cups D. Turrets * 18. During assembly, component stability is provided by which of the following types of lead termination? A. Hook terminal B. Clinched lead * C. Turret terminal D. On-the-board (lap-flow) 19. Which of the following types of lead terminations is the easiest to remove and rework? A. Offset-pad B. Semiclinched C. Fully clinched D. Straight-through * 20. Turret, fork, and hook terminals are examples of what type of termination? A. Off-set B. On-the-board C. Above-the-board * D. Through-the-board 21. When a lead is soldered to a pad without passing it through the board, what type of termination has been made? A. Lap-flow * B. Off-set pad C. Clinched lead D. Straight-through lead 22. Most damage to printed circuit boards occurs at which of the following times? A. During trouble shooting B. During component removal * C. During component replacement D. During normal system operations 23. Of the solder removal methods listed below, which one is most versatile and reliable? A. Wicking B. Heat and shake C. Motorized solder extractor * D. Manually controlled vacuum plunge 24. When removing solder with a solder wick, where should the wick be placed in relation to the solder joint and the iron? A. Below both the joint and the iron B. Between the joint and the iron * C. Above the joint and the iron

25. The motorized solder extractor may be operated in three different modes. Which of the following is NOT one of those modes? A. Hot-air jet B. One-shot vacuum * C. Heat and vacuum D. Heat and pressure 26. Stirring the lead during desoldering prevents which of the following unwanted results? A. Sweat joints * B. Overheating C. Cold solder joints D. Pad delamination 27. Of the following solder removal methods, which one is acceptable for removing solder? A. Hot-air jet * B. Heat and pull C. Heat and shake D. Heat and squeeze 29. A 2M technician is repairing a board that is manufactured with semiclinched leads. What type of termination should the technician use in replacing components? A. Lap flow B. Clinched lead C. Semiclinched lead * D. Straight-through-lead 31. What type of heat source is a soldering iron? A. Radiant B. Resistive C. Conductive * D. Convective 32. The shape and size of the soldering iron tip to be used is determined by which of the following factors? A. The type of flux to be used B. The type of work to be done * C. The type of solder to be used D. The voltage source for the iron 33. A thermal shunt is attached to the leads of a transistor prior to applying solder to the joint. This shunt serves what purpose? A. Prevents short circuits B. Retains heat at the joint C. Conducts heat away from the component * D. Physically supports the lead during soldering 34. What is the appearance of a good solder joint? A. Dull gray B. Crystalline C. Bright and shiny * D. Shiny with small pits 35. What is the most efficient soldering temperature? A. 360 °F B. 440 °F C. 550 °F * D. 800 °F 37. Plug-in DIPs are mounted by using which of the following aids/parts? A. Insulators B. Special tools C. Clinched leads D. Mounting sockets * 38. Plug-in DIPs are susceptible to loosening because of which of the following causes? A. Heat B. Stress C. Warpage D. Vibration * 39. Component leads may be clipped to aid in their removal under which of the following conditions? A. When the component is conformally coated B. When the component is known to be defective C. When board damage may result from normal removal methods D. Both 2 and 3 above * 40. Visual inspection of a completed repair is conducted to evaluate which of the following aspects of the repair? A. Workmanship quality * B. Component placement C. In-circuit quality test D. Conformal coating integrity 41. When speaking of TO mounting techniques, the term "plug-in" refers to the same technique as is used with DIPs. A. True * B. False 42. In addition to heat dissipation and physical support, which of the following needs might justify the use of a spacer with a TO mount? A. Vibration elimination B. Proper lead formation C. Proper lead termination D. Short-circuit protection * 43. For the removal of imbedded TOs in which all the leads are free, which of the following methods is recommended? A. Push out gently * B. Pull out with pliers C. Pull out with fingers D. Tap out with soft mallet 44. What is the most critical step in replacing an imbedded TO? A. Seating the leads B. Forming the leads * C. Soldering the leads D. Seating the body of the TO 45. When a TO or a DIP is replaced on a printed circuit board, what type of termination is normally used? A. Lap flow B. On-the-board C. Above-the-board D. Through-the-board *

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46. What type of termination is used in the replacement of a flat pack? A. Lap flow * B. Solder cup C. Solder plug D. Full fillet 47. Heating the leads and lifting them free with tweezers is the preferred method of removing which of the following components? A. TOs B. DIPs C. Flat packs * D. Transistors 49. Use of a skipping pattern when soldering multilead components prevents A. cold solder joints B. excessive heat buildup * C. the component from moving D. the need to visually inspect the piece 50. Cards and boards may be damaged under which of the following conditions? A. When unauthorized repairs are attempted by untrained personnel B. When technicians use improper tools C. When improperly stored D. Each of the above * 51. Engr. Tsong is preparing to repair a cracked conductor on a card. For this type of damage, which of the following repair methods is preferred? A. Solder bridge B. Clinched staple * C. Install an eyelet at the crack and solder in place D. Lap-flow soldered wire across the break 52. To ensure a good mechanical bond between the board and replacement pad and to provide good electrical contact for components, which of the following procedures is used? A. Epoxying the pad to the run B. Electroplating the repair area C. Installing an eyelet in the pad * D. Lap-flow soldering the repair area 53. Breaks, holes, and cracks in pcbs are repaired by using a mixture of A. fiberglass and rosin B. epoxy and powdered carbon C. conformal coating and RTV D. epoxy and powdered fiberglass * 54. What is the first step in the repair of burned or scorched boards? A. Filling the burned area with epoxy and fiberglass B. Removing all discolored material * C. Removing all delaminated conductors D. Cleaning all surfaces with solvent 55. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the repair of repairable delaminated conductors? A. All delaminations are removed B. Repairable delaminations are not removed * C. All delaminations are epoxied to the board D. All delaminations are replaced with insulated wire 56. Damage to some electronic components can occur at what minimum electrostatic potential? A. 14 volts B. 35 volts * C. 350 volts D. 3,500 volts 57. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) has the greatest effect on which of the following devices? A. Silicon diodes B. Selenium rectifiers C. Germanium transistors D. Metal-oxide transistor * 59. Electrostatic charges may develop as high as which of the following voltages? A. 3,000 volts B. 15,000 volts C. 20,000 volts D. 35,000 volts * 60. To prevent an electrostatic charge built up on the body of the technician from damaging ESDS devices, the technician should take which of the following precautions? A. Be grounded * B. Wear gloves C. Ground the device D. Handle the device with insulated tools (NEETS) MODULE 15 SYNCHROS ASSIGNMENT 1 1. Which of the following terms accurately describes a synchro? A. Position-sensing B. Electromechanical C. Rotary D. Each of the above *

2. What are the two general classifications of synchro systems? A. Torque and load B. Torque and control * C. Load and control D. Load and lock 3. What is the difference in application between the two classifications of synchros? A. Light versus heavy load * B. Mechanical versus electrical output C. Circular versus straight-line motion D. High-frequency versus low-frequency operation 4. Which of the following types of synchro devices provides a mechanical output? A. A control transformer B. A torque receiver * C. A torque transmitter D. A control transmitter 5. What does the arrow on a synchro schematic symbol indicate? A. The direction of current flow B. The direction of rotor movement C. The angular position of the stator D. The angular position of the rotor * 6. What are the two major components of a synchro? A. The rotor and the stator * B. The housing and the stator C. The rotor and the shaft D. The housing and the shaft 7. What type of rotor can be composed of a single winding or three Y-connected windings? A. Salient-pole B. Drum or wound * C. Fixed D. "H" 8. How does the stator of a TX receive voltage? A. By a physical connection with the rotor B. By a magnetic coupling with another stator C. By a magnetic coupling with the rotor * D. By a physical connection with a source 9. What part of a synchro provides a point for external connections? A. The terminal board * B. The slip ring C. The stator D. The brush 10. Which of the following terms is defined as the amount of load a machine can turn? A. Radian force B. Load factor C. Torque * D. Tension 11. Which of the following units should be used in measuring the amount of turning force of a synchro? A. Ounces B. Pounds C. Foot-pounds D. Ounce-inches * 12. An overloaded synchro will probably exhibit which of the following conditions? A. Overspeed B. Oscillation C. Excessive temperature * D. Noisy operation 13. A synchro receiver has which of the following characteristics that is NOT found in an ordinary transformer? A. A primary that can rotate in relation to the secondary * B. A primary magnetically coupled to the secondary C. A step-up turns ratio D. An air core 14. When a synchro transmitter is in the zero-degree position, the rotor is aligned in what manner? A. With winding S1 B. With winding S2 * C. With winding S3 D. Between winding S1 and S2 15. Maximum voltage is induced in a stator winding of a synchro transmitter when the rotor and the stator winding have what angle between them? A. 0 degrees * B. 30 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees 16. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the amplitude of the voltage induced in a stator winding of a synchro transmitter? A. The angular displacement between the rotor and stator B. The amplitude of the primary voltage C. The speed of data transmission * D. The turns ratio of the synchro 17. Damping is necessary for which of the following synchro devices? A. Receiver * B. Transmitter C. Control transformer D. Differential transmitter 18. The primary purpose of damping is to reduce which of the following conditions in a synchro device? A. Readings 180º out of phase B. Overheating C. Oscillating * D. Each of the above

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19. What is the minimum number of synchro devices needed for a simple synchro transmission system? A. One B. Two * C. Three D. Four 20. In a simple synchro system, what leads are connected to the source voltage? A. R1 and R2 B. S1 and S2 C. S2 and S3 D. R1 and S1 21. When a synchro transmitter, and receiver are in correspondence, what is the relative value of the (a) current through the stators and (b) receiver torque? A. (a) Maximum (b) maximum B. (a) Maximum (b) minimum C. (a) Minimum (b) minimum D. (a) Minimum (b) maximum 22. What term applies to the angle through which a synchro transmitter rotor is rotated mechanically? A. Lag B. Lead C. Gain D. Signal 23. If a synchro receiver is required to rotate in a direction opposite to the rotation of the transmitter rotor, what leads should be reversed? A. R1 and R2 * B. S1 and S2 C. S2 and S3 D. S1 and S3 24. If a synchro receiver and transmitter are always 180 degrees out of phase with each other, what leads are reversed? A. R1 and R2 * B. S1 and S2 C. S2 and S3 D. S1 and S3 25. What type of synchro can accept two signals simultaneously and add or subtract? A. Transmission B. Differential C. Automatic D. Shiftless 26. What are the two types of synchro devices that will accept two inputs? A. TR and TX B. TR and TDX C. TDR and TX D. TDR and TDX * 27. What types of synchro devices have (a) one electrical and one mechanical input and an electrical output; and (b) two electrical inputs and a mechanical output? A. (a) TR (b) TX B. (a) TX (b) TR C. (a) TDX (b) TDR * D. (a) TDR (b) TDX 28. What determines whether a differential synchro device adds or subtracts its inputs? A. The way it is connected in the system * B. The direction of rotor movement C. The number of stator windings D. The supply voltage polarity 29. Which of the following types of synchros is used in a system requiring large amounts of power and high accuracy? A. Torque B. Control * C. Differential D. Each of the above 30. What are the three types of control synchros? A. TX, TR, CT B. TX, CDX, CR C. CX, CT, CR D. CX, CT, CDX * 31. The CX and CDX differ from the TX and TDX because the CX and CDX have which of the following characteristics? A. Lower impedance windings B. Higher impedance windings * C. Larger physical size D. Smaller physical size 32. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the rotor of a control transformer (CT) rotor? A. It is connected to a high-impedance load B. It must be turned by an external force C. It is connected to an ac source D. It has a drum- or wound-type rotor * 33. Which of the following terms applies to the output of a control transformer? A. Mechanical movement B. Deflection angle C. Output voltage * D. Error signal 34. Synchro capacitors are used to provide which of the following characteristics in a synchro system? A. Improved accuracy * B. Reduced oscillations C. Wider frequency response D. Higher load-carrying capacity 35. Which of the following synchro devices uses a synchro capacitor? A. TX B. RX

C. TDR D. CDX * 36. What type of current is eliminated by synchro capacitors? A. Loss B. Rotor C. Stator * D. Magnetizing Stator 37. In what configuration are synchro capacitors connected in a synchro circuit? A. Wye, across the rotor windings B. Delta, across the rotor windings C. Wye, across the stator windings D. Delta, across the stator windings* 38. To maintain system accuracy, where are synchro capacitors physically placed in a synchro circuit? A. Close to the TX or RX B. Close to the TDX, CDX, or CT * C. Midway between the TX and CT D. Far away from the TDR, CDX, or CT 39. Synchro systems that transmit data at two different speeds are referred to by which of the following terms? A. Dual-speed B. Two-speed C. Twin-speed D. Each of the above 40. Multispeed synchro systems have which of the following advantages over single-speed synchro systems? A. Easier to troubleshoot and align B. Fewer moving parts C. Greater accuracy D. All of the above 41. What does the gear ratio between the two transmitters in a dual-speed synchro system determine? A. The direction of transmitter-rotation B. The direction of receiver rotation C. The speeds of transmission D. The relative direction of rotation 42. Which of the following synchro systems, if any, should be used to transmit very large quantities? A. Single-speed B. Two-speed C. Tri-speed D. None of the above * 43. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a double receiver as compared to two single receivers? A. The entire unit must be replaced if one portion fails * B. It takes up much more space C. It is much more costly D. It is much heavier 44. The voltage used to prevent false synchronizations is known by what term? A. Error voltage B. Signal voltage C. Source voltage D. Stickoff voltage * 45. What is the reference point for the alignment of all synchro units? A. Mechanical zero B. Electrical zero * C. Mechanical null D. Electrical null 46. What is the most accurate method of aligning a synchro? A. The dc voltmeter method B. The ac voltmeter method * C. The synchro-tester method D. The electric-lock method 47. During synchro alignment, what is the purpose of the coarse setting? A. To ensure a setting of zero degrees rather than 180 degrees* B. To prevent the voltmeter from being overloaded C. To keep the synchro device from overheating D. To correct the fine setting 48. If a synchro receiver is properly zeroed, when do the stator windings have electrical zero voltages? A. When the rotor is moving B. When the rotor is stopped C. When the rotor is at 270 degrees D. When the rotor is at its reference position * 49. The output voltage of a control transformer on electrical zero is which of the following relative values? A. Equal to the supply voltage B. Half the supply voltage C. Maximum D. Minimum * 50. When a tri-speed synchro system is being zeroed, which synchro should be zeroed first? A. Coarse * B. Medium C. Largest D. Fine 51. What method of zeroing a synchro is the fastest but NOT the most accurate? A. The dc voltmeter method`

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B. The ac voltmeter method C. The synchro-tester method D. The electrical-lock method * 52. The electrical-lock method of zeroing a synchro requires accessible leads and which of the following conditions? A. A rotor free to turn * B. A stator free to turn C. A supply voltage to the stators D. A zero-volt potential between S1 and S2 53. A synchro is zeroed by the use of a synchro tester. After it is zeroed, the S1 and S3 leads are shorted together, and the synchro tester dial moves. What does this indicate? A. The synchro is zeroed correctly B. The synchro is not zeroed correctly * C. The supply voltage is too low D. The supply voltage is too high 54. If you find that a synchro has bad bearings, which of the following actions should you take? A. Replace the bearing B. Lubricate the synchro C. Replace the synchro * D. Continue to use it 55. Which of the following troubles is common in newly installed synchro systems? A. Dirty brushes B. Improper wiring * C. Worn slip rings D. Shorted synchro windings 56. What type of indicating device is usually installed in the stator circuit of a torque synchro system? A. A voltmeter indicator B. An ohmmeter indicator C. An overload indicator * D. A blown-fuse indicator ASSIGNMENT 2 1. A servo is normally designed to move (a) what type of load to (b) what type of positions? A. (a) Small (b) Exact B. (a) Small (b) Approximate C. (a) Large (b) Exact * D. (a) Large (b) Approximate 2. Servo systems can be found in which of the following forms? A. Pneumatic B. Hydraulic C. Electromechanical D. Each of the above * 3. Which of the following systems are control systems? A. Open-loop B. Closed-loop C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. Inductive-loop 4. A servo system is defined as which of the following types of control systems? A. Open-loop B. Closed-loop * C. Both 1 and 2 above D. Inductive-loop 5. Which of the following is a basic difference between an open-loop control system and a closed-loop control system? A. Number of loops B. Size of the load C. Speed of movement D. System of feedback * 6. In a dc position servo system, what characteristic of the error signal determines the direction in which the load is driven? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Polarity D. Phase * 7. The sum point in a position servo system combines what two signals to produce an error signal? A. Response and output B. Feedback and Output C. Feedback and input * D. Output and input 8. A position servo system exhibits a series of overtravels. This condition is known by which of the following terms? A. Hunting * B. Overdamping C. Undershooting D. All of the above 9. A velocity servo has which of the following characteristics? A. Senses position of the load; no error signal at correspondence B. Senses position of the load; error signal present at correspondence* C. Senses speed of the load; no error signal at correspondence D. Senses speed of the load; error signal present at correspondence 10. What device is usually used to provide feedback in a velocity servo loop? A. Potentiometer B. Tachometer * C. CT D. CX 11. For a servo system to operate smoothly and efficiently, it must have balance between which of the following factors? A. Acceleration and speed B. Inertia and oscillation C. Amplification and damping

D. Overshooting and feedback signal 12. When friction-clutch damping is used in a servo system, the first overshoot of the load may be characterized as A. small B. large * C. reversed D. eliminated 13. Error-rate damping is considered to be better than friction or friction-clutch damping because of which of the following characteristics of the error-rate damping system? A. A large error signal of short duration will not be damped B. A small error signal of short duration will not be damped C. A large change in the error signal causes maximum damping * D. A small change in the error signal causes maximum damping 14. Under what condition would a servo system that is properly designed and operating correctly have an oscillating load? A. The input signal is large in amplitude B. The input signal oscillates * C. Error-rate damping is used D. Friction damping is used 15. A servo system is found to be "noisy." If the bandwidth of the servo amplifier were adjusted to reject the unwanted noise signals, which of the following characteristics of the servo system would be affected? A. Amplifier gain * B. Power requirements C. Correspondence position D. Error-detection capability 16. Which of the following devices can be used as a position sensor in a servo system? A. A summing network B. An E-transformer C. A potentiometer * D. A CT 17. Which of the following devices are magnetic error detectors? A. CXs B. E-transformers * C. Summing networks D. All of the above 18. A dc rate generator is used in which of the following loops of a velocity servo system? A. Prime mover B. Feedback C. Control * D. Error 19. What is the function of a modulator in a servo system? A. To change the frequency of an ac error signal B. To impress an ac error signal on an ac carrier C. To convert a dc error signal to an ac error signal * D. To convert an ac error signal to a dc error signal 20. In a servo system that uses a modulator, what characteristic of the modulator output determines the direction of load movement? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Polarity D. Phase * 21. What phase relationships between the input and reference signals are sensed by a servo demodulator? A. 0º and 180º * B. 45º and 225º C. 90º and 270º D. 135º and 315º 22. In a properly operating servo system, what is the phase relationship between the reference voltages to the error detector and the demodulator? A. In phase only * B. 180º out of phase only C. Out of phase; somewhere between 0º and 180º D. In phase or 180º out of phase, depending on the demodulator input 23. Which of the following should be a characteristic of a servo amplifier? A. Narrow frequency band B. High output impedance C. 180º phase shift D. Low noise level * 24. An ac servo motor would probably be used instead of a dc servo motor in which of the following situations? A. To move heavy loads at a constant speed B. To move heavy loads at variable speeds C. To move light loads at a constant speed * D. To move light loads at variable speeds (NEETS) Module 21 1. Most equipment technical manuals contain voltage charts. For which of the following purposes are they used? A. To list the equipment's power supplies B. To list the input power requirements of the equipment C. To provide handy reference guides for calculating voltage drops across fixed impedances * D. To list correct voltages at major test points

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2. Which, if any, of the following statements correctly describes the effect input impedance of test equipment can have on readings taken? A. The greater the input impedance of your test equipment, the less accurate the readings B. The lower the input impedance of your test equipment, the more accurate the readings C. A piece of test equipment with an infinite input impedance will absorb no energy and readings will be more accurate * D. None of the above 3. A piece of test equipment with a low input impedance can cause readings taken to be inaccurate. To eliminate this problem, the input impedance of your test equipment should exceed the impedance of the circuit under test by what minimum ratio? A. 1 to 1 B. 2 to 1 C. 10 to 1 * D. 100 to 1 4. On an analog multimeter, where on the scale are the most accurate readings taken? A. At the highest end of the scale B. At the lowest end of the scale C. Midscale * D. It makes no difference if the meter is properly calibrated 5. What can you do to reduce the problem of meter-reading errors caused by parallax? A. Close one eye when reading the meter B. Use short meter leads C. Use a meter that has a mirror built into the scale * D. View the meter face from either the left or right side, but not directly in front 6. For what primary reason are oscilloscopes used in circuit testing? A. They provide a visual presentation of the signal under test * B. They present a low input impedance to the circuit under test C. They provide numerical readouts of signals under test D. They measure voltages more accurately than other pieces of test equipment 7. Digital multimeters effectively eliminate which of the following disadvantages of analog meters? A. Parallax B. Low impedance C. Poor accuracy D. All of the above * 8. If you exceed the frequency limitations of your voltmeter, which of the following results is likely? A. The meter will be destroyed B. The circuit under test will be damaged C. The measurement will be inaccurate * D. The meter will indicate average voltage 9. When performing measurements with an oscilloscope, you should ensure that the trace extends across what minimum portion of the vertical viewing area? A. 15% B. 25% C. 45% D. 60% * 10. When using an oscilloscope to measure a high voltage, you should use which of the following procedures? A. Use the logic probe instead of the normal probe B. Use the high voltage probe instead of the normal probe * C. Use two oscilloscopes connected in series D. Place a 10-ohm shunt across the vertical input of the oscilloscope 11. Oscilloscopes are normally calibrated to display which of the following types of voltages? A. Peak B. Average C. Peak-to-peak * D. Both B and C above 12. When using an oscilloscope to observe a sine wave, what, if anything, must you do to determine the rms voltage? A. Divide the observed peak-to-peak voltage by 3.65 B. Multiply the observed peak-to-peak voltage by 2; then divide by 1.414 C. Divide the observed peak-to-peak voltage by 2; then multiply by 0.707 * D. Nothing 13. The frequency-measuring capabilities of a digital multimeter can be extended by using which of the following devices? A. An RF probe * B. A frequency doubler C. A high-voltage probe D. A frequency divider network 14. When performing ac voltage measurements, you should use which of the following pieces of equipment to obtain the most accurate reading? A. A differential voltmeter *

B. An oscilloscope C. A Simpson 260 D. A wattmeter 15. For which of the following purposes would you connect two ammeters in parallel? A. To perform voltage measurements B. To increase frequency-measuring capabilities C. To decrease input impedance * D. To increase input impedance 16. When taking measurements with two ammeters connected in parallel, how do you determine the resulting readings? A. The current equals the sum of both meter readings * B. The current equals the difference of the two meter readings C. The current equals the product of the two readings divided by their sum D. Read either meter directly; the same current flows through both meters 17. Current tracers indicate the presence of a current in which of the following ways? A. By the lighting of an indicator lamp * B. By a clicking noise C. Both A and B above D. By the movement of a meter 18. Which of the following is an advantage of using a current probe? A. It is the most accurate method of measuring current B. It senses current by induction without being connected directly into the circuit * C. It is battery operated D. It is capable of measuring current at frequencies above 40 GHz 19. An ohmmeter that is used for field work should meet which of the following criteria? A. It should be extremely accurate B. It should be portable C. It should be simple to operate D. Both B and C above * 20. When you use an analog multimeter to measure resistance, which of the following actions should you take first? A. Make sure the meter is zeroed * B. Set the meter for dc voltage C. Set the meter for ac voltage D. Make sure the meter leads do not exceed 36 inches 21. Digital multimeters are used to test semiconductors for which of the following reasons? A. They produce voltage sufficient to gate all Zener diodes B. Their LED displays are easier to read than analog displays C. They typically limit the current flow through the semiconductor to less than 1 milliamp * D. They produce in excess of the 500 milliamps normally required to gate a PN junction 22. Compensation for the resistance in test leads of digital multimeters used to perform resistance measurements is accomplished by which, if any, of the following methods? A. Short the leads, note the lead resistance displayed, and add this value to subsequent resistance measurements B. Short the leads, note the lead resistance displayed, and subtract the value from subsequent resistance measurements * C. Add 10% to the reading D. None of the above 23. Which of the following is a typical use for a megger? A. Testing MOSFETs B. Testing filter capacitors C. Testing thermistor mounts D. Testing an ac power cord for insulation breakdown * 24. When large capacitors are stored as spare parts, why should their terminals be shorted with a piece of wire? A. It prevents dielectric leakage B. It prevents deterioration of the plates C. It prevents the capacitors from becoming charged when in close proximity to an RF field * D. It prevents electrolytic capacitors from changing value during periods of storage 25. Capacitance meters can be grouped into which of the following basic categories? A. Wheatstone type and Kelvin Varley type B. Bridge-type and reactance-type * C. Depletion-type and enhancement type D. Resistive-type and reactive-type

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26. Which of the following statements correctly describes the accuracy and use of a reactance-type capacitance meter? A. It gives approximate values and is usually portable * B. It gives approximate values and is used in calibration laboratories only C. It is very accurate and is usually portable D. It is very accurate and is used to measure capacitors that have a high power factor 27. Which of the following types of inductor core materials produces the greatest inductance? A. Mica B. Magnetic metal * C. Polyparoloxylene D. Nonmagnetic metal 28. As frequency increases, the inherent resistance of the inductor causes which of the following types of losses to become more critical? A. Hysteresis B. Skin effect * C. Eddy currents D. Standing waves 29. Most capacitance test sets are capable of testing capacitors and what other type of component? A. TRIACS B. Inductors * C. Resistors D. Barretters 30. When using reactance-type test equipment to measure inductance, what relationship exists between the inductor and the voltage drop across the reactance of the inductor? A. The voltage drop is directly proportional to the value of inductance * B. The voltage drop is inversely proportional to the value of inductance C. The voltage drop is proportional to the dielectric constant (K) of the inductor D. The voltage drop is inversely proportional to the frequency of the applied voltage 31. What is the most common cause of electron tube failures? A. Vibration damage B. Open filaments * C. Shorted elements D. Power supply voltage surges 32. The simplest way to test a tube is by which of the following methods? A. Using a tube tester B. Measuring tube element voltages C. Feeling for signs of overheating D. Substituting tubes * 33. The electron tube tester can be used to test common lowpower tubes for which of the following conditions? A. Gas B. Quality C. Leakage D. Each of the above * 34. Which of the following is an appropriate reason to use transistors instead of electron tubes? A. Transistors are more rugged than electron tubes * B. Transistors are not as heat sensitive as electron Tubes C. Transistors are not as sensitive as electron tubes to voltage overloads D. Transistors are capable of handling greater amounts of power than electron tubes 35. When using an ohmmeter to test a transistor’s base-toemitter or base-to collector junction, what minimum backto- forward resistance ratio should you expect to read? A. 5 to 1 B. 10 to 1 C. 50 to 1 D. 100 to 1 * 36. When taking forward and reverse resistance readings between a transistor’s emitter and collector, what type of reading should you get? A. Both the forward and reverse readings should be nearly the same B. A short in both the forward and reverse directions C. Less than 15 ohms when measuring in the forward direction and infinite in the reverse direction * D. Less than 15 ohms in the reverse direction and infinite in the forward direction 37. Which of the following is a description of ESD devices? A. Components that are sensitive to electrostatic discharge * B. Components that are sensitive to the electromagnetic pulse produced by a nuclear detonation C. State-of-the-art devices used to detect electronic emissions D. Devices designed to withstand any type of electromagnetic or electrostatic interference 38. MOS and CMOS devices without input diode protection circuitry belong in which, if any, of the following ESDS device categories?

A. Sensitive devices * B. Very sensitive devices C. Moderately sensitive devices D. None of the above 39. Wearing a grounded wrist strap when repairing electronic circuit boards serves which of the following purposes? A. It identifies you as being 2M qualified B. It protects ESDS devices from damage * C. It protects the technician from electrical shock D. It protects you from RF burns when working near radar antennas 40. What, if any, precaution should you take before you open a package that contains an ESDS device? A. Rub the package against a dissimilar material B. Discharge any static electricity by connecting a grounded lead to the package * C. Measure the static charge on the package with an oscilloscope to ensure that it is within tolerance D. None NEETS Module 22 ASSIGNMENT 1 1. When was the first mechanical adding machine invented? A. 1264 B. 1426 C. 1462 D. 1642 * 2. What year did electronics enter the computer scene? A. 1918 B. 1919 * C. 1920 D. 1921 3. In modern digital computers, circuits that store information, perform arithmetic operations, and control the timing sequences are known as what? A. Flip-flops * B. Amplifiers C. Oscillators D. Multipliers 4. When was the UNIVAC I developed? A. 1944 B. 1946 C. 1950 * D. 1951 5. The field of research that is developing computer systems which mimic human thought in a specific area and improve performance with experience and operation is what field of research? A. Human intelligence B. Artificial intelligence * C. Animal intelligence D. Computer intelligence 6. Mechanical computers are what type of devices? A. Digital B. Electrical C. Analog * D. Electromechanical 7. What determines the size of an analog computer? A. Where it will be installed B. Number of operators using it C. Cost D. Number of functions it has to perform * 8. What is the primary use of analog computers in the Navy? A. Gun fire control * B. Data processing C. Ships steering D. Missile fire control 9. Compared to mechanical computers, electromechanical computers are different in which of the following ways? A. They cost more B. They are bigger C. They are less accurate D. They use electrical components to perform some of the calculations and to increase the accuracy * 10. In early electronic computers, what was the weak link in electrical computations? A. Transistors B. Resistors C. Vacuum tubes * D. Capacitors 11. A computer that is designed to perform a specific operation is what kind of computer? A. All-purpose B. General-purpose C. Special-purpose * D. Single-purpose 12. How are the instructions that control a computer applied to a special-purpose computer? A. From a stored program B. From a keyboard C. From an input device D. From built-in instructions * 13. What is a drawback to the specialization of a specialpurpose computer? A. Low speed B. Lack of versatility * C. Large size D. High cost

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14. What gives a general-purpose computer the ability to perform a wide variety of operations? A. It can store and execute different programs in its internal storage * B. It is a much larger computer C. It has a huge built-in program D. It can operate faster than other computers 15. All analog computers are what type? A. Mechanical B. Electromechanical C. Special-purpose * D. General-purpose 16. What are computers called that combine the functions of both analog and digital? A. Analog-digital computers B. Mixed computers C. Duplexed computers D. Hybrid computers * 17. A digital computer knows how to do its work by what means? A. By a list of instructions called a program * B. By a list of instructions called a job sequence C. By its hardware D. By its peripheral equipment 18. What is the most popular generic term for computer programs? A. Hardware B. Software * C. Word processing D. Graphics 19. First generation computers were characterized by what technology? A. Transistors B. Resistors C. Vacuum tubes * D. Printed circuits 20. What type of computer language was used with first generation computers? A. Machine * B. COBOL C. BASIC D. Fortran 21. Computers of the second generation were characterized by what technology? A. Vacuum tubes B. Capacitors C. Transistors * D. Resistors 22. The small, long lasting transistors used in second generation computers had which of the following effects? A. They increased processing speeds and reliability * B. They decreased processing speeds and increased reliability C. They increased processing speeds and decreased reliability D. They decreased processing speeds and reliability 23. Internal processing speeds of second generation computers were measured at what speed? A. Hundredths of a second B. Thousandths of a second C. Millionths of a second * D. Billionths of a second 24. Third generation computers are characterized by what technology? A. Capacitors B. Transistors C. Resistors D. Miniaturized circuits * 25. A circuit and its components can be etched onto which of the following materials? A. Plastic B. Silicon * C. Gold D. Pressed fiber 26. The internal processing speeds of third generation computers are measured at what speed? A. Hundredths of a second` B. Thousandths of a second C. Millionths of a second D. Billionths of a second * 27. Fourth generation technology has which of the following results for the computer industry? A. Computers that are significantly smaller and lower in cost * B. Computers that are significantly larger and lower in cost C. Computers that are significantly smaller and higher in cost D. Computers that are significantly larger and higher in cost 28. What does the acronym ROM stand for? A. Run-on manual B. Read-only minutes C. Read-only memory * D. Read-only manual 29. Which of the following will be one of the future challenges involving computer power? A. How to properly and effectively use the computing power available * B. How to increase computer storage capacity C. How to increase computer power D. How to properly install the computers available

30. What term is used for programs such as assemblers, compilers, operating systems, and applications programs? A. Hardware B. Peripheral devices C. Software D. Sub-systems 31. Computers have an advantage over typewriters in what area? A. Cost B. Speed C. Reliability D. Correcting errors * 32. What does the acronym S-N-A-P stand for? A. Shipboard navigational aid package B. Shipboard Navy applied program C. Shipboard non-tactical ADP program * D. Shipboard nuclear active program 33. Which computer is used with the SNAP II system? A. UYK-4 B. UYK-7 C. UYK-20 D. AN/UYK-62 (V) * 34. Where are the user terminals for SNAP II placed on board ship? A. Engineering spaces B. Work centers * C. Supply spaces D. Electronics spaces 35. What type of classified use does SNAP II allow? A. Unclassified * B. Confidential C. Secret D. Top Secret 36. What is a central set of programs called that manages execution of other programs and performs commonfunctions like read, write, and print? A. Managing system B. Execution system C. Operating system * D. Word processing system 37. What is the function of a built-in program called a bootstrap loader? A. To load a word processor into the computer’s internal memory B. To load an external operating system into the computer’s internal memory * C. To load a graphics program into the computer’s internal memory D. To load a bootstrap program into the computer’s internal memory 38. When an error message such as device error is shown on the display screen, which of the following problems could be the cause? A. No floppy disk in drive A B. Floppy disk inserted incorrectly in drive C. Lock handle on drive A not lowered D. Each of the above * 39. A display similar to this A> means what in computer terminology? A. A device error B. No system C. A prompt * D. Run again 40. What does it mean when the computer displays a prompt on the screen? A. The computer has made an error B. There is no system in the computer C. You need to stop putting information into the computer D. You can tell the computer what to do next * 41. To tell the operating system what program to run, you should take which of the following actions following the operating system prompt A>? A. Type help B. Reboot the computer C. Press the execute key D. Type the program name * 42. Online HELP screens serve what purpose? A. Display the contents of memory B. Display the operating system directory C. Tell the operator how to perform a given function * D. Stop computer processing so the operator can read the instruction manual 43. Floppy disks provide which of the following functions? A. Store data * B. Perform arithmetic operations C. Provide alternate power to the computer D. Check the accuracy of computer operations 44. Touching the exposed area seen through the timing hole and the read/write slots on a floppy disk can do what, if anything, to the data in that area? A. Ruin it * B. Add to it C. Move it D. Nothing

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45. What maximum number of disks should be stacked horizontally? A. 5 B. 10 * C. 15 D. 20 46. What is perhaps the most common source of a magnetic field that can affect a floppy disk? A. CRTs B. Printer C. Telephone * D. Disk drives 47. In which of the following ways does smoke affect a computer? A. It damages the electronics B. It causes the monitor to fail C. It coats the keyboard D. It causes buildup on disks and disk drives * 48. What, if anything, can happen to a floppy disk when it is exposed to direct sunlight or excessive heat? A. It can become warped or distorted so it cannot be used * B. It can become sticky, which stops the drive C. It can lose part of the data recorded on it D. Nothing, it is not affected 49. Typically, floppy disks will operate only in what temperature range? A. 40 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit B. 50 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit * C. 60 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit D. 70 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit 50. A floppy disk will accept what relative humidity range? A. 5% to 60% B. 10% to 70% C. 10% to 80% * D. 10% to 90% 51. When a pencil or ballpoint pen is used to write on the label after it is attached to the disk, what, if anything, can happen to a disk? A. Some of the data written on the label can be added to the disk B. All of the data can be lost, but the disk can be used again C. The disk can be destroyed * D. Nothing; there can be no effect 52. In the computer world, what method provides a means to ensure that any data lost can be recovered? A. Records B. Backup files * C. Tracks D. Blocks 53. What two media are commonly used for backup? A. Paper tape and punched cards B. Magnetic tape and punched cards C. Disk and magnetic tape * D. Disk and drum 54. What is the most common method of creating a backup for a microcomputer? A. Copying the disk onto a magnetic tape B. Copying the disk onto a paper tape C. Copying the disk onto a punched card D. Copying the disk onto another disk * NEETS Module 22 HARDWARE ASSIGNMENT 2 1. The components or tools of a computer system can be grouped into what two categories? A. Hardware and software * B. Hardware and firmware C. Firmware and software D. Software and programs 2. What section/unit is the brain of a computer system? A. Control section B. Arithmetic-logic section C. Central processing unit * D. Input unit 3. What section/unit is the computing center of a computer system? A. Arithmetic-logic section B. Central processing unit * C. Control section D. Output unit 4. The central processing unit is made up of\ which of the following sections? A. Control and internal storage only B. Central and arithmetic-logic only C. Arithmetic-logic and internal storage only D. Control, internal storage, and arithmetic-logic * 5. When a program is so large and complex that it exceeds the memory capacity of a stored-program computer, where is the overflow stored? A. Input storage area B. Output storage area C. Primary memory D. Auxiliary memory * 6. What part of the computer dictates how and when each specific operation is to be performed? A. Control section * B. Arithmetic-logic section

C. Input storage area D. Output storage area 7. Of the four major types of instructions, which one has the basic function of moving data from one location to another? A. Control B. Logic C. Arithmetic D. Transfer * 8. To send commands to devices not under direct command of the control section, what type of instructions are used? A. Control * B. Logic C. Arithmetic D. Transfer 9. Operations like adding and multiplying are performed by what section? A. Control-logic B. Storage-logic C. Arithmetic-logic * D. Transfer-logic 10. When processing is taking place, data is transferred back and forth between what two sections? A. Control and internal storage B. Internal storage and arithmetic-logic * C. Control and arithmetic D. Arithmetic and output 11. The process by which instructions and data are read into a computer is called what? A. Moving B. Storing C. Inputting D. Loading * 12. An auxiliary (wired) memory is used in some computers to permanently store a small program that makes manual loading unnecessary. What is this program called? A. Operating system B. Bootstrap * C. Word processing D. Graphics 13. The tiny doughnut-shaped rings used to make up magnetic core storage are made of what material? A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Tin D. Ferrite * 14. Data is stored in computers in what form? A. Binary * B. Decimal C. Octal D. Hexadecimal 15. The state of each core in magnetic core storage is changed by what? A. The amount of magnetism B. The amount of current C. The direction of magnetism D. The direction of current * 16. Electronic circuits are placed on a silicon chip by what method? A. Wired B. Drawn C. Etched * D. Printed 17. Each of the individual electronic circuits on a silicon chip is called what? A. A memory cell B. A bit cell * C. A byte cell D. A holding cell 18. Semiconductor storage has which of the following drawbacks? A. It is too slow B. It is expensive C. It is volatile * D. It is unreliable 19. Using a very thin crystal made of semiconductor material, what type of memory can be created? A. Bubble * B. Magnetic core C. Semiconductor D. Capacitive 20. In bubble memory, where is the control circuit imprinted on the crystal of semiconductor material? A. The side B. The bottom C. The middle D. The top * 21. Who installs the programs in read-only memory? A. The programmer B. The manufacturer * C. The operator D. The dealer 22. Programs that are tailored to certain needs and permanently installed in ROM by the manufacturer are called what? A. Firmware * B. Software C. Hardware D. Diskware 23. What kind of memory used inside computers has a read/write capability without any additional special equipment? A. ROM B. RAM * C. EPROM D. PROM 24. A special device is needed to burn the program into what type of memory? A. ROM B. PROM * C. ERAM D. RAM

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25. EPROM can be erased by what method? A. With a current charge B. With a voltage change C. With a burst of ultra-violet light * D. With a special program 26. To coat magnetic disks, what magnetizable recording material is used? A. Plastic B. Mylar® C. Aluminum oxide D. Iron oxide * 27. What is the size range of the diameters of magnetic disks? A. 3 inches to 4 feet * B. 4 inches to 3 feet C. 5 inches to 6 feet D. 6 inches to 5 feet 28. Data is stored on all disks in a number of invisible concentric circles called what? A. Cracks B. Grooves C. Paths D. Tracks * 29. A floppy disk surface has what maximum number of tracks? A. 66 B. 77 * C. 88 D. 99 30. When data is written on a disk in the same area where data is already stored, the old data is affected in which of the following ways, if at all? A. It is moved to a new area B. It is mixed with the new data C. It is replaced * D. It is not affected 31. How are records on a track separated? A. By a gap in which no data is recorded * B. By a gap in which the name of the record is recorded C. By a gap in which the record is numbered D. By a gap in which the operator's name is placed 32. To increase the amount of data we can store on one track, what technique can be used? A. Records B. Files C. Disk address D. Blocking * 33. Designers were able to increase the data density of a disk by increasing the number of tracks. What code name was given to this technology? A. Computer B. Winchester * C. Solid state D. Colt 34. During reading and writing, which of the following changes are achieved by reducing the distance of the read/write heads over the disk surface? A. Data density can be improved and storage capacity decreased B. Data density is lessened and storage capacity increased C. Data density can be improved and storage capacity increased * D. Data density is lessened and storage capacity decreased 35. To physically organize data on diskettes, what method is used? A. Records B. Cylinder C. Files D. Sector * 36. The lengths of magnetic tapes used with computers have what range? A. From 400 to 1,000 feet B. From 500 to 2,000 feet C. From 600 to 3,000 feet * D. From 700 to 4,000 feet 37. Magnetic tapes can be packaged in which of the following ways? A. Open reel only B. Cartridge and cassette only C. Open reel and cartridge only D. Open reel, cartridge, and cassette * 38. By which of the following methods are magnetic tape units categorized? A. Type of packaging used for tape* B. Size of tape C. Speed of tape D. Cost of tape 39. What determines if a standard 1/2-inch tape will have either seven or nine tracks of data? A. The B. brand of tape C. The read/write heads installed in the tape unit * D. The type of computer used E. The speed at which the tape unit is run 40. For multitrack tapes, what is the range of common recording densities in bits/bytes per inch (bpi)? A. From 200 to 6,250 bpi * B. From 300 to 6,275 bpi C. From 400 to 6,300 bpi D. From 500 to 6,350 bpi

41. On magnetic tape, the size of a record that holds the data is restricted in what two ways? A. By the thickness of the tape and the capacity of internal storage B. By the length of the tape and the speed of internal storage C. By the width of the tape and the speed of internal storage D. By the length of the tape and the capacity of internal storage * 42. In computer terminology, what is called a file? A. A collection of tapes B. A collection of disks C. A collection of records * D. A collection of characters 43. In order for data to be read from or written on a magnetic tape, the tape must do what? A. Speed up B. Move at a predetermined speed * C. Slow down D. Stop 44. Storing single records on a magnetic tape has which of the following disadvantages? A. It takes too long to record the data B. It takes too long to recover the data C. Too much of the recording surface is wasted * D. Too much of the recording surface is used 45. The magnetic drum is another example of what type of access storage device? A. Random B. Direct * C. Multiple D. Single 46. What is the speed range of a magnetic drum? A. 300 to 3,000 rpm B. 400 to 4,000 rpm C. 500 to 5,000 rpm D. 600 to 6,000 rpm * 47. When using a magnetic drum, what is rotational delay? A. Time that occurs in coming up to speed B. Time that occurs in slowing down C. Time that occurs in reaching a desired record location * D. Time that occurs in changing a drum 48. What is the storage capacity range of magnetic drums in characters or bytes of data? A. From 20 million to more than 150,000 million * B. From 30 million to more than 150,000 million C. From 40 million to more than 200,000 million D. From 50 million to more than 200,000 million 49. Input data may be in any one of how many forms? A. Five B. Two C. Three * D. Four 50. When data is input from a keyboard, a high average speed is how many characters per second? A. One to two B. Two to three * C. Three to four D. Four to five 51. Output information is made available in how many forms? A. One B. Two C. Three * D. Four 52. Magnetic tape stores data in what manner? A. Sequential * B. Non-sequential C. Direct D. Random 53. The magnetic tape unit reads and writes data in channels or tracks along the length of the tape. How are these tracks referenced to each other? A. Perpendicular B. Parallel * C. Vertical D. Random 54. How does a two gap head allow for increased speed? A. By checking before writing B. By using two gaps to write C. By checking while writing * D. By using two gaps to check 55. What are the most common tape densities in bits/bytes per inch? A. 500 and 1,000 bpi B. 600 and 1,200 bpi C. 700 and 1,500 bpi D. 800 and 1,600 bpi * 56. The drive motor of a disk drive unit rotates the disk at a constant speed, normally how many revolutions per minute? A. 2,000 rpm B. 2,500 rpm C. 3,000 rpm D. 3,600 rpm * 57. The usual range of rotational speed for floppy disks is what? A. 100 to 200 rpm B. 200 to 300 rpm C. 300 to 400 rpm * D. 400 to 500 rpm

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58. The distance between the read/write head and the surface of a hard disk is called what? A. The flying height * B. The disk height C. The head height D. The recording height 59. Floppy disks come in several sizes with diameters of what size range? A. 2 to 6 inches B. 3 to 8 inches * C. 4 to 9 inches D. 5 to 10 inches 60. In the character-at-a-time impact printer class, which printer has the most professional-looking, pleasing-to-the-eye print? A. Dot-matrix B. Ink jet C. Daisy-wheel * D. Laser 61. What is another name for the dot-matrix printer? A. Hammer-matrix B. Pin-matrix C. Ink-matrix D. Wire-matrix * 62. Dot-matrix printers have which of the following ranges of speeds in characters per second? A. 50 to 200 cps B. 60 to 350 cps * C. 70 to 400 cps D. 80 to 450 cps 63. Ink jet printers have what maximum speed in characters per seconds? A. 300 cps * B. 400 cps C. 500 cps D. 600 cps 64. Laser printers can print up to approximately what total number of characters per second? A. 20,666 cps B. 22,666 cps C. 24,666 cps D. 26,666 cps * 65. What are the two styles of typewriter keyboard arrangements used with a computer? A. QWERYT or DVORAK B. QWERTY or DVORAK * C. ABCDEF or DVORAK D. ABCDEF or DVOARK 66. When working with display devices, what does the term softcopy mean? A. The information displayed is not permanent * B. The information displayed is permanent C. The information displayed has a soft glow D. The information displayed has no glow 67. On a raster scan CRT, a raster is a series of what type of lines across the face of a CRT? A. Diagonal B. Vertical C. Horizontal * D. Wavy 68. Each field of a raster scan CRT is made up of approximately how many lines? A. 525 * B. 550 C. 575 D. 600 69. In a video monitor, what do the frequency bandwidth, the number of characters to be displayed on a line, and the physical size of the screen determine? A. Actual level of brightness B. Actual number of picture elements * C. Actual speed of scan rate D. Actual number of vertical lines that can be displayed 70. A monitor that uses 1,000 picture elements per line with a horizontal resolution of 1,000 can display what total number of vertical lines? A. 10 B. 100 C. 1,000 * D. 10,000 71. A raster frame is displayed approximately how many times a second? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30 * 72. To reduce the depth of the CRT caused by the length of the tube, what type of displays were designed? A. Wide panel B. Flat panel * C. Narrow panel D. Short panel 73. Compared to the gas plasma and electroluminescent displays, a liquid crystal display differs in which of the following ways? A. It does not use as many picture elements B. It does not use a light for the picture elements C. It does not generate its own light for the picture elements * D. It does not have a backlight 74. The operation of an electroluminescent display requires what total number of volts? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 *

NEETS Module 22 SOFTWARE ASSIGNMENT 3 1. What must you load into a computer to manage its resources and operations? A. Bootstrap program B. Word processor C. Graphics program D. Operating system * 2. What program controls the execution of other programs according to job information? A. An operating system * B. A bootstrap program C. A word processor D. A utility program 3. The simplest and most commonly used operating systems on microcomputers are which of the following types? A. Multiuser/single tasking B. Single user/single tasking * C. Single user/multitasking D. Multiuser/multitasking 4. Which of the following programs must be compatible with the operating system in use? A. CP/M-86 B. UNIX C. Applications * D. MS-DOS 5. To overcome the applications software compatibility problem, which of the following is done so the application can be run under several different operating systems? A. Some software comes in several versions * B. Computers are designed to accept all applications software C. Software comes in a universal version D. Operating systems are changed to be compatible 6. What is another term for "initial program load" the system? A. Start B. Boot * C. Kick D. Run 7. When the symbol A> is on the screen of a computer CRT, it tells the operator/user which of the following information? A. The system is not ready, and drive A is busy B. The system is ready, and drive A is assigned as your secondary drive C. The system is ready, and drive A is assigned as your primary drive* D. The system is activating, and no drive is available 8. The three characters following each directory entry are called what? A. Files B. Records C. Locators D. Extensions * 9. Commands built into the operating system that control actions, like disk copy and rename, are what type of commands? A. Independent B. Copy C. Spread D. Utility * 10. To eliminate the need for programmers to write new programs when all they want to do is copy, print, or sort a data file, which of the following types of programs can be used? A. Word processor B. Graphics C. Utility * D. Spreadsheet 11. What is the term given to arranging records in a predefined sequence or order? A. Sorting * B. Merging C. Writing D. Shifting 12. On a computer, what is the sequence of characters called? A. Numerical sequence B. Collating sequence * C. Random sequence D. Alphabetic sequence 13. To sort a data file, what must you tell the sort program? A. How many characters are in the file B. How many records are in the file C. The length of the data file D. The data field or fields to sort on* 14. Sort-merge programs usually have which of the following characteristics? A. Specific file length B. Specific run time C. Phases * D. Names 15. What personnel or methods are used to generate programs to print detail and summary reports of data files? A. Programmers B. Operating systems C. Sort-merge programs D. Report program generators * 16. What are report program generators designed to save? A. Run time B. Programming time * C. Operator time D. Printer time 17. Each time there is a control break, what does the program developed by the report program generator print?

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A. Input information B. Output information C. Summary information * D. Programming information 18. A computer language that is a string of numbers which represents the instruction code and operand addresses is what type? A. Machine * B. Printed C. Symbolic D. Procedure-oriented 19. Mnemonic instruction codes and symbolic addresses were developed early in what decade? A. 1940s B. 1950s * C. 1960s D. 1970s 20. Compared to machine language coding, symbolic languages have which of the following advantages? A. Detail is reduced B. Fewer errors are made C. Less time is required to write a program D. All of the above * 21. An instruction that allows the programmer to write a single instruction which is equivalent to a specified sequence of machine instructions is what type of instruction? A. Machine language instruction B. Graphic language instruction C. Macroinstruction * D. Scientific instruction 22. What does the acronym COBOL stand for? A. Computer ordered byte oriented language B. Computer ordered business oriented language C. Common business oriented language * D. Common business ordered language 23. PASCAL is being used by many colleges and universities to teach programming for which of the following reasons? A. It is fairly easy to learn and more powerful than BASIC * B. It is hard to learn and weaker than BASIC C. It is easy to learn and cheaper than BASIC D. It is a shorter course and produces better programmers 24. The development of ADA was initiated by what organization? A. U. S. Navy B. U. S. Army C. U. S. Department of Defense * D. U. S. Department of Transportation 25. What are the two most familiar of the procedure-oriented languages used for scientific or mathematical problems? A. PASCAL and FORTRAN B. PASCAL and COBOL C. COBOL and FORTRAN D. BASIC and FORTRAN * 26. Compared with programs written in symbolic languages, programs written in procedure-oriented languages differ in which of the following ways? A. They can only be used with small computers B. They can only be used with large computers C. They can only be used with the computer for which the program was written D. They can be used with a number of different computer makes and models * 27. Compared with symbolic languages, procedure-oriented languages have which of the following disadvantages? A. They require more space in memory, and they process data at a slower rate * B. They require more space in memory, and they process data too fast for some printers C. They require a special memory, and they process data at a slower rate D. They require a special memory, and they process data too fast for some printers 28. Which of the following is a simple definition of programming? A. The process of planning which computer system to use B. The process of planning the computer solution to a problem * C. The process of planning the mathematical solution to a problem D. The process of planning which computer program to use 29. Which of the following is NOT a basic characteristic of a computer? A. It needs commands B. It needs specifically defined operations C. It can think * D. It can understand instructions only in an acceptable form 30. How many fundamental and discrete steps are involved in solving a problem on a computer? A. Five B. Two

C. Three D. Four * 31. In the advance planning phase of programming, what are the first two steps? A. Program coding and machine readable coding preparation B. Problem understanding/ definition and flowcharting * C. Test data preparation and test run performance D. Documentation completion and operator procedures preparation 32. Which of the following is NOT part of defining every aspect of a problem? A. What information (or data) is needed B. Where and how will the information be obtained C. What is the desired output D. What is the computation time * 33. Once you have a thorough understanding of the problem, what is the next step in programming? A. Gathering information B. Coding the program C. Flowcharting * D. Debugging 34. The method of pictorially representing a step-by-step solution to a problem before computer instructions are written to produce the desired results is called what? A. Flowcharting * B. Constructing C. Documenting D. Debugging 35. What two types of flowcharts are there? A. System and programming * B. System and data C. Processing and programming D. Processing and data 36. What are the four basic tools used in flowcharting? A. Advanced symbols, graphic symbols, flowcharting template, and flowcharting worksheet B. Fundamental symbols, graphic symbols, flowcharting template, and flowcharting worksheet * C. Fundamental symbols, mathematical symbols, flowcharting symbols, and flowcharting worksheet D. Fundamental symbols, advanced symbols, flowcharting template, and flowcharting worksheet 37. Within a flowchart, what type of symbols are used to specify arithmetic operations and relational conditions? A. Fundamental symbols B. Graphic symbols * C. Arithmetic symbols D. Arabic symbols 38. To develop a flowchart, which of the following must you know first? A. What type of computer is to be used B. What problem you are to solve * C. What code you are going to use D. What logic the computer will use to solve a problem 39. In solving a problem, which of the following ways does a computer operate? A. Two steps at a time in random order B. It processes the problem as a whole C. One step after another in specified order * D. One step after another in random order 40. What is the step called in which you code a program that can be translated by a computer into a set of instructions it can execute? A. Program booting B. Program execution C. Program logic D. Program coding * 41. Before sitting down to code the computer instructions to solve a problem, you should complete which of the following activities? A. A course in computer operation B. A course in mathematics C. Planning and coding D. Planning and preparation * 42. What is the fundamental element in program preparation? A. Subject B. Predicate C. Computer D. Instruction * 43. The first part of a computer instruction, which answers the question what is known by which of the following terms? A. Operation only B. Command only C. Command or operation * D. Operand 44. The second specific part of the predicate in a computer instruction, known as the operand, in general answers what question? A. Who B. What C. When D. Where *

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45. What part of the program must the programmer prepare according to the format required by the language and the computer to be used? A. Documentation B. Implementation C. Instructions * D. Length 46. To copy data from one storage location to another and to rearrange and change data elements in some prescribed manner, what type of instructions are used? A. Input/output B. Data movement * C. Transfer of control D. Conditional logic 47. Transfer of control instructions are classified as which of the following types? A. Conditional only B. Unconditional only C. Conditional and unconditional * D. Conditional and distributed 48. Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes are referred to as what? A. Mistakes B. Errors C. Faults D. Bugs * 49. The process of carefully checking the coding sheets before they are keyed into the computer is known as what? A. Desk-checking * B. Code-checking C. Program-checking D. Computer-checking 50. A definition of the problem, a description of the system, a description of the program, and operator instructions make up what package? A. Training B. Security C. Orientation D. Documentation * 51. Which of the following is another name for packaged software? A. Rented programs B. Manufactured programs C. Off-the-shelf programs * D. On-the-shelf programs 52. Under the word processing software control, you generally enter the text using what method? A. Tape B. Disk C. Drum D. Keyboard * 53. What type of software allows you to enter data and then retrieve it in a variety of ways? A. Communications B. Data retrieval C. Data management * D. Document compilation NEETS Module 22 ASSIGNMENT 4 1. In using a digital computer, which of the following is one of the major problems we face? A. Finding disks to fit the drives B. Locating a stable power source C. Communicating with the computer * D. Arranging the proper environment 2. In computer terminology, what is a general term to describe raw facts? A. Characters B. Bits C. Bytes D. Data * 3. In computer terminology, when data has been processed with other facts and has meaning, it is described as which of the following? A. Information only the computer can understand and properly use B. Information we can understand and properly use * C. Information the input device can understand and properly use D. Information the output device can understand and properly use 4. Data is represented by which of the following means? A. By symbols * B. By electricity C. By magnetic D. By mechanics 5. What is data to be represented called? A. Numeric data B. Alphanumeric data C. Information data D. Source data * 6. Raw data is typically written on some type of paper document referred to as what type of document? A. End document B. Source document * C. Classified document D. Unclassified document 7. Numeric, alphabetic, and special characters are represented in a computer's internal storage and on magnetic media through the use of what kind of system? A. Coding * B. Reading C. Writing D. Labeling

8. It is possible to represent a maximum of 256 different characters or bit combinations by using which of the following codes? A. 8-bit * B. 16-bit C. 32-bit D. 64-bit 9. In addition to four numeric bits, there are four other bit positions used in an 8-bit code, what are they called? A. Area bits B. Zone bits * C. Region bits D. District bits 10. Which of the following numbering systems has a base of 16? A. Octal B. Binary C. Decimal D. Hexadecimal * 11. Representing two numeric characters in one byte (eight bits) is referred to as what? A. Packing * B. Stacking C. Doubling D. Crowding 12. By packing data within an 8-bit code, which of the following results are achieved? A. Storage space required increases and processing speed increases B. Storage space required increases and processing speed decreases C. Storage space required decreases and processing speed increases * D. Storage space required decreases and processing speed decreases 13. Through the cooperation of several manufacturers, what 8-bit code was developed for transmitting and processing data? A. EBCDIC * B. EBCDTC C. ASCIT D. ASCII 14. An additional bit in each storage location called a parity bits used for what purpose? A. To stop errors B. To erase errors C. To detect errors * D. To reroute errors 15. The parity bit is also called what? A. Odd bit B. Even bit C. Code bit D. Check bit * 16. The test for bit count is called what? A. Odd check B. Even check C. Stop check D. Parity check * 17. What storage area accepts and holds input data to be processed? A. Input * B. Output C. Working D. Program 18. A single binary digit is called what? A. Bit * B. Byte C. Word D. Record 19. What symbol is used when we refer to the size of computer memory? A. M B. m C. K * D. k 20. When many magnetic cores are strung together on a screen of wire, what type of plane is formed? A. A wire plane B. A core plane * C. A screen plane D. A magnetic plane 21. When a core is magnetized, what characteristic of magnetism determines whether it contains a binary 0 or a binary 1? A. Amount B. Duration C. Direction * D. Saturation 22. The storage capacity of an address is designed and built into the computer by which of the following people or organizations? A. Operator B. Installer C. Programmer D. Manufacturer * 23. Computers that are built to retrieve, manipulate, and store a fixed number of characters in each address are said to be which of the following types of computers? A. Fixed-bit-length B. Fixed-word-length * C. Fixed-file-length D. Fixed-number-length 24. Computers that store a single character in each address location are said to be which of the following types of computers? A. Variable-addressable B. Data-addressable C. Fixed-addressable D. Character-addressable * 25. Flexible computers that are byte oriented can operate in either a fixed-or variable-word-length mode by which of the following techniques? A. Proper program length B. Proper program density

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C. Proper program instructions * D. Proper program flexibility 26. Different word lengths, such as half-word, full-word, and doubleword, are possible with what type of computer? A. Bit-addressable B. Byte-addressable * C. File-addressable D. Record-addressable 27. When a flexible computer is working in a fixed-wordlength environment, each address identifies what group of elements that can be operated on as a unit? A. Bits B. Bytes * C. Files D. Records 28. To automatically retrieve, manipulate, and store a fixed word of data as a unit on a flexible computer, what means can a programmer use? A. Parity bit B. Program length C. Storage capacity D. Program instructions * 29. In computer terminology, a group of related bits is known by which of the following terms? A. Word B. File C. Record D. Character * 30. What group of related items forms a record? A. Bits B. Bytes C. Fields * D. Characters 31. The variations in how data files are stored in secondary storage is determined by what? A. Types of media and devices used* B. Cost of the installation C. Size of the installation D. Type of power available 32. When you store a file on tape, the 125th record cannot be read until the 124 records in front of it are read. This is called what type of storage? A. Input-access B. Direct-access * C. Random-access D. Sequential-access 33. When data can be obtained quickly from anywhere on the media without having to read the records in front of it, which of the following types of storage is being used? A. Reading-access B. Direct-access * C. Sequential-access D. Processing-access 34. Which of the following is an example of random-access storage? A. Disk B. Thin film * C. Paper tape D. Magnetic tape 35. Any system composed of one or more computers and terminals is the definition for what? A. Network * B. ADP system C. Computer system D. Supply system 36. A network that consists of various machines linked together within a building or adjacent buildings is what type? A. Wide area B. Linked area C. Local area * D. Narrow area 37. When dissimilar machines have the ability to communicate, they act in which of the following ways? A. Human B. As a team * C. Individually D. Against each other 38. For local area networks, what two designs are used? A. Broadband and bandpass B. Broadpass and bandpass C. Broadbase and baseband D. Broadband and baseband * 39. The communications channel that uses the basic frequency band of radio waves and a coaxial cable is what type? A. Broadband B. Broadpass C. Baseband * D. Bandpass 40. The transmission of voice as well as data and text can be handled by what type of communications channels? A. Broadband * B. Broadpass C. Baseband D. Bandpass 41. Wide area networks are sometimes referred to as which of the following networks? A. Local B. Global * C. Satellite D. Telephone 42. The first successful communications satellite for business applications was launched in what year? A. 1955 B. 1959 C. 1962 D. 1965 *

43. When we transmit data directly to a computer over long distances, it becomes necessary to add two other devices, one at each end of the communications line. These devices are called what? A. Modems * B. Printers C. Converters D. Input/output buffers 44. A modem converts the digital signal produced by your terminal or the computer to what type of signal suitable for transmission over the communications line? A. Video B. Audio * C. Carrier D. Hybrid 45. If conversion of the digital signal to be transmitted were not carried out, it would degenerate and become what? A. Lost B. Strong C. Doubled D. Garbled * 46. Telephone lines are a frequently used type of communications channel. They are often referred to by which of the following terms? A. Land lines B. Microwave link C. High frequency link D. Communications lines * 47. In communications, what name is given to those devices that serve to interconnect? A. Connectors B. System controllers C. Interface elements * D. Impedance matchers 48. When using a modem, what are the two methods of data transmission? A. Digital and analog B. Mechanical and light C. Continuous and noncontinuous D. Asynchronous and synchronous * 49. The transmission method that uses a single set of start and stop message characters per block of data is which of the following types? A. Synchronous B. Asynchronous * C. Microwave link D. Frequency modulated 50. Whenever data is transferred between devices, it also involves an exchange of prearranged signals known as what? A. Nodding B. Spacing C. Handshaking * D. Coordinating 51. The specific set of rules used to govern handshaking and message character is called what? A. Sending B. Protocol * C. Modulator D. Transmitting NEETS MODULE 23 MAGNETIC RECORDING ASSIGNMENT 1 1. In what year did Oberlin Smith originate the idea of using permanent magnetic impressions to record sound? A. 1880 B. 1888 * C. 1900 D. 1908 2. In 1925, magnetic recording began receiving attention when what device was invented? A. Magnetic tape B. Magnetic disk C. Electronic amplifiers * D. Video recorders 3. In 1907, Mr. Paul discovered dc bias. How did adding dc bias to the input signal solve the distortion problem for magnetic recording? A. It moved the input signal away from the step in the magnetism curve * B. It moved the input signal directly onto the step in the magnetism curve C. It moved the output signal directly over the step in the magnetism curve D. It straightened the step in the magnetism curve 4. After 1925, the Naval Research Laboratory greatly improved the signal-to- noise ratio of magnetic recording by adding what component? A. Ac bias * B. Electronic amplifiers C. Transistors D. Dc motors 5. In what year was plastic based tape introduced? A. 1900 B. 1925 C. 1939 D. 1947 * 6. In 1956, IBM introduced what major contribution to magnetic recording? A. The magnetic tape drive B. The floppy disk drive C. The hard disk drive * D. Each of the above

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7. In 1966, IBM introduced the first removable-pack hard disk drive. A. True * B. False 8. In what year was the 5 1/4" floppy disk drive invented? A. 1956 B. 1976 C. 1980 * D. 1988 9. Which of the following is a prerequisite for magnetic recording? A. An input signal B. A recording medium C. A magnetic head D. Each of the above * 10. A magnetic recording medium is any material that has the ability to become magnetized, in set amounts, in large sections along its entire length. A. True B. False * 11. Magnetic heads are transducers that convert the electrical variations of your input signal into what type of variations that are stored on a recording medium? A. Magnetic * B. Electrical C. Electrical and magnetic combined D. Direct current 12. What factor determines the number of turns of wire placed on the core of a magnetic head? A. The size of the magnetic head B. The size of the head-gap C. The purpose of the magnetic head * D. Each of the above 13. All magnetic heads operate the same way. An electric current passes through the coil. Magnetic field lines associated with the electric current follow paths through the core material. When the magnetic field lines get to the head-gap, some of them spread outside the core to form a fringing field. When a recording medium is passed through this fringing field, magnetic recording happens. A. True * B. False 14. Which of the following materials is used to make magnetic tape? A. Base material B. Magnetic oxide coating C. Glue D. Each of the above * 15. The base material of magnetic tape is made with what material? A. Plastic B. Metal C. Either A or B * D. Paper 16. Which of the following can happen if the magnetic particles used to make magnetic tape aren’t uniform in size? A. The tape’s surface will be abrasive which reduces the magnetic head’s life * B. The frequency response of the tape will be distorted C. The glue will not hold the particles in place D. The oxide coating cannot be magnetized 17. Generally, short magnetic oxide particles are used on magnetic tape to record low frequency signals and long particles are used to record high-frequency signals. A. True B. False * 18. Why does digital magnetic tape use a base material about 50 percent thicker than analog magnetic tape? A. Thicker tape is needed to hold the long magnetic oxide particles B. Thicker tape allows the tape to withstand the more strenuous starts and stops * C. Thicker tape is needed for instrumentation type signals D. Thicker tape can store more digital data 19. There are four types of tape errors that can degrade the performance of a magnetic recording system. Which of the following tape errors is the most common and causes a 50% or more drop in signal strength? A. Noise B. Skew C. Signal dropout * D. Level 20. Which of the following contaminants can cause signal dropouts? A. Dust B. Lint C. Oil D. Each of the above * 21. Which of the following items on magnetic tape will cause noise errors? A. Dust or lint B. A cut C. A scratch D. Both B and C above *

22. Brand "X" magnetic tape is rated for 5 volts (± 10%). Which of the following minimum and maximum voltage levels is what the output signal level could vary before it is considered a level error? A. 4.95/5.05 B. 4.75/5.25 C. 4.5/5.5 * D. 4/6 23. Magnetic tape can eventually become unusable when it comes in contact with the fixed surfaces of a recorder over long periods of time. What causes this type of tape failure? A. Environmental damage B. Normal wear * C. Winding errors D. Accidental damage 24. Ideally, magnetic tape should be used and stored within what temperature and humidity range? A. 40 - 80º F, 60 - 80% humidity B. 50 - 70º F, 60 - 80% humidity C. 60 - 80º F, 60 - 80% humidity D. 60 - 80º F, 40 - 60% humidity * 25. Using magnetic tape in a workplace that exceeds the ideal temperature and humidity ranges can cause which of the following types of environmental damage to the tape? A. Dirt build-up B. Layer-to-layer sticking C. Tape deformation D. Each of the above * 26. At temperatures above 130 degrees, what happens to a tape's oxide coating? A. Becomes soft B. Separates from the base material C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. Becomes brittle 27. What causes head-to-tape sticking? A. Temperatures below 2º F B. Dirty record/reproduce heads C. The tape binder glue softens * D. Static electricity 28. Which of the following environmental conditions could create static electricity which attracts dirt build-up on the tape and tape recorder parts? A. Relative humidity of 5% * B. Temperature of 28º F C. Relative humidity of 96% D. Temperature of 135º F 29. Excessive tape and head wear caused by increased friction as the tape passes over the heads can happen if the relative humidity is more that what maximum percent? A. 70% B. 85% C. 95% * D. 90% 30. Winding errors can happen when improper winding practices create an excessive or uneven force as the tape is being wound onto a tape reel. A. True * B. False 31. When winding a tape onto a reel, you notice that a sudden stop causes the outer layers of the tape to continue to spin after the inner layers have stopped. What type of deformed tape pack does this cause? A. Pack-slip B. Cinching * C. Spoking D. Windowing 32. The magnetic tape on your reel is unwinding unevenly and rubbing against the sides of the reel and the recorder’s tape guides. What type of deformed tape pack could cause this condition? A. Spoking B. Windowing C. Pack-slip * D. Skewing 33. You notice a spoked tape pack on the take-up reel of your recorder. What causes a spoked tape pack? A. Tape is wound over a small particle on the reel hub B. A distorted reel hub creates uneven pressures as the tape is wound onto the reel C. Tape is wound with increasing tension toward the end of the winding D. Each of the above * 34. Which of the following tape pack deformities is an example of windowing? A. The inner part of the tape pack is buckled and deformed B. The tape pack contains steps caused by the tape shifting from side to side during winding C. The tape pack contains voids or see-through air gaps * D. Each of the above 35. Which of the following materials can be used to make tape reels? A. Plastic B. Metal C. Glass D. Each of the above *

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36. The flanges of a magnetic tape reel are designed to guide the magnetic tape onto the reel. A. True B. False * 37. Magnetic tape is erased by exposing it to what type ofmagnetic field? A. A gradually decreasing dc field B. A gradually increasing dc field C. A gradually decreasing ac field * D. A gradually increasing ac field 38. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a tape recorder’s erase head to erase magnetic tape? A. It causes a distorted tape pack B. It’s slow C. It may not do a complete erasure D. Both B and C above * 39. Both manual and automatic tape degaussers use the same electronic principles for erasing magnetic tape. A. True * B. False 40. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate place to keep a magnetic tape reel or cartridge? A. Mounted on a magnetic tape recorder * B. Stored in a plastic bag C. Laying on top of a magnetic tape recorder D. Both 2 and 3 above 41. Which of the following is a CORRECT method for handling magnetic tape? A. Never let any part of the tape, except the end, trail on the floor B. Always hold a tape reel by the flanges C. Never handle or touch a tape’s working surface * D. Each of the above 42. Which of the following is a CORRECT method for storing magnetic tape? A. Always store tape reels laying on their sides, never vertically B. Store tapes away from equipment that generates stray magnetic fields * C. Keep the storage area at 40 to 80% relative humidity D. All of the above 43. Which of the following is a CORRECT method for packaging magnetic tape for shipping? A. Always use reel bands where available B. Always package reels supported by their hubs and in a vertical position C. Always package cartridges in their shipping cases D. Each of the above * 44. What parts of a magnetic tape recorder are considered the heart of magnetic tape recording? A. Magnetic tape reel B. Magnetic heads * C. Transport electronics D. Operator control panel 45. The heads of a magnetic tape recorder perform what part of the overall tape recording process? A. Record signal or data onto magnetic tape B. Reproduce signal or data from magnetic tape C. Erase signal or data from magnetic tape D. Each of the above * 46. All magnetic heads are made using a plastic core wrapped with a few turns of very thin wire. A. True B. False * 47. What specification of a magnetic head determines the maximum frequency the head will be able to transfer onto and off of the magnetic tape? A. Headgap * B. Size of the core C. Number of turns of wire on the core D. Each of the above 48. What is the only physical difference between a record head and a reproduce head? A. Number of turns of wire on the core * B. Size of the core material C. Type of core material used D. Each of the above 49. A certain magnetic recorder has a maximum recording frequency response of 500 kHz. Which of the following frequencies would be a good frequency to use as an erase signal? A. 500 kHz B. 1200 kHz C. 1900 kHz * D. Either B or C 50. If you do NOT regularly clean a recorder’s magnetic heads, what is the probable consequence?

A. Dirt, dust, lint, etc. will collect on the heads B. Signal dropout errors will occur C. Both 1 and 2 above * D. The tape pack will become skewed 51. What materials should you use to clean magnetic heads? A. A bristled brush and non-detergent cleaner B. A cotton-tipped applicator soaked in isopropyl alcohol C. A cotton-tipped applicator soaked in a magnetic head cleaner recommended by the manufacturer D. Either B or C above * 52. Magnetic heads can become magnetized from many sources. Which of the following sources, if any, could magnetize a magnetic head? A. Stray magnetic fields * B. Excessive humidity C. Poor quality magnetic tape D. None of the above 53. Magnetic head degaussers generate a strong ac magnetic field that demagnetizes the metal parts of a magnetic head. A. True * B. False 54. Which of the following is NOT a procedure for demagnetizing magnetic heads? A. Remove the tape reel or cartridge from the recorder B. Touch the energized degausser to the head * C. Move the degausser back and forth across the head for 15 to 30 seconds D. De-energize the degausser when it’s an arms length away 55. Which of the following is a function of magnetic tape transports? A. Moves the magnetic tape across the magnetic heads B. Holds the moving tape C. Protects the moving tape D. Each of the above * 56. Tape reeling system A. Monitors and controls the movement of magnetic tape B. Holds and protects the reels or cartridges of magnetic tape C. Activates the reeling device to move the magnetic tape D. Physically moves the magnetic tape across the magnetic heads* 57. Tape speed control system A. Monitors and controls the movement of magnetic tape * B. Holds and protects the reels or cartridges of magnetic tape C. Activates the reeling device to move the magnetic tape D. Physically moves the magnetic tape across the magnetic heads 58. Electronic sub-system A. Monitors and controls the movement of magnetic tape B. Holds and protects the reels or cartridges of magnetic tape C. Activates the reeling device to move the magnetic tape * D. Physically moves the magnetic tape across the magnetic heads 59. Basic enclosure A. Monitors and controls the movement of magnetic tape B. Holds and protects the reels or cartridges of magnetic tape * C. Activates the reeling device to move the magnetic tape D. Physically moves the magnetic tape across the magnetic heads 60. What type of tape reeling system uses a "free-spooling" supply reel and a motorized take-up reel? A. Take-up control * B. Two-motor reeling C. Tape buffering D. Both B and C above 61. What type of tape reeling system was invented to overcome the problems of uneven tape tension and stretched tape? A. Take-up control B. Two-motor reeling * C. Tape buffering D. Both B and C above 62. Magnetic tape reeling systems that use the spring tension method of tape buffering use what type of device to sense changes in tape tension? A. Vacuum air column B. Electro-mechanical * C. Photo-sensitive D. Variable-static-sensor 63. What are the two types of tape guides used on magnetic tape reeling systems? A. Variable and stable B. Round and square C. Single and dual D. Fixed and rotary * 64. A co-axial tape reeling configuration places the supply and take-up reels side by side. A. True B. False * 65. In which of the following types of tape transport capstan drive configurations is the tape tension and head-to-tape contact

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most likely to vary? A. Dual-motor dual capstan drive B. Peripheral drive capstan C. Open-loop capstan drive * D. Closed-loop capstan drive 66. Which of the following closed-loop capstan drive tape transports will NOT work in reverse? A. Differential velocity capstan * B. Peripheral drive capstan C. Both A and B above D. Dual-motors dual capstan 67. What type of capstan drive tape transport moves the magnetic tape by placing the capstan directly against the tape reel or tape pack? A. Open-loop capstan drive B. Peripheral drive capstan * C. Dual-motors dual capstan D. Differential velocity capstan 68. Capstan speed control is a very important function of the magnetic tape transport system. Which of the following is NOT one of the six parts of a capstan speed control? A. Capstan speed monitor B. Speed select network C. Comparison network D. Reel motor drive circuit * 69. What part of the capstan speed control function normally uses a photo-optical tachometer attached to the shaft of the capstan motor? A. Precision frequency source B. Speed select circuit C. Capstan speed monitor * D. Comparison network 70. On some recorders, a servo control from tape signal is supplied to the comparison network of the capstan speed control function. What is the purpose of this signal? A. Speeds up or slows down the capstan motor B. Compensates for capstan speed differences when a recorded tape is played back on a different recorder * C. Monitors the true capstan motor speed D. Provides a reference frequency that the speed select network uses to drive the capstan motor 71. Which of the following items can be used to clean most magnetic tape transports? A. Isopropyl alcohol B. Cotton swabs C. Lint-free cloths D. Each of the above * 72. Which of the following is NOT a correct procedure for cleaning a magnetic tape transport? A. When available, always use cotton swabs vice lint-free cloths * B. Apply the cleaner onto the cotton swab or lint-free cloth C. Clean the flanged parts of the tape guides D. While cleaning, switch swabs and cloths often 73. Magnetic tape transports should be demagnetized periodically. To do this, use a hand-held degausser and follow the procedures for demagnetizing magnetic heads. A. True * B. False NEETS MODULE 23 MAGNETIC RECORDING ASSIGNMENT 2 1. Magnetic tape recorders use what type of electronic circuits to record and reproduce analog input signals? A. Continuous wave B. Frequency modulation C. Amplitude modulation D. Both B and C above * 2. Direct record electronics record input signals onto magnetic tape just as they appeared at the recorder's input. A. True * B. False 3. Which part of the direct record electronics component takes the input signal and the bias signal and mixes them together? A. Input pre-amplifier circuit B. Bias source C. Summing network * D. Head driver circuit 4. Which part of the direct record electronics amplifies the signal from the summing network and sends it to the record head? A. Bias source circuit B. Head driver circuit * C. Input pre-amplifier circuit D. Low-pass filter circuit 5. The pre-amplifier circuit of the direct reproduce electronics does which of the following functions? A. Amplifies the reproduced signal B. Removes the bias signal C. Both A and B above *

D. Corrects phase errors 6. What circuit in the direct reproduce electronics takes the pre-amplified signal and fixes frequency response problems the reproduce magnetic head may have caused? A. Equalization and phase correction circuit * B. Output amplifier circuit C. Head driver circuit D. Summing network 7. What circuit of the direct-reproduce electronics serves as an impedance matcher? A. Pre-amplifier circuit B. Output amplifier circuit * C. Equalization and phase correction circuit D. Head driver circuit 8. How do FM record electronics process the incoming signal before sending it to the record head? A. A high frequency, negative bias is added to the input signal B. A summing network mixes the bias and input signal C. Both A and B above D. The input signal is frequency modulated onto the carrier frequency of a record oscillator * 9. In the FM record electronics, what is the output of the record oscillator circuit? A. The demodulated input signal B. The frequency modulated carrier signal * C. A clean input signal with the negative bias removed D. A combined input signal and equalization signal 10. Pre-amplifier circuit A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up any noise or left over carrier signal B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for output C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and amplifies it * D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal intelligence from the carrier signal 11. Limiter/ demodulator circuit A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up any noise or left over carrier signal B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for output C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and amplifies it D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal intelligence from the carrier signal * 12. Low-pass filter circuit A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up any noise or left over carrier signal * B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for output C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and amplifies it D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal intelligence from the carrier signal 13. Output amplifier A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up any noise or left over carrier signal B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for output * C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and amplifies it D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal intelligence from the carrier signal 14. Which of the following generates the noise part of a recorder’s SNR? A. Magnetic heads B. Magnetic tape C. Both A and B above * D. Nearby equipment 15. The SNR can be stated in three different ways. Which of the following is NOT one of these ways? A. Mean signal to RMS noise * B. Peak-to-peak signal to RMS noise C. RMS signal to RMS noise D. Peak signal-to-RMS noise 16. Which of the following data should be included with all SNR specifications? A. Record level * B. Reproduce level C. Bandwidth D. Tape speed 17. What is the magnetic tape recording specification which gives a recorder’s amplitude variation with frequency over a specified bandwidth? A. Record level B. Frequency response * C. Bandwidth D. Both A and C above

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18. Your LPO tells you to test the frequency response of a particular magnetic tape recorder. You use a signal generator to sweep through the frequencies as you monitor the recorder’s output amplitude on a VTVM. Which of the following readings in output amplitude would indicate the upper and lower end of the recorders bandwidth? A. +/- 2-dB B. +/- 3-dB * C. +/- 5-dB D. +/- 10-dB 19. Which of the following factors can limit or degrade the frequency response of a magnetic tape recorder? A. The record head B. The reproduce head C. Magnetic head-to-tape contact D. Each of the above * 20. If the frequencies of the harmonic distortion are 2, 4, and 6 times the center frequency, what type of harmonic distortion is this? A. Linear B. Spatial C. Even-order * D. Center frequency 21. Which of the following is a cause of even-order harmonics during magnetic tape recording? A. Defective magnetic tape B. Frequency response too low C. Permanently magnetized heads * D. Each of the above 22. If you increase a magnetic tape recorder’s signal bias level, what happens to the harmonic distortion? A. Increases B. Remains the same C. Decreases * D. Increases odd-order harmonic distortion 23. When measuring the amount of harmonic distortion in a magnetic tape recorder, what electronic test equipment should you use? A. Wave analyzer * B. VTVM C. Spectrum analyzer D. All of the above 24. When measuring harmonic distortion, you set the signal generator to input a 12- kHz test signal. At the recorder’s output, what will be the frequency of the third-order harmonic? A. 33-kHz B. 18-kHz C. 38-kHz D. 36 kHz * 25. What magnetic tape recorder specification expresses the variation of the phase shift with respect to frequency? A. Frequency response B. Phase response * C. Wow and Flutter D. Each of the above 26. Which of the following conditions indicates that a magnetic tape recorder has a good phase response specification? A. The SNR and frequency response are within tolerance B. The wave analyzer shows a perfect sine wave C. The recorder reproduces an undistorted square wave * D. Each of the above 27. What magnetic tape recorder specification expresses the result of non-uniform tape motion caused by variations in tape speed that produces frequency modulation of signals recorded onto magnetic tape? A. Frequency response B. Phase response C. Flutter * D. Time-base error 28. Which of the following magnetic tape recorder transport parts can cause high frequency flutter (above 1000 Hz)? A. Magnetic heads B. Rotating tape guides C. Fixed tape guides D. Both A and C above * 29. A magnetic tape recorder’s flutter specification is usually expressed as a percent of peak or as a peak-to-peak value for what type of recorder? A. Audio * B. Instrumentation C. Video D. All of the above 30. The time-base error (TBE) magnetic tape recorder specification is closely related to flutter. Which of the following statements best reflects this relationship? A. TBE is an inverse measure of the effects of flutter on the stability of recorded data B. TBE is a direct measure of the effects of flutter on the frequency response of recorded data C. TBE is a direct measure of the effects of flutter on the stability of recorded data. * D. TBE is a direct measure of the effects of flutter on the bias level of recorded data. 31. The simplest way to measure a recorder’s TBE is with what test equipment? A. VTVM B. Sweep analyzer C. Oscilloscope * D. Ohmeter

32. There are two types of skew. What type does not show up when magnetic tapes are recorded and reproduced on the same magnetic tape recorder? A. Positive B. Dynamic C. Negative D. Fixed * 33. Which of the following is NOT a cause of dynamic skew? A. Gap scatter in the magnetic head stack * B. Sticking tape transport guides C. Warped magnetic tape D. Worn tape transport guides 34. Which of the following is NOT a format for digital magnetic tape recording? A. Serial-parallel B. Bi-phase * C. Serial D. Parallel 35. Which of the following digital magnetic tape recording formats is normally used for instrumentation recording when the input data rate is high? A. Serial-Parallel B. Serial * C. Both A and B above D. Bi-phase 36. The return-to-bias digital magnetic tape recording encoding method uses magnetic tape that is normally in a "neutral" condition. A. True B. False * 37. Which of the following digital magnetic tape encoding methods is the most widely used? A. RB B. NRZ * C. E-RZ D. RZ 38. Which of the four variations of NRZ encoding works best in high density magnetic tape recording and offers a bit error rate of one error per 1 million bits? A. E-NRZ-L * B. NRZ-L C. NRZ-M D. NRZ-S 39. Digital magnetic tape recorders are used to store and retrieve which of the following types of data? A. Computer programs B. Radar and other pulsed type signals C. Special signals with a bandwidth of less than 500 kHz D. Each of the above * 40. Telemetry digital magnetic tape recorders are frequently called wideband recorders. A. True * B. False 41. Floppy disks are made of round plastic disks coated with magnetic oxide particles and enclosed in a plastic jacket. A. True * B. False 42. When discussing floppy disks, what is meant by the "density" of a floppy disk? A. The thickness of the plastic disk B. How much the disk can store * C. The thickness of floppy disk jacket D. The number of sectors on the disk 43. 5-1/4" double density A. 1,200,000 bytes B. 720,000 bytes C. 360,000 bytes * D. 1,400,000 bytes 44. 5-1/4" high density A. 1,200,000 bytes * B. 720,000 bytes C. 360,000 bytes D. 1,400,000 bytes 45. 3-1/2" double density A. 1,200,000 bytes B. 720,000 bytes * C. 360,000 bytes D. 1,400,000 bytes 46. 3-1/2" high density A. 1,200,000 bytes B. 720,000 bytes C. 360,000 bytes D. 1,400,000 bytes * 47. Data is stored on floppy disks in circular "tracks." Each track is then broken up into arcs called "cylinders." A. True B. False * 48. When a floppy disk is sectored using the soft sectoring method, the computer software determines the sector size and placement. What is this process called? A. Centering B. Addressing C. Formatting * D. Rastering 49. When you handle, store, or ship floppy disks, which of the following statements is NOT a precaution you should take? A. Always store 8" and 5 1/4" floppy disks in their envelopes when not in use

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B. Always write on a floppy disk label first, and then place it on the disk C. Always lay floppy disks on their side when storing them * D. Always ship floppy disks in their appropriate shipping containers 50. Which of the following items can generate magnetic fields that can destroy data on a floppy disk? A. Paper clip B. Telephone C. Printer D. Both B and C above * 51. How can you erase a floppy disk? A. Record over it B. Degauss it C. Reformat it D. Both C and B above * 52. A computer places data on a hard disk by using one of what two methods? A. Cylinder or sector * B. Cylinder or circular C. Sector or quadrant D. Sector or record 53. Using the sector method, a hard disk drive locates a place on a hard disk with only one platter by using three location numbers. Which of the following is NOT one of those location numbers? A. Surface number B. Track number * C. Cylinder number D. Sector number 54. When you handle, store, or ship removable hard disks, which of the following statements is NOT a precaution you should take? A. Don’t touch any exposed recording surfaces B. Keep them away from food, liquids, and cigarette smoke C. Store them in an environment that stays between 32 to 95 degrees Fahrenheit and 40 to 85% relative humidity * D. Keep dirt, dust, etc., off of the recording surface by storing them in their case when not in use 55. How can you declassify a removable hard disk which contains classified information? A. Reformat it B. Degauss it C. Both A and B above D. Destroy it using the procedures in OPNAVINST 5510.1 * 56. Which of the following encoding methods is NOT used for encoding digital data onto magnetic disks? A. Sector encoding * B. Run length limited C. Modified frequency modulation D. Frequency modulation 57. Head arm assembly A. Holds and spins the floppy disk B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads * C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts D. Positions the heads over the disks 58. Drive electronics circuit board A. Holds and spins the floppy disk B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts * D. Positions the heads over the disks 59. Drive motor/spindle assembly A. Holds and spins the floppy disk * B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts D. Positions the heads over the disks 60. Actuator arm assembly A. Holds and spins the floppy disk B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts D. Positions the heads over the disks * 61. What part of a hard disk drive transport uses either a dc stepper motor or a voice coil to position the heads for writing data to the correct track of the disk pack? A. Drive motor/spindle assembly B. Head arm assembly C. Actuator arm assembly * D. Drive electronics circuit board 62. What part of a hard disk drive transport holds the four magnetic heads, and is attached to the transport’s actuator arm assembly? A. Cylinder assembly B. Head arm assembly * C. Sectoring assembly D. Drive motor/spindle assembly 63. Why do floppy disk drives require more preventive maintenance than hard disk drives? A. They are not sealed units B. Oxide coating from disks sticks to transport parts C. Both A and B above *

D. The drive circuit board is less protected 64. Which of the following is a main function of the control electronics part of a disk drive’s electronics component? A. Take incoming data from the interface electronics B. Spin the disk at the proper speed C. Move the heads across the recording surface D. Both B and C above * 65. Which of the following is a function of the interface electronics part of a disk drive’s electronics component? A. Convert data from the host computer from serial to parallel, and vice versa, as needed B. Receive write/read control signals from the host computer C. Receive control signals to format a disk from the host computer D. All of the above * 66. Which of the following is NOT one of the five most common disk drive interfaces in use today? A. Drive motor/spindle interface * B. Naval tactical data system interface C. ST-506/412 interface D. Enhanced small device interface 67. What type of disk drive interface is often used in the hard disk drives installed in older IBM-compatible desktop computers that have a maximum capacity of 125MB? A. Drive motor/spindle interface B. Enhanced small device interface C. ST-506/412 interface * D. Integrated drive electronics 68. What type of disk drive interface uses a high-level interface which requires only a logical sector number to locate the desired data on a disk? A. Enhanced small device interface B. Integrated drive electronics C. Drive motor/spindle interface D. Small computer systems interface * 69. What type of disk drive interface includes all of the controller card electronics in the hard disk drive and offers a transfer rate of up to 1 MB? A. Small computer systems interface B. Integrated drive electronics * C. Naval tactical data system D. Enhanced small device interface 70. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the SCSI disk drive interface over previous interfaces? A. Can handle disk drives of almost any size B. Disconnects itself from the host computer’s bus while it processes requests C. Can transfer data up to 24 Mbits/sec * D. Can daisy-chain up to eight units off of one controller 71. Indicates number of physical sectors that are between logical sectors on a hard disk A. Seek time B. Latency period C. Access time D. Interleave factor * 72. Total time it takes a disk drive to retrieve a sector of data A. Seek time B. Latency period C. Access time * D. Interleave factor 73. Time it takes for a magnetic head to position itself over a specific track A. Seek time * B. Latency period C. Access time D. Interleave factor 74. Time it takes a specific sector of a specific track to position itself under the magnetic head A. Seek time B. Latency period * C. Access time D. Interleave factor 75. The speed at which a disk drive and a disk drive controller working together can transfer data to the host computer is what disk recording specification? A. Seek time B. Transfer rate * C. Access time D. Interleave factor