prospectus pu-cet (p.g.) 2018. college, mukerian. 40 ggn khalsa college, civil lines, ludhiana 40 -...

1

(Established under the Panjab University Act VII of 1947- Enacted by the Government of India)

PU-CET (PG) FEE [Non-Refundable] General Category: Rs. 2100/-

SC/ST/PwD Category: Rs. 1050/- Additional Subject: Rs. 500/- per additional

subject

PROSPECTUS

PU-CET (P.G.) – 2018

Dates of Test: 10th

June 2018 (Sunday) &

11th

June 2018 (Monday)

Last date for submission of information on the website to

generate the Bank Challan: 19-05-2018 (Saturday) Website: http://cetpg.puchd.ac.in

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PANJAB UNIVERSITY ANTHEM

Tamso ma jyotirgamaya




Panjab vishaw vidyalaya

Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe

Mann mein tera aadar maan

Aur mohabbat sada rahe



Tu hai apna bhavishya vidhata

Pankh bina parwaaz sikhata

Jeevan pustak roz padha kar

Sahi galat ki samajh badhata

Jeevan pustak roz padha kar

Sahi galat ki samajh badhata

Teri jai ka shankh bajayein

Roshan tare ban jaayein

Vakhari teri shohrat

Teri shohrat sada sada rahe







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PU- CET (P.G.) – 2018

Contents Page No.

Number of Seats 4-8

Important Notes Common to all the Courses 9

Weightages (course-wise) 10

Fake & Derecognized Universities and Institutes 11

Eligibility Conditions, Scheme of Tests

12-28

Appendix A: Guidelines for General / Reserved Category/ Additional / NRI Seats 29-34

Appendix B: Guidelines for Admission to the Reserved Category of Sports 35-37

ANNEXURE I: Undertaking for achievements of Sports 38

ANNEXURE II: List of Games 39

ANNEXURE III: Grading Criteria for Sports Merit 40-41

ANNEXURE IV: Schedule of the verification of original sports certificates for the reserved category of sports

42-43

ANNEXURE V: Undertaking for attendance in sports ground 44

Appendix C: Specimen of Certificate for Reserved and additional category

SUB APPENDIX C1: Schedule Caste / Scheduled Tribe Certificate 45

SUB APPENDIX C 2: Backward Class Certificate 46

SUB APPENDIX C 2 (A): Self declaration proforma to be submitted by the person belonging to backward class at the time of recruitment/ admission

47

SUB APPENDIX C 3: Certificate for only girl child/ one out of two girl children 48

SUB APPENDIX C 4: Certificate for admission under Defence Category 49

SUB APPENDIX C 5: Certificate from the candidate from Border Area School 50

SUB APPENDIX C 6: Certificate from the candidate from Rural Area School 51

SUB APPENDIX C 7: Certificate of children/ grandchildren of Freedom Fighter 52

Appendix D: Specimen of Forms / Certificates for Medical Records 53-64

General Rules 65-68

Instructions for giving answers on OMR Answer Sheet 69

Sample Questions 70-119

Important Dates/ Information 120

Date sheet 121

Published by: Dr. Parvinder Singh, Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh

4

PANJAB UNIVERSITY, CHANDIGARH Number of Seats in Various Courses

Sr. No.

Courses Name of the Department/Institution offering the Course

No. of Seats

Seats for NRI Candidates

*

1. LL.M. (One-Year Course) (Semester System)

Department of Laws, P.U., Chandigarh.

42

4

LL.M. (One-Year Course) (Semester System) (Self Financing Course)

University Institute of Legal Studies (UILS), P.U., Chandigarh

40 4

LL.M. (2-Year Course) (Semester System) (Self Financing Course)

a) 20 (for Advocates/ Judicial/ Officer / Civil Servants discharging Judicial Duties)

e

b) 20 (for Fresh Law Graduates)

b) 20 (for Fresh Law Graduates)

2

2

LL.M. (2-Year Course) UIL, Panjab University Regional Centre,

Ludhiana. 26

2

2. i. M.C.A. (3-Year) Course (Semester System)

Department of Computer Science and Applications, P.U., Chandigarh.

34+2b

5

P.U., Regional Centre, Muktsar 20+2b

3

Panjab University Swami Sarvanand Giri, Regional Centre, Hoshiarpur

50+3c -

(Evening) (Self-Financing ) Department of Computer Science and Applications, P.U., Chandigarh.

46 +2b

6

3. M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication (2-Year) Course

School of Communication Studies P.U., Chandigarh.

30 5

4. Master in Public Health Centre for Public Health (University Institute for Emerging Areas in Science & Technology) PU, Chandigarh.

17+5d

2

5. M.A. (English) Department of English, P.U. Chandigarh. 95+5f

15

Department of Evening Studies-Multi Disciplinary Research Centre, P.U., Chandigarh

68

6. M.A. (Geography)

Department of Geography, P.U., Chandigarh.

51 7

7. Master in Disaster Management

25+3g

3

8. Master in Remote Sensing & GIS

25+3g

3

9. M.A. (History) Department of History, P.U., Chandigarh.

50 5

Department of Evening Studies-Multi Disciplinary Research Centre, P.U., Chandigarh

68

NOTE:

* Eligible NRI candidates, please consult the guidelines available at Page No. 32-33 of the

Prospectus.

bFor candidates who have studied computer science as one of the subjects for three Years or the subject as a full course at the under graduate level.

cEconomically weaker section

dOnly regular employees in Government organization and having atleast one Year service experience be admitted under, ―In-service‖ category. The candidate

has to produce ―No Objection Certificate‖ at the time of admission. eFor preparing merit list of admission, a special weightage of maximum upto 10 marks shall be given to candidates falling under this category i.e. ½ mark for

every completed Year of practice/employment. f

For students who have passed B.A. with Functional English. g

Sponsored by Govt. / Institutions

5

10. M.E. (Chemical)

University Institute of Chemical Engg. & Tech., P.U., Chandigarh.

20 2

11. M.E. (Food Technology) 10 1

12. M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engg.)

10 1

13. M.Tech. (Polymer) 15+5 (Part time) 2

14. M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 17 2

15. ME Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) (Regular programme)

NITTTR, Sector 26, Chandigarh.

6 -

16. M.E. (Electronics& Communication Engineering) (Regular Programme)

8 -

17. ME Computer Science & Engg. (Regular Programme)

5 -

18. ME Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) (Regular Programme)

5

-

19. ME Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Technology) (Regular Programme)

5 -

20. M.E. Electrical Engg. ( Power System)

University Institute of Engineering & Technology P.U., Chandigarh.

20h

2

21. M.Tech. Material Science & Technology

20h

2

22 M.E. Biotechnology 20h

2

23 M.E. Computer Science & Engineering

20h

2

24 M.E. Electronics & Communication Engineering

20h

2

25 M.E. Information Technology 20h

2

26 M.E. Mechanical Engineering 20h

2

27 M.Tech. Microelectronics 12+3 (SC/ST) 2

28

M.Com (Business Economics) DAV College, Sector-10, Chandigarh. 60 -

Guru Nanak Girls College, Model Town, Ludhiana.

60 -

29

Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business

GGDSD College, Sector – 32, Chandigarh.

40 -

Kamla Lothia S.D. College, Ludhiana. 40 -

30 M. Com. (Hons.) University Business School, P.U., Chandigarh.

27 3

31 M.Com (Business Innovation) S.C.D. Government College, Ludhiana. 40 -

32 MBA (Commerce & Information Technology)

MTSM College for Women, Ludhiana. (Only for Girls.)

80 -

33 Master of Business Administration for Executives

University Business School, P.U., Chandigarh. (Meant only for working professionals. Classes to be held in the evening).

30 3

34 Master of Physical Education

Department of Physical Education, P.U., Chandigarh.

28 2

35 Bachelor of Physical Education 34 2

hPreference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET(PG) will be given admission if some seats will be left

vacant after GATE QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ADMISSIONS.

6

M. Sc. (Hons.)

36 Biochemistry Department of Biochemistry, P.U., Chandigarh.

30+4j

4

37 Biophysics Department of Biophysics, P.U., Chandigarh.

3i

4

38 Computer Science Department of Computer Science & Applications P.U., Chandigarh.

11 2

39 Mathematics Department of Mathematics P.U., Chandigarh.

30 5

Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering &Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.

20 -

40 Physics & Electronicsk

(Self Financing Course) Department of Physics, P.U., Chandigarh.

20 3

41 Geology Department of Geology, P.U., Chandigarh

5 -

M. Sc. (Two-Year Course)

42 Bioinformatics GGDSD College Sector 32, Chandigarh. 15 -

43 Environment Science Department of Environment Studies, P.U., Chandigarh.

20 3

44 Human Genomics National Centre for Human Genomes Studies & Research, P.U., Chandigarh.

15 2

45 Nuclear Medicine Centre for Nuclear Medicine, P.U., Chandigarh.

10 2

46

System Biology and Bioinformatics

Centre for System Biology and Bioinformatics P.U., Chandigarh.

13 2

DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 15

-

GGDSD College, Sector 32, Chandigarh.

15 -

47

Microbial Biotechnology Deptt. for Microbial Biotechnology, P.U., Chandigarh.

20 2

Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, Sector 42, Chandigarh.

40 -

Sri Guru Gobind Singh College, Sector 26, Chandigarh.

40 -

48 Medical Physicsk

Centre for Medical Physics, P.U., Chandigarh.

10 2

49 Forensic Science & Criminology

Institute of Forensic Science & Criminology, P.U., Chandigarh.

19 + 1 (In-service candidate from govt.

organizations / autonomous institute

2

M. Sc. (Hons. / 2 Year Course)

50 Biotechnologyl

Department of Biotechnology, P.U., Chandigarh, offers Hons. course

5+2 (SC) 2

DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40


40

SGGS College, Sector-26, Chandigarh. 40

DAV College, Abohar. 40

Guru Nanak Girls College, Model Town, Ludhiana.

40

51 Botany Department of Botany, P.U., Chandigarh, offers Hons. course

25 4

S. Govt. College of Sci. Education & Research, Jagraon (Ludhiana).

40

2


40 -


40 -

Govt. College for Girls, Ludhiana 40 -

iThe data is based on the current strength of the students registered in B.Sc. (Hons.) 3rd Year. However, final number may vary depending upon how many B.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics,

students qualify and take admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics. j The data is based on the current strength of the students registered in B.Sc. (Hons.) 3rd year. However, final number may vary depending upon how many B.Sc. (Hons.)

Biochemistry, students qualify and take admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry. l Only those students who have cleared B.Sc. Biotechnology or B.Sc. with Biotechnology as elective / vocational course subject studied for 3 years are eligible.

7

52 Chemistry Department of Chemistry, P.U., Chandigarh, offers Hons. course

15

2

Post Graduate Govt. College, Sector 11, Chandigarh.

40 -


40 -

S. Govt. College of Sci, Education & Research, Jagraon (Ludhiana).

40

2

DAV College, Abohar. 40

Guru Nanak Girls College, M.T. Ludhiana.

40

GHG Khalsa College, Gurusar Sadhar, Ludhiana.

40 -

SGGS Khalsa College, Mahilpur Hoshiarpur.

40

DAV College, Sector-10, Chandigarh. 40

JCDAV College, Dasuya (Hoshiarpur). 40

Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering &Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.

20

S.P.M. College, Mukerian. 40

GGN Khalsa College, Civil Lines, Ludhiana

40 -

Khalsa College, Garhdiwala 40

53 Physicsk

Department of Physics, P.U., Chandigarh, offers Hons. course

40 6

DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40 -


40

JCDAV College, Dasuya (HSP). 40 -

DAV College, Abohar. 40 -

Guru Nanak Girls College, M.T., Ludhiana.

40 -

SGGS Khalsa College, Mahilpur. 40 -

Dev Samaj College, Ferozepur. 40 -

GHG Khalsa College, Gurusur Sadhar. 40 -

S.P.M. College, Mukerian. 40 -

Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering & Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.

20 -

BAM Khalsa College, Garhshankar, Distt. Hoshiarpur.

40 -

Guru Nanak National College, Doraha, Distt. Ludhiana.

40 -

Khalsa College for Women, Sidhwan Khurd

40 -

SCD Govt. College, Civil Lines, Ludhiana

40 -

8

54 Zoology Department of Zoology, P.U., Chandigarh, offers Hons. course

14 2

DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40 -

JC DAV College, Dasuya, Hoshiarpur. 40 -


40 -


40 -

Sri Guru Gobind Singh College, Sector 26, Chandigarh.

40 -

Faculty members are available in the respective Departments for consultation and guidance of students from 3:00 P.M to 4:00 P.M on working days.

9

Important Notes Common to all the Courses

1) Fee of Rs. 2100/- (Rs. 1050/- for SC/ST/PwD) is meant for only Online Application Form. A candidate can apply in more than one course also. However, he/she will have to pay an additional fee of Rs. 500/- for each additional course.

2) Candidate availing concession in the fee under category SC/ST/PwD OR Class B/C Regular Employee of PU must send the copy of printout of their Entrance Test Form along with Performa for claiming 50% concession to P.U. Regular Employees ("B" and "C" Class) duly signed by Head/Chairperson, to Assistant Registrar, CET Cell, Aruna Ranjit Chandra, Hall, Panjab University, Chandigarh-160014 by registered post/speed post or by hand on or before 25.05.2018 upto 4:00 PM

3) Qualifying an Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to seek admission in a course. The candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in and has to meet the eligibility requirements of the course.

4) The exact number of seats available for various M.Sc. (Hons.) courses may vary depending upon the number of candidates already studying in Panjab University B.Sc. (Hons.) course who are eligible for promotion to M.Sc. (Hons.).

5) The result of the Entrance Test will be available at http://results.puchd.ac.in. No separate Result Cards will be issued.

6) The University will publish Merit List of the candidates for all courses on the basis of attainment of a minimum of 20% (15% in case of candidates belonging to SC/ ST/BC/PwD) of aggregate of maximum marks in the Entrance Test taken as a whole.

7) The cut-off marks for passing the Entrance Test for admission to MA (Journalism & Mass Communication) is 40% of the total marks.

8) The pass percentage in case of Entrance Test in MA (English) and MA (History) is 35% (30% in case of candidate belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD).

9) The Scheme of Test for MBA for Executive (MBAfEX) will be of 85 marks and consists 85 multiple-choice questions of one mark each.

10) Candidates securing equal marks shall be bracketed together. Their inter-se merit will be determined by the Institution/Department/Centre to which they are seeking admission in accordance with the following criteria: a) Candidate getting higher percentage of marks in the qualifying examination shall rank

higher in order of merit. b) If the marks in qualifying examination are also the same then the candidate obtaining

more marks in the immediate lower examination, shall rank higher in order of merit. c) If two or more candidates secure equal marks in (a) & (b) above, the candidate senior in

age shall rank higher in the order of merit. 11) The final merit for admission shall be made by the concerned Department/Institute/ Center

after taking into account various admission criteria and weightage, if applicable. 12) The date-wise schedule of, Tentative Merit List (which will be updated after seeking

objections, if any); Provisional Merit List; Aptitude Test, Group Discussion, Personnel Interview etc., (wherever applicable); Counselling shall be put on the Online Notice Board of the department as well as Physical Notice Board (only for the courses offered in Panjab University Campus / Regional Centres).

10

The weightages as applicable to different courses are as follows:

Course

Weightage (%)

Entrance Test Qualifying Examination

LLM (Master of Laws) 80 20

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Application) 50 50

M.A. (Journalism and Mass Communication) 60 40

Master in Public Health 60 40

M.A. (English) 50 50

M.A. (Geography) 50 50

Masters in Disaster Management 50 50

Masters in Remote Sensing & GIS 50 50

M.A. (History) 50 50

M.E. (Chemical) 50 50

M.E. (Food Technology) 50 50

M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engg.) 50 50

M.Tech. (Polymer) 50 50

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 50 50

M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) Regular Programme 50 50

M.E. (Electronics and Comm. Engg.) (Regular Programme) 50 50

M.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Regular Programme) 50 50

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Tech. & Mgt.) (Regular Programme) 50 50

M.E. Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Tech.) Regular Programme 50 50

M.E. Electrical Engg. (Power System) 50 50

M.Tech. Material Science & Technology 50 50

M.E. Biotechnology 50 50

M.E. Computer Science & Engineering 50 50

M.E. Electronics & Communication Engineering 50 50

M.E. Information Technology 50 50

M.E. Mechanical Engineering 50 50

M.Tech. Microelectronics 50 50

M.A.B.E. 50 50

M.E.F.B. 85 15*

M. Com (Hons.) 85 15*

M.Com (Business Innovation) 50 50

MBACIT 50 50

Master of Business Administration for Executives (MBAfEX) 85 15*

M.P.Ed (Master of Physical Education) 50 50

B.P.Ed (Bachelor of Physical Education) 50 50

M.Sc. (Hons.)

Biochemistry /Biotechnology/ Botany/ Chemistry/ Physics / Biophysics /Computer Science/ Mathematics/Zoology/ Physics & Electronics/ Geology

60 40

M.Sc. (Two-Year Course)

Bioinformatics (being offered in the colleges affiliated to P.U.), Environment Science/ Human Genomics /Nuclear Medicine/ System Biology and Bioinformatics, Forensic Science & Criminology/ Microbial Biotechnology

50

50

M.Sc. (Two-Year Course) Medical Physics 60 40

* 7.5% marks Group discussion and 7.5% marks for personal interview.

11

Fake & Derecognized Universities and Institutes

The candidates who have passed/appeared in the qualifying examination from any of the following Universities (declared as fake by the UGC) are ineligible to appear in the Entrance Tests, as these institutions have been derecognized by the Panjab University.

1. Maithlli University/ Vishwavidyalaya, Darbhanga, Bihar. 2. Commercial University Ltd., Daryaganj, Delhi. 3. United Nations University, Delhi. 4. Vocational University, Delhi. 5. ADR-Centric Juridical University, ADR House, 8J, Gopala Tower, 25 Rajendra Place, New Delhi-

110008. 6. Indian Institute of Science and Engineering, New Delhi. 7. Badaganvi Sarkar World Open University Education Society, Gokak, Belgaum (Karnataka). 8. St. John‘s University, Kishanttam, Kerala. 9. Raja Arabic University, Nagpur. 10. D.D.B. Sanskrit University, Putur, Trichi, Tamil Nadu. 11. Indian Institute of Alternative Medicine, Kolkatta. 12. Institute of Alternative Medicine and Research, 8-A, Diamond Harbour Road, Builtech inn, 2nd Floor,

Thakurpurkur, Kolkatta - 700063. 13. Varanaseya Sanskrit Vishwavidyalaya, Varanasi (U.P.), Jagatpuri, Delhi. 14. Mahila Gram Vidyapith/ Vishwavidyalaya, (Women‘s University) Prayag, Allahabad (U.P.). 15. Gandhi Hindi Vidyapith, Prayag, Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh) 16. National University of Electro Complex, Homeopathy, Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh). 17. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose University (Open University), Achaltal, Aligarh (Uttar Pradesh). 18. Uttar Pradesh Vishwavidyalaya, Kosi Kalan, Mathura (Uttar Pradesh). 19. Maharana Partap Shiksha Niketan Vishwavidyalaya, Partapgarh (Uttar Pradesh). 20. Indraprastha Shiksha Parishad, Institutional Area, Khoda, Makanpur, Noida Phase-II, Uttar Pradesh. 21. Gurukul Vishwavidyalaya, Vrindawan (Uttar Pradesh). 22. Nababharat Shiksha Parishad, Anupoorna Bhawan, Plot No. 242, Pani Tanki Road, Shaktinagar,

Rourkela-769014. 23. North Orissa University of Agriculture & Technology, Odisha. 24. Bhartiya Shiksha Parishad, Lucknow, UP - the matter is subjudice before the District Judge -

Lucknow University de-recognized by Panjab University (Syndicate para 7, dated 20.03.2017)

1. E.I.I.L.M. University Sikkim degrees received after 2013-14

12

Eligibility Conditions and Scheme of Test

Master of Laws (L.L.M. One-Year Course and L.L.M. Two Year Course)

Eligibility Conditions

A person who has passed one of the following examinations shall be eligible after qualifying the entrance test to join the first semester class of the LL.M. Course:-

(a) LL.B. 3 Year Degree/ B.A. LL.B. / B.Com. LL.B. 5 Year degree examination of this University with minimum 55% marks (50% in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD candidates);

OR

(b) Any equivalent examination of another University recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.

Scheme of Test

The duration of the Entrance Test will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The Entrance Test will be of 100 marks. The questions will be based upon following four components:

S.No Components Marks

1. Constitution Law, Administrative Law, Service Law, Environmental Law and Human Rights.

50 MCQ (1 Mark Each)

2. Indian Penal Code (IPC), Cr. Pr. Code and Law of Evidence


3. Jurisprudence 10 MCQ (1 Mark Each)

4. Family Law, Law of Contract, Law of Torts, Public International Law, Labour Laws and Company Law.


Master of Computer Applications M.C.A. 3-Year Course and M.C.A. (Evening) (Self-Financing) 3-Year Course


The minimum qualification for admission to the first Year of the course shall be: i) A recognized first degree of minimum three Years‘ duration in any discipline from Panjab

University with at least 50% marks and with Mathematics at 10+2 or at graduation level (all three Years);

Or

ii) B.C.A. from Panjab University with 50% marks Or

iii) Any examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent to any of the above examinations i) or ii)

Scheme of Test

The test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall contain 75 Objective Type (Multiple choice questions with four responses i.e. A, B, C, & D) carrying one mark each. The questions will be based upon following four components:

Component No. of Questions

1 Mathematics (10+2 level) 40

2 Computer Science. 15

3 English. 10

4 Reasoning & Aptitude. 10

13

M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication


Passes one of the following examinations from a recognized University:-

(i) Bachelor‘s degree in any discipline with 50% marks in the aggregate.

OR

(ii) Bachelor‘s degree with at least 45% marks in the subject of Journalism & Mass Communication.

OR

(iii) Bachelor‘s degree with Hons. In the subject of Journalism & Mass Communication.

OR

(iv) Master‘s degree examination in any other subject.

Scheme of Test

The test of1 hour and 30 minutes duration will comprise of Objective & Subjective Type Questions for 65 marks out of the total 75 marks. The remaining 10 marks would be divided equally between the group discussion and interview to be held consequent to the entrance test. The test will be divided into five following components: 1. Article writing on current events 2. Precis writing 3. Feature, writing on personalities, reviews etc. 4. English Comprehension 5. Interpretative passage Candidates who clear the entrance test have to apply afresh in the School of Communication Studies. The cutoff marks for passing the Entrance Test for admission to MA (Journalism & Mass Communication) is 40% of total marks.

Master in Public Health Eligibility Conditions

Bachelor‘s degree in any discipline with at least 50% marks from recognized University/Institute. Scheme of Test

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions of one mark each. There will be 25 from Biological Sciences, 10 from Social Sciences, 25 from Health Sciences and Medical Vocabulary, 15 on Environment Sciences.

M.A. (English)


A person who has passed one of the following examinations from Panjab University or from any other University whose examination has been recognized equivalent to the corresponding examination of this University:

i. Bachelor‘s Degree obtaining at least 45% marks in English Elective or English Compulsory subject.

ii. Bachelor‘s Degree in any faculty with 50% marks in the aggregate. iii. B.A. with (Hons.) in English\ iv. B.A./B.Sc. with (Hons.) in subject other than English obtaining at least 50% marks in aggregate. v. Masters Degree examination in any other subject with 50% marks in aggregate. The pass

percentage in case of entrance test in English stands increased to 35% (30% in case of candidate belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD) w.e.f the session 2013-2014.

14

Scheme of Test

The written Test will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration and will carry 75 marks. The pattern of the CET should be as follows:

1. Write at least two paragraphs (total 400 words) on any of the one given topics / issues. 30 marks

2. Critical appreciation of a poem. 25 marks

3. Four short notes (approx 100 words) based on Topics related to literature. 20 Marks

MA (Geography)


A person shall be eligible only if:-

1. he/she has a Bachelor‘s Degree with atleast 50% marks in the aggregate. 2. he/she has passed in Geography in the B.A. or B.Sc. examination obtaining at least 45% marks;

OR has obtained Post-graduate diploma in Cartography with atleast second division.

Scheme of Test

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions of one mark each.

Masters in Disaster Management

Eligibility Condition

Graduation in any discipline with atleast 50% of aggregate marks from Panjab University or from any other University recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto. The candidates, except those sponsored by the government / institution should have passed the written Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the qualifying Examination as per the following criteria:-

Written Entrance Test: 50% Qualifying Examination: 50% Academic and other weightage(s), if any, will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible candidates in the Qualifying Examination as prescribed and admissible in PU rules. The candidates will have to appear for a personal interview as per the merit list. However, there will be no marks awarded for the interview. To qualify, a candidate must obtain 50% of the marks assigned to the written test. Candidates will be admitted as per merit, based on performance in the written test and qualifying examination put together.

Scheme of Test


Masters in Remote Sensing & GIS

Eligibility Condition

Bachelor‘s Degree with Geography/ Geology/ Geophysics/ Mathematics/Physics/ Botany/ Environment Science / Computer Science/ Urban Planning/ Regional Planning / B.Tech./ B.C.A. or Master‘s Degree in Geography / Geology/ Geophysics/ Mathematics/ Physics/Botany/ Environment Science / Computer Science / M.C.A./ Urban Planning/ Regional Planning with at least 50% marks in aggregate. The admission to the course shall be through Entrance Test in which a minimum score of 50% marks mandatory.

B.A./B.Sc./ M.A./ M.Sc. Geography students will be given additional weightage of 15% of the academic score at Bachelor‘s level.

The candidates, except those sponsored by the government/ institutions, should have passed the written Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the following Examination as per the following criteria:-

Written Entrance Test : 50%

Qualifying Examination : 50%

Academic and other weightage(s), if any, will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible candidates in the Qualifying Examination as prescribed and admissible under Panjab University rules. The

15

candidates will have to appear for a personal interview as per the merit list. However, there will be no marks awarded for the interview.

Scheme of Test


M.A. (History)


B.A. with Honours in History.

Bachelor‘s degree in any faculty with atleast 50% marks in the aggregate.

B.A. (PASS) / B.Sc. (PASS) examination in full subjects obtaining atleast 45% marks in the subject of History.

Master‘s degree examination in another subject or another faculty.

The pass percentage of entrance test in history is 35% (30% in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD) w.e.f. the session 2018-19.

The candidates should have passed the written Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the Qualifying Examination as per the following criteria:-

Written Entrance Test : 50% Qualifying Examination : 50% Academic and other weightages if any will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible candidates in the Qualifying examination.

Scheme of Test

Entrance Test to be of 1 hour 30 minutes of duration and of total of 75 marks. The test is divided into three units, i.e. Unit-I, II and III. Candidates will attempt 3 questions in all, selecting them from Unit-I, II & III. Candidates can write answers in English or Hindi or Punjabi languages.

Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. It consists of 08 concept related questions. Out of these 08, candidates will attempt any 05. Each question has to be answered in 80-100 words. Each question carries 05 marks. Total marks allotted to Question – I under Unit-I are 5x5=25 marks.

Unit-II consists of 04 Essay type Questions, from Question No. II to IV which are related to B.A. (General) History syllabus. Atleast one question in Unit-II should be set each from Ancient, Medieval, Modern periods of India History and the History of Punjab. Candidates will attempt any one question in Unit-II. Each question has to be answered in about 1000 words. Each question carries 25 marks.

Unit-III contains 02 questions i.e Question No. VI and VII, one from Current Affairs and another from Significant Contemporary themes in order to test comprehension and communication skills of the candidates. Candidates will attempt any one question in Unit-III. Each question has to be answered in about 1000 words. Each question carries 25 marks.

M.E. (Chemical) &

M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engineering)

Eligibility Conditions:

B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) - MBA with a CGPA of 6.00 or at least 60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination i.e. B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E. (Chemical) - MBA or any other equivalent qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate. The candidate shall be admitted on the basis of the PU-CET (P.G.) merit conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.). However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the seat in the first instance.

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Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during qualifying examinations.

M.E. (Food Technology)

B.E./ B.Tech. degree in Food Technology / Dairy Technology/ Agricultural Engineering / Food Engineering / Chemical Engineering / Chemical Technology (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA or any other equivalent qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate with a CGPA of 6.00 or at least 60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded). The candidate shall be admitted on the basis of the PU-CET (P.G.) merit conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.) Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.

Scheme of Test:


M.TECH. (POLYMER) B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year B.E.(Chemical) with MBA with a CGPA of 6.00 or at least 60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination i.e. B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA or any other equivalent qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate.

OR Master‘s degree in Technical Chemistry/Applied Chemistry/Industrial Chemistry/Chemistry (with Mathematics upto graduation or an equivalent examination) with at least 55% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other university recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. The candidate shall be admitted on the basis of the PU-CET (P.G.) merit conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.) test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the seat in the first instance. Scheme of Test:


M.Sc. (INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY)

B.Sc. (Three Year Course) with Mathematics and Chemistry as compulsory subjects/B.Sc. (Hons.) Chemistry/ B.Sc. (Hons.) Chemistry with Math as a compulsory subject/ B.Sc.(Three Year Course) with Industrial Chemistry and Mathematics as compulsory subject or any other equivalent examination as approved by the syndicate, Panjab University, Chandigarh. A candidate seeking admission must have obtained a minimum CGPA of 5.5 OR 55% marks (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination mentioned above. Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions of one mark each consisting of 20 questions in Physics, 20 questions in Chemistry, 20 questions

17

in Industrial Chemistry & 15 questions in Math. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during the qualifying examinations.

M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) (Regular Programme)


B.E. / B. Tech or equivalent in Instrumentation and Control/ Electronics/Electrical Engineering with atleast 60% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. Admission is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (PG) 2018 to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (PG) Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.

Scheme of Test

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering) (Regular Programme) Eligibility Conditions

B.E. or B. Tech or equivalent in Electronics /Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronics and Telecom Engineering with at least 60% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other university recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.

GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU–CET (P.G.)-2018 Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.

Scheme of Test

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M. E. (Computer Science & Engineering) (Regular Programme) Eligibility Conditions

B.E. or B.Tech or equivalent in Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. GATE qualified candidates shall be exempted from the PU–CET (P.G.) – 2018 Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat in the first instance. Scheme of Test

The duration of Entrance test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) (Regular Programme)

A Bachelor‘s Degree in Civil Engineering from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum CGPA of 6.75 of 60% marks in aggregate. Admission (against vacant seats) is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (P.G.)-2018 to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.)-2018 Test. However, in case eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.

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Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test shall be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Technology) (Regular Programme)


A Bachelor‘ Degree in Mechanical Engg./ Production Engg./ Industrial Engg./ Automobile engineering/ Manufacturing Technology from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum CGPA of 6.75 or 60% marks in aggregate. Admission (against vacant seats) is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (P.G.) to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview, GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.) Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance. Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test shall be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The question paper will consists of 75 multiple choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. Electrical Engineering (Power System) Eligibility Conditions:

Any candidate who has completed B.E./B.Tech. in Electrical/Electrical & Electronics Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. Mode of admission:

Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions. Scheme of Test:

The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electrical and Electronics Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A ,B C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M. Tech. Material Science & Technology

M.Sc. (Physics), M.Sc. (Chemistry), B.E. / B.Tech. Material Science/ Mechanical/Electrical/Electrical and Electronics/Civil/Production/Chemical with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. Mode of admission:


The question paper will be based on Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Material Science taught at undergraduate engineering level in Panjab University, Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

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M.E. Biotechnology


B.E .Biotechnology Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto Mode of admission:


The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Biotechnology Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) Eligibility Conditions:

B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent in Computer Science and Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. Mode of admission:


The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Computer Science and Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering) Eligibility Conditions:

B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent in Electronics / Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronic and Telecommunication Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. Mode of admission:

Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given admission if seats are left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions. Scheme of Test:

The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electronics / Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronic and Telecommunication Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M.E. (Information Technology) Eligibility Conditions:

B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent degree with at least 60% marks in aggregate in Information Technology / Computer Science & Engineering / Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electrical & Electronics

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Engineering / Computer Science & Electronics Engineering / Software Engineering from P.U. or any recognized University. Mode of admission:


There will be no separate test. However, admission will be based on PU-CET (PG) in CSE/ ECE/ EEE. The order of preference will be (i) CSE (ii) ECE (iii) EEE.

M.E. (Mechanical Engineering)


B.E./ B.Tech. in Mechanical Engineering / Production Engineering / Welding Technology / CAD / CAM with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto. Mode of admission:

Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:

The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Mechanical Engineering / Production Engineering / Welding Technology / CAD/ CAM taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)


B.E. / B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Computer Science and Engineering / Electrical / Electrical & Electronics / Electronics / Microelectronics / Electronics & Electrical Communications / Electronics & Telecommunication / Electronics & Communication / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering/ M.Sc. Applied Physics / M.Sc. Physics with specialization in Electronics or M.Sc. in Electronics (as approved by AICTE) with minimum 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab as equivalent thereto. Mode of admission:

Preference will be given GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given admission if seats are left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions. Scheme of Test:

The question paper will be based on the syllabus of B.E. / B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Computer Science and Engineering / Electrical / Electrical & Electronics / Electronics / Microelectronics / Electronics & Electrical Communications / Electronics & Telecommunication / Electronics & Communication / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering / M.Sc. Applied Physics/ M.Sc. Physics with specialization in Electronics or M.Sc. in Electronics taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple Choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

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M.Com. (Business Economics)


(i) A Bachelor‘s/ Master‘s degree in any discipline of the University or a Degree of any other University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto, with not less than 50% marks in the aggregate.

Or

(ii) Pass in the final examination conducted by (a) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, (b) The Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India and (c) the Institute of Company Secretaries of India.

Scheme of Test

The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice) with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The standard of the question paper shall be based on the latest syllabus prescribed for Bachelor‘s degree in Economics/Commerce of Panjab University (1

st, 2

nd and 3

rd Year together).

Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business Eligibility Conditions

(i) A Bachelor‘s/Master‘s degree in any discipline of the University or a Degree of any other University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto, with not less than 50% marks in the aggregate.

Or

(ii) A pass in the final examination conducted by (a) The Institute of Chartered Accounts of India, (b) The Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India and (c) The Institute of Company Secretaries of India.

Scheme of Test

The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice) with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will include questions related to General Knowledge, Verbal/Reasoning ability, Data interpretation and Commerce/Economics.

M.Com. (Honours) Eligibility Conditions

a) B. Com. / B. Com. (Hons.) / BBA with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate. Or

b) A graduate with Honours in Economics or Mathematics or Statistics or Commerce with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate;

Or

c) A graduate with 50% marks in the aggregate having offered either Economics, Mathematics, Statistics, Commerce, Computer Application, Information Technology or Computer Science as a subject in the examination. Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelors degree of the University through Modern Indian Languages [Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi (Gurmukhi Script)] and/or in a classical language (Sanskrit/Persian/ Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the same manner recognized by the Syndicate; 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into account full percentage of marks in all the papers in Language excluding the additional optional papers, English and Elective subject taken together.

Or

d) A pass of the Final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or England/Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India or England/ Institute Company Secretaries of India;

Or

e) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.

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Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise of one paper of 85 multiple choice (having four responses A, B, C & D) objective type questions of one mark each in the area of Accounting, Management, Laws and Economics. Merit list

The admission will be made on the basis of the Entrance Test (85% weightage), Group Discussion (7.5% weight age) and Personal Interview (7.5% weightage). The result of the Entrance Test, however, will not be sent to the candidates but will be conveyed confidentially to the Chairman, University Business (UBS) who will compile comprehensive result after the Group Discussion and Interview.

Note:

(a) The number of candidates to be called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview will be equal to eight times the total number of seats of the course in each category or the actual number of eligible candidates whichever is lower;

(b) Attendance in Group Discussion and Personal Interview is a must. If any candidate does not attend any one of the components, GD or PI, his / her candidature shall stand cancelled.

M.Com (Business Innovations)


The Entrance Test for M.Com (Business Innovations) shall be open to all such candidates who possess the qualifications as mentioned below:

(a) A Bachelor‘s degree in Commerce (B.Com) or Business Administration (B.B.A) with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR

(b) B.Com (Hons.) Degree with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR (c) A graduation with Honours in Economics OR Mathematics OR Statistics OR Commerce with not

less than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR (d) A graduation with 50% marks in the aggregate in any other discipline of the University or a degree

of any other University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto. Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelor‘s degree of the University through Modern Indian Languages (Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi/Gurumukhi script) and / or in a classical language (Sanskrit/Persian/ Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the same manner recognized by the Syndicate. 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into account full percentage of marks in all the papers in Language excluding the additional optional paper, English and the elective subject taken together;

(e) A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or England/ Institute of Cost Accountants of India or England;

(f) A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India; OR (g) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.

Scheme of Test:

The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks containing 75 Objective Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each. The Breakup of questions shall be as follows:

1. General Knowledge 15 Questions 2. Business Aptitude 20 Questions 3. Quantitative Aptitude 20 Questions 4. Test of Reasoning 20 Questions

Merit

Admission to M.Com (Business Innovation) shall be on the basis of the Entrance Test (Weightage 50%), and qualifying examination (Weightage 50%).

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Master in Business Administration, Commerce and Information Technology


BA /B.Sc. / B.Com./any other Graduation Degree with 50% from Panjab University or any other University recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto. Scheme of Test

The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice) with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will include 15 questions each on subject knowledge of Commerce, Economics, IT, Verbal ability/Reasoning and General awareness.

Master of Business Administration for Executives


The minimum qualification for admission to the first semester of the course shall be –

(i) A Bachelor‘s degree in any discipline of the University or a degree of any other University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto with not less that 50% marks in the aggregate.

Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelor‘s degree of the University through Modern Indian Languages (Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi (Gurmukhi Script) and/or in a Classical Language (Sanskrit/Persian/Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the same manner recognized by the Syndicate, 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into account full percentage of marks in all the papers in language excluding the additional optional paper, English and the elective subject taken together.

OR

A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or England / Institute of Cost Accountants of India or Chartered Institute of Management Accountants of England / Institute of Company Secretaries of India;

OR

Diploma in Personnel Management and Labour Welfare or Diploma in Marketing Management with not less than 60% marks in the aggregate, provided the candidate holds a Bachelor‘s degree.

(ii) Two Years whole time executive experience in a commercial or industrial establishment after having passed the qualifying examination as given above. Members of All India or State Administrative / Technical Services and Defence Personnel holding administrative positions with not less than two Years of executive experience will also be eligible. Organizational sponsorship is essential. The cut-off date for considering the Executive Experience (for admission during academic session 2018-19) is July 31, 2018.

Scheme of Test:

The Entrance Test will carry 85 marks and will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It will consist of 85 multiple-choice questions of one mark each and having four responses A, B, C & D. The components of the test will include: General Knowledge; Economics and Business Environment Awareness; Data interpretation and problem solving; Numerical Ability; Verbal Ability/ Reasoning and English Comprehension.

Merit List

The admission will be made on the basis of the Entrance Test (85% weightage), Group Discussion (7.5% weightage) and Personal Interview (7.5% weightage). The result of the Entrance Test, however, will not be sent to the candidates but will be conveyed confidentially to the Chairman, University Business (UBS) who will compile comprehensive result after the Group Discussion and Interview.

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Master of Physical Education


A person who has passed/appeared in any one of the following examinations:

a) Bachelor of Physical Education (B.P.Ed.) or equivalent with at least 50% marks. OR

Bachelor of Science (B.Sc. in Health and Physical Education) with at least 50% marks. b) The reservation in seats and relaxation in the qualifying marks for SC/ST/BC/PWD and other

categories shall be as per the rules of the Central Government/ State Government whichever is applicable.

c) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent to (a) and (b).

Admission Procedure

Admission shall be made on merit on the basis of marks obtained in the entrance examination (written test, fitness test, interview and percentage of qualifying examination) as per the policy of Panjab University. Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks, containing 75 Objective Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each. Questions will be based on the following three areas of Physical Education and Sports: (a) Aptitude (b) General Knowledge (c) Reasoning Ability.

Bachelor of Physical Education (Two-Year Course) Eligibility Conditions

A person who has passed/appeared in any one of the following examinations:

a) Bachelor‘s Degree in any discipline with 50% marks and having at least participation in the Inter-College/Inter-Zonal District/ School competition in sports and games as recognized by the AIU/IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;

OR Bachelor‘s Degree in physical education with 45% marks;

OR Bachelor‘s Degree in any discipline with 45% marks and studied physical education as compulsory elective subjects;

OR Bachelor‘s Degree with 45% marks and having participated in National / Inter University / State competitions or secured 1

st, 2

nd or 3

rd position in Inter College / Inter-Zonal /District / School

competition in sports and games as recognized by the AIU/ IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India; OR

Bachelor‘s degree with participation in International competitions or secured 1st, 2

nd or 3

rd position

in National / Inter-University competition in sports and games as recognized by respective federations / AIU/ IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;

OR Graduation with 45% marks and at least three Years of teaching experience (for deputed in-service candidates i.e. trained physical education teachers / coaches)

b) The relaxation in the percentage of marks in the qualifying examination and in the reservation of

seats for SC/ST/BC/PwD and other categories shall be as per the rules of the Central Government / State Government, whichever is applicable.

c) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent to above points.

Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks containing 75 Objective Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each. Questions will be based on the following three areas of Physical Education and Sports: (a) Aptitude (b) General Knowledge (c) Reasoning Ability

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M.Sc. (Hons.) in Biophysics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Botany, Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics, Physics & Electronics, Zoology and Geology


B.A./ B. Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) of the Panjab University or any other examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto with the subject desirous of seeking admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Course as an elective subject for three Years.

For Entrance Test to M. Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics B.A. / B. Sc. (General) with 50% marks (45% marks in

case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) Mathematics from the colleges affiliated to Panjab University or from other Universities as recognized by the Panjab University. The candidates who are already students of Panjab University Teaching Department and have passed/appeared/appearing in the B.Sc. (Hons.) final examination of the University during the current session in the relevant subject are not required to appear in the M.Sc. (Hons.) Admission Entrance Test. Their admission to the course shall be governed by the

relevant rules and regulations of the University.

For M.Sc. (Hons.) Physics:- B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination of P.U. or any other exam. recognized as

equivalent thereto with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) with Physics and Mathematics as elective subjects.

For M.Sc. (Hons. ) Physics & Electronics:- B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with Physics and

Mathematics as elective subjects, or B.Sc. (Electronics) or B.Tech. / B.E. (Electronics / Electrical / Mechanical or equivalent) with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) of P.U. or any other exam. recognized as equivalent thereto. For M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics:- B.Sc.(Hons.) in Biophysics of Panjab University or B.Sc/B.Sc.(Hons.) in

Biophysics/ Bioinformatics / Biotechnology of the Panjab University or any other examination recognized as equivalent or B.Sc. with i) Physics, ii) Chemistry and iii) any one of the subject from life sciences during all the three Years of the graduation.

For M.Sc. (Hons.) Chemistry:- Passed B.Sc. (Hons.) in Chemistry from department of Chemistry, P.U.

ii)B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with 50% marks from PU or any other University recognized as equivalent thereto with (a) Chemistry in all the three years/six semesters and (b) any two science subjects during two years/four semesters during graduation

For M.Sc. (Hons.) Biotechnology: B.Sc. Biotechnology with 50% marks or B.Sc. (50% marks) with

Biotechnology as Elective/Vocational on subject (studied for 3 Years) are eligible.

For M.Sc. (Hons.) Geology: B.Sc. 3 year‘s course with Geology as one of the subjects with 50% marks in

B.Sc. & 50% marks in subject of Geology in B.Sc.

For M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry:- B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry or its equivalent exam OR B.Sc. (Pass or

Hons.) exam with 50% from any other exams recognized by P.U. as equivalent thereto with Biochemistry as one of the elective subjects. Note: B.Sc. (MLT) Course has not been made equivalent to B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry of Panjab

University.

Scheme of Test

The question paper will be on the concerned subject for which the admission to M.Sc. (Hons.) is being sought by the candidate. It will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. The standard of the question paper shall be based on latest syllabus prescribed for Bachelor‘s degree of Panjab University (1

st, 2

nd and 3

rd Year together) in the relevant subject.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Computer Science


BCA/B.Sc. (Hons. ) in Computer Science/ B. Tech. / B.E. (Computer Science/ Engineering) or any other examination recognized as equivalent thereto with 50% marks.

Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test will be of 75 marks. It will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration consisting of 75 multiple choice questions of Computer Science subject at the level of examinations as mentioned in the eligibility conditions.

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M.Sc. (Two-Year Course) Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Botany, Physics, Chemistry, Medical Physics, Nuclear Medicine, Forensic Science & Criminology and Zoology Environment Science, Human Genomics, System Biology and Bioinformatics Microbial Biotechnology

Eligibility for different courses

Bioinformatics:

Bachelor‘s degree in Science (General or Hons.) with Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Biology, Botany, Chemistry, Electronics, Genetics, Life Science, Mathematics, Mathematics & computing, Microbiology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology, Agriculture, computer Science, Engineering, Medicine, Pharmacy and Veterinary Science with at least 50% marks (45% for candidates belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD category). Biotechnology (in colleges):

Bachelor‘s degree (under the 10+2+3 pattern of Education) in Physical, Biological, Pharmaceutical, Agricultural, Veterinary or Fishery Sciences or Bachelor‘s degree in Engineering/ Technology, Home Science, Medicine (MBBS) from any University/ Institute recognized by the Panjab University. The candidate must have obtained at least 55% marks at the Bachelor‘s degree level. Botany:

B.Sc. pass with Botany having at least 50% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or from any other University recognized by Panjab University Syndicate as equivalent thereto. Physics:

a. B. Sc. Hons. examination of the Panjab University in the subject of M. Sc. Course b. B. Sc. Examination of the Panjab University or any other University recognized by Syndicate

securing at least 50% marks in aggregate (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) and with Physics & Mathematics for M.Sc. Physics Course and with Chemistry & Mathematics for M. Sc. Chemistry course along with anyone of the following subjects:- Biochemistry, Botany, Chemistry, Geology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology

Provided that a student who had not taken Mathematics as one of the subjects in B. Sc. Examination may be admitted to M.Sc. (2-Year Course) in Chemistry on the condition that he / she passes an additional paper in Mathematics (50 hour course) in the first Year examination securing at least 40% marks.

c. Awarded B.Sc. Pass degree under the old B.Sc. Honours regulations by the Syndicate on the recommendation of the Board of Control:

d. B.Sc. Honours examination in the subject of the M.Sc. From any other University recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent to (a);

Chemistry:

a. B.Sc. examination of the Panjab University or any other University recognized by the Syndicate securing at least 50% marks in aggregate and with Chemistry & Mathematics for M.Sc. Chemistry course along with any Science subject. Provided that the student who had not taken Mathematics as one of the subjects in B.Sc. examination may be admitted to M.Sc. ( 2 Year course) in Chemistry on the condition that he/she passes an additional paper in Mathematics (50 hours course) in the first Year examination securing at least 40% marks.

b. B.Sc. Pass Degree under the old B.Sc. Honours regulations awarded by the Syndicate on the recommendation of the Board of Control in the subject of M.Sc. course.

c. B.Sc. examination with 50 per cent marks in aggregate from any other University recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent to (a).

d. B.Sc. (Honours) examination of Panjab University or of any other University (recognized as equivalent thereto) in the subject of M.Sc. course.

Medical Physics

Admission to M.Sc. Course in Medical Physics will be B.Sc. (Regular course) first class with Physics as core subject (studied for three Years) and Mathematics as one of the subjects (studied for minimum two Years) form a recognized university. The candidates who studied B.Sc. through correspondence and open university stream are not eligible. Course duration is 3 Years (2 Years teaching + 1 Year internship).

27

The Entrance Test for Physics, Physics & Electronics and Medical Physics will be common. Forensic Science & Criminology

B.Sc./ B.Sc. Honours degree with 50% marks in aggregate, in Forensic Science or any other graduation degree 3/4/5 Year duration in the Faculty of Science , Engineering, Medical / Dental and Pharmaceutical Science of Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University with minimum 55% marks (5% relaxation in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD). Nuclear Medicine:

Minimum qualification for admission to M.Sc. first Year in Nuclear Medicine will be B.Sc. from a recognized university with Physics and Chemistry (Non medical stream) or Chemistry and Zoology/Biotechnology (Medical stream) as core subjects. Candidates having B.Sc. in Nuclear Medicine/ Biophysics shall also be eligible for admission to the course. Candidates with B.Sc. degree in X-ray/ Medical Technology, B.Sc. through Correspondence and open university stream are not eligible.

Admission to M.Sc. Course in Nuclear Medicine will be through Entrance Test to be conducted by Panjab University. The candidates should have passed the graduation (B.Sc.) from a recognized University / Institute with at least 50% marks. While deciding the final merit of the Entrance Test, a weightage shall also be given to the B.Sc. marks obtained by the candidate, as per the University rules. The cut off percentage marks secured in the entrance test will also be as per University rules. Zoology:

B.Sc. with Zoology having at least 50% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or from any other University recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto.

Scheme of Tests for above courses

The scheme of the test for admission to M. Sc. (Two Year Courses) as given above offered at different colleges affiliated to Panjab University will be same as applicable for M. Sc. (Hons ) in the respective subjects except Bioinformatics. The candidates may be admitted to M.Sc. (Hons. ) at Panjab University Campus or affiliated colleges on the basis of final merit lists. For M.Sc. Bioinformatics: The question paper will consists of 75 objective type questions (Multiple choice

with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. The syllabi and standard for the question paper shall be the one as currently prescribed for Bachelor‘s Degree of Panjab University (1

st , 2

nd and 3

rd Year together).

For M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology: Admission to M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology shall be

through P.U.- CET (P.G.) conducted by Panjab University. The admission will be on merit, based upon the marks obtained in PU-CET (P.G.) and marks obtained at undergraduate degree alongwith admissible weightage as per University Rules. Format for Entrance Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology:

The question paper will comprise of Section A and Section B carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 90 minutes duration. Section A will have 25 questions of General Sciences at 10+2 level to test the knowledge of fundamentals. Section B will have four sub-sections namely, Biology, Chemistry, Forensic Science and Physics with 25 questions each from graduation level. The candidate has to select ANY TWO of the four sub-sections from Section B for answering questions.

M. Sc. (Microbial Biotechnology) (Two- Year Course)


Candidates having Bachelors Degree in any field of Biological Sciences including Biotechnology are eligible. Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It shall comprise 75 multiple-choice questions (with only one right answer) of one mark each. The questions will be based on fundamentals of Microbiology and Biotechnology.

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M.Sc. (Environment Science) (Two-Year Course) Eligibility Conditions

The candidates with B.Sc. from all streams and any other stream with honours in Geography as one of the subject and B.E. in any stream. Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It shall comprise 75 multiple-choice questions (with only one right answer) of one mark each from the Botany, Chemistry, Geography, Geology, Mathematics, Physics, Sociology, Statistics, Zoology and General Awareness subjects of graduation level. It shall attempt to test the intelligence, comprehension of the scientific principles and general knowledge expected of a science graduate.

M.Sc. (Human Genomics) (Two-Year Course)


B. Sc. (Pass or Honours) under 10+2+3 pattern examination of the Panjab University or any other examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto in Physical, Chemical, Biological, Pharmaceutical Sciences or Medicine with at least 55% marks. Scheme of Test

The Entrance Test will be of 75 marks. It will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration consisting of 75 multiple choice questions (with only one correct answer) of 1 Mark each from six disciplines representing Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology, Pharmaceutical Sciences and Medicine.

M.Sc. (Systems Biology and Bioinformatics) (Two-Year Course)


Bachelor‘s degree in Science (General or Hons.) with Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Biology, Botany, Chemistry, Electronics, Genetics, Life Science, Mathematics, Mathematics & Computing, Microbiology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology, Agriculture, Computer Science, Engineering, Medicine, Pharmacy and Veterinary Science with at least 50% marks (45% for candidates belonging to SC/ST/BC /PwD category).

Scheme of Test

The question paper will consists of 75 objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. The syllabi and standard for the question paper shall be the one as currently prescribed for Bachelor‘s Degree of Panjab University (1

st, 2

nd and 3

rd Year together).

29

APPENDIX A

GUIDELINES FOR GENERAL / RESERVED CATEGORY/ ADDITIONAL /NRI SEATS

IMPORTANT NOTE:

Admission in all categories shall be made subject to fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and in accordance with the provisions contained in the Handbook of Information and Rules for Admission, 2018.

A. Seats: General and Reserved

1) Generally 53.5% of the seats in each course shall be treated as belonging to the General Category. 2) 46.5% seats shall be treated as belonging to the Reserved Category, as per details given below: (i) 15% for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes.

(ii) 7.5% for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Tribes.

(iii) 5% for candidates belonging to the Backward Classes

Provided that the reservation in (i) and (ii) can be inter-changeable, i.e. if sufficient number of applicants is not available to fill up the seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes, they may be filled up by suitable candidates from Scheduled Castes, and vice versa. The above reservation shall be subject to the following conditions:

a. the number of students admitted on merit shall not be included in the number of seats reserved; b. members of Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes/Backward Classes/PwD shall be allowed a

concession of 5% marks for admission to the courses in which a certain percentage of minimum marks has been prescribed provided they have obtained minimum pass marks prescribed by the regulations;

c. in case the seats earmarked for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes remains unfilled, a further relaxation in marks may be given, in order of merit inter-se amongst the candidates themselves, so that all the reserved seats are filled by candidates belonging to these categories; and

d. A Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe person on migration from the State of his origin will not loose his status as Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe but he/she will be entitled to the concessions/benefits admissible to the Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes from the State of his origin and not from the State where he has migrated. [Regulation 29.1, P.U. Cal. Vol. 1, 2007 (Page 168)].

(iv) 5% seats will be horizontally reserved for persons or class of persons with Disability (PwD)* out of which 1% each shall be reserved for persons suffering from the disabilities specified under the RPWD 2016 Act: A) Physical Disability

I Locomotor disability i. Leprosy cured persons

ii. Cerebral palsy iii. Dwarfism iv. Muscular dystrophy v. Acid attack victims

II Visual Impairment

i. Blindness ii. Low Vision

III Hearing Impairment

i. Deaf ii. Hard of Hearing

IV Speech and language disability

* Claimant in this category should be capable of pursuing the course for which the admission is sought. The Persons with Benchmark Disability (as per section 2 (r) of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities [RPWD] Act 2016 should have a minimum of 40% disability duly certified by the Medical Board of District/State/UT/Medical Institution of National Importance. Such certificate shall be further certified by the Medical Board of the Panjab University Health Centre.

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B) Intellectual disability i. Specific learning disabilities

ii. Autism spectrum disorder

C) Mental behavior (Mental Illness) D) Disability caused due to

I Chronic neurological conditions due to: (i) Multiple sclerosis (ii) Parkinson‘s disease

II Blood Disorder (i) Haemophilia (ii) Thalassemia (iii) Sickle Cell disease

E) Multiple Disabilities (Deaf Blindness) F) Any other category as may be notified by the Central Government

a) If 5% of reservation of seats comes to 0.5 to 0.9, it shall be treated as one seat. However, if after calculating seats on the basis of 5%, the number of seats is divisible by 5, equal distribution of seats will be made for all the five categories. If after the division, any remainder is left, it shall be distributed on the basis of inter-se merit amongst all the five categories. If the seats after calculating on the basis of 5% comes to less than 5 it shall be distributed on the basis of inter-se merit amongst all the five categories.

b) In the absence of availability of candidates in any of the categories, the seats shall be interchanged inter-se.

c) If seats reserved for Persons with Bench mark Disabilities remained unfilled, these shall be treated in the sanctioned strength of seats for General Category.

(v) 5% for candidates on the basis of achievement in Sports (see separate guidelines on pp. 35-37).

(vi) 5% for candidates belong to Defence (for all the under-mentioned categories taken together) for candidates who fall in one of the following categories (which are given there in order of precedence) :-

1. Son/Daughter/Spouse of such Defence personnel and CAPF personnel1whodiedinaction. (Only

those who were wholly dependent on such personnel shall be considered). 2. Son/Daughter/Spouse who is wholly dependent on such Defence& CAPF Personnel who

were incapacitated2/died while in service.

3. Defence and CAPF personnel who were incapacitated while in service. 4. Son/daughter/spouse of ex-servicemen

3 who are wholly dependent on them.

5. Son/daughter/spouse of serving Defence personnel and CAPF who are wholly dependent on them.

6. Ex-Servicemen 7. Serving Defence personnel and CAPF personnel

(vii) 2% for Sons/Grandsons/Daughters /Granddaughters/ Husband / Wife / Brothers / Sisters of persons killed/incapacitated in November, 1984 riots and of persons killed / incapacitated in terrorist violence in Punjab and Chandigarh. A Certificate from the District Magistrate to this effect must be submitted by the candidate. Migrant Card alone is not enough.

For admission to evening courses, categories 2,4 and 5above will not be considered since the term `wholly dependent' will exclude such persons as are `employed' or `self-employed'.

(viii) 2% for the Children/Grand Children of Freedom Fighters who have been sanctioned pension

by Central/State Govt. or awarded Tamra Patra by Government of India (Syndicate Para 15, dated 30-5-1997) or those who have been certified to be Freedom Fighters by the Central/State Govts.

(ix) Any other statutory reservation as prescribed by the Govt. of India, if any.

1. CAPF earlier known as Para-military forces, includes Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), National Security Guard (NSG), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) etc.

2. Incapacitation will mean incapacitation leading to the discharge of the person by concerned authorities 3. Ex-serviceman means a person who has served in any rank whether as a combatant or non-combatant in the regular Army, Navy

and Air Force of the Indian Union / or in CAPF:- i) Who retired from the service after earning his/her pension; or ii) Who has been boarded out of the service on medical grounds attributable to military service / CAPF or Circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; or iii) Who has been released from the service as a result of reduction in establishment ; or iv) Who has been released from the service after completing the specific period of engagement, (otherwise than at his own request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency) and has been given a gratuity. Territorial Army Personnel of the following categories shall also be considered as ex-servicemen:- (a) Pension holders for continuous embodied service. (b) Disabled Territorial Army Personnel with disability attributable to military service. (c) Gallantry award winners.

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Additional Seats :-

(a) Wards of Kashmiri displaced persons.

(i) Relaxation in cut-off percentage upto 10% Subject to minimum eligibility requirement. (ii) Increase in intake capacity upto 5% course wise. (iii) Reservation of at least one seat in merit quota in technical/professional institutions. (iv) Waiving off domicile requirements. Documents required:

A candidate seeking admission against this seat is required to produce a certificate from an authorised Government Officer (i.e. Relief Commissioner / Deputy Commissioner of the concerned district / area) to the effect that the candidate is a ward of Kashmiri displaced person.

Proof of current residence (such as Ration Card/ Photo Identity Card issued by the Election Commissioner / Driving License / Aadhaar Card / Passport etc.)

The admission of a candidate against this category shall be provisional subject to verification of his / her above mentioned certificates by the competent authority.

(b) Wards of Martyrs/permanent disabled of Kargil War.

Concession be given for admission to various courses in Educational Institutions up to academic year 2020-21 only to those wards of martyrs/permanent disabled (up to 80% leading to incapacitation) of Kargil war who have a valid certificate from the Ministry of Defence to this effect and the same be entered in the pension Book of the family: 1. 1% seats with minimum of 1 seat in the Departments and affiliated Colleges except in partially financed/self-financing courses. 2. Exemption in fee. 3. Exemption in hostel fee. (c) One Girl Child out of the only two girl Children

1. Two additional seats per unit per course subject to maximum limit of four (4)out of the two girl children from the session 2015-16 are created for admission to a given course in the Panjab University Teaching Departments, Regional Centres and its affiliated Colleges provided they are otherwise eligible from all angles. The additional seats will be only for those girl Children who are either a single girl child of her parents or one amongst the only two girl Children with no male Child. The additional seat will be available to only one of the two girl children of a couple. 2. A certificate is to be obtained from the parents of the girl children declaring therein that the benefit of this scheme is being claimed for only One Girl Child out of the two girl Children and the parent shall not claim the same for the 2nd girl child elsewhere in future the specimen of the certificate is enclosed. (d) Cancer/ AIDS / Thalassemia:

One additional seat each for the student suffers from Cancer / AIDS / Thalassemia has been allowed for admission in each course in the Panjab University Teaching Departments, Regional Centres and its affiliated Colleges subject to the condition that the candidate seeking admission under each of these categories if otherwise eligible from all angles. The claimant candidate will have to submit a certificate as a proof of from the National Medical Institute like PGI, AIIMS etc. in support of his/her claim. (e) Two Additional Seats for Rural Area Students

Only those candidates will be considered in this category, who have passed their Matriculation and +2 examination from those rural schools that do not fall in the area of the Municipal Corporation/Municipal Committee/ Small Town/Notified Area/Cantonment Area. Further, the candidates should have been studying in such school for atleast five years before passing the last examination. A candidate claiming such benefit will have to produce a certificate from the D.E.O./Principal of the concerned institute of the area certifying that the school from where the candidate has passed the Matriculation and +2 examination, falls within the aforesaid rural area. (f) One Additional seat for Border Area Students

The Border area students shall mean those candidates who have passed their Matriculation and +2 examination from the Border Area Schools situated within 20 kilometres from the International Border. A candidate claiming such benefit will have to produce a certificate from the Tehsildar or the Principal/Headmaster/Head of the School certifying that the School from where the candidate has passed the matriculation and +2 examination, falls within the aforesaid Border area.

32

(g) One Additional Seat for Youth Festival

In all the teaching courses (except the courses governed by AICTE / NCTE / BCI / MCI / DCI etc.) being run in the Panjab University Campus including constituent colleges / regional centres / affiliated colleges, one additional seat is reserved per unit for those candidates who have excelled and outperformed by their participation in the Youth Festivals. The candidate availing the aforesaid facility must fulfill the eligibility condition for admission to the particular course. For those courses to which the admission is to be done on the basis of entrance test, the candidate must have passed the entrance test. The selection of such candidates for admission to various courses at PU Campus/ regional centres / constituent colleges / affiliated colleges, will be made by the respective admission committees. For recommending admission on the basis of youth festival participation, admission criterion will be fixed on the basis of merit as mentioned below and upon the verification of the original certificates of those candidate, who : (A) have presented an item in an international cultural festival approved by Punjab Govt. /Govt. of India /

Panjab University . (B) have got distinction in All India National Inter University Youth Festival organized by AIU / Govt. of

India (C) have got distinction in North Zone Inter University Youth Festival organized by AIU. (D) have secured first/second/third position in Inter University Youth Festival organized by Govt. of

Punjab/ any State or Central University . (E) have secured first/second / third position in Panjab University Inter Zonal Festival. (F) have secured first /second /third position in Panjab University Zonal festival (G) have secured first/second/ third position in state level competition of State School Education Board

of Punjab/ Haryana / HP/ or CBSE/ICSE or any other recognised board Category A is considered as highest category followed by B, C …. onwards. Preference will be given to the candidate who represented Panjab University Chandigarh in A, B, C

and D category Achievement(s) only during the preceding 3 years of the year of the admission will be considered In case two or more candidate have equal position at equal level then : i. Position secured in an individual item shall be rated higher as compared to as a team. ii. The eligibility of the candidate for participation in university youth festivals, in future, may also be

considered. iii. Academic record may be considered in case of tie between two or more candidate.

In case of any ambiguity, the related certificates be got verified from the Department of Youth Welfare through the concerned Chairperson / Principal / Head etc. The candidate admitted on the basis of youth festival additional quota seats shall have to give an assurance to the university authorities that during the duration of the course the candidate will participate in the activities associated with his item and will not create any kind of indiscipline. The admission committee will assess the participation of the candidate and in case the candidate does not fulfill the requirements, his admission may be cancelled. However, exemption can be given because of a special reason like sickness or any other unavoidable reason in inter varisty Youth Festivals, National Festivals and International Festivals.

NRI Seats*

1. That 10% seats over and above the total number of regular seats in each course are reserved for the NRI candidates.

2. That NRI candidates seeking admission to any course will be required to produce the Test Scores of Scholastic Aptitude Test-II (SAT-II) with permissible combination of subjects, conducted by the Educational Testing Service, Princeton, U.S.A., for admission to under graduate courses. Graduate Record Examination (General) (GRE) from Princeton, U.S.A. or GMAT for admission to Post Graduate Courses. In case of foreign nationals (non English speaking countries), TOEFL/IELTS scores should also be produced.

3. That NRI candidates shall compete amongst themselves for admission to various courses. Their inter-se merit shall be determined on bases of the score obtained in SAT-II, GRE, GMAT etc.

4. A candidate once admitted as NRI candidate in an undergraduate course shall be covered under the

definition of NRI for subsequent admission to any Course at Panjab University.

5. That candidates who take admission under the NRI quota and are promoted from Undergraduate to Postgraduate course in the Hons. School framework (ongoing program) shall not be allowed to change their category.

33

6. That a candidate admitted under NRI quota may change his/her admission to vacant seat provided the

candidate falls within the merit of admitted candidates in General or Reserve Category.

7. That NRI candidate shall have to comply with any other requirements prescribed by the Govt. of India and Panjab University from time to time.

8. That for admission to B.P.Ed and M.P.Ed ( Physical Education), a candidate will be required to undergo mandatory Physical Efficiency Test. The scores of Physical Efficiency Test will be counted for determining merit.

9. That NRI candidates shall provide the following certificates/ documents:- a. Academic certificates of passing the qualifying or equivalent examination approved by the

Association of Indian Universities (AIU)/Commonwealth Universities/International Association of Universities (IAU) as equivalent to the corresponding Indian Degrees/Certificates.

b. Test Score of Scholastic Aptitude Test II (SAT-II)/ GRE/GMAT/TOEFL/IELTS ETC.

10. That seats created for NRI quota shall not be allowed to be converted into General Category.

Non-Resident Indian (NRI)

Only the following categories of students or candidates will be eligible or entitled for consideration for admission in the NRI Quota:

i) Persons of Indian Origin who are citizens of countries other than India and hold the passport of the country concerned.

ii) Overseas Citizens of India. iii) Children i.e. sons/daughters of Persons of Indian Origin (who may, or may not, be citizen of

countries other than India), or of Overseas Citizens of India, provided they have resided in a country other than India for a minimum period of three years immediately preceding the year of admission in the University.

iv) The eligibility or entitlement under clauses (ii) and (iii) above would extend also to grandchildren, whose parents are not alive or, at least, whose father is not alive at the time of seeking admission in the University, and who can, therefore, be treated as being ―wards‖ of their grandparents who are Persons of Indian Origin (who may, or may not, be citizens of countries other than India), or Overseas Citizens of India, provided such grandchildren have resided in a country other than India for a minimum period of three years immediately preceding the year of admission in the University.

Explanation:

a) The aforesaid condition of residence for a minimum of three years in a country other than India prescribed in Clauses (iii) and (iv) above means actual/physical residence on a regular basis. Notional, deemed or constructive residence of any kind shall not be considered for this purpose. Accordingly, the possession of a Green Card will ipso facto not confer eligibility or entitlement for admission.

b) The expression ―Overseas Citizens of India‖ in Clauses (ii) to (iv) above refers to persons registered as such under Section 7-A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 as amended up-to-date.

It is made clear that no person other than persons falling under Clauses (i) to (iv) read with Explanation (a) and (b) above will be eligible for or entitled to admission in the NRI quota. Foreign Nationals

Admission of the Foreign Nationals will be considered only if the case has been sent to Panjab University by Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) or any Ministry of Govt. of India subject to the condition that the Foreign National is eligible to seek admission as per the regulation of the course. The seats for the eligible Foreign nationals will be additional to the already notified seats, subject to the maximum of 5% of the total sanctioned seats of the course.

34

NOTE:

Specimen of forms of certificates to be attached to admission forms wherever applicable has been provided in the prospectus (pp. 45-64) While working out the percentage of seats in the reserved categories, if the number arrived at contains a fraction, this shall be resolved as follows:

If the fraction is 0.5 or more, it shall be rounded off to 1; if it is less than 0.5, it shall be ignored. This shall, however, not affect the total number of seats in the open category. To ensure this, if the total number of seats after making this adjustment exceeds the prescribed number fixed for the course, the necessary additional seats shall be created with the prior permission of the D.U.I./Vice-Chancellor. Such seats, if created, shall be treated as additional only for the year in question.

Illustration: In a course which has 35 seats, the distribution of seats among the various categories will be as under:

General SC ST BC Sports

Defence

Persons with Disability

Riot/Terrorist Victim

Freedom Fighter

Total

53.5% 15% 7.5% 5% 5% 5% 5% 2% 2%

19 5 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 37

It will be seen that this raises the total number of seats to 37. The 36

th and 37

th seats will be treated as

additional in that course for that year only. The additional seat, if required to be created, shall be created only for the reserved category and not for the Open category. Such additional seat, if remains unfilled, will not be converted to open category.

35

APPENDIX B

GUIDELINES FOR ADMISSION TO THE RESERVED CATEGORY OF SPORTS

(Candidates are advised to visit website of Sports Department at www.sports.puchd.ac.in)

Five percent seats of the total number of seats in each course are reserved under this category. No benefit on the basis of sports shall be given to the candidates not applying for admission in this category.

1. Each candidate applying for admission in this category shall, along with the Admission Form, will submit following documents to the concerned department and photocopy of one complete set of Admission Form, along with all relevant documents after paging all the documents, will submit in the office of Campus Sports, (Gymnasium Building), P.U. Chandigarh before the last date of submission of form. If the candidate fails to submit the form complete in all respect in the concerned department or in the Campus Sports Department, his candidature will be rejected a) Self-attested photocopy of sports certificates with photograph duly attested by the

respective issuing authority or Head of the Institution of last attended. b) Self attested photocopies of Class 10

th, Class 10+2 and Bachelor‘s detailed marks

certificates. c) Undertaking of the sports achievements (Annexure-I) and attendance in sports

grounds (Annexure-V)

d) Roster form/ list of players/ competitors of the concerned tournament duly attested by the respective issuing authority or Head of the Institution of last attended.

2. The D.U.I. has the authority to cancel admission at any time, if it is found that the candidate has obtained such admission on the basis of a false certificate or incorrect statement/record.

3. Candidate seeking admission under this category will be considered for admission only in the games and disciplines in which the Panjab University sends its teams for participation in the Inter-University Tournaments (for the inclusion of such games and discipline, see Annexure-II).

4. Reservation under Sports Category is meant only for those active sports-persons

1 who

would participate in the Campus, University, State, National, International level Sports Tournaments. Such students will be considered for admission only if:

i. Their achievement in sports relates to their activities in any of three years immediately preceding the year of admission

2 (relaxable to 4 years in exceptional cases, on merit, for

outstanding sportspersons3).

ii. They are otherwise also eligible for participation in Inter-College, Inter-University tournaments

for at least one year as per association of Indian University rule 2017-18 (http://www.aiu.ac.in)

iii. No document including undertaking etc. will be accepted after the last date of submission of Admission Form by the Campus Sports Department. However, in case any sports persons

1

Means a person attending the grounds regularly so as to appear himself for participation in the Inter-College and Inter-University

Tournaments. However, his/her age falls within the age group which is eligible for participation in Inter-College/Inter-University

Competition. 2Preceding three years means from 1st July 2015 to 30th June 2018.

3Securing first three positions in All India Inter-University/Seniors National Championship/National Games/ Participation in

International competition at Senior or junior level recognized by respective National Federation, Indian Olympic Association /

Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports/ International Olympic Committee/BCCI.

http://www.aiu.ac.in/

36

earn any achievement up to 30th

June, 2018, he/she may submit supplementary copy of the document to the campus sports department along with additional undertaking.

iv. Sports Participation in the same game in two different competitions (irrespective of the event)

is essential for the candidates seeking admission under this category within the prescribed period of three years i.e. from 1

st July 2015 to 30

th June 2018. The merit for admission in the

sports category will be purely on the basis of gradation criteria given in Annexure-III however

the minimum level of sports participation to be considered for supporting certificates will be interschool / Inter College /Cluster /District/ State Level Participations.

5. A committee constituted by the Vice-Chancellor shall screen/evaluate the application. The application will be processed on the basis of gradation criteria as approved by the Syndicate from time to time. No trials will be conducted. However, students seeking admission will be asked to appear before the committee for showing original certificates (Annexure – IV).

6. The Campus Sports Department, Panjab University shall take an undertaking (Annexure-V)

from the candidates that they will attend the grounds regularly and must have 75% of attendance in the sports ground and would also participate in the Inter-College, Inter-University, State, National and International sports tournaments. Their admission would be liable to be cancelled if the terms of the undertaking thus given are not adhered to.

7. The order of precedence in the selection of candidates for admission will be as per Annexure-III.

i. A candidate falling under category ‗A‘ shall be placed higher in merit than a student falling under category ‗B‘. Similarly a candidate falling under category ‗B‘ shall be placed higher in merit than a candidate falling under category ‗C‘ and so on.

ii. Likewise, within each category a candidate falling in category ‗A‘ (1) will be placed higher in merit than a candidate falling in category ‗A‘ (2) and so on.

iii. A candidate who attains first position in a competition shall be rated higher in merit than the one who gets second position in a competition of the same level. Similarly, second position will be rated higher in merit than the third in the same level of competition and so on.

iv. If there is a tie within the same category, the tie shall be resolved by considering the 'academic merit‘ i.e. as per admission criteria of the concerned department and even then if there is tie, it will be resolved by the seniority in age i.e. date of birth of the candidate and such tie will be resolved by the concerned Department in which an applicant applied for admission.

8. The inter-se merit of the candidates seeking admission to any course under the reserved category of Sports shall be determined only on the basis of their merit in Sports as per grading criteria in Annexure-III.

9. The case of sports person with achievements in games/disciplines not included in Annexure-II but

excelling4at International level and the cases of sports persons excelling at International Level who

are otherwise not eligible as per AIU rules due to age bar shall be recommended by the Director Physical Education & Sports and may be considered by the Vice-Chancellor for admission to a particular course by creating an additional seat to the extent of 2% seats in the respective course. These additional 2% seats will be granted subject to the approval of the regulatory authority i.e. NCTE/Bar Council/Dental Council etc. These seats be given as being in addition to the approved strength of the course in that year only. But if the seats are vacant in the 5% reserved category of sports then the vacant seats will be offered to the applicants under 2% additional sports seats. Sports persons wishing to avail Clause 9 should submit a separate application along with the concerned Department's Admission Form.

10. It is mandatory to participate actively in all sports competitions, if selected, and at least 75% attendance in Panjab University sports grounds is required to enable to sit in the examination for all the candidates admitted against reserved category of sports. The attendance certificates shall be issued by the Campus Sports Department in favour of each candidate whose attendance in sports grounds is at least 75% and admit card for examination shall be issued by the Chairperson only on the production of such a certificate.

11. When a candidate is required to abstain from the Department for participation in Inter College / Inter

University / National / International / State Sports Tournaments, he/she shall give prior information to the Chairperson of the concerned Department.

4. Excelling at International level means representing the country in the International tournament recognized by the

International Olympic Committee/Indian Olympic Association/BCCI.

37

12. If a candidate admitted under the reserved category of Sports, remains absent from the grounds for

regular practice for a continuous period of seven days without leave, his/her names shall be struck off the rolls by the Chairperson of the concerned Department on the recommendation of the Director Physical Education & Sports, Panjab University, Chandigarh.

13. Deficiency of equal numbers of lectures (theory, practical, seminars and tutorials etc.) shall be

condoned for sportspersons for attending Coaching Camps and participation in various tournaments i.e. Inter Hostel and Inter Department (Conducted by P.U. Campus Sports), Inter College, Inter District, State, Inter State, Inter University, National and International level tournament.

14. In case a candidate does not attend the grounds for practice or does not participate in the P.U.

Campus Sports Activities including Campus Annual Athletic Meet, Inter College Competition, Inter University Tournaments on medical grounds, the Medical Certificate issued only by the University Chief Medical Officer will be accepted.

NOTE : In case a student remains present in the concerned Department for classes but absent in the

grounds for sports then his/her Medical Certificate will not be accepted and his/her admission shall liable to be cancelled.

15. In case there is one association or more than one association or federation in any game the sports

certificates issued by those State Associations will be considered which are recognized by concerned State Olympic Association and respective National Federation. For Inter state and National level competitions the certificates issued by only those National Federations will be considered which are duly recognized by Indian Olympic Association or Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sport. In case of Cricket, BCCI will be the competent authority. For International level competitions, the certificates issued by those National Federation will be considered which are duly recognized by concerned Country‘s Olympic Association, such National Olympic Association should be duly recognized by International Olympic Committee.

16. Certificate on Letter head will not be considered in normal course. However, if the certificates are not

issued by some sports Organization / Association in a particular game, those cases will be looked after separately by the screening committee on the recommendation of Campus Sports Department.

17. The clause 4 (i) and (ii) will not be applicable for Arjuna Awardeee / Rajiv Khel Ratan Awardee /

Padam Shree Awardee / Olympians in any game/sports with the condition that if such a candidate is successful in getting admission but barred for participation due to age bar then he/she will coach or groom a team of his expertise for at least five hours a week without seeking any remuneration.

18. The admission of students under reserved category of sports will be provisional until the verification

of sports certificates from the concerned issuing authority.

38

ANNEXURE-I

UNDERTAKING FOR ACHIEVEMENTS IN SPORTS

I, _________________________________________________ (name), son/daughter of Shri___________________________________ (father‘s name), born on ______________________________________of__________________________________________________________________________________________________ (address) hereby solemnly declare and affirm as under:– 1. That as Sportsman/Sportswoman in______________________________ (name of discipline), I have represented the team(s) in the competition(s) on date(s) and also of named position(s) as indicated in the table below :–

Sr. No.

Sports Disciplines Team Represented Name of the competition &

year

Venue/Date Position Secured

1

2

3

2. That the certificate(s) mentioned below are produced by me in support of the above are authentic : (i) (ii) (iii) 3. I understand that in case the information/documents supplied by me are found to be false, incorrect or forged, my admission will stand cancelled and I shall be liable for criminal action.

(Signature of the candidate)

NOTE: IN CASE OF MINOR, THE UNDERTAKING SHALL BE FILLED IN BY HIS/HER PARENTS/GUARDIANS WITH SUITABLE AMENDMENTS.

39

ANNEXURE-II

LIST OF GAMES

Following are the Games/Disciplines on the basis of which claim for admission under the reserved category of sports can be considered. Following list is tentative subject to the changes if any in the AIU calendar 2018-19. Sr.No. Games & Section

1. American Football (Men &Women) 2. Archery (Men &Women) 3. Athletics(Men &Women) 4. Aquatics(Swimming & Diving(M&W), Water Polo(Men) 5. Badminton (Men &Women) 6. Ball Badminton(Men &Women) 7. Basketball(Men &Women) 8. Baseball(Men &Women) 9. Boxing (Men &Women) 10. Canoeing & Kayaking (Men & Women) 11. Circle Style Kabaddi (Men & Women) 12. Chess (Men & Women) 13. Cricket (Men & Women) 14. Cross Country Race (Men & Women) 15. Cycling(Road & Track) (Men & Women) 16. Drop Ball (Men & Women) 17. E-Sports & M. Sports (Men & Women) 18. Fencing (Men & Women) 19. Floor Ball (Men & Women) 20. Football (Men & Women) 21. Gatka (Men & Women) 22. Golf (Men & Women) 23. Gymnastic & Malkhamb (Men & Women) 24. Handball (Men & Women) 25. Indore Hocket 5‘s (Men & Women) 26. Hockey (Men & Women) 27. Judo (Men & Women) 28. Kick Boxing (Men & Women) 29. Korfball (Mixed) 30. Kabaddi (NS) (Men & Women) 31. Kho-Kho (Men & Women) 32. Netball (Men & Women) 33. Power Lifting (Men & Women) 34. Roller Hockey (Men & Women) 35. Roller Sports (Men & Women) 36. Roll Ball (Men & Women) 37. Rowing (Men & Women) 38. Rugby (Men & Women) 39. Sepak Takraw (Men & Women) 40. Shooting (Pistol & .177, Air Rifle Peep Sight, Clay Pigeon, Shooting Trap, Double Trap and

Skeet (Men & Women) 41. Soft Tennis (Men & Women) 42. Softball (Men & Women) 43. Squash Rackets(Men & Women) 44. Tug of War (Men & Women) 45. Table-Tennis (Men & Women) 46. Taekwondo (Men & Women) 47. Tennis (Men & Women) 48. Throw Ball (Men & Women) 49. Volleyball (Men & Women) 50. Weight Lifting (Men & Women) 51. Best Physique (Men & Women) 52. Wrestling Free Style & Greco Roman Style (Men)

Wrestling (Men & Women) 53. Wushu (Men & Women) 54. Yachting (Men & Women) 55. Yoga (Men & Women)

40

ANNEXURE-III

GRADING CRITERIA FOR SPORTS MERIT

Note: – Tournaments/Championships other than Inter University/Inter College/Inter School will be

considered for Gradation provided they are recognized by International Olympic Committee/ Indian Olympic Association/respective National Federation / State Association / BCCI / SGFI / MYAS*

CATEGORY 'A'

A-1: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Olympic Games, World Cup, World

Championship, Davis Cup, Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, Para Olympic Games, and Winter Olympic Games.

A-2: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Champions Trophy, Commonwealth Games,

Commonwealth Championship, World Universities Games, World Universities Championship, Asian Games (Indoor/Outdoor Games), Asian Cups, Asian Championship, Asian Winter Games, Asian Para Olympics, Wimbledon Championship, US, French and Australia Open (Tennis) Championships, All England Badminton Tournament(s) and Youth Olympic Games.

A-3: A person getting any of the first three positions in the One Day International Cricket matches, Cricket

Test Matches, Commonwealth Youth Games, International Athletic Permit Meet, Asian Youth Games, Asian Martial Art Games, Asian Winter Games, SAF Games.

A-4: A person getting any of the first three positions while representing Indian team in other International

Tournaments recognized by IOA/ SGFI/ MYAS/BCCI. CATEGORY 'B'

B-1: A person representing India in the Olympic Games, World Cup, World Championship, Davis Cup,

Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, Para Olympic Games, and Winter Olympic Games. B-2: A person representing India in the Champions Trophy, Commonwealth Games, Commonwealth

Championship, World Universities Games, World Universities Championship, Asian Games (Indoor/Outdoor Games), Asian Cups, Asian Championship, Asian Winter Games, Asian Para Olympics, Wimbledon Championship, US, French and Australia Open (Tennis) Championships, All England Badminton Tournament(s) and Youth Olympic Games.

B-3: A person representing India in the One Day International Cricket Matches, Cricket Test Matches,

Commonwealth Youth Games, International Athletic Permit Meet, Asian Youth Games, Asian Martial Art Games, Asian Winter Games, SAF Games

B-4: A person representing Indian team in other International Tournaments recognized by IOA/

SGFI/MYAS/BCCI B-5: A person getting any of the first three positions in the National games and Federation Cup for

Seniors. B-6: A person getting any of the first three positions in the All India Inter University Tournaments / Senior

National Championships / Inter State Tournament for Senior / Vizzy Trophy Tournament. B-7: A person getting any of the first three positions in the National Championships for

Junior/Youth/Schools conducted by recognized National Federation/ SGFI (School Games Federation of India).

B-8: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Zonal Inter University Meet or Championship. B-9: A person getting any of the first three positions in the National Zonal Meet or Championship for

Senior (the Zonal tournament will be considered if at least 5 teams participated in the same) CATEGORY 'C' C-1: A person included in the State/Union Territory teams in the National Games and Federation Cup

for Seniors. C-2: A person included in the All India Inter University Tournaments/Senior National Championships/Inter

State Tournament for Senior / Vizzy Trophy Tournament. C-3: A person included in the State/Union Territory Junior/Youth/Cadet teams in the National

Championships or State/Union Territory School/CBSE/Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan/Navodya Vidyalya/ICSC/IPSC teams in the National School Games conducted by SGFI (School Games Federation of India).

C-4: A person included in the National Zonal Meet or Championship for Senior/Zonal Inter University

Championship (the Zonal tournament will be considered if at least 5 teams participated in the same).

C-5: A person getting any of the first three positions in All India inter-Professional University Sports Meet

of Agriculture, Law, Medicine, Technical and Management Universities.

41

C-6: A person included in the Professional University team in Inter-Professional Tournaments. C-7: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Inter College Tournaments other than

Professional Universities. C-8: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Inter College tournaments of Professional

Universities/ Inter-Distt. / Union Territory Championships for Seniors / State Junior/Youth/School

Games / Union Territory Championships for Juniors. CATEGORY 'D' D-1: A person getting any of the first three positions in the University 'B' Division and 'C' Division Inter

College Tournaments. D-2: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Residential University/P.U. Campus

Championships or Tournaments. Note: The certificates not mentioning the level of tournament i.e. Senior /Junior / Youth / Schools will be

considered as per the following age criteria: 1. Under 14....... Sub-Junior 2. Under 17....... Junior 3. Under 19.......Youth 4. Above 19.......Senior

* BCCI: Board of Control for Cricket in India * SGFI: School Games Federation of India * MYAS: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports

42

ANNEXURE-IV

Schedule of the Verification of Original Sports Certificates for the Reserved Category of Sports

Venue: Panjab University Gymnasium Hall, Chandigarh

Reporting Time: 8.30 A.M. Time: 9.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon

Sr. No. Game Section Date

1. American Football (Men &Women) 16.07.2018

2. Archery (Men &Women) -do-

3. Athletics (Men &Women) -do-

4. Aquatics (Swimming & Diving (m & W), Water Polo (Men)

(Men &Women) -do-

5. Badminton (Men &Women) -do-

6. Ball Badminton (Men &Women) -do-

7. Basketball (Men &Women) -do-

8. Baseball (Men &Women) -do-

9. Boxing (Men &Women) -do-

10. Canoeing & Kayaking (Men & Women) -do-

11. Circle Style Kabaddi (Men & Women) -do-

12. Chess (Men & Women) -do-

13. Cricket (Men & Women) -do-

14. Cross Country Race (Men & Women) -do-

15. Cycling(Road & Track) (Men & Women) -do-

16. Drop Ball (Men & Women) -do-

17. E-Sports & M. Sports (Men & Women) -do-

18. Fencing (Men & Women) -do-

19. Floor Ball (Men & Women) -do-

20. Football (Men & Women) -do-

21. Gatka (Men & Women) -do-

22. Golf (Men & Women) -do-

23. Gymnastic & Malkhamb (Men & Women) -do-

24. Handball (Men & Women) -do-

25. Indore Hockey 5‘s (Men & Women) -do-

26. Hockey (Men & Women) -do-

27. Judo (Men & Women) -do-

28. Kick Boxing (Men & Women) -do-

29. Korfball (Mixed) -do-

30. Kabaddi (NS) (Men & Women) -do-

31. Kho-Kho (Men & Women) -do-

32. Netball (Men & Women) -do-

33. Power Lifting (Men & Women) -do-

34. Roller Hockey (Men & Women) -do-

35. Roller Sports (Men & Women) -do-

36. Roll Ball (Men & Women) -do-

37. Rowing (Men & Women) -do-

43

38. Rugby (Men & Women) -do-

39. Sepak Takraw (Men & Women) -do-

40. Shooting (Pistol & .177, Air Rifle Peep Sight, Clay Pigeon, Shooting Trap, Double Trap and Skeet

(Men & Women) -do-

41. Soft Tennis (Men & Women) -do-

42. Softball (Men & Women) -do-

43. Squash Rackets (Men & Women) -do-

44. Tug of War (Men & Women) -do-

45. Table-Tennis (Men & Women) -do-

46. Taekwondo (Men & Women) -do-

47. Tennis (Men & Women) -do-

48. Throw Ball (Men & Women) -do-

49. Volleyball (Men & Women) -do-

50. Weight Lifting (Men & Women) -do-

51. Best Physique (Men & Women) -do-

52. Wrestling Free Style & Greco Roman Style (Men) Wrestling Free Style (Women)

-do-

53. Wushu (Men & Women) -do-

54. Yachting (Men & Women) -do-

55. Yoga (Men & Women) -do-

44

ANNEXURE-V

UNDERTAKING FOR ATTENDANCE IN SPORTS GROUND

I,___________________________________ son/daughter of__________________________ resident of___________________________________________________________________do hereby declare as under :- (i) That I am seeking admission to the Department of______________________

under the Sports Category.

(ii) That in case I am admitted to the above said department I shall regularly attend the grounds for practice and I shall also participate in P.U. Campus Sports Activities including P.U. Campus Annual Athletic Meet/Inter-College/Inter-University/National/International Sports Tournament on behalf of the P.U. Campus and the Panjab University if selected.

(iii) That in case I fail to regularly attend the Grounds for practice or fail to participate in the

tournaments as and when required, my admission to the Department of____________ shall be liable to be cancelled.

(iv) That in case my admission to the Deptt. of ________________________is cancelled due

to my failure to regularly attend the grounds for practice or to participate in the P.U. Campus Sports Activities (including Annual Athletic Meet) / Inter-University / National / International Sports Tournaments as may be required by the Campus Sports Department, Panjab University, Chandigarh. I shall have no claim on any account whatsoever against the Department or against the University.

(Signature of the applicant)

45

APPENDIX C

Specimen of Certificates for reserved categories and additional seats (To be attached to admission form

wherever applicable)

SUB APPENDIX C1 SCHEDULED CASTE / SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATE

The Caste/Tribe Certificate should necessarily contain the following information about: (a) Name of the person : ________________________________________ (b) Father‘s name : ____________________________________________ (c) Permanent place of residence : _________________________________ (d) Name of the Caste/ Tribe : ____________________________________ (e) Constitutional order under which the caste/ tribe has been notified (f) Signature of issuing authority along with the designation, seals and date Authorities Empowered to issue SC/ST certificate

1. District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner.

2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate.

3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar.

4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides.

5. Administrator/ Secretary to Administrator/ Development Officer (Lakshdweep Islands)

46

SUB APPENDIX C2

CERTIFICATE FOR BACKWARD CLASS* (Persons belonging to OBC/SBC will not be considered under this category)

This is to certify that Shri / Smt/ Kumari ______________ son/daughter of Sh.___________________ village _______________________________________ District / Division ___________________ in the state of Punjab belongs to ___________________ community which is recognized as a Backward Class under the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfate of SCs and BCs vide notification No. __________________________________ dated _________________________ Shri / Smt/ Kumari ______________ and / or his / her family ordinarily reside(s) in the _____________________ District / Division of the State of Punjab. This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons / sections (creamy Layer) mentioned in the column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfare and SCs and BCs notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/ dated 17-01-1994, as amended vide Notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/1597 dated 17-08-2005, Notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/209 dated 24-02-2009 and notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/609 dated 24.10.2013. Date of Issuance Signature of Issuing Authority: ______________________ Designation____________________ Date: Place: Note:

The term ―Ordinarily‖ used here will have same meaning as in Section 20 of Representative of People Act, 1950

Authorities Empowered to issue Backward Class

Certificate

Criteria for Admission under this Category

1. Deputy Commissioner 1. 2. 3. 4.

50% Seats Reserved for persons belongs to this category Candidate must belong to non-creamy layer as defined by the latest rules of Govt. Of India * A BC Certificate issued by a competent authority in any format and on any date shall be accepted by PU. Candidate whose certificate is older than one year from the date of issue must submit the self declaration as per Sub Appendix C-2 (A)

2. Additional Deputy Commissioner

3. Sub Divisional Magistrate

4. 5.

Executive Magistrate Tehsildar

6. Naib Tehsildar

7. Block Officer

8. District Revenue Officer

Attach

Applicants

Recent

Passport Size

Attested

Photograph

Space for Photograph

47

SUB APPENDIX C2 (A) Self declaration Performa to be submitted by the person belonging to backward class category at

the time of recruitment / admission

I __________________ S/O, D/O _______________________ Resident of ________________ Village / Tehsil/ City _____________________ District ________________________ hereby declare that I ___________________ belong to _________________ caste and this caste has been declared as backward class by State Government as per letter No. ____________________ dated _____________. I hereby declare that, I do not come under Column-3 of the Schedule to the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfare of SCs and BCs notification No. 1/41/93-RC-1/459 dated 17.01.94 as amended vide notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/1597 dated 17-08-1005, notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/209 dated 04.02.2009 and notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/609 dated 24.10.2013.

Declarant Place: _______________ Date: ________________ Verification:

I hereby declare that the above submitted information is correct as per my understanding and nothing has been concealed herein. I am well versed with the facts that I would be liable to face any punishment prescribed by law in case my above information is found to be false and the benefits granted to me (the applicant) will be withdrawn.

Declarant Place: _______________ Date: ________________

48

SUB APPENDIX C 3 CERTIFICATE FOR ONLY GIRL CHILD/ ONE OUT OF TWO GIRL

CHILDREN

I / We,_______________(father) and______________(mother) of Miss___________________ (full address to be given) resident of House No. __________________ Street/Sector ____________________________________ Town / City/ Village__________________________District/State__________________________do hereby solemnly declare and affirm as under:–

1. That I am / we are citizens of India.

2. That Miss ___________________born on ________ is our girl child.

3. That we have no male child.

4. That we have the following only two girls and none else :

(i) Name_______________ (i) Name_______________

(ii) Date of Birth__________ (ii) Date of Birth__________

5. That none of the above mentioned two girl children has obtained/availed the benefit granted under this category, in this University/Institute including its affiliated colleges.

Signature Signature (Father) (Mother)

Place: Dated: NOTE: Who can apply under this category?

Single Girl Child OR One Girl Child out of only Two Girl Children*. *Clarification: This Seat shall not be available for:-

i) Those having three or more girl children. ii) Those having any male child.

49

SUB APPENDIX C4

CERTIFICATE FOR ADMISSION UNDER DEFENCE CATEGORY Dispatch No. __________________ Dated ___________________ Certified that ______________________________________son/daughter/spouse of ______________________________Rank_______________________(if applicable) an applicant for admission to __________________________________________________________course(s) in the department of_____________________________ Panjab University, is 1. Son/Daughter/Spouse of such Defence and Central Armed Police Force (CAPF)* personnel who died in

action on_____________during__________. (Only those who are wholly dependent on such personnel shall be considered).

2. Son/Daughter/Spouse who is wholly dependent on such Defence and CAPF personnel who were incapacitated/died on____________________while in service.

3. Defence and CAPF personnel who were incapacitated while in service. 4. Son/daughter/spouse of ex-servicemen who are wholly dependent on them.

5. Son/daughter/spouse of serving Defence personnel and CAPF who are wholly dependent on them.

6. Ex-servicemen.

7. Serving Defence personnel and CAPF personnel. ____________________________________

Name of the Certifying Officer Signature of authorized Military/Central Armed Police Forces Officer

Designation _______________ (with official seal) * CAPF earlier known as Para-military forces, includes Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), National Security Guard (NSG), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) etc.

50

SUB APPENDIX C5 CERTIFICATE FROM THE CANDIDATE FROM BORDER AREA SCHOOL*

No. Dated:_____________ Certified that Mr./Ms.______________________________ son/ daughter of Sh. _______________________________________________________________ and Smt. ____________resident of _________________________________________ has passed the Matriculation and +2 from school(s) that is situated within 20 kms from the International Border. It is further certified that Mr. / Ms. ______________________________has studied for ____________ year(s) in the institution(s) that is situated within 20 kms from the International Border, as per date of joining and leaving school as given below :-

Name of School Date of joining Date of leaving 1. ____________________ ________________ _______________ 2. ____________________ _________________ _______________ 3. ____________________ _________________ _______________ 4. ____________________ _________________ _______________ Place: Seal and Signature Date: (Tehsildar / Principal / Headmaster) * This certificate is only for those students, who have passed their Matric and +2 Examinations

from Border Area School (s).

51

SUB APPENDIX C6 CERTIFICATE FROM THE CANDIDATE FROM RURAL AREA SCHOOL*

No. Dated: ____________ Certified that Mr./Ms.______________________________son/ daughter of Sh. _________ and Smt. ____________________resident of __________________________________________ has passed the matriculation and +2 examination from Rural School(s) that does not fall in the area of the Municipal Corporation / Municipal Committee / Small Town / Notified Area/Cantonment Area and has studied in a rural area school for at least five years before passing +2 examination.

Name of School Date of joining Date of leaving 1. ____________________ _________________ _______________ 2. ____________________ _________________ _______________ 3. ____________________ _________________ _______________ 4. ____________________ _________________ _______________

Place: Seal and Signature

Date: (D.E.O / Principal) * This Certificate is only for those students, who have passed their Matric and +2 Examinations

from Rural Area School (s) and studied for atleast five years in Rural Area School (s) before passing +2 examinations.

52

SUB APPENDIX C7

CERTIFICATE OF CHILDREN/GRANDCHILDREN OF FREEDOM FIGHTER

Despatch No:_________________ Dated:_________________ Certified that Mr./Ms. Mx. ____________________________________ (freedom fighter) son/daughter of Shri____________________________________ of Village ____________ Post Office ________________ Tehsil _________________District __________________ and Parent /Grand Parent of Mr. / Ms.Mx. ___________________________ (Name of the Candidate), a bonafide political sufferer and has been drawing freedom fighter‘s pension from ______________ Treasury or has been awarded Tamar Patra for his/her political suffering. Place: Date: *Deputy Commissioner

(with Seal of the Court) * Certificate from no other than Deputy Commissioner will be accepted. ** In case the certificate is found to be false or incorrect, the candidate will be render himself/ herself

liable for criminal prosecution.

53

APPENDIX D

Specimen of Forms/ certificates for Medical records

FORMAT FOR MEDICAL RECORD

Name of the patient: Age: Sex: Address: Occupation: Date of 1st visit: Clinical note (summary) of the case: Prov. : Diagnosis : Investigations advised with reports: Diagnosis after Investigation: Advice: Follow up

Date: Observations: Signature in full _________________________________ Name of Treating Physician (MBBS or above with Mobile #) Important Note:- Under this category of Physically Challenged, persons only with Permanent

Physical Disability (PPD) will be considered. Candidates with temporary physical disability will not be eligible for applying under this category.

54

Medical Examination Form

(The Medical Examination will be conducted by any Govt. Gazatted Officer/Medical Officer at BGJIH) Items Nos. 1 to 8 below to be filled in by the candidate

1. Name of the candidate_______________________

2. Father‘s Name_____________________________

3. Mother‘s Name____________________________

4. Date of Birth______________________________

5. Department (in which admission is being sought)______________________

6. University Receipt for Medical Examination Fee

No.___________________ Date___________________ Rs.________________ 7. Roll No. (allotted by the Department):

8. History of any previous or existing illness: Yes/No (If yes mention details) I. Like Epilepsy (seizures), Hypertension, Bronchitis, Bronchial Asthma,

Tuberculosis, Rheumatic Heart Disease, Diabeties etc: Yes/No II. History of any operation/Surgery : Yes/No III. History of any regular medication : Yes/No

IV. History of any kind of allergy : Yes/No

___________________ _______________________ (Signature of the candidate to be (Signature of the candidate in the Attested by the chairman) presence of the examining Doctor)

_______________________________

(Signature of the chairman with seal of the department)

Medical Examination

a) Pulse________________/min. Blood Pressure_______________mmHg (sitting) b) Vision (without glasses) Right__________ Left____________ Colour

Vision___________ c) Vision (with glasses) Right__________ Left____________ A. Systemic Examination of CNS/Chest/CVS/Abdomen/Limbs B. Recommendation of the examining physician if any

(Signature of the Medical Officer with seal and date)

55

FORM OF CERTIFICATE RECOMMENDED FOR LEAVE OR EXTENSION OR

COMMUNICATION OF LEAVE AND FOR FITNESS

Signature of patient Or thumb impression __________________________________________

To be filled in by the applicant in the presence of the Government Medical Attendant or Medical Practitioner. (with qualifications-MBBS or above)

Identification marks:- a. _______________________ b. _______________________

I, Dr. _________________________________ after careful examination of the case certify hereby that ________________________ whose signature is given above is suffering from___________ and I consider that a period of absence from duty of _______________________ with effect from ______________ is absolutely necessary for the restoration of his health.

I, Dr.______________________________________________ after careful examination of the case certify hereby that __________________________ on restoration of health is now fit of join service.

Signature of Medical attendant

Registration No._____________ (MBBS or above with Mobile #)

Note:- The nature and probable duration of the illness should also be specified. This certificate must be

accompanied by a brief resume of the case giving the nature of the illness, its symptoms, causes and duration

56

COPY OF CERTIFICATE OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITY (PwD) CATEGORY FOR APPLYING FOR

ADMISSION

(Detailed information is available at Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India website: www.socialjustice.nic.in as per PART-II Section 3, subsection (i) Notification as amended on 30th December, 2009 for persons with disability (Equal Opportunities and full participation Rules, 1996) (Copies of Form-I, Form-II, Form-III and Form-IV, attached).

Form-I

APPLICATION FOR OBTAINING DISABILITY CERTIFICATE BY PERSONS

WITH DISABILITIES

1. Name: (Surname)________________ (First name)__________________

(Middle name) ______________________________ 2. Father‘s name:____________________ Mother‘s name:_____________ 3. Date of Birth: (date) ________/ (month) _______ / (year) ____________ 4. Age at the time of application: __________ years 5. Sex: __________ Male/Female/Transgender 6. Address: (a) Permanent address

________________________________ _________________________________

(b) Current Address (i.e. for communication)

_________________________________ _________________________________

(c) Period since when residing at current address

_________________________________ _________________________________

7. Educational Status (Pl. tick as applicable) I. Post Graduate II. Graduate III. Diploma IV. Higher Secondary V. High School VI. Middle VII. Primary VIII. Non-literate 8. Occupation __________________________________________________ 9. Identification marks (i)_______________ (ii) _____________________ 10. Nature of disability: _______________________________________ 11. Period since when disabled: From Birth/Since year ________________

12. (i) Did you ever apply for issue of a disability certificate in the past______YES/NO (ii) If yes, details: a. Authority to whom and district in which applied ___________________________________________________ b. Result of application

13. Have you ever been issued a disability certificate in the past? If yes, please enclose a true copy. Declaration: I hereby declare that all particulars stated above are true to the best of my knowledge and belief, and no material information has been concealed or misstated. I further, state that if any inaccuracy is detected in the application, I shall be liable to forfeiture of any benefits derived and other action as per law.

_____________________________

(Signature or left thumb impression of person with disability, or of his/her legal guardian in case of persons with mental retardation, autism, cerebral palsy and multiple disabilities)

Date:

57

Place: Encl: 1. Proof of residence (Please tick as applicable)

a. ration card, b. voter identity card, c. driving license, d. bank passbook, e. PAN card, f. Passport, g. Telephone, electricity, water and any other utility bill indicating the address of the applicant, h. A certificate of residence issued by a Panchayat, municipality, cantonment board, any gazette

officer, or the concerned Patwari or Head Master of a Govt. school, i. In case of an inmate of a residential institution for persons with disabilities, destitute, mentally ill,

etc., a certificate of residence from the head of such institution. 4. Two recent passport size photographs

(For office use only)

Date: Place: Signature of issuing authority

Stamp

58

Form-II

Disability Certificate

(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs Or dwarfism and in case of blindness)

(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING

THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No. ___________________ Date:____________ This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________ son/wife/daughter of Shri ________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ______ Age_____ years, male/female, Registration No.__________________________ permanent resident of House No.______________ Ward/Village/Street__________________ Post Office_______________, District __________, State_________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that: (B) He/she is a case of:

• locomotor disability • dwarfism • blindness

(Please tick as applicable)

(B) the diagnosis in his/her case is _________________

(C) He/She has _________ % (in figure) ________________ percent (in words) permanent locomotor disability / dwarfism / blindness in relation to his her _______________ (part of body) as per guidelines ( …………….. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified).

2. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory

of Notified Medical Authority

Recent PP

Size Attested

Photograph

(showing face

only of the

person with

disability

Signature /Thumb

impression of the

person in whose favour

disability certificate is

issued

59

Form-III Disability Certificate

(In case of multiple disabilities)

(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No. Date: This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________son/wife/daughter of Shri________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ______ Age_____ years, male/female, Registration No.__________________________ permanent resident of House No.______________ Ward/Village/Street__________________ Post Office_______________, District __________, State_________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and are satisfied that:

(A) He/she is a case of Multiple Disability. His/her extent of permanent physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (…………. Number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and shown against the relevant disability in the table below:

Sr. No. Disability Affected Part

of Body Diagnosis

Permanent physical impairment/mental disability (in

%)

1. Locomotor disability @

2. Muscular Dystrophy

3. Leprosy Cured

4. Dwarfism

5. Cerebral Palsy

6. Acid attack Victim

7. Low vision #

8. Blindness Both Eyes

9. Deaf £

10. Hard of Hearing

11 Speech and language disability

12 Intellectual disability X

13 Specific Learning Disability

14 Autism Spectrum Disability

15 Mental-illness X

16 Chronic Neurological conditions

17 Multiple selerosis

18 Parkinson‘s disease

19 Haemophlia

20 Thalassemia

21 Sickle Cell disease

(B) In the Light of the above, his /her over all permanent physical impairment as per guidelines (………….. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified), is as follows

In figures :- ____________________________percent In words:_________________________________________ percent 2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve. 3. Reassessment of disability is: (i) not necessary. Or

(ii) is recommended/after___________ years ______________ months, and therefore, this certificate shall be valid till (DD / MM /YY) __________________

Recent PP Size

Attested

Photograph

(showing face only

of the person with

disability

60

@ - e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs # - e.g. Single eye/both eyes £ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears 4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-


5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority


Signature /Thumb impression of the

person in whose favour disability

certificate is issued

61

Form-IV

Certificate of Disability (In cases other than those mentioned in Forms II and III)

(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING

THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No. Date: This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________ son/wife/daughter of Shri________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ______ Age _____ years, male/female, Registration No.__________________________ permanent resident of House No.______________ Ward/Village/Street__________________ Post Office_______________, District __________, State_________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that he/she is a case of_____________________ disability. His/her extent of percentage physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) and is shown against the relevant disability in the table below:-

Sr. No. Disability Affected Part

of Body Diagnosis

Permanent physical impairment/mental disability (in

%)

1. Locomotor disability @

2. Muscular Dystrophy

3. Leprosy Cured

4. Cerebral Palsy

5. Acid attack Victim

6. Low vision #

7. Deaf £

8. Hard of Hearing

9. Speech and language disability

10. Intellectual disability X

11 Specific Learning Disability

12 Autism Spectrum Disability

13 Mental-illness X

14 Chronic Neurological conditions

15 Multiple selerosis

16 Parkinson‘s disease

17 Haemophlia

18 Thalassemia

19 Sickle Cell disease

(Please strike out the disabilities which are not applicable)

2. The above condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.

3. Reassessment of disability is: (i) not necessary. Or

(ii) is recommended/after___________ years ______________ months, and therefore, this certificate shall be valid till (DD / MM /YY) __________________ @ - e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs # - e.g. Single eye/both eyes

Recent PP Size

Attested

Photograph

(showing face only

of the person with

disability

62

£ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears 4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:- Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

(Authorised Signatory of notified Medical Authority) (Name and Seal)

Countersigned

Countersignature and seal of the CMO/Medical Superintendent/Head of Government Hospital, in case the certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant (with seal)

Note: 1. ―In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant, it shall

be valid only if countersigned by the Chief Medical Officer of the District‖

Signature /Thumb

impression of the person

in whose favour disability

certificate is issued

63

Form-V

(intimation of rejection of Application for Certificate of Disability)

No. _____________________ Dated_______________ To (Name and address of applicant For Certificate of Disability Sub: Rejection of Application for Certificate of Disability Sir/Madam, Please refer to your application dated ____________ for issue of a Certificate of Disability for the following disability: _______________________________________ 2. Pursuant to the above application, you have been examined by the undersigned / Medical Authority on ___________, and I regret to inform that, for the reasons mentioned below, it is not possible to issue a Certificate of Disability in your favour:- (i) (ii) (iii) 3. In case you are aggrieved by the rejection of your application, you may represent to ____________,

requesting for review of this decision.

Yours faithfully,

(Authorised Signatory of the notified Medical Authority ) (Name and Seal)

64

Certificate for candidates applying under the reserved category for Cancer / Thalaseemia / AIDS

DETAILED ADDRESS OF ISSUING PHYSICIAN AND HOSPITAL (Mention serial number and date with phone number and address)

This is to certify that Ms. / Mr. __________________ (Name of the student), Date of Birth:

_________________________ C.R./OPD No. _________________________ D/o / S/o _________________________ (complete address), is a diagnosed case of ______________________ (Cancer / Thalassemia / AIDS)*. She/he is undergoing treatment for the same under my care.

________________________ (Signature of the Patient)

Attested

_______________________

(Signature of the Physician)

Name and address of the Physician _______________________ _________________________________________________________

Stamp of the Physician * Strike out whichever is not applicable.

Photograph

to be

attested by

the

Physician

65

GENERAL RULES

1. The result of the Entrance Test shall, ipso facto, not entitle a candidate to get admission in an institution/department/centre/college concerned where he/she intends to seek admission. It will be the responsibility of the candidate to make sure about his/her eligibility and fulfillment of such other conditions as may be prescribed for admission in the rules and regulations of University/Institution concerned. Merely because a candidate is allowed to appear in the Entrance Test does not mean that he/she is eligible and his/ her appearance therein will not stop or debar the university/ institution concerned from satisfying itself about his/her eligibility at any subsequent stage.

Notwithstanding anything contained in this prospectus, the eligibility conditions for admission to any particular course, shall be governed by the respective rules/regulations as enshrined in the P.U. Calendar, Volumes I, II and III (latest editions) and / or the General Guidelines for Admissions/ Handbook of Information-2018 issued by the University and / or decisions of the University senate/ syndicate. In case of any conflict or inconsistency between the prospectus on one hand and the aforesaid Panjab University rules and regulations/ guidelines / Handbook of Information-2018 / decisions of Senate/ Syndicate, on the other, the latter shall prevail.

2. The Entrance Test will be held at CHANDIGARH, REGIONAL CENTRES at HOSHIARPUR, LUDHIANA AND MUKTSAR on the scheduled dates.

3. A candidate desirous of taking the Entrance Test should submit his / her fee in any branch of State Bank of India using website generated challan latest by 21-05-2018 (Monday) upto 4:00 p.m.

4. Last date for uploading of photograph, signature with rest of the information on the website is 23.05.2018 (Wednesday).

5. In no case, the fee for the PU-CET (P.G.) 2018, once paid, shall be refunded/ transferred / adjusted.

6. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidates shall be required to answer questions on the OMR Answer-sheet provided for the purpose only following all the rules/ norms as stated on the Answer sheet. However, entrance test for admission to M.A. English; M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication and M.A. (History) shall not be on OMR sheet.

7. The Entrance Test shall be in English only.

8. Thirty minutes extra would be given to the visually handicapped/PwD candidates.

9. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidates shall be required to hand-over the Question booklet and OMR Answer sheet to the Centre Superintendent.

10. The candidates shall be required to hand over their OMR answer-sheets and the question paper in full to the Centre Superintendent. No page/part of the Question paper/OMR Answer Sheet is to be removed/torn/taken out of the Examination Centre under any of the circumstances, failing which the candidates shall be disqualified from the entire Entrance Test.

11. The use of calculators is not allowed in any subject/paper.

12. The University will provide logarithmic table. Borrowing or carrying of the log table or other such material is not allowed.

13. If any candidate who submits two online Entrance Test forms for the same Course his/her candidature shall be considered only on the basis of one Form.

14. The candidates must bring their own stationary items such as Black Gel Pen. Borrowing of material inside the Test Centre is strictly prohibited.

15. In case of Objective Type question papers, rough work should be done in the space provided for

this purpose. No rough work shall be done on the OMR Answer Sheet under any circumstances.

16. In case of Objective Type question papers having OMR sheets, there shall be NEGATIVE MARKING FOR WRONG ANSWERS, i.e., marks will be deducted for wrong answers. If for each

correct answer 1 mark is to be awarded, for a wrong answer ¼ mark will be deducted.

17. There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking/re-assessment of answer-sheets under any circumstance. Request for seeing the Question Booklet / answer-sheets/answer-books by the candidates shall not be entertained at all. The evaluation once done by the University shall be absolutely final.

18. If a candidate wishes to verify his/her result, he/she will be provided a photocopy of his/her answer sheet on payment of Rs. 10,000/- within 10 days after the declaration of the Entrance Test result and the office should process the whole procedure within three working days. In

66

case, a discrepancy is found in the result of the candidate, the result would accordingly be revised and the fee deposited will be refunded.

19. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidate must ensure that the answers to the questions are attempted on the specifically prescribed OMR answer sheet only. No answer attempted on the question booklet will be considered for evaluation. Only those questions answered on the OMR sheet shall be taken into account.

20. RESOLVING OF TIES

Candidates securing equal marks in the Final Merit List shall be bracketed together. However, ther inter-se merit rank shall be determined as under:-

(a) A candidate getting higher percentage of marks in qualifying examination (Bachelors degree) shall rank higher in order of merit.

(b) If the marks, as mentioned in (a) are also the same then the candidate obtaining higher percentage of marks in 12

th class or an equivalent examination shall rank higher in order of

merit. (c) If two or more candidates secure equal marks in (a) and (b) above, candidate senior in age

shall rank higher in order of merit.

21. For the courses offered by the Panjab University Departments / Centres, the candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in on or before the last date as prescribed by the University.

22. The admission shall be based on the relative merit of the candidates as determined by the marks obtained in the qualifying degree examination and the result of the Entrance Test being held in the year of Admission, subject to such reservation and weightage as are prescribed in the Rules of Admission of the University Department/Centre concerned.

23. Carrying of any communication equipment such as mobile phones / pager/ wireless set, scanner/ pen scanner/ camera or any such electronic / digital gadget etc in the examination hall shall not be permitted and will lead to disqualification.

24. Candidates should not carry eatables, drinks etc. into the Test Centre. Smoking inside and around the Centre is not permitted.

25. Any candidate who creates disturbance of any kind during examination or otherwise misbehaves in or around the examination hall or refuses to obey the Superintendent/Deputy Superintendent/Assistant Superintendent /any other official on examination duty or changes his/her seat with any other candidate or occupies any seat, other than the one allotted to him/her shall be expelled from the examination hall. (“Expulsion” for this purpose would mean cancellation of the Entire Entrance Test). The Centre Superintendent/Observer/any other authorized University Officer/Official shall be competent to expel a candidate from the examination centre.

26. Any candidate having in his possession or accessible to him/her paper/books or notes which may possibly be of any assistance to him or is found giving or receiving assistance, or copying from any paper/book or note or from anywhere else or allowing any other candidate to copy from his/her answer book or found writing on any other paper, questions set in the question paper, during examination or using or attempting to use any other unfair means or indulging in any kind of misconduct shall be expelled from the examination hall. (“Expulsion” for this purpose would mean cancellation of the Entire Entrance Test). The Centre Superintendent/Observer/any other

authorized University Officer/Official shall be competent to expel a candidate from the examination centre.

27. If any answer sheet of a candidate shows or it is otherwise established that he/she has received or attempted to receive help from any source in any manner or has given help or attempted to give help to any other candidate in any manner, the relevant answer-sheet shall be cancelled. The cancellation of the answer-sheet shall mean cancellation of all answer- sheets of the Common –Entrance Test. The decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh in this regard shall be final.

28. If a candidate writes his/her name or puts any kind of identification mark or discloses his/her identity by any method whatsoever on the cover or anywhere else in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet, the same shall be treated as cancelled. The cancellation of the answer-sheet shall mean cancellation of all answer-sheets of the Entrance Test. The decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh in this regard shall be final.

29. Any person who impersonates a candidate shall be disqualified from appearing in any University examination including this examination for a period of five years, if that person is a student on the rolls of a recognized College or University. But if the person is not on the rolls of a recognized College or University, he/she shall be declared as a person not fit and proper to be admitted to any examination of the University for a period of five years and the case, if necessary, shall also be

67

reported to the police for further action in the matter. The candidate who is being impersonated shall also be disqualified for a period of five years from appearing in any examination of this University apart from any other action which the University may take against him, as deemed fit

30. If it is found that a candidate has knowingly or willfully concealed or suppressed any information/fact which renders him/her ineligible to take the Entrance Test, his/her result of the Test as also admission to a Institution/Department/Centre of the University, if granted, shall stand cancelled and he/she shall have no claim whatsoever against the Institution/Department/Centre concerned and the case, if necessary shall be reported to the police.

31. In order to avoid bias, the marks of the Entrance Test in case of such course where weightage of performance in Interview and/ or Group Discussion is to be added shall remain confidential till the process of compilation is not completed.

32. If a dispute or controversy of any kind arises before, during or after conduct of Entrance Test, the decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, in all such cases, shall be final.

33. The candidates shall be allowed to appear in the Entrance Test only on the production of the Admit Card at the Test Centre. No candidate shall be allowed to take the test without the Admit Card under any circumstances. The candidates must retain the Admit Card with them till the admission process is over, since it will be required again at the time of counseling.

34. The Admit Card will be issued to the candidates only provisionally, at his/her sole risk and responsibility subject to the final confirmation of eligibility at the time of admission. It is further clarified that the candidates shall be taking the test at his/her own risk and responsibility as far as their eligibility is concerned and the University shall, in no way, be responsible if they are found to be ineligible, later, leading to cancellation of their result or any other consequence(s) emanating from the same.

35. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall/room before the expiry of the time allotted for the respective paper.

36. The result of the PU-CET (P.G.) 2018 will be available at http://results.puchd.ac.in.

37. On 18-06-2018 (Monday) by 1.00 p.m. the question papers and their keys will be put on the University website. The candidate can file their objections regarding discrepancies and accuracy of the key, in writing, within 48 hours of this announcement i.e. 20-06-2018 (Wednesday) by 1.00 p.m. through e-mail at [email protected]. Objections received will be published on the website and cross objections will also be invited within a certain timeframe as mentioned in the Schedule for Entrance Test and Admission PU-CET(PG)-2018 at Page 120. The valid concerns thus expressed will be given due consideration for evaluation.

38. The final date by which Roll No. will be available online is 31.06.2018 (Friday). Admit Card required

to be downloaded from the website by the candidates using their own Login and Password (provided while generating Bank Challan). There will be no physical communication for this purpose.

39. No separate Result Card will be issued.

40. The following functionaries may be contacted only in case of extremely urgent enquiry from 10.00 a.m. to 4.00 p.m. (on working days only)

1. Assistant Registrar (C.E.T.) 0172-2534829, 9855018541 Mrs. Manorma Chauhan, Sr. Asstt. 9872305760

2. Controller of Examinations 0172-2534811, 2541825 3. P.U., Main Enquiry 0172-2534818, 2534819, 2534866 18001802065, 9988815005

41. Ragging in any form is banned in Panjab University. If a student is found to have indulged in ragging, strict action including expulsion from the Institution will be taken against that student as per Rules.

42. Special arrangements for amanuensis (writer of answer): A candidate may be allowed help of an amanuensis (writer) if he/she is:

(i) Blind OR (ii) Permanently disabled from writing with his/her own hand. (iii) Temporarily disabled from writing on account of fracture of the right or left arm, forearm

or dislocation of a shoulder elbow or wrist etc. The candidate shall produce a certificate from a Professor of the speciality concerned of a Medical College and where there is no Medical College, from the Chief Medical Officer of the District concerned to the effect that the candidate is unable to write his/her answer-books because of the temporary disablement.

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43. ADMISSION PROCESS

a) Qualifying an Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to seek admission in a course. The candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in and has to meet the eligibility requirements of the course.

b) Every candidate must apply for the Reserved Category(ies) to which he/she belongs to in the Admission Form. All candidates will be considered in the General Category irrespective of the fact that they have claimed for admission under Reserved/Additional Categories subject to the condition that they must fulfil the minimum eligibility requirement of the course for General Category. No candidate shall be considered for admission against any Reserved Category(ies) for which s/he has not applied.

c) Once the candidate has submitted the online Entrance Test Form, any change in the Form including category once marked shall not be allowed.

d) The candidates who are applying under the Sports Category are required to see Appendix B (pp. 35-44) for further procedures and guidelines.

e) Candidates who wish to claim weightage on the basis of NCC, NSS, Youth Welfare, ADULT EDUCATION and other activities should follow the guidelines as enshrined in the Handbook of Information-2018.

44. INSTRUCTIONS RELATED TO COUNSELLING

a) A candidate, whose name appears in the Merit List will be required to attend counselling personally according to her/his merit position on the day/s shown in the counselling schedule to be uploaded on the Online Notice Board and also on the physical notice board of the department concerned. Physical presence in the counselling is mandatory for all the candidates on the

notified dates. All those candidates who attend the counselling are requested to mark their attendance. Only those candidates who report and mark their attendance on the day(s) of counselling shall be considered for admission during the filling up of vacant seats. The candidate must bring alongwith all the original documents.

b) The candidate shall attend the counselling for admission at her/his own risk, expense and responsibility.

45. The admission of a candidate shall be PROVISIONAL and subject to approval by the appropriate authority of Panjab University.

46. CANCELLATION OF SEATS / ADMISSION

Admission of all such students who fail to attend at least 33% of the total lectures/ tutorials / practicals etc. delivered / held in all the papers during the first ten working days from the start of teaching work shall be cancelled by the Board of Control/ Joint Admission Cell after following the procedure given below:- a. By the 12

th day after the start of classes for a particular course, the names of those students

who fail to attend at least 33% of the total lectures / tutorials / practicals etc. shall be put up on the Notice Board and online Notice Board of the Department and also send a copy of the same to the office of the DUI.

b. If a student does not submit an application in writing within the prescribed time as stated above, or the reasons adduced by the student in his application are not found to be sufficient and justified in the opinion of the Board of Control/ Joint Admission Cell, his admission shall be cancelled.

c. All the seats thus falling vacant shall be filled strictly in the order of merit from the waiting list or through subsequent counselling before the expiry of the last date fixed for admissions by the University.

d. When the admission of the student(s) is cancelled as stated above, the Department shall display on the Notice Board and online Notice Board, the list of the person(s) next in the waiting list and make admissions accordingly.

e. Approval of cancellation of admission and permission to fill up the cancelled seat(s) is to be sought from the DUI.

47. For detailed Instructions related to admission, refer to Handbook of Information 2018, likely to be available at Panjab University website (http://admissions.puchd.ac.in).

69

INSTRUCTIONS FOR GIVING ANSWERS ON OMR ANSWER SHEET

1 All questions are to be attempted on the answer sheet as per instructions printed on the question booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.

2 The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Please follow the instructions given

on the answer sheet strictly otherwise it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account i.e. not following the instructions completely shall be of candidate only.

3 Each question is followed by four answer choices labeled A, B, C and D. Select the answer you think is the best response and darken the bubble bearing the correct response label against the serial number of the question. For example if you think that the answer to question number 2 is D, then mark as follows:

Q. 2

The Answer marked as under shall be considered as wrong: or or or or or

4 For marking answers use Black Gel Pen only to darken the corresponding circles.

5 If you do not want to answer any question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question

blank. It will be considered as an unattempted question.

6 Be very careful in filling in the bubble in the first instance since erasing or changing it will spoil the response and go to the disadvantage of the candidate.

7 In order to open the Question Booklet remove the paper band gently. 8. Write your Roll Number on the answer-sheet as also on the Question Booklet, only in the

space provided for the purpose and at no other place in the question Booklet and Answer Sheet.

9. The use of log tables is permitted, use of Calculator is not allowed.

10. Rough work should be done in the space provided for this purpose. No rough work shall be done

on the OMR Answer Sheet under any circumstances. 11. Penalty for wrong answers (Negative marking) will be applied i.e. marks will be deducted for

wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is to be awarded, for a wrong answer ¼ marks will be deducted. For example, these marks will be calculated as under:

P = Number of correct answers. Q = Number of wrong answers R = Number of unattempted questions

(An unattempted question means all the bubbles corresponding to that question are left blank).

It will also be checked that P + Q + R = Total marks allotted to the Paper.

Final Score = P - ¼ Q (calculated to the second place of decimal)

70

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Sample Questions for LL.M.

Part – I: Constitutional Law and Current Affairs

1. 2. 3. 4.

The doctrine of ―Basic Structure of the Constitution‖ was propounded by the Supreme Court of India in A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India,

AIR 1951 SC 458 B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab, AIR

1967 SC 1643 C) Kesavananda v. State of Kerala, AIR

1973 SC 1461 D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, AIR

1980 SC 1789 The President of India may make a proclamation under Article 356 as to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State. A) When he is personally satisfied as to

them circumstances. B) When he is advised by the Prime

Minister to do so. C) When he is advised by the Union

Council of Ministers. D) When he receives a report from the

Chief Election Commission. The President of India, in the matters of appointment of Judges of a High Court : A) Is not obliged to consult any Judge

of Supreme Court or High Court. B) Is bound by the advice of the

Governor of a State C) Must give primacy to the opinion of

the Chief Justice of India. D) Is not bound to consult the Chief

Justice of India. Right to education has been included in the constitution by A) 86

th Amendment

B) 100th

Amendment C) 87

th Amendment

D) 94th

Amendment

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Ordinance can be promulgated by the president of India if, A) Both the Houses of Parliament are

in session B) Both the Houses of Parliament are

not in session C) Either of the Houses is not in

session. D) None of the above.

How many amendments have been carried out in constitution of India? A) 109 B) 106 C) 99 D) 94 The tenure of Jammu and Kashmir Assembly is

A) 5 Years B) 6 Years C) 7 Years D) None of the above The attempt to suicide is no more punishable. Which section of the IPC was declared unconstitutional and hence void by the Supreme Court in April, 1994? A) 302 B) 303 C) 304 D) 309 The newly elected President of USA Barack Obama belongs to which political party. A) Republican B) Democratic. C) Communist D) None of the above

Since August 1994, the rupee has been made fully convertible in : A) The capital account B) The capital and saving account C) The saving account D) The current account

71

Part– II: Substantive Law Commercial Law (Law of Contract and Company Law)

1. 2. 3.

A contract entered into without ‗Free Consent‘ is : A) Void B) Voidable C) Valid D) Illegal Property insurance is a contract of : A) Indemnity B) Contingent contract C) Wagering agreement D) Guarantee

Creditor, on default by the principal debtor, can file suit against: A) Secured property B) Principal debtor alone C) Surety and principal debtor; D) All the above jointly.

4.

5.

A company is a Government Company only if : A) All the shares of the company are

held by Central or State Government;

B) At least 25% of Shares are held by Central or State Government;

C) Majority of Shares are held by Central or State Government or both;

D) Majority of Directors are appointed by the Central or State Government

Annual general meeting of a company is to be held with a gap between two consecutive meetings of successive Years; A) Of not more than twelve month; B) Of not more than twenty four

months; C) Of not more than fifteen months; D) Any time but less than twenty four

months Family Law

1. 2.

Which of the following is valid marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act. 1955?

A) H, a male Hindu aged 35 marries W who is a deserted wife of B, who had filed a suit for divorce and suit is still pending

B) H, a male Hindu aged 36 marries a second wife with the consent of his first wife who has not been able to have a child for the last 10 Years

C) H, a Brahmin Male aged 30, marries a Buddhist girl aged 18

D) H, an idiot male Hindu aged 27 marries W, a Hindu female Lunatic

Which of the following is valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956?

A) H, a male Hindu aged 26 adopts a daughter aged 6

B) H, a male Hindu and his wife adopt a son aged 16

C) H, a male Hindu aged 40 adopted a son aged 5, after his natural born son migrated to the U.S.A.

D) H, a Hindu bachelor aged 25 adopts a son aged 3

3.

4.

5.

Which of the following is Hindu under the Hindu Law? A) A is born of Hindu father and

Christian mother and brought up as a Christian

B) A is born of Hindu father and Buddhist mother

C) A is born of Muslim father and Parsi mother‘

D) A is born of Christian father and Muslim mother

Which of the following relatives will succeed to the Property of H, a Hindu male under the Hindu Succession Act 1956 after his death? A) Daughter B) Father C) Brother D) Sister Which of the following is SAHI NIKAH (valid marriage) under the Mohammedan Law? A) M, a Mohammedan male aged 30

married W, a Muslim woman under-going Iddat

B) M, a Mohammedan male aged 27, married W, a Muslim woman in a desert, without any witness

C) M, a Mohammedan male aged 35, married his wife‘s sister

D) M, a Mohammedan male aged 41, married W, a Muslim female aged 21 as second wife without the consent and against the wishes of his first wife

Law of Torts 1.

The defense of Volenti non fit injuria is available in : A) Rescue cases B) Help cases C) Negligence cases

4.

Malice/evil motive is relevant in : A) Negligence B) Defamation C) Vicarious Liability D) Nuisance

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2. 3.

D) Unlawful acts The test of reasonable foreseeability was laid down in : A) Re Polemis case B) Donoghue v. Stevenson C) Rylands v. Fletcher D) Ashby v. White There is physical harm to the plaintiff in : A) Assault B) Defamation C) Nervous shock D) None of these

5. Tort is : A) A wrong against the Society B) Statutorily defined in the Limitation

Act C) A codified branch of law D) A civil wrong based on the agreed

obligations

Legal Theory

1. 2. 3.

Who observed that International Law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence? A) Austin B) Salmond C) Starke D) Holland Identify the Jurist who defined Law as ―the form of the guarantee of the conditions of life of society, assured by the states‘ power of constraint‖: A) Roscoe Pound B)

Holmes C) Ihering D) Salmond Realist theory of law emphasizes on: A) Social function of law B) Human factors in law C) Social criterion of validity of law D) Essentiality of law for social life

4.

5.

According to Hohfield, the jural opposite of ‗Power‘ in the context of his analysis of legal right in the wider sense is : A) Liability B) Disability C) Duty D) Immunity Possession is said to be ownership on the defensive by : A) Savingny B) Salmond C) Ihering D) Gray

Public International Law

1. 2. 3.

‗International Law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principals and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the international community in their mutual relations‘ A) Oppenheim B) Lawrence C) Brierly D) Fenwick ‗The duties and rights of the States are only the duties and rights of men who compose them‘ : A) Kelsen B) Westlake C) Hall D) Starke ‗A State is, and becomes an international person, through recognition only and exclusively‘: A) Oppenheim B) Anzilotti C) Holland D) Pitt Corbett

4.

5.

―The rebus sic stantibus doctrine is one of the enigmas of International Law‖ who said A) Starke B) Edward Collin C) Oppenheim D) Anzilotti. ‗From the theoretical point of view, the provision for applying ‗the General Principles of Law‘ has been regarded as sounding the death-knell of positivism‘: A) Lauterpacht B) C.C.Hyde C) Starke D) Triepel

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Indian Penal Code 1. 2. 3.

P, a Pakistani, fires at A, an Indian, standing on the no-man‘s land. A runs and dies on the Indian territory: A) P has committed no offence B) P is liable for murder C) P is liable for attempt to culpable

homicide D) P is liable for attempt to grievous hurt. With an intention to kill B administers sugar mistaking it for arsenic : A) P has committed no offence B) P is liable for attempt to murder C) P is liable for culpable homicide D) P is liable for grievous hurt. P intentionally gives a sword cut to A. A subsequently dies of septic meningitis which developed on account of use of wrong remedies and neglect of treatment:

4.

5.

A) P is liable for murder B) P is liable for culpable homicide C) P is liable for grievous hurt D) P is liable for simple hurt P, a stoutly built man comes with a lathi in his hand. P picks up the bag of A who being weak person does not resist : A) P is liable for theft B) P is liable for robbery C) P is liable for extortion D) None of the above P threatens A with a pistol and puts his hand in A‘s pocket which is empty : A) P has committed no offence B) P is liable for attempt to theft C) P is liable for attempt to robbery D) P is liable for attempt to extortion

Transfer of Property Act

1. 2.

Which of the following is a non-transferable property under the T.P.Act: A) Actionable claim B) Mortgagor‘s right to redeem C) Lessee‘s right under the lease D) Right of an occupancy tenant The Supreme Court has held, that the rule of lis pendens equally applies to

involuntary transfers, in the case of A) Kedar Nath Vs. Sheo Narain AIR 1970

S.C. 1717 B) Narayana Rao Vs. Basavarajappa AIR

1956 S.C.727 C) Vidhyadhar Krishnarao Mungi Vs.

Usman Gani Saheb AIR 1974 S.C.685 D) Beepathuma Vs. Velasari Shankra-

Narayana Kadambolithaya AIR 1965 S.C.241

3.

4.

5.

Where a mortgagor personally binds himself to repay; the mortgage money by a certain date and possession of the property is delivered to the Mortgagee, the mortgage shall be recognized as : A) Simple mortgage B) English mortgage C) Usufructuary mortgage D) Anomalous mortgage The Transfer of Property Act applies to transfers : A) By operation of Law B) By act of parties C) By the Government D) By parties who are Muslims The rule that every transaction involving transfer of property is to be treated as single unit is the basis of A) The rule of apportionment B) The rule of lis pendens C) The rule of election D) The rule of contribution

Industrial Disputes Act 1. 2.

The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 aims at : A) Providing social security benefits to the

workmen B) Regulating conditions of work in

industries C) Investigation and settlement of

industrial disputes D) Regulating the employment of women

during certain periods Retrenchment means : A) Refusal by an employer to continue to

employ a workman B) Termination by the employer of the

service of a workman for any reason whatsoever

C) Inability on the part of employer to provide employment to the workman

D) Voluntary retirement of a workman

3.

4.

5.

The power of the Appropriate Government under Section 10 to refer industrial disputes for adjudication is : A) An administrative power B) Legislative power C) Judicial power D) Quasi-judicial power Lockout is : A) For trade reasons B) An act on the part of employer taken

to coerce or pressurize the labour C) Not an intentional act D) Not concerned with industrial dispute Strike means : A) Mere cessation of work B) Cessation of work under common

understanding C) Cessation of work coupled with

gherao of management D) Slowing down production

74

Sample Questions for Master of Computer Applications (MCA)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Which of the following is NOT a language processor? A) Compiler B) Loader C) Interpreter D) Assembler Which of the following is NOT an Internet protocol? A) LTP B) SMTP C) HTTP D) ATM The sequence that is in ascending order in size is A) bit, word, byte, nibble B) nibble, byte, bit, word C) nibble, bit, word, byte D) bit, nibble, byte, word Total number of ways in which four boys and three girls can sit in a row so that boys and girls have alternate seats is A) 72 B) 144 C) 288 D) 720 If the word MANMOHANWASHERE corresponds to ZOAABVNBJOFVRFR, then the word that corresponds to LRF is A) HEY B) MAN C) GOT D) YES

6.

7.

8.

9.

Two persons Ram and Shyam sort the letters at constant rate. Ram sorts L letters in 60 minutes while Shyam takes 30 minutes to sort L letters. The total time taken by both of them in sorting L letters working together but independently is A) 10 min B) 20 min C) 15 min D) 45 min The remainder obtained on dividing 2

1680 by 1763 is

A) 1 B) 3 C) 13 D) 31 The area bounded by the curve , y= (x+1)

2 , its tangent at (1, 4) and the x –

axis is A) 1/3 B) 2/3 C) 1 D) 4/3 The median of 25,13,4,6,3,11,15,10 is A) 4.5 B) 6.0 C) 10.5 D) 5.0

75

Sample Questions for M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication

1. Write about 150 words each on any two of the following: (16 Marks) a) American Presidential elections b) Budget 2008-09 c) Patriotism in Indian Cinema d) Beijing Olympics 2008 2. Rewrite the passage in 200 words: (8 Marks) It was a cold, windy, stormy, night where the wind was blowing very strongly. The driver of the truck was driving very fast on the wet road at a speed of over 150 km per hour. He did not see the branch of the tree lying on the wet road until he was almost upon it. He braked very hard. Because he braked very hard, the tyres skidded and he lost control and the truck crashed into the ditch on the side of the road. Eye witnesses said that the truck was being driven at very high speed because of which the driver lost control. Fortunately no one was killed. The driver escaped with minor injuries as he managed to jump out of the truck before it turned turtle into the ditch. Other than the fact of over speeding, blame can also be placed at the hands of the municipal authorities. The trees lining the stretch of the main road running through the city is lined by trees that are over a 100 Years old. What compounds the problem is that these trees are not pruned and they are a source of danger not only to vehicles but also the pedestrians. Many representations have been made to the authorities to uproot these old trees that are many decades old and to replace them with young saplings, particularly of a species that has hard wood. There is also no check post on this part of the road to check over speeding. This can prove dangerous especially on days that the weather is bad as people tend to drive very fast here as the stretch of the road here is straight and wide and people tend to over speed here. Also the streetlights also do not function always causing many accidents. 3. Write about 150 words each on two of the following: (16 Marks)

A) Dr. Manmohan Singh B) Young Turks in Indian Politics C) Your role model D) Sachin Tendulkar

4. English Comprehension: (4 x 5 Marks)

(I). Use the following words in sentences: (5 marks) A) Criterion B) Fallacious C) Discrepancy D) Voluble E) Appease

(II). Use the following idioms/phrases in sentences: (5 marks) A) Success is somebody else‘s failure B) To be or not to be C) A moot point D) The pros and cons E) Every cloud has a silver lining

(III). If an underlined word or phrase is incorrect, choose that letter; if the sentence is correct, select No error. (5 marks)

1. The region has a climate so severe that plants growing there rarely had been more

A B C than twelve inches high. No error.

D E

2. We admired his many attempts bravely to enter the burning building. No error. A B C D E

3. We must regard any statement about this controversy, whatever the source, as A B C

gossip until they are confirmed. No error. D E

4. She is the only one of the applicants who are fully qualified for the position. A B C D

No error. E

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5. That book is liable to become a bestseller because it is well written, full of suspense A B C and very entertaining. No error.

D E (III). Tick one of the options for filling in the blanks in each sentence: (5 marks)

1. In giving a speech, the speaker‘s goal is to communicate ideas clearly and __________, so that the audience will be in no ________ about the meaning of the speech. A) effectively … haste B) indirectly … distress C) unambiguously … confusion

2. The commission of inquiry censured the minister for his ________ expenditure of public funds, which they found to be _________. A) improper … vindicated B) lavish … unjustifiable C) arbitrary … critical

3. Pain is the body‘s early warning system: loss of _______ in the extremities leaves a person __________ injuring himself unwittingly. A) agony … incapable of B) feeling … habituated to C) sensation … vulnerable to

4. Fortunately, she was _________ her accomplishments, properly unwilling to ___________ them before her friends. A) deprecatory about … flaunt B) excited by … parade C) uncertain of … concede

5. Although its publicity has been ________, the film itself is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced and altogether ___________. A) tasteless … respectable B) perfect … spectacular C) sophisticated … amateur

5. Interpretative passage (5 Marks)

The most curious fact about the detective story is that it makes its greatest appeal precisely to those classes of people who are most immune to other forms of daydream literature. The typical detective story addict is a fairly successful professional man with intellectual interests and well read in his own field, who would never read gossipy movie magazines or comics. It is sometimes said that detective stories are read by respectful, law-abiding citizens in order to gratify, in fantasy, the violent wishes they dare not translate into action, but it is quite false. Detective fiction is a work of art where the author skillfully holds the attention of the reader, never letting him be sure, making him suspect every character by turn, until the last page, where the real culprit is revealed. All classics in detective fiction, ‗Crime and Punishment‘, ‗The Trial‘ etc. are examples of this. Of course, there is pulp literature also where the authors just churn out cheap stories based on a standard formula of sex, blood and violence.

I) The word ―curious‖ in line 1 means: A) Inquisitive B) Unusual C) Prying

II) The author asserts that readers of detective fiction are: A) People bent on satisfying an unconscious thirst for blood B) Dreamers unable to face the monotony of everyday reality C) Believers in a story well told

III) The opening paragraph suggests that the author considers movie magazines and comics to be: A) Sources of factual data about society B) Less addictive than detective fiction C) The typical literary fare of professionals

IV) The author‘s attitude to detective fiction can best be described as: A) Profound veneration B) Genuine appreciation C) Aloof indifference

V) The author emphasizes classic detective fiction as one that is: A) Free of cheap gimmicks B) Marked by suspense C) Moves in a chronological manner

77

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MASTER OF PUBLIC HEALTH

Q1) Which is the source of Chlorofluorocarbons? A. Thermal Power Plants B. Automobiles C. Refrigeration and Air – conditioning D. Fertilizers Q2) Among cereals and millets richest source of calcium is: A. Rice B. Bajra C. Maize D. Ragi Q3) Bissinosis is common in: A. Farmers B. Textile Industry C. Gold mine D. Cement factory Q4) The most populous state in India is: A. Uttar Pradesh B. Bihar C. Madhya Pradesh D. Kerala Q5) A doctor suggested to a couple not to have more than one child because of A. Rh+ male Rh- female B. Rh- male Rh+ female C. Rh+ male Rh+ female D. Rh- male Rh- female

Q 6)

Q 7)

Q 8)

Q9)

Q 10)

Acquired immunity is found in A. Invertebrates B. Vertebrates C. Some Invertebrates D. Both vertebrates and

invertebrates The incubation period of rabies ranges from – A. 1 to 2 days

B. 3 to 4 days C. 5 to 6 days D. 10 days to 1 Year At birth immunization required is A. BCG and OPV-O B. DPT-1 C. DPT-1 and OPV-1 D. Measles Anthracosis is caused due to A. Coal Dust B. Silica C. Fe D. Tobacco

Gini Index is associated with A. Distribution of diseases B. Distribution of Income C. Distribution of deaths D. Distribution of pollutants

78

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.A. (English)

I. The writing tasks given below will help us assess your proficiency in organizing your thoughts and

presenting them in a coherent manner. Please complete the task below within 250-300 words, writing at

least two paragraphs:

Social networking is the lifeline of the younger generation but some older people feel that it is a

waste of time. What is your opinion about social networking? State YOUR view clearly, giving

episodes or ideas from your own experience.

OR Focus in basic education is currently shifting towards a skill-based rather than a knowledge-based

model. Do you think this shift will be productive in the long run? Give your opinion on the changes that you see in the Indian system of education.

II. Attempt a critical appreciation of the poem given below:

FUNERAL BLUES

Stop all the clocks, cut off the telephone, Prevent the dog from barking with a juicy bone, Silence the pianos and with muffled drum Bring out the coffin, let the mourners come. Let aeroplanes circle moaning overhead Scribbling on the sky the message. He is Dead, Put crepe bows round the white necks of the public doves, Let the traffic policemen wear black cotton gloves. He was my North, my south, my East and West, My working week and my Sunday rest, My noon, my midnight, my talk, my song; I thought that love would last forever: I was wrong. The stars are not wanted now; put out every one, Pack up the moon and dismantle the sun, Pour away the ocean and sweep up the woods; For nothing now can ever come to any good.

OR The World is too much with us The world is too much with us; late and soon, Getting and spending, we lay waste our powers: Little we see in Nature that is ours; We have given our hearts away, a sordid boon! This Sea that bares her bosom to the moon; The winds that will be howling at all hours, And are up-gathered now like sleeping flowers; For this, for everything, we are out of tune, It moves us not.—Great God! I‘d rather be A Pagan suckled in a creed outworn; So might I, standing on this pleasant lea, Have glimpses that would make me less forlorn; Have sight of Proteus rising from the sea; Or hear old Triton blow his wreathed horn.

III. Answer any FOUR in 50-100 words each: a. The difference between heroic and mock heroic modes b. The hallmark of eighteenth century satire c. Some of the features of comedy of manners d. What were the reasons for the rise of the novel? e. Why did modern poets choose to write free verse?

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SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.A. (GEOGRAPHY)

1. The temperature of Thiruvananthapuram is lower than that of Mumbai in May and higher than that of Mumbai in January because: A) Thiruvananthapuram has a cold current

and Mumbai a warm current B) Thiruvananthapuram has higher rainfall in

summer and it is closer to the equator. C) Thiruvananthapuram is on the windward

side and Mumbai is on the leeward side. D) Thiruvananthapuram is thickly vegetated

while Mumbai is not 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

a barkhan? A) Its horns point in a down wind direction. B) It has a crescent shape C) Its windward slope is concave D) It moves in the direction of the wind.

3. If the number of a Survey of India topographical sheet is 53 E/1, it‘s scale is: A) 1:25 000 B) 1:50 000 C) 1:250 000 D) 1:5000

4. Coral reefs are to be found in: A) Polar latitudes B) Tropical latitudes C) Temperate latitudes D) All of the above

5. The age and sex composition of the population is best represented by A) Choropleth B) Isopleth C) Pie Diagram D) Pyramid Diagram

6. Which of the following is an antecedent river?

A) Beas B) Satluj C) Ravi D) Jhelum

7. Representative Fraction is a method used for

showing A) Scale on the map B) Direction on the map C) Contours on the map D) Distance on the map

8. Which of the following is not a method used for

finding north A) Pole Star method B) Similar Triangles method C) Watch method D) Rod method

9. Following is an example of cold desert

A) Sahara B) Kalahari C) Gobi D) Mojave

10. Mercator‘s Projection was used primarily for

drawing A) Distribution Maps B) Political Maps C) Navigational Maps D) Cadastral Maps

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MASTERS IN DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Spread of epidemics is associated with A) Floods B) Landslides C) Earthquake D) Volcanic Eruption

2. The switching over from the use of diesel to CNG is important because: A) CNG is cheaper than diesel B) Diesel is polluting fuel and CNG in non-

polluting fuel C) CNG is easily available D) CNG is a non renewable resource

3. Which of the following is caused due to water contamination? A) Oral Cancer B) Hypertension C) Gastroenteritis D) Tuberculosis

4. Which of the following is a conventional source

of energy? A) Solar Energy B) Thermal Energy C) Tidal Energy D) Wind Energy

5. Which of the following is a primary activity? A) Teaching B) Retail trade C) Mining D) Tailoring

6. RIO-10 (The World Summit for Sustainable

Development) in 2002 was held at A) Keo Karo (India) B) Johannesburg (South Africa) C) New York (USA) D) Melbourne (Australia)

7. Approximately 71% surface of earth is covered

with water bodies, ice caps and glaciers that is why earth is also known as:- A) Blue Planet B) Green Planet C) White Planet D) Yellow Planet

8. Which of the following is eco-friendly way of managing kitchen waste? A) Open dumping B) Land filling C) Burning D) Vermi Composting

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9. Indian Cheetah and Dodo bird are: A) Vulnerable species B) Extinct species C) Threatened species D) Rare species

10. Harike wetland is located on confluence of which two rivers? A) Ganga-Yamuna B) Chandra-Bhaga C) Ganga-Brahmaputra D) Beas-Satluj

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MASTERS IN REMOTE SENSING & GIS

1. Consider the following statements: A The representative fraction of a map = distance on the ground

distance on the map B the denominator of the representative fraction is always once

A) A only B) B only C) Both A and B D) Neither A or B

2. Map showing the depths of oceans and seas

is termed as: A) Ethnographic map B) Orographic map C) Bathymetric map D) Geological map

3. Which one of the following is the largest scale

of map? A) 1 : 10 000 B) 1 : 50 000 C) 1: 100 000 D) 1 : 1000 000

4. Kaziranga is famous for:

A) Great Indian Bustard B) One horned rhino C) Cheetah D) Ostrich

5. In the topographical sheet settlements are

represented by A) Green Color B) White Color C) Red Color D) Black Color

6. Silent Valley is located in

A) Kashmir B) Kerala C) Uttaranchal D) Tamil Nadu

7. Which of the following is a perspective

projection?

A) Cylindrical Equal Area B) Bonne‘s Projection C) Gnomonic Projection D) Sinusoidal Projection

8. The point vertically below the camera lens in a

photograph is called: A) Ground point B) Principal point C) Isocenter D) Ground nadir point

9. Which one of the following is the smallest

scale of map? A) 1: 10 000 B) 1:50 000 C) 1: 100 000 D) 1: 1000 000

10. Output Device of a computer is: A) Keyboard B) Printer C) Monitor D) Speaker

11. Pixel refers to

A) Picture element B) Picture effect C) Perfect element D) Primary element

12. The term GPS refers to:

A) Global Prevention System B) Global Protection System C) Global Positioning System D) None of the above.

13. The term GIS refers to:

A) Geographical Informative System B) Global Information System C) Geological Information System D) Geographical Information System

81

Sample question paper Master of History

Note : 1. Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. Attempt any 05 Questions in 80-100 words each. Each question carries 05 marks. (5 x 5 = 25 marks). 2. Attempt any one Question from Unit –II in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks. 3. Attempt any One Question from Unit-III in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.

UNIT-I

Q-I

i. What is meant by Mahajanpada ? ii. Explain Dhamma. iii. Explain Mansabdari System. iv. What was meant by Sangat ? v. Who were the Sufis ? vi. What is meant by commercialisation of agriculture ? vii. Explain Doctrine of Lapse. viii. Discuss the demand of Punjabi Suba ?

UNIT-II

Q-II Write a note on the agriculture conditions in Ancient India. Q-III Comment on the impact on Mohhanmad-Bin-Tuglaq‘s administrative experiments.

Q-IV Assess the contribution of the masses in the struggle for Independence.

Q-V How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh establish the kingdom of Lahore ?

UNIT-III

Q-VI What should be the role of the opposition parties in the Parliament ? Q-VII Comment on the status of Women in Post Independent India.

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SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.E. (CHEMICAL) & M.E. (CHEMICAL)

WITH SPECIALISATION IN ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING Pick-up the correct option:

1. One mole of Nitrogen at 8 bar and 600K is contained in a piston-cylinder arrangement. It is brought to 1 bar

isothermically against a resisting pressure of 1 bar. The work done (in Joules) by the gas is (a) 30554 (b) 10373 (c) 4988.4 (d) 4364.9

2. For water at 3000C, it has a vapour pressure 8592.7 kPA and fugacity 6738.9 kPa. Under these conditions,

one mole of water in liquid phase has a volume 25.28 cm3, and that in vapour phase 391.1 cm

3. Fugacity of

water (in kPa) at 9000 kPa will be (a) 6738.9 (b) 6753.5 (c) 7058.3 (d) 900

3. A dilute aqueous solution is to be concentrated in an evaporator system. High pressure steam is available. Multiple effect evaporator system is employed because. (a) total heat transfer area of all the effects is less than that in a single effect evaporator system (b) total amount of vapour produced per kg of feed steam in a multieffect system is much higher than in a

single effect (c) boiling point elevation in a single effect system is much higher than that in any effect in a multieffect

system. (d) heat transfer coefficient in a single effect is much lower than that in any effect in a multieffect system

4. Minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column results in (a) Optimum number of trays (b) Minimum reboiler size (c) Maximum condenser size (d) Minimum number of trays

5. An elementary liquid phase decomposition reaction A k2B is to be carried out in a CSTR. The design

equation is

(a) A

A

X

Xk

1

(b)

A

AA

X

XXk

1

1

(c) A

A

X

Xk

1

(d)

2

2

1

1/

A

AAAO

X

XXCk

6. Match the following dimensionless numbers with the appropriate ratio of forces.

Dimensionless Number Ratio of forces P Froude Number 1. Shear force/internal force Q Reynolds Number 2. Convective heat transfer/conductive heat transfer R Friction Facter 3. Gravitational force/viscous force S Nusselt Number 4. Inertial force/viscous force 5. Inertial force/ gravitational force

(a) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (b) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (c) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

7. A process stream of dilute aqueous solution flowing at the rate of 10 Kg s

-1 is to be heated. Steam

condensate at 950C is available for heating purpose, also at a rate of 10 kgs

-1. A 1-1 shell and tube heat

exchange is available. The best arrangement is (a) counterflow with process stream on shell side

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(b) counterflow with process stream on tube side (c) parallel flow with process stream on shell side (d) parallel flow with process stream on tube side

8. The Reynolds Number of the liquid was increased 100 fold for a laminar falling film used for gas-liquid contacting. Assuming penetration theory is applicable, the fold-increase in the mass transfer coefficient (kc) for the same system is: (a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 1

9. A closed-loop system is stable when the gain margin is:

a. 1

b. 1 c. 1 d. Zero

10. The aerosols important in air pollution range from:

e. 0.01 to 100 m

f. 100 m to 100 m

g. 0.001 m to 0.01 m

h. 0.001 m 11. The order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is:

i. 2 j. 3 k. 0 l. 1

12. Runge-Kutta method is used to solve:

m. linear algebraic equations n. linear simultaneous equations o. ordinary differential equations of first order and first degree with given initial condition p. partial differential equations

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.E. (FOOD TECHNOLOGY)

1. The limiting value of Sherwood number for mass transfer from a spherical object is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 0.5 2. The primary protein in milk is (A) casein (B) tryptophan (C) lysine (D) glutenin 3. Percentage of fat in butter is (A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 80 4. The power consumed by a drum dryer

depends upon (A) Drum speed (B) Steam Pressure

(C) Pressure exerted by the blade on the drums

(D) Length and diameter of the drum

5. Freeze drying time is directly proportional to the __________of the material being dried. (A) thickness (B) square of the thickness (C) cube of thickness (D) fourth power of thickness

6. With increase in concentration of solute in a solution, boiling point

(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains constant (D) none of these 7. The major forces acting in cyclone

separator are (A) gravity and centrifugal (B) gravity and centripetal (C) centrifugal and centripetal (D) None of these

8. Ultra filtration is used for production of

(A) Butter (B) Ghee

84

(C) Cheese (D) Ice-cream

9. Vacuum packaging is normally used for

(A) milk powder (B) paneer (C) yoghurt

(D) None of these 10. The water activity of free water should be

(A) 1 (B) less than one (C) more than one (D) 0

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.TECH. (POLYMER)

Pick-up the correct option:

1. Polymer formed in cationic Polymerization has

a) narrow molecular weight distributions

b) medium molecular weight distributions

c) broad molecular weight distributions

d) general isotactic structure

2. Thermokol is the trade name of

a) high impact polystyrene

b) general purpose polystyrene

c) acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene

d) expanded polystyrene

3. The order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is: a) 2 b) 3 c) 0 d) 1

4. Runge-Kutta method is used to solve: a) linear algebraic equations b) linear simultaneous equations c) ordinary differential equations of first order

and first degree with given initial condition d) partial differential equations

5. For an isotherm process, pressure, P and Bulk modulus, K is related as:

a) K = P

b) K = P

c) K = P/

d) K = p2

6. Which one of the following fluids is essentially a non-Newtonian fluid under normal working conditions?

a) blood

b) thin lubricating oil

c) water

d) air

7. The pressure drop per unit length of a pipe under laminar flow condition is:

a) 2

32

d

Vav

b) 4

128

d

Q

c) either (a) or (b)

d) none of these

8. The LMTD correction factor FT:

a) increases with decrease in number of shell passes

b) increases with increase in number of shell passes

c) remains constant with the increase in number of shell passes

d) any one of the above, depending upon the type of exchanger.

9. In case of a packed tower, HETP varies with:

a) type and size of packing

b) flow rate of each fluid

c) concentration of each fluid

d) all of above

10 For a binary mixture at constant temperature, with the increase of total pressure, the relative volatility:

a) decreases

b) increases

c) remains constant

d) none of these

11. An irreversible first order reaction is carried out in a PFTR and CSTR of same volume. The liquid flow rates are same in each reactor. The relative conversion will be:

a) less in pftr than in cstr

b) more in cstr than in pftr

c) less in cstr than in pftr

d) same in each reactor

12. Grizzlies are used for screening solid particles of:

a) large size

b) small size

c) very small size

d) any one of the above

85

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.SC. (INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY) PART-A : MATHEMATICS

Q.1. If x be real, 72

713422

2

xx

x can have no value between

(a) (3,7) (b) (4,8) (c) (5,9) (d) (10,15)

Q.2. The set of equation x + y- 2z =0, 2x-3y+z=0, x-5y+yz=k is consistent for

(a) K = 0 (b) K = 1 (c) K = 2 (d) K = 5

Q.3. If U = yx

yx

44

, show that y

Uy

x

Ux

is equal to

(a) U (b) 2 U (c) 3 U (d) 5 U

PART-B: PHYSICS

Q.4. Out of Fm, V and B in the relation Fm = q (V x B ) which of the following pavis can have any angle

between them.

(a)

V and

B

(b)

F and

V

(c) mF

and

B

(d) None of the above Q.5. A body under the action of inverse square force will follow and elliptical path, if eccentricity

(a) e=0 (b) e=1 (c) e>1 (d) e<1 (Positive)

Q.6. If B = curl A , then

(a)

B = 0

(b)

B = 1

(c)

B = A

(d)

B = -1

PART-C : CHEMISTRY

Q.7. The IUPAC name for CH3CH2 – C – OCH3 is

O

(a) methyl propanoate (b) Porpanendioic acid (c) 2-propane-l-ol (d) 3 oxo-1-methyl butane

86

Q.8. The number of NMR signals for the compound CH3OCH2CH3 is (a) One signal (singlet) (b) Two signals (one singlet, one multiple) (c) Three signals (singlets) (d) Three signals (singlet, quartet, triplet)

Q.9. When Propane is treated with HBr in the presence of a peroxide

(a) Bromopropene is formed (b) n-propyl bromide (c) Allyl bromide is formed (d) None of these

PART-D : INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY

Q.10. The Fourier number (NFo) is defined as

(a) tL2/

(b) hL/k

(c) t/L2

(d) hk/L Q.11. Baffles are provided in the heat exchanger to increase

(a) fouling factor (b) heat transfer area (c) heat transfer coefficient (d) heat transfer rate

Q.12. Relative volatility, , for a binary system (a) decrease with increase in pressure (b) increase with increase in pressure (c) increase with increase in temperature at constant pressure. (d) has no significance in distillation operation

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR

ME Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) Regular programme

1. 2. 3. 4.

Which term applies to the maintaining of a given signal level until the next sampling?

1. 1. Holding 2. Aliasing 3. Shannon frequency sampling 4. Stair-stepping What does a Hall Effect sensor sense? A) Temperature B) Moisture C) Magnetic fields D) Pressure Two copper-constantan thermocouples are connected such that the two constantan wires are joined together. The two copper wires are connected to the input of a low noise chopper stabilized differential amplifier having a gain of 1000. One of the thermocouple junctions is immersed in a flask containing ice and water in equal proportion. The other thermocouple is at a temperature T. If the output of the amplifier is 2.050V, the temperature T is A) 205°C B) 102.5°C C) 51.25°C D) 50°C A second order feedback system is found to be oscillating with a high frequency. The oscillations

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

Addressing mode of the instruction- ORL A, @ R0 is: A) Direct A) Indirect C) Register D) Immediate Which type of programming is typically used for digital signal processors? A) Assembly language B) Machine language C) C D) None of the above A phase lag compensation coil A) Improves relative stability B) Increases bandwidth C) Increases overshoot D) None of the above Which one of the following is Programmable Interrupt Controller? A) 8257 B) 8254 C) 8255 D) 8259 RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors A) In a pi configuration B) In a bridge configuration C) And variable resistors D) And capacitors in a filter-type

87

1.

A) Can be reduced by increasing the proportional action. B) Can be reduced by increasing the integral action. C) Can be reduced by increasing the derivative action. D) Cannot be reduced.

10.

circuit For a first order instrument a 5% settling time is equal to 1. Three times the time constant. 2. Two times the time constant. C) The time constant. D) Time required for the output

signal to reaches 5% of the final value.

Sample Questions for

M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering) Regular Programme

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Which rectifier requires four diodes? A) half-wave voltage doubler B) full-wave voltage doubler C) full-wave bridge circuit D) voltage quadrupler

If the input is a rectangular pulse, the output of an integrator is a

A) Sine wave B) Square wave C) Ramp D) Rectangular pulse

The energy gap in a semiconductor A) Increases with temperature B) Does not change with

temperature C) Decreases with temperature D) Is zero

The LASER diode sources require

A) Spontaneous emission B) Absorption C) Stimulated emission D) None of the above

2‘s complement representation of a 16-bit number (one sign bit and 15 magnitude bits) is FFFF. Its magnitude in decimal representation is

A) 0 B) 1 C) 32, 767 D) 65, 565

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

The Boolean function Y=AB + CD is to be realized using only 2 inpute NAND gates. The minimum number of gates required is

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Which device is considered a current controlled device:

A) Diode B) Filed effect transistor C) Transistor D) Resistor

In an amplifier, the emitter junction is A) Forward Biased B) Reverse Biased C) Grounded D) Shorted

Unijunction Transistor has three terminals,

A) Cathode, Anode, Gate B) Grid, Plate, Cathode C) Base 1, Base 2, Emitter D) Gate, Base 1, Base 2

GSM stands for A) Global System for Mobile

Communication B) Global System for Multiplexing C) Group System for Mobile

Communication D) None of these

Sample Questions for M.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) Regular Programme

1. Which of the following is the name of the data structure in a compiler that is responsible for managing

information about variables and their attributes? A) Abstract Syntax tree B) Symbol Table C) Variable value stack D) Parse tree

2. Seven (distinct) car accidents occurred in a week. What is the probability that they all occurred on the same day? A) 1/7

7 B) 1/7

6

C) 1/27

D) 7/27

3. Which of the following statements is false A) As unambiguous grammar has same leftmost and rightmost derivation B) An LL (1) parser is top down parser C) LALR is more powerful than SLR

88

D) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR (k) for any k

4. What will be the output of the following program? void main() int var 1 = 10, var2 = 20, var3; Var3 = var1++ + ++var2; Printf(―%d%d%d‖, var1, var2, var3); A) 10 20 30 B) 11 21 31 C) 10 21 30 D) 11 21 30

5. Which of the following data structures will allow mergesort to work in O(nlogn) time? I. A singly linked list II. A doubly linked list III. An array A) III only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III

6. In the internet Protocol (IP) suite of protocols, which of the following best describes the purpose of the

Address Resolution Protocol? A) To translate Web addresses to host names B) To determine the IP address of a given host name C) To determine the hardware address of a given host name D) To determine the hardware address of a given IP address

7. The binary relation R= (1,1), (2,1),(2,2), (2,3), (2,4),(3,1),(3,2), (3,3), (3,4) on the set A= 1,2,3,4 is:

A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive B) neither reflexive, nor irreflexive but transitive C) irreflexive, symmetric and transitive D) irreflexive and antisymmetric

8. Consider the following statements:

(i) First-in first-out types of computations are efficiently supported by STACKS (ii) Implementing LISTS on linked lists is more efficient than implementing LISTS on an array for

almost all the basic LIST operations (iii) Implementing QUEUES on a circular array is more efficient than implementing QUEUES on a

linear array with two indices (iv) Last – in – first – out type of computations are efficiently supported by QUEUES A) (ii) and (iii) are true B) (i) and (ii) are true C) (iii) and (iv) are true D) (ii) and (iv) are true

9. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order of following integers

50,15,62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3, 8, 37, 60, 24 The number of nodes in the left subtree and right subtree of the root respectively is A) (4, 7) B) (7, 4) C) (8, 3) D) (3, 8)

10. A directed graph with n vertices and e edges are represented by Adjacency matrix. What is the time

required to determine the in-degree of a vertex? A) O(e) B) O(n) C) O(n

2)

D) O (e+n)

89

Sample Questions for ME Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Regular Programme

Q.1. Mass moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length (I) about its mid-point and

perpendicular to its length is

(a) 2 MI2 (b) 1MI

2 (c)

3MI

2 (d) 4MI

3 3 4 3 Q.2. The point of contraflexure is a point where (a) Shear force changes sign (b) Bending moment changes sign (c) Shear force is maximum (d) Bending moment is maximum Q.3. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter at throat to

the diameter of pipe should be (a) 1 to 8 (b) 1 to 1 (c) 1 to 1 (d) 1 to 1 16 8 8 4 4 3 3 2 Q.4. The main cause of silting in channel is (a) Non-regime section (b) Inadequate slope (c) Defective head regulator (d) All of these Q.5. Weight of a vehicle affects (a) Passing sight distance (b) Extra widening (c) Pavement thickness (d) Width of lanes Q.6. The difference between maximum void ration and minimum void ratio of a sand sample is 0.30. If the

relative density of this sample is 66.6% at a void ration of 0.40 then the void ratio of this sample at its loosest state will be

(a) 0.40 (b) 0.60 (c) 0.70 (d) 0.75 Q.7. The diagonal tension in concrete can be resisted by providing (a) Diagonal tension reinforcement (b) Shear reinforcement (c) Inclined tension reinforcement (d) All these Q.8. Rivet value is equal to (a) Strength of a rivet in shearing

(b) Strength of a rivet in bearing (C) Minimum of the value obtained in (a) and (b) (d) Maximum of the value obtained in (a) and (b) Q.9. Rise and fall method is used in (a) Profile leveling (b) Differential leveling (c) Check leveling (d) Non of these Q. 10. The alkaline salt present in the bricks, absorbs moisture from the air which on drying (a) Leaves pores and makes the bricks porous (b) Leaves high powder deposit on the brick (c) Makes the brick brittle and weak (d) All of these

90

Sample Questions for ME Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Technology) Regular Programme

Q.1. An inertial frame of reference has (a) Fixed origin but directions of axes can change with time (b) Fixed origin as well as fixed directions of its axes (c) Fixed directions of axes but origin can change with time (d) Any of the above Q.2. Dimensional formula for Young‘s modulus of elasticity is (a) ML

-1T

-2

(b) MLT-2

(c) M

-1L

-1T

-1

(d) ML-2

T-2

Q.3. Which of the following processes would be best suited for stress relieving, improving machineability and ductility in casting and deep drawn components (a) Austempering (b) Tempering (c) Normalising (d) Annealing Q.4. The pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is same in all directions, only when (a) The fluid is frictionless (b) The fluid is frictionless and incompressible (c) The fluid has zero viscosity and is at rest Q.5. In orthogonal cutting, cutting face is inclined to the direction of cut at (a) 90 degree (b) Less than 90 degree (c) Between 30 and 45 degrees (d) Greater than 90 degree

Q.6. In statistical quality control + 3 means the percentage of items within acceptable limits will be: (a) 68.26 (b) 95.46 (c) 99.73 (d) 50 Q.7. In the specification of fits (a) Allowance is equal to twice the tolerance (b) Allowance is equal to half of tolerance (c) Allowance is independent of tolerance (d) Allowance is equal to the difference between maximum material limit mating parts.

91

Sample paper M.E. Electrical Engineering (Power System)

Q.1 The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier

circuit can be (A). 37.2% (B). 40.6% (C). 53.9% (D). 81.2%

Q.6 For a two port linear passive bilateral network is (A). AD=BC (B). AD-BC=0 (C). AD-BC=1 (D). AB-BC=1

Q.2 An overcurrent relay of current 5A and setting 150% is connected to the secondary of CT while CT ratio is 300:5. The current in the lines for which relay picks up is

(A) 300 A (B) 450 A (C) 150 A (D) 200 A

Q.7 A distribution station has a peak load of 3000 kW and total annual energy of 10

7 kWh. The peak power loss is 220 kW.

The loss factor is: (A). 0.215 (B). 0.285 (C). 0.325 (D). 0.356

Q.3 A 100 mA meter has accuracy of ±2%. Its accuracy while reading 50 mA will be

(A) ± 1% (B) ± 2% (C) ± 4% (D) ± 20%

Q.8 The load frequency response in a system (A). Does consider the reactive power flow (B). Does not consider the reactive power flow (C). Does not consider the real power flow (D). Consider Active power

Q.4 A 4-digit DVM(digital voltmeter) with a 100-mV lowest full scale range would have a sensitivity of how much value while resolution of this DVM is 0.0001

(A). 0.1 mV (B). 0.01 mV (C). 1.0 mV (D). 10 mV

Q.9 For a synchronous phase modifier, the load angle is (A). 0

0

(B). 250

(C ) 300

(D). 500

Q.5 In a 4-bit weighted resistor D/A converter, the resistor value corresponding to LSB is

32 kΩ .The resistor value corresponding to MSB will be

(A). 32Ω (B). 16Ω (C). 8Ω (D). 4Ω

Q.10 A pilot exciter is: (A). A level compound small DC generator (B). A small servo type synchronous generator (C). A main synchronous generator (D). A main exciter

92

M.Tech Material Science (Entrance Test)

Use of calculator is not allowed

Q1. In a solid lattice the cation has left a lattice site and is located at an interstitial position, the lattice defect is

A) Interstitial defect B) Frenkel Defect C) Schottky Defect D) Valency Defect

Q7. Which of the following is an aromatic amino acid

A) Tyrosine B) Glutamic acid C) Arginine D) Cystenine

Q2. The existence of energy bands in a solid is a consequence of

A) Interaction of atoms B) Interference of electron waves C) Random motion of electrons D) Effective mass of electron

Q8. The region between the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥,

0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 4, and the x-axis is revolved about the x-axis to generate the solid. Find its volume.

A) 2𝜋 (B) 4 𝜋

C) 6 𝜋 (D) 8𝜋

Q9. Find the flux of 𝐹 = 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑖 + 𝑥𝑗 across the

circle 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 = 1 in the xy-plane.

Q3. Two sources of light are said to be coherent if waves produced by them have the same

A) Frequency B) Amplitude C) Amplitude and same wavelength D) Frequency and constant phase difference

A) 0 B) 1 C) 𝜋

D) (d) –𝜋

Q10. In a skew symmetric matrix A, all diagonal element are ___________

A) 1 B) 2 C) -1 D) 0

Q4. Beautiful colours of oil films and soapy water are due to

A) Interference B) Diffraction C) Polarisation D) Compton effect

Q5. Which elements have non bonding electrons A) Elements with lone pair B) Electronegative elements C) Both of them D) None of them

Q6. Enzyme-substrate kinetics can be studied via A) Stern Volmer plots B) DFT calculation C) Michaelis Menten Kinetics D) none of the above

93

Sample Questions for M.E. Biotechnology

1. Which of the following is not measure of central tendency. a) Mean b) Mode

c) Range d) Median 2.Literature databases include.

a) MEDLINE and PubMED b) MEDLINE and PDB c) PubMED and PDB d) MEDLINE and PDS

3.GenBank,the nucleic acid sequence database is maintained by a) Brookhaven Laboratory b) DNA database of Japan c) European Molecular Biology Laboratory d) National Centre for Biotechnology Information

4.Which of the following are similar between transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes a) RNA polymerase products in mRNA which grows in 5‘‘ -3‖direction b) RNA polymerase bind to ribosomes to allow transcription c) A poly-A tail is added to the 3‖end of mRNAs d) Introns are present in genes which are spliced out after transcription

5.Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because: a) It is inserted into the X chromosome b) It is inherited only through female parent c) It evolves more slowly than the genes in nucleus d) It first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals 6.The lac operon in E coli is involved in

a) Regulating the expression of gene b) Controlling DNA replication c) Regulating the translation of mRNA d) Controlling the formation of ribosome

7.Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because

a) It is organic solvent b) It easily penetrates cells c) It protects cells by preventing crystallization of water d) It is also utilized as a nutrient

8.The helix content of a protein can be determinded using a) An infrared spectrometer b) A fluorescence spectrometer c) A circular dischroism spectrometer d) A UV-Visible spectrophotometer 9.Frequency of a gene in a population will increase if the gene is

a) Lethal b) Dominant c) Recessive d) Favorably selected

94

10.Km is the substrate concentration at which

a) The reaction rate is double of the maximum b) The reaction rate is one half of the maximum c) The enzyme is completely saturated with substrate d) The enzymatic reaction stops

11. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool a) BLAST b) PRINT c) PROSITE d) PIR

12. Amino acid residue which is most likely to be found in the interior of water-soluble globular proteins is

a) Threonine b) Aspartic acid c) Valine d) Histidine

97

Sample Questions for M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) 1. Which one of the following is correct? In normal shock wave in one dimensional

flow A. The entropy remains constant B. The entropy increases across the

shock C. The entropy decreases across the

shock D. The velocity, pressure, and density

increase across the shock 2. Which of the following are the limitation of

the powder metallurgy? A) High tooling and equipment costs B) Wastage of material C) It cannot be automated D) Expensive metallic powders Select the correct answer using the code Code – 1) Only A and B Code – 2) Only B and D Code – 3) Only A and D Code – 4) Only A, B and D

3. Subooling in the condenser of a refrigerator system is advisable when A) Expansion system is at a higher

elevation value is at a higher B) There is a large pressure drop in the

line connecting condenser to the expansion valve.

C) The refrigeration effect is to be increased.

D) The compressor work is to reduced Code – 1) Only A and B Code – 2) Only A, C and D Code – 3) Only B, C and D Code – 4) A, B and D

4.

5.

6.

An Orthotropic material under plane stress condition will have

A) 15 independent elastic constants B) 5 independent elastic constants C) 6 independent elastic constants

When dry bulb and thermodynamic wet bulb temperatures are same A) Humidity ratio is 100% B) Partial pressure of water vapour equal

total pressure C) Air is fully saturated D) Dew point temperature is reached E) All of these F) None o these In a cooling tower, the minimum temperature to which water can be cooled is equal to the A) Dew point temperature of the air at the

inlet B) Dry bulb temperature of the air at the

inlet C) Thermodynamic wet bulb temperature

of the air at the inlet D) Mean of the dew point and dry bulb

temperature of the air at inlet

Sample Questions for M.Com. ( Business Economics) 4. Accounting is the language of –

E. Business F. Books of Accounts G. Accountant H. None of these

5. Which of the following is not included under accounting concepts? E) Money Measurement Concept F) Business Entity Concept G) Continuity Concept H) None of these

6. Which expenses is of Capital Nature? E) Depreciation F) Wages G) Salary H) Stationary

7. Dividend can be declared from – A) Revenue Profit B) Capital Profit C) Secret Reserve D) All of these

8. Privatization is the result of – A) Economic Compulsion B) Social Compulsion C) Global Compulsion D) Market Compulsion

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

An agreement enforceable by law is called –

D) Voidable Contract E) Void Agreement F) Legal Agreement G) Valid Contract The Sale of Goods Act came into force from – A) July 1, 1932 B) July 1, 1930 C) July 1, 1935 D) July 1, 1940 The value of the variable which occurs most frequently in a distribution is called – A) Mode B) Mean C Median D) All of these

The arithmetic mean of a series is the figure obtained by dividing the sum of values all items by A) 2 B) 3 C) 3 D) Their Number Which of the following is Business Averages? A) Moving average B) Progressive average C) Composite Average D) All of these

98

Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business (MEFB)

1.

2.

3.

Part A: Verbal ability/Reasoning

Disease: Health:: Freedom : ? A) Slavery B) Pleasure C) Plight D) Beauty If you are going to west in the afternoon, the sun will be visible at your left. A) Never B) Always C) Sometimes D) Often Fill in the blank with the most suitable alternative. He shouted …………. at the subordinate. A) Loud B) Loudly C) Loudely D) Loudingly

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Part B: General Knowledge

In which organ of the human body would you find a cluster of cells which produce insulin? A) Bile B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Brain Which area in India is the only breeding ground of the flamingo? A) Rann of Kutch B) North East C) Himalayas D) Bay of Bengal Which was the first Capital of Pakistan? A) Karachi B) Lahore C) Islamabad D) Peshawar Which Olympic did Milkha Singh break the world record in the 400 metres event. A) Rome B) Athens C) Beijing D) None of the above Kuchipudi is a dance form of A) Tamil Nadu B) Orissa C) Kerala D) None of the above

Part C: Data Interpretation

According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women, the following data were collected.

Qualification Unemployed Men Unemployed Women

Doctors 12.5% 15%

Engineers 20.0% 7.5%

Trained Teachers 15.0% 22.5%

Post-Graduates 22.5% 25.0%

Graduates 30.0% 30.0%

1.

2.

1.

On the basis of above Table, what is the difference between the number of unemployed men and women doctors? A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) None of the above

What is the total number of unemployed Graduates? A) 425 B) 475 C) 550 D) 600 Part D: Commerce/ Economics

The sale of goods Act came into force from – A) July 1, 1932 B) July 1, 1930 C) July 1, 1935 D) July 1, 1940

2.

3.

4.

The value of the variable which occurs most frequently in a distribution is called A) Mode B) Mean C) Median D) All of these The arithmetic mean of a series is the figure obtained by dividing the sum of values all items by A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) Their Number Which of the following is Business Averages? A) Moving average B) Progressive average C) Composite Average D) All of these

99

Sample Questions for M.Com. (Honours)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Which of the following presents key aspects of the process of accounting in the correct chronological order?

A) Communicating, recording and identifying

B) Recording, identifying and communicating

C) Recording, totaling and identifying D) Identifying, recording and

communicating Which of the following is not a function of controller? A) Financial reporting B) Managerial reporting C) Money management D) Cost management

Ending finished goods inventory is:

A) Beginning finished goods inventory + cost of goods completed – cost of goods sold

B) Cost of goods completed – cost of goods sold

C) Beginning finished goods inventory + cost of goods completed

D) Beginning finished goods inventory - cost of goods completed + cost of goods sold

Which of the following is also known as an inventoriable cost?

A) Period cost B) Fixed cost C) Product cost D) Conversion cost

A cost management tool that brings in its focus the activities performed to produce a product is called

A) target costing B) life cycle costing C) ABC D) benchmarking

The first Factories Act was enacted in A) 1881 B) 1895 C) 1897 D) 1885

If the date of incorporation of a company is 1/01/2005, the first AGM must be held before

A) 30/06/2006 B) 31/03/2006 C) 31/12/2005 D) 31/03/2005

The ‗right to information‘ under the RTI Act, 2005 includes the right to

A) Inspect works, documents, records B) Take notes, extracts or certified

copies of documents or records C) Obtain information in form of

printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts

D) All of the above Long term capital asset is an asset (other than financial securities) which is held by the assessee for more than

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

When an oligopolist individually chooses its level of production to maximize its profits, it charges a price that is A) more than the price charges by either

monopoly or a competitive market B) less than the price charges by either

monopoly or a competitive market C) more than the price charges by a

monopoly and less than the price charges by a competitive market

D) less than the price charges by a monopoly and more than the price charges by a competitive market

Suppose that the government increases its spending by 10 per cent and also increases taxes by 10 per cent. We would expect this policy to A) Essentially have no effect on the

level of national income B) Have a contractionary effect on

national income C) Decrease the marginal propensity to

save out of each extra pound of income

D) Have an expansionary effect on national income.

The Government of India has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP) A) up to January 1, 2008 B) up to March 31, 2008 C) with effect from April 1, 2008 D) with effect from April 1, 2009 Reserve Bank of India calculates four components of money supply, M1, M2, M3, M4. Which one of the following statement is not correct? A) M1 = currency with public + demand

deposits with banks B) M2 = M1 + post office savings

deposit C) M3 = M1 + M2 D) M4 = M3 + total post office deposits What is meant by the term functional management? A) A system of business organization

that is based on an individual having a wide range of skills needed to administer a business

B) A type of management that is based more on personality

C) A system that groups together various jobs and is organized by departments, sections, or functions

D) A system that supports a flat form of command chain

Maslow, in his triangle of human needs, showed that A) Having challenging new tasks is a

basic human need B) Money always motivates workers C) Safety and security is a low order

human need

100

10.

11.

A) 36 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 30 months

The definition of ‗Goods‘ under the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 does not include

A) Newspapers B) Standing corps C) Computer software D) Animals

A rational person does not act unless A) the action is ethical B) the action produces marginal costs

that exceed marginal benefits C) the action produces marginal benefits

that exceed marginal costs D) the action makes money for the

person

18.

19.

20.

D) Workers will not give of their best unless they have good social events provided by the firm

The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is to A) Stimulate efforts to improve quality B) Recognize quality achievements of

companies C) Publicize successful quality

programs D) All of the above The process of collecting information about the external marketing environment is A) Environmental management B) Environmental scanning C) Marketing management D) Marketing scanning The correct components of the 7-S framework are A) Share values, synergy, systems,

strategy, style, staff and structure B) Standards, strategy, style, staff skills,

systems and security C) Structure, strategy, shared values,

style, staff, skills and systems D) Strategy, synergy, shared value,

standardization, skills staff and structure

Sample Questions for M.Com (Business Innovations)

Q1) India first took part in the Olympic games in the Year A) 1920 B) 1928 C) 1972 D) 1974 Q2) Where is the headquarters of the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation A) Mumbai B) Dehradun C) Vadodara D) Digboi Q3) The working languages of the UNESCO is/ are A) English only B) French only C) English and French D) English, French and Russian Q4) After textiles, India‘s second important industry is: A) Sugar B) Jute C) Cement D) Iron and Steel Q5) Vedanta group has been denied permission to start its activities in Niyamgiri Hills of Orissa. What activity was it pursuing? A) Steel Production B) Bauxite mining C) Gas exploration D) Timber cutting Q6) Botany: Plants::Entomology:? –

Q7.

Q8)

Q9)

Q 10)

48:122::168:? – A) 292 B) 290 C) 225 D) 215 AKU:?::CMW:DNX A) BGL B) BLQ C) BGQ D) BLV

Flow: River::Stagnant: ? A. Pool B. Rain C. Stream D. Canal

A rectangular floor is fully covered with square tiles of identical size. The tiles on the edges are white and tiles in the interior are red. The number of white tiles is the same as the number of red tiles. A possible value of the number of tiles along the edge of the floor is A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16

101

A) Birds B) Plants C) Insects D) Snakes

Sample Questions for MBACIT

1 C. V. Raman won the Noble Prize for

3. Bioscience 4. Chemistry 5. Economics 6. Physics

2 A.P.J. Abdul Kalam‘s autobiography is titled A) Ignited minds B) The Argumentative Indian C) The Alchemist D) Wings of Fire

3 SEZ Stands for A) Special economic zone B) Suez Canal C) Select enterprise zone D) Specific elite zone 4 A wheel makes 1000 revolutions in covering a distance of 88 Km. The diameter of the wheel is: A) 24 meter B) 40 meter C) 28 meter D) 14 meter

5 The difference between the ages of two persons is 10 Years. 15 Years ago, if the elder one was twice as old as the younger one, their present ages are A) 35, 25 B) 45, 35 C) 33, 23 D) 30, 20

6 The sale of Goods Act came into force from – A) July 1, 1932 B) July 1, 1930 C) July 1, 1935 D) July 1, 1940

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

The value of the variable which occurs most frequently in a distribution is called – A) Mode B) Mean C) Median D) All of these The arithmetic mean of a series is the figure obtained by dividing the sum of values all items by

E) 2 F) 3

G) 5 H) Their Number Which of the following is Business Averages? A) Moving average B) Progressive average C) Composite Average D) All of these Which type of software is focused on supporting communication, collaboration and coordination? A) Groupware B) CRM software C) E-business software D) SCM software When discussing email security, what is a Trojan Horse? A) A code hidden in another useful

program, which has a destructive function of some sort

B) The barrier or firewall through which all incoming email must pass.

C) Small computer program snippets that are designed to do some harm on their host

D) A destructive program that can spread itself automatically from one computer to the next within an email

Sample Questions for M.B.A. for Executives (MBAfEX)

Component 1: General Knowledge

1. In which organ of the human body would you find a cluster of cells which produce insulin?

A) Bile B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Brain

2. Which area in India is the only breeding ground of the flamingo?

A) Rann of Kutch B) North East C) Himalayas

102

D) Bay of Bengal 3. Which was the first Capital of Pakistan?

A) Karachi B) Lahore C) Islamabad D) Peshawar

4. Which Olympic did Mikha Singh break the world record in the 400 meters event?

A) Rome B) Athens C) Beijing D) None of the above

5. Kuchipudi is a dance form of

A) Tamil Nadu B) Orissa C) Kerala D) None of the above

Component II: Economic and Business Environment Awareness

1. A mixed economy is necessarily a ______________ economy. A) Controlled B) Planned C) Organised D) None of the above

2. Which of the following internal factors influence the strategy and other decisions of the business?

A) Value System B) Mission and objective C) Management structure and nature D) None of the above

3. Environment is synonymous with ______________

A) Task B) Relations C) People D) Situational variables

4. Which is the full form of NTC?

A) National Thermal Corporation B) National Textile Corporation C) Non-Textile Corporation D) None of the above

6. In which sector Indian Economy is growing at faster rate in 21

st century (after 2000) __________

A) Service B) Agriculture C) Manufacturing D) Public

Component III: Data Interpretation and Problem Solving

According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women, the following data were collected.

Qualification Unemployed Men Unemployed Women

Doctors 12.5% 15%

Engineers 20.0% 7.5%

Trained Teachers 15.0% 22.5%

Post-Graduates 22.5% 25.0%

Graduates 30.0% 30.0%

1. On the basis of above Table, what is the difference between the number of unemployed men and women

doctors? A) 20 B) 30 C) 40

103

D) None of the above

2. What is the total number of unemployed Graduates? A) 425 B) 475 C) 550 D) 600

3. What is the total number of Engineers?

A) 300 B) 350 C) 360 D) 400

4. In which category, unemployed men are more in percentage than unemployed women

A) Doctors B) Engineers C) Post Graduates D) Graduates

Component IV: Numerical Ability

1. How many pillars are needed to construct a bridge of 300 meters long, if pillars are at a distance of 12 ½ meters each? A) 22 B) 24 C) 25 D) None of the above

2. If 5 x 8 = 28, 3 x 7 = 12, 8 x 6 = 35, then find the value of 13 x 13 =?

A) 169 B) 130 C) 140 D) 144

3. The ratio of boys and girls in a is 3:2. 20% of boys and 25% of girls are scholarships holders. The

percentage of students who are scholarship holders are: A) 45 B) 53 C) 60 D) 22

4. In a class M is 9

th from the top, S is 8

th from the bottom and R is exactly in between them. If there are three

children between M and R, find out the total students A) 24 B) 25 C) 23 D) 27

5. 3, 5, 9, 17, 13, _________

A) 44 B) 65 C) 64 D) 49

Component V: Verbal Ability and Reasoning

1. Disease : Health :: Freedom : ?

A) Slavery B) Pleasure C) Plight D) Beauty

2. If you are going to west in the afternoon, the sun will be visible at your left.

A) Never B) Always C) Sometimes D) Often

104

3. Fill in the blank with the most suitable alternative. He shouted ______________ at the subordinate. A) Loud B) Loudily C) Loudely D) Loudingly

4. J, F, M, A, M, ?

A) M B) J C) D D) S

5. In a military code CAUTION is coded as VACITNO. How will you uncode MISUNDERSTAND?

A) SIMUNEDSRTAND B) SIMNUEDSRATDN C) SMIUNDERSTAND D) None of the above

Component VI: English Comprehension

The most important reason for this state of affairs, perhaps, is that India was the only country in the world to truly recognize the achievements of the Soviet-Union-rather than merely focus on the de-bilitating faults that Communism brought to its people. The people of India realized that the achievement of one hundred per cent literacy in a country much, much larger than its own and with similarly complicated ethnic and religious groupings, the rapid industrialization of a nation that was a primarily agrarian society when the Bolshevik revolution took place in 1917; the attendant revolutionary steps in science and technology, the accessibility of health care (primeval according to Western standards, perhaps, but not according to India ones) to the general population, and despite prohibition of the government of the time the vast outpourings in literature, music, art, etc., are momentous and remarkable feats in any country. In contrast, all that the West focused on were the massive human rights violations by the Soviet State on its people, the deliberate uprooting, and mass migrations of ethnic peoples from one part of the country to another in the name of industrialization, the end of religion in short, all the tools of information were employed to condemn the ideology of Communism, so much at variance with capitalist thinking. The difference with the Indian perception, I think here is, that while the Indians reacted as negatively to what the Soviet governments did to its people in the name of good governance (witness the imprisonment of Boris Pasternak and the formation of an intentional committee to put pressure for his release with Jawaharlal Nehru at its head), they took the pain not to condemn the people of that broad country in black and white terms; they understood that mingled in the shades of gray were grains of uniqueness. (The Russians have never failed that characteristic in themselves; they have twice experimented with completely different ideologies, Communism and Capitalism both in the space of century). 1. Which of the following statements according to the passage is correct?

(a) India took heed ―On the week faults of Russian policies and system. (b) India seriously commended the achievement of Russian, i.e. cent per cent literacy and rapid

industrialization. (c) The process of industrialization had already started when Russian revolution took place in 1917. (d) The literature, art and music received a setback during the communist regime in Russia.

2. The West did not focus on:

(a) Rapid growth of nuclear weapons in Russia (b) Massive human rights violation by the Soviet state on its people. (c) Deliberate uprooting and mass migration of ethnic people in the name of industrialization. (d) Both (b) and (c)

3. The Indian perception of the USSR was always

(a) Negative (b) Neutral (c) Counter – reactionary (d) Applauding

4. The passage is

(a) Descriptive (b) Paradoxical (c) Analytical (d) Thought provoking

105

Sample Questions for M.P. Ed.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

India played hockey for the first time on Olympic Games in:

A) 1924, Paris (France) B) 1928, Amsterdam C) 1932, Los Angles (USA) D) 1938, Berlin (Germany)

―A state of complete physical mental and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity‖. This statement which defines health is given by:

A) UNESCO B) UNICEF C) WHO D) Red Cross Three of the following are alike in a certain way and so they form a group. Which is the one does not belong to the group? A) Basketball B) Volleyball C) Hockey D) Table Tennis The Sacrum consists of: A) 3 Vertebraes B) 4 Vertebraes C) 5 Vertebraes D) 7 Vertebraes The chief sources of vitamin A is:

A) Banana B) Egg C) Carrot D) Guava

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

What is the stick used in snooker called: A) A Cue B) Heave C) Paddle D) Togo

―Shivanthi Gold Cup‖ is associated with the game of:

A) Hockey B) Football C) Volleyball D) Badminton

What is the normal life span of RBC‘s? A) 60 days B) 90 days C) 120 days D) 150 days Chronological age is calculated with the help of A) Mental qualities B) X-rays C) Calendar Years D) Organs and secretions YMCA College of Physical Education (Madras) was established in: A) 1956 B) 1920 C) 1931 D) 1932

Sample Questions for B.P. Ed.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

The ‗Santosh Trophy‘ tournament first began in: A) 1940 B) 1941 C) 1942 D) 1945 Who is the first teacher of a child? A) Teacher B) His Parents C) His environment D) His own conscious mind The first Modern Olympic games were held in the Year: A) 1892 B) 1896 C) 1900 D) 1904 Find the odd personality: A) Baichung Bhutia B) Kapil Dev C) Pete Sampras D) Jarnail singh Which of the following tournaments is not a part of Grand Slam Tennis? A) Australian Open B) Wimbledon C) U.S. Open D) German Open

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Which one of the following is different from the rest of the three? A) Footbal B) Basketball C) Cricket D) Tennis The name of ‗Tiger Woods‘ is associated with:

A) Boxing B) B) Tennis C) Football D) Golf

Thomas Cup‘ is associated with: A) Badminton (women) B) Badminton (men) C) Table Tennis (women) D) Table Tennis (men)

Most import ant component of level of living is?

A) Health B) Occupation C) Education D) Housing

Vinay is taller than Manu, but not as tall as Yogesh, Karim is taller than Dillip but shorter than Manu, Who is the tallest among them?

A) Vinay B) Yogesh C) Karim D) Manu

106

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Biochemistry

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

In mammals nor-epinephrine is synthesized from: A) Pyruvate B) Arginine C) Catechol D) Tyrosine Hyperglycemic agent secreted by the pancreas is: A) Insulin B) Lipase C) Glucagon D) FSH Feeding of raw egg may result in the deficiency of: A) Vitamin A B) Choline C) Biotin D) Riboflavin What role RNA plays in the replication of DNA: A) It acts as template B) It acts as primer C) It acts as cofactor D) It is essential activator of DNA

polymerase Which of the following is not involved in antigen – antibody binding: A) Hydrogen bonds B) Ionic Bonds C) Hydrophobic Interactions D) Disulphide Bonds

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

The movement of ions through ion channels can be measured with the help of: A) Extra cellular electrode B) Intra cellular electrode C) Patch – clamp technique D) Liposome fusion technique

The synthesis of most neuronal proteins occurs in the: A) Cell body B) Axon C) Synapses D) Dendrites

Which of the following amino acid does not form peptide bond: A) Cysteine B) Proline C) Lysine D) Glycine

Lysozyme is an enzyme which: A) Hydrolyses bacterial cell wall B) Is made up of RNA C) Contains phospholipids D) Breaks lipoproteins

Formation of uric acid from purines is catalysed by: A) Urease B) Uricase C) Xanthine oxidase D) Adenosine deaminase

107

Sample Paper of Biophysics

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

If A¯ + B

¯ = 0

¯

A) Vector A¯ and B

¯ are

perpendicular to each other. B) Vector A

¯ and B

¯ are necessarily

parallel. C) Vector A

¯ and B

¯ must be

antiparallel. D) Vector A

¯ and B

¯ may be parallel

or antiparallel. The minimum charge on a body can be: A) one coulomb B) one stat coulomb C) 1.6*10

-19 coulomb

D) 3.2 x 10 -19

coulomb The potential due to an electric dipole varies A) inversely as the distance B) directly as the distance C) inversely as the square of

distance D) directly as the square of distance

Which of these techniques does not give information about the dimensions of DNA molecule? A) Viscosity measurement B) light scattering C) flow-birefringence D) Atomic Absorption spectroscopy

Fluorescence of a protein can be due to A) tryptophan B) tyrosine C) phenylalanine D) all the above

The aromatic amino acids are important because: A) they are ionized by light of

wavelength 280mm. B) they are actually imino acids that

cannot rotate through the angle phi. C) they give proteins their absorbance

at 280 nm D) they are source of disulfide bonds

within the exported proteins The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation states that: A) P

k = P

H + log R

B) PH

= Pk + log R C) P

H = pk –log R

D) R = pk - p

H

The proteins that run the fastest in SDS-PAGE are A) Large B) Small C) Negatively charged D) Positively charged

The auditions a ≠ b≠ c, α = γ=90o β ≠

90- describe the ……Unit cell A) tetragonal B) orthorhombic C) monoclinic D) trigonal

The electromagnetic radiation with longest wavelength. is: A) Visible Light B) Radiowaves C) Microwaves D) IR

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29 30.

Mass spectrometry is an analytical technique for the identification of molecules by way of measuring their: A) mass only B) charge

only C) mass to charge ratio B) charge to mass ratio Micro array analysis is used for A) quantization of gene expression B) to check the quality of gene

expression C) for measuring the copy number D) to identity new genes Component of atom involved in study of structure with X-ray crystallography A) Nucleus B) Electron C) proton D) Neutrons The radius of an atom is approximately A) 10

-10 m

B) 10-12

m C) 10

-13 m

D) 10-16

m Rays similar to x-rays but of smaller wavelength that are given off by radioactive Substances are A) alpha rays B) beta rays C) gamma rays D) cosmic rays Antiparticle of electron is A) proton B) Antiproton C) Positron D) Neutron Atomic force microscope was invented in which Year: A) 1972 B) 1986 C) 2001 D) 1980 Nucleic acid absorption (A260) changes in different states. It is maximum when it is: A) Double stranded B) Single stranded C) All nucleotides are separated D) Fragmented Which out of these is not a connective tissue: A) Cartilage B) bone C) muscle D) blood Which of these is not a characteristic of the Cardiac muscle: A) nonstriated B) Presence of intercalated disc C) Involuntary D) Presence of actin and myosin

filaments. Fertilization occurs in which region of female reproductive part: A) Infundibulum B) ampulla C) Isthmus D) Uterus

31.

108

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

Of the following which has got the highest frequency? A) ultraviolet rays B) gamma rays C) radio waves D) infrared waves

The value of atomic mass unit is: A) 1.66 x 10

-27 Kg

B) 1.66 x 10-28

Kg C) 1.66 x 10

-29 Kg

D) 1.66 x 10-24

Kg The peptide bond in protein is A) Planar, but rotates to three preferred dihedral angles B)Nonpolar, but rotates to the three preferred dihedral angles C)Nonpolar, and fixed in a trans conformation D)Planar, and usually found in a trans conformation The lactoferrin is produced by: A) Spermatogonia B) Reticulocytes C) Amebocytes D) Neutrophils During generation of action potential, depolarization is due to

A) k+

-efflux B) Na

+ -efflux

C) K+

-influx D) Na

+ -infflux

Which of the following wave is likely to be absent in ECG A) P B) T C) Q D) R Indirect immnuofluorescene involves fluorescently labeled A) Immunoglobulin-specific antibodies B) Antigen-specific antibodies C) Hapten – specific antibodies D) Carrier – specific antibodies Prostaglandins are A) C20 unsaturated fatty acids B) C27 saturated alcohols C) C20 saturated fatty acids D) C27 unsaturated alcohols Apart from the proton which other nuclei of the following is used for NMR. A)

13C

B) 12

C C)

16O

D) 32

P

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

Brunner glands are present in: A) Colon B) jejunum C) duodenum D) ileum A rickshaw puller remembers a large number of places and has the ability to find shortcuts and new routes between familiar places. Which region of the brain is responsible for this? A) Pituitary B) Thalamus C) Hypothalamus D) Hippocampus A Ramachandran plot show:- A) The angles that are allowed between the bonds connecting the amide nitrogen in a peptide bond B) The sterically limited rotational angles where phi and psii are allowed in the protein backbone. C) The amino acid residues that have the greatest degrees of rotational freedom D) The sterically allowed rotational angles between the side chain groups in a peptide backbone. The most sensitive for the lethal effects of radiation is A) Preimplantation B) Early organogensis C) Late organogensis D) The fetal period Which of the following is the primary factor regulating normal coronary blood flow A) Aortic diastolic pressure B) Coronary perfusion pressure C) Systolic wall pressure D) Myocardial oxygen consumption The term satellite DNA refers to A) extrachromosomal DNA fragments that are found closed to (orbiting) the full length chromosomes B) Mitochondrial DNA, which is circular in nature C) Long tandem repeats of simple DNA sequences D) Mobile DNA elements such as

transposons and insertion sequences

The number of atoms in a crystal which surrounded a particular atom as its nearest neighbours is called A) Charge number B) Atomic packing factor C) Coordination number D) Lattice EPR spectrum is due to A) Change in mass state of an electron B) Change in L-K transition of an electron C) Change in spin state of an electron D) Change in both L-K transition and mass of an electron

109

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics

Let G be a group of order 147. For any Ga ,

ea , the number of solutions of ax 2 is

A) 49 B) one C) three D) zero

In the ring iZ , where Z is the ring of integers, the

element i1

A) is both irreducible as well as prime B) is neither irreducible nor prime C) is irreducible but not prime D) is prime but not irreducible

The equation of the tangent to the curve ),( yxf =0

at any point ),( ba is given by

A) 0),()(),()(

ba

x

fbyba

y

fax

B) 0),()(),()(

ba

x

fbyba

y

fax

C) 0),()(),()(

ba

x

faxba

y

fby

6

(D) 0),()(),()(

ba

y

fbyba

x

fax

Two spheres

zyx 22 2 0222 1111 dzwyvxu

0222 2222

222 dzwyvxuzyx

cut each other orthogonally if (A)

21212121 222 ddwwvvuu

(B) 0212121 wwvvuu

(C)

2

1

2

1

2

1

2

1

d

d

w

w

v

v

u

u

(D) )()(2)(2)(2 21212121 ddwwvvuu The series

pnn )(log

1 is

(A) convergent if 0p

(B) convergent if 1p

(C) divergent if 1p

(D) convergent if 10 p

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

The integrating factor of the differential 342 xxy

x

y

is

given by

(A) ye 2

(B) 2xe

(C) xe

D) ye

If 232

111 3( zyyxzyx , then

at the point )1,2,1( is

(A)

kji 16912

(B)

kji 16912

(C)

i12

kj 169

(D)

ji 912

k16

If one root of the equation

01891513 23 xxx

exceeds the other by 2, then all the roots are (A) 7, 9 and 3 (B) -7, -9 and -3 (C) 7, 9 and –3 (D) -7, -9 and 3

Two forces 13 kg.wt. and 33 kg.wt.

act on a particle at an angle

and equal to a resultant force of 14 kg.wt., then the angle between the forces is (A) 45

0

(B) 300

(C) 600

(D) 900

Let

1W and 2W be subspaces of

dimensions 5 and 4 respectively of a vector space V of dimension 6.

Then dim )( 21 WW is

(A) Zero (B) one (C) at most two (D) at least three

110

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Environment)

1.

2.

3.

4.

A thin copper wire of length one metre increases in length by 4% when heated by 10

oC. What will be the per cent increase in

area when a square copper sheet of side one metre is heated by 10

oC?

A) 4% B) 8% C) 16% D) 24% If the unit of length and force are increased by 4 times, the unit of energy gets increased by how many times? A) 4 times B) 8 times C) 16 times D) does not change The scientific principle involved in radio and television is: A) Superconductivity B) Semiconductiography C) Propagation of e.m. waves D) Electromagnetic induction A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. If it falls behind him, the train must be moving with A) An acceleration B) A deceleration C) Uniform speed D) It can never happen

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Which of the following is a deadly nerve gas developed during the second world war? A) Nitric oxide B) Phosgene C) Sarine D) Dioxin The natural rubber obtained from trees is made of: A) Isoprene units B) Vinyl chloride C) Acetylene D) Neoprene

Which of the following is differentially permeable? A) Cell wall B) Tonoplast C) Nuclear membrane D) Cytoplasm

Which of the following prevents leaf shedding in plant? A) Auxins B) Gibberellins C) Cytokinins D) Abscisic acid Sugar in chloroplast is synthesized in: A) Quantasomes B) Stroma C) Thylakoids D) Matrix The structure of protoplasm is:

Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course Bioinformatics/ System Biology and Bioinformatics

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Which are the repositories for raw sequence data A) Gen Bank B) EMBL C) DDBJ D) GGPP Which of the following annotation is not provided by SWISS-PROT A) Protein function B) Domain structure C) Post translation modification D) Crystal formations Which is the most important computer language used in Bioinformatics A) Pascal B) Perl C) Java D) C++ Which type of analysis cannot be performed on raw DNA sequence using Bioinformatics tools A) Identifying coding regions B) Identification of introns and exons C) Gene product prediction D) Identifying cis and trans regions OMIM is engaged in study of A) Human molecular Biology B) Plant molecular biology C) Bacterial molecular biology D) Yeast Molecular biology

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Which of the following sequence is correct: A) DNA, RNA, Protein B) DNA, Protein, RNA C) RNA, DNA, Protein D) Protein, DNA, RNA Which is not the method of protein/DNA sequence alignment A) Matrix B) Brute force C) Dynamic programming D) Heuristic methods The method not used in NSA programming is A) Sum of pairs methods B) Spare alignment C) Two step method D) Fitch/Margoliosh method Distance matrix method are used for A) Carbohydrate structure prediction B) Proteins structure prediction C) Phylogenetic analysis D) Primer design FASTA-BLAST, WU-BLAST are programmes used for determining A) Sequence similarity of Protein only B) Sequence similarity of DNA only C) Sequence similarity of Carbohydrate

only D) Sequence similarity of Protein and

DNA

111

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Zero error of an instrument introduces: A) Systematic error B) Random error C) Per cent error D) Means no error

The Science of surveying and mapping the earth‘s surface is known as: A) Cartography B) Geodesy C) Topography D) Scienodsy

The gravitational force with which a body is attracted towards the earth is A) Maximum at the equator and minimum

at the poles B) Minimum at the equator and maximum

at the poles C) The same at the equator and the poles D) Depends on the altitude at the given

point

Which of the following is used as an antiseptic? A) Iodine B) Bromine C) Chlorine D) Fluorine Washing soaps produces a scum with hard water and not much of foam, because the hard water contains: A) Many suspended particles B) Many dissolved inorganic salts C) Chalk and sulphur D) Dissolved organic matter

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

A) Granular B) Fibrillar C) Reticular D) Colloidal Matrix

Which of the following could be ‗cancer‘ of the lymph nodes and spleen? A) Carcinoma B) Sarcoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma The major component of Bacterial cell wall is A) Xylan B) Chitin C) Peptidoglycan D) Cellulose

How many bones does the Cranium of man have? A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 20

When is the world Population day

celebrated?

A) August 3

B) April 16

C) October 18

D) July 11

In a Nuclear Reactor the heavy water is used to : A) cool the neutrons B) slow down the neutrons C) absorb the neutrons D) control the number of neutrons

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Human Genomics)

1.

2.

3.

Which one of the following is an essential component of DNA? A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Lipids D) Vitamins Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are: A) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA B) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA C) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA D) rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA A synthetic mRNA of repeating sequence 5'-CACACACACACACACAC... is used for a cell-free protein synthesizing system like the one used by Nuremberg. If we assume that protein synthesis can begin without the need for an initiator codon, what product or products would you expect to occur after protein synthesis. A) One protein consisting of a single

amino acid B) Three proteins , each consisting of a

different , single amino acid C) One protein, with an alternating

sequence of two different amino acids D) Two proteins, each with an alternating

5.

6.

7.

8.

Signaling between cells usually results in the activation of protein A) lipase B) kinases C) proteases D) nuclease Highly repetitive DNA has A) a very short repeating sequence

and no coding function B) a moderate repeating sequence

and a coding for house keeping gene

C) a simple repeat sequence and no coding function

D) None of the above From which grandparent or grandparents did you inherit your mitochondria? Is it your: A) mother's parents B) paternal grandfather C) grand mothers D) maternal grandmother What are the possible blood types of the offspring of a cross between individuals that are type AB and type O? (Hint: blood type O is recessive) A) AB or O B) A, B, or O C) A or B

http://www.biology.arizona.edu/mendelian_genetics/problem_sets/monohybrid_cross/13t.html


http://www.biology.arizona.edu/mendelian_genetics/problem_sets/monohybrid_cross/13c.html

112

4.

sequence of two different amino acids. A replicon is: A) an enzyme complex that replicates

DNA B) the amount of time required to duplicate

a genome C) larger in complex eukaryotes and

smaller in bacteria D) the DNA sequences that specify and

are replicated by a single replication initiation event

9.

10.

D) A, B, AB, or O A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder mates with a phenotypically normal male. On average, what proportion of this couple's daughters will be affected with the disorder? A) 0.5 B) 1.0 C) 0.75 D) 0.25

A messenger acid is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination codons. The number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA is: A) 999 B) 630 C) 330 D) 111


http://www.biology.arizona.edu/molecular_bio/problem_sets/nucleic_acids/10t.html



http://www.biology.arizona.edu/molecular_bio/problem_sets/nucleic_acids/10c.html

113

Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Nuclear Medicine

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

We can‘t produce colors with white light through: A) Interference B) Polarization C) Diffraction D) Dispersion Methods of Fourier Transformation are applied in A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance B) X-ray crystallography C) Medical Imaging D) All of the above Which one of the following is correctly matched? A) Chloroplast – storage of enzymes B) Lysosome – powerhouse of cell C) Nucleolus – stie of ribosomal

synthesis D) Glyoxysome – structural support of

cell Which amino acid can stabilize protein structure by forming covalent cross links between polypeptide chins? A) Ser B) Gly C) Glu D) Cys In CT imaging the phenomenon used is A) Radiation absorption B) Radiation damage C) Free radical formation D) Radiation fluorescence

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Macrophage – like cells in the connective tissue are A) Osteoclasts B) Mesanglial cells C) Histiocytes D) Microglial cells Zinc finger proteins and helix-turn-helix proteins are: A) Types of DNA-binding proteins B) Involved in the control of translation C) Components of ribosomes D) Part of the hemoglobin in blood

cells Transcription of DNA into mRNA is catalyzed by A) DNA polymerase B) RNA synthetase C) RNA polymerase D) Rnase Which nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA? A) Thymine B) Uracil C) Adenine D) gunanine How would the complementary strand of DNA appear if the original strand of DNA contained the bases T-A-G-C in the order? A) U-A-C-G B) G-C-A-T C) T-A-C-G D) A-T-C-G

Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Forensic Science & Criminology

Section A: General Science

(Compulsory)

1. Which acid is produced when milk gets sour? A) Tartaric Acid B) Butyric Acid C) Lactic Acid D) Acetic Acid

2. The bond which is present between water molecules is: A) Electrovalent bond B) Covalent bond C) Hydrogen bond D) Vander Waalls bond 3. The number of Chromosomes pairs in Human body are : A) 23 B) 42 C) 46 D) None of above 4) The mass of the body at the centre of earth is A) Less than at the surface B) Remains constant C) More than the surface D) Zero

Section B: Any two of the four sub-

sections Biology

1. The most abundant protein on earth is

A) Keratin B) Rubisco C) RuBP D) Fibrinogen

2. Type of mimicry in which both the minic and model are harmful (unpalatable) to the predator B) Batesian mimicry C) Mullerian mimicry D) Warning mimicry E) Concealing mimicry

Chemistry

1. The correct decreasing order of the boiling points is A) NH3>H2O> HF B) H2O> HF>NH3 C) NH3> HF > H2O D) HF>H2O>NH3

2. The element that shows both +3 and +4 oxidation is A) Cerium B) Promethium C) Gadolinium D) Holmium

114

Forensic Science

1. Who suggested the practical method of finger-printing and their classification A) Francis Galton B) Henry Faulds C) Albert Osborn D) Calvin Goddard 2. Study of the motion of a projectile from the muzzle of the weapon to the target is A) External Ballistics B) Terminal Ballistics C) Internal Ballistics D) None of the above

Physics

1. Where can Maxwell‘s equation be derived A) Gauss‘s las B) Gauss‘s magnetic law C) Faraday law D) All the above 2. A particle executive a vibratory motion passing through mean point has A) Maximum potential energy and minimum kinetic energy B) Maximum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy C) Kinetic energy and potential energy both maximum D) Kinetic energy and potential energy both minimum

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. School) Geology

1.A Sandstonde containing of at least 25% Feldspar is :

A) Orthoquarzite B) Arkose C) Graywacke D) Sublithic Wacke

2. An intergrowth texture in which plagioclase contains inclusion of potash feldspar is known as :

A) Perthite B) Antiperthite C) Graphic D) Seriate

3. Which of the following rock is not of metamorphic origin:

A) Slate B) Phyllite C) Schist D) Shale

4.

5.

Mica Plate gives the retardation of: A) 1 Lameda B) ½ Lameda C) ¼ Lameda D) Variable retardation

Which of the following mineral is Aluminosilicate:

A) Quartz B) Garnet C) Biotite D) Sillimanite, Robins, Crows

115

Sample Question for M.Sc. (2-Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology

1. Which group among the following is the

biggest contributor to the total carbon

fixed by organisms

A. Terrestrial Plants

B. Cyanobacteria

C. Green Algae

D. Large Brown Algae

2. Which genetic process is not going to

be observed if extracellular nucleases

are present in the immediate

surrounding environment of a bacteria

A. Transduction

B. Transformation

C. Conjugation

D. All the above

3. Agarose is ---------------- and primarily

obtained from-----------------

A. Polysaccharide ; Saccharomyces

pombae

B. Polysaccharide ; Gelidium sp. and

Gracilaria sp.

C. Protein ; Spirulina sp.

D. DNA and Polysaccharide mixture;

Algae

4. To ensure the proper autoclaving

procedure in biological laboratories

which of the following microbes is used

as a indicator organism

A. Bacillus subtilis

B. Rhodococcus radiolarians

C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus or

Bacillus stearothermophilus

D. Deinococcus radiodurans

5. Cloning vectors generally do not have

A. Promoter operator element for the

expression of cloned genes

B. Multiple cloning site

C. Selection marker

D. Ribosome binding site

6. 6 Autoclaving may not be able to

destroy the pathogens belonging to

category of

A. Prions

B. Virophages

C. Bacteriophages

D. All the above

7. Triple-stranded DNA model was

proposed by

A. Linus Pauling

B. James Watson

C. James Watson and Francis

Crick

D. Rosalind Franklin

8. Which of the following class of

antibodies do not have a Hinge

region

A. IgG, IgD and IgA

B. IgA and IgD

C. IgM and IgA

D. igM and IgE

9. Which of the microbe is involved in

the production of tempeh, a

fermented soyabean product?

A. Rhizopus sp.

B. Aspergillus sp.

C. Saccharomyces pombae

D. Enterococcus sp.

10. Which amino acid among the

following absorbs maximum UV

light at 280nm wavelength

A. Tryptophan

B. Tyrosine

C. Phenylalanine

D. Asparagine

116

Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Biotechnology

1. Correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is A) G1, S, G2, M B) S, G2, M, G1 C) G1, G2, M, S D) G1, G2, S, M

2. Which of the following does not contain both

DNA and RNA?

A) Yeast B) Bacteria C) Mycoplasma D) Virus

1. 3. Which of the following is not an antibacterial antibiotic

A) Tetracyclin B) Ampicillin C) Nystatin D) Nalidixic acid

2. The development of egg without fertilization is

called A) Blastgenesis B) Parthenogenesis C) Cogenesis D) Gametogenesis E) 3. TATA box and Pribnow box are components of A) Operators B) Promoters C) Enhancers D) Activators 4. Peptide chain elongation involves all the

following except A) peptidyl transferas B) GTP C) Tu, Ts and G factors D) Formyl tRNA

7.

8.

9.

10.

The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the A) Operon B) cistron C) promoter D) replicon Exonuclease is an enzyme, which cleaves DNA from A) 3‘ end B) 5‘ end C) both 3‘ and 5‘ end D) internal bonds in DNA Which of the following is not part of the lac operon of E. coli?

A) genes for inducible enzymes of lactose metabolism

B) genes for the repressor, a regulatory protein

C) gene for RNA polymerase D) a promoter, the RNA

polymerase binding site Which of the following primers would allow copying of the single-stranded DNA sequence 5' ATGCCTAGGTC? A) 5‘ ATGCC, B) 5‘ TACGG C) 5‘ CTGGA D) 5‘ GACCT

http://www.biology.arizona.edu/molecular_bio/problem_sets/mol_genetics_of_prokaryotes/01t.html




http://www.biology.arizona.edu/molecular_bio/problem_sets/mol_genetics_of_prokaryotes/01c.html



117

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Botany

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

In C4 plants the first CO2 acceptor is : A) Ribulose – 1,5-bisphosphate B) Phosphenol pyruvate C) Pyruvate D) Ribulose-5-phosphate In majority of angiosperms, the female gametophyte at the time of fertilization is : A) 8-celled B) 7-celled C) 6-celled D) 4-celled Agar-agar is extracted from which of the following genera A) Gracilaria B) Dictyota C) Ectocarpus D) Laminaria Black rust of wheat is caused by : A) Ustilago tritici B) Puccinia graminis tritici C) Protomyces macrosporus D) Albugo candida

Oomycota is a phylum in kingdom: A) Fungi B) Chromista C) Protozoa D) Mycota Cystidium is a A) Sterile element occurring in the

hymenium of certain Basidiomycetes B) Reproductive organ of a green alga C) Fertile part of lichen thallus D) Asexual spore

7.

8.

9.

10.

Most bryophytes are autotrophic but a few are more or less saprophytic. Which of the following is totally devoid of chlorophyll and depends upon a mycorrhizal association for its growth and development? A) Cyptothallus mirabilis B) Funaria hygromitrica C) Concephalum conium D) Pellia epiphylla Somaclonal variations are: A) Variations produced during tissue

culture B) Variations produced during sexual

reproduction C) Variations caused by mutagenic

chemicals D) Variations caused by Gamma rays Trisomic condition is expressed as A) 2n-1 B) 2n-2 C) 2n+1 D) 2n+2

The functional unit in ecology is the: A) Organism B) Biosphere C) Ecosystem D) Population

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) 2-Year Course Chemistry

1.

2.

3.

4.

Anti-Markonikoff cis-hydration of an alkene can be achieved by using A) Catalytic hydrogenation B) Li / liq. NH3 reduction C) Alkaline KMnO4 solution D) Hydroboration-oxidation Beckmann rearrangement converts an oxime into A) an amine B) carbamate C) a substituted hydrazine D) an amide The configuration of the following stereoisomer

A) 2R, 3R B) 2S, 3R C) 2R, 3S D) 2S, 3S Which of the following is expected to have least paramagnetic character? A) [Co(NH3)6]

3+

B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

1g ice absorbs 335 J of heat to melt at 0 °C. The entropy change will be A) 1.2 JK

-1mol

-1

B) 335 JK-1

mol-1

C) 22.1 JK

-1mol

-1

D) 0.8 JK-1

mol-1

Two moles of HI were heated in a sealed tube at 440 °C till the equilibrium was reached. HI was found to be 22 % dissociated. The equilibrium constant for dissociation is B) 0.282 B) 0.0796 C) 0.0199 D) 1.99 During biological nitrogen fixation, nitrifying bacteria convert

A) NO3 to NH4

B) N2 to NH4

C) NH4to NO3 D)

NO3 to N2

Which of the following state is stablest for p2

configuration? A)

1D2

B) 3P2

C) 1S0

D) 3P0

Which of the following has lowest CO stretching

frequency?

A) Ni(CO)4

CH3

H Cl

CH2CH3

Cl H

118

5.

C) [Cr(CN)6]3-

D) [CoF6]

3-

The freezing point of 0.1M solution of glucose is -1.86 °C. If an equal volume of 0.3 M glucose is added, the freezing point of the mixture will be

A) –7.44 °C B) –5.58°C C) –3.27 °C D) –2.79 °C

B) Cr(CO)6 C) [Fe(CO)4]

2-

D) [Mn(CO)6]+

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Physics/ Physics & Electronics/ Medical Physics

1.

2.

3

4.

5.

1.

Two electrons move in opposite directions at 0.70 c as measured in the laboratory. The speed of one electron as measured from the other is:-

A) 0.35c B) 0.70c C) 0.94c D) 1.00 c

Which one of the following transformations is second order phase transition? A) Ferromagnetic state to the

paramagnetic state B) Melting of ice C) Evaporation of materials D) Solidification of materials. For which one of the following signal we requie an amplifier with minimum bandwidth: A) Sine wave B) Square wave C) Triangular wave D) Saw tooth wave

Two of maxwell‘s equations contain an integral over a closed surface. For them the infinitesimal vector area dA is always: A) Tangent to the surface B) Tangent to the field line C) Perpendicular to the surface and

pointing inward. D) Perpendicular to the surface and

pointing outward. For the domestic ac supply of 220V, the breakdown voltage of a diode should be: A) 130V B) 163V C) 220V D) 330V

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

6.

When the gate voltage becomes more negative in n-channel JFET, the channel between depletion layers: A) Shrinks B) Expands C) Conducts D) Stops conducting Space quantization means that:

A) A) Space is quantized B) B) L and U are in the same direction. C) C) Lz can have discrete values. D) D) An electron has magnetic dipole

moment. E)

The electron density of states for a metal depends primarily on: A) The temperature B) The energy associated with the

state C) The size of the sample. D) The mass of the sample.

Some alpha emitters have longer half-lives than others because: A) Their alpha particles have greater

mass. B) Their alpha particles have less

mass C) Their potential barriers to decay

are higher and wider D) Their decays include the emission

of photons. In an alpha decay the disintegration energy appears mainly as A) Photon energies B) The kinetic energies of the alpha

and the daughter nucleus C) The excitation energy of the

daughter nucleus D) heat

119

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. / 2-Year Course) Zoology

1.

2

3. 4. 5.

Which of the following types of DNA replication or repair systems is dysfuncational in individuals with Xeroderma pigmentosum?

A) Mismatch repair B) Base excision repair C) Nucleotide excision repair D) DNA helicase

The part of the embryo from which ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm are formed in chick is known as

A) Primitive streak B) Hypoblast C) Cytotrophoblast D) Epiblast

N- linked obligosaccharides on secreted glycoproteins are attached to

A) Nirtogen atoms in the polypeptide backbone

B) The serine or threonine in the sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr

C) The amino terminus of the protein

D) The asparagines in the sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr

Which of the following in star fish can turn inside out?

A) Madreporite B) Stone canal C) Tube feet D) Cardiac stomach

Antennae in hymenoptera, dipteral and odonata are

A) Short & filiform, aristate, geniculate respectively

B) Short & filiform, geniculate, aristate respectively

C) Geniculate, aristate, short & filiform respectively

D) Aristate, geniculate, short & filiform respectively

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Which of the following genus is the blood fluke of man and other animals?

A) Schistosoma B) Ophisthorchis (Clonorchis) C) Paragonimus D) Diplozoom

Populations that are morphologicaly similar but do not interbreed for physciological or behavioural reasons are grouped as

A) Races B) Varieties C) Sub-species D) Sibling species

The cranial capacity of which prehistoric human was almost the same as that of the modern man?

A) Neanderthal man B) Peking man C) Java ape man D) Australophithecus man

An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

A) Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid

B) Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide

C) Hexokinase by glucose 6 phosphate

D) Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

The isoelectric point of a protein is defined as

A) The pH at which the net charge on the molecule is zero

B) The pH at which all groups are protonated

C) The pH at which all groups are unprotonated

D) The pH at which each acidic groups is protonated and each basic groups is unprotonated.

120

Important Dates and Information for Entrance Test PU-CET (P.G.) – 2018

For Enquiries about Test contact (From 10:00 a.m to 04:00 p.m.)

1. Assistant Registrar (C.E.T.)

2. Manorma Chauhan, Dealing Official

3. Controller of Examinations

4. Enquiry Office

0172- 2534829, 9855018541

9872305760

0172- 2534811, 2541825

0172- 2534818, 2534819, 2534866, 1801802065

1. Date of Availability of PU–CET (P.G.) Prospectus and Online Entrance Test Form at http://cetpg.puchd.ac.in

19-04-2018 (Thursday)

2. Last date for submission of information on the website to generate the Bank Challan

19-05-2018 (Saturday)

3. Last date for deposit of fee in any branch of State Bank of India using website generated Challan

21-05-2018 (Monday) upto 4:00 p.m.

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23-05-2018 (Wednesday)

5. No correction will be entertained / made regarding photograph, signature and any other information after 25-05-2018, 5:00 p.m.

25-05-2018 (Friday)

6. Availability of Admit Card Online

Admit Card along with Time & Centre of Examination is to be downloaded from the website by the candidate using his/her own Login ID and Password provided while generating Bank Challan. The candidates will be communicated through email only for this purpose.

01-06-2018 (Friday)

7. Dates of holding Entrance Test 10-06-2018 to 11-06-2018 (Sunday & Monday)

8. Centre for Entrance Test Chandigarh, Ludhiana, Muktsar, Hoshiarpur.

9. Uploading of Answer Key (at http://exams.puchd.ac.in/show-noticeboard.php) and inviting Objections (through e-mail only to [email protected] )

18-06-2018 (Monday)

10. Last date of submission of objections to the Answer Key 20-06-2018 (Wednesday)

11. Uploading of the response to the Objections and inviting Cross-objections (through e-mail only)

23-06-2018 (Saturday)

12. Last day of submission of Cross-objections to the Answer key 25-06-2018 (Monday)

13. Date of declaration of result 29-06-2018 (Friday)

14. Date of availability of online Admission Form for the courses offered by University Departments/Centres at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in

1st week of June 2018

Note: Applying for Entrance Test and taking the Test do not entitle a candidate for admission. For admission to PU-CETPG based programmes being offered by various Department/Centre/Institute at Panjab University only, online Admission Form will have to be submitted by the Candidate separately. Online Admission Form will be available from 1st week of June 2018. The candidates are required to fill up and submit online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in before the last date of submission of online Admission Form even if the result of Entrance Test has not been declared by then.

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mailto:[email protected]

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121

DATE SHEET PU-CET (P.G.) 2018 Date and Day of Test Course Time of Examination

10.06.2018 (Sunday) M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Computer Science 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Nuclear Medicine 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.E. (Computer Science & Engg.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.E. Civil Engg. (Construction Tech. & Mgt.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.E. (Chemical) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.P.Ed. 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

Masters in History 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Geology 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

Masters in Disaster Management 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

MBA for Executive (MBAfEX) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.Sc. (2 Yr Course) Human Genomics 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.Tech. (Material Sciences & Technology) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Environment Science 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.A. in Remote Sensing & GIS 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Com. (Business Innovation) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.E. Electrical Engg. (Power System) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Sc. Forensic Science (2 Yr. Course) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.A. in English 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.E. (Food Technology) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.E. (Biotechnology) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.Tech. (Microelectronics) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

11-06-2018 (Monday) LL.M. 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.Sc. (Chemistry) (Hons./ 2 Yr. Course) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m

M.Com. (Hons.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Microbial Biotechnology 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Physics/ Physics & Electronics; M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Medical Physics

11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Botany 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

MBACIT 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.E. Mechanical Engg. (Manufacturing Technology) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.Tech. (Polymer) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

Masters in Public Health 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

M.C.A. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Zoology 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

B.P.Ed. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Com. (Business Economics) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Sc. (System Biology and Bioinformatics) / M.Sc. (Bioinformatics) (2 Yr. Course)

1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.

M.Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.A. (Geography) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Biotechnology 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.E.F.B. 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.E. (Chemical with specialisation in Environmental Engg.) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.

Centres for Examination

Chandigarh Ludhiana Muktsar Hoshiarpur.

NOTE: Candidates desirous to appear in more than one of the above papers, must ensure that there is

no clash of timings in those papers.