QUESTION: 1 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up, continuation or termination of the project?

A. Project Initiation Document B. Business Case C. End Stage Approval D. Project Brief

Answer: B

QUESTION: 2 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change?

A. Request Log B. Daily Log C. Quality Log D. Issue Log

Answer: D

QUESTION: 3 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?

A. Project and stage tolerances B. Contingency plans C. A Change Budget D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

Answer: C

QUESTION: 4 FilL in the missing phrase from“ a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to……”

A. TheCustomer’sNeds B. An Agreed Contract C. The Project Plan D. A specified Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION: 5 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?

A. a, b, c B. b, c, a C. c, a, b D. c, b, a

Answer: B

QUESTION: 6 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?

A. When a Project Issue is received B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds

Answer: D

QUESTION: 7 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of“ Closing a Project”? “A clear end to a project”–

A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management

Answer: C

QUESTION: 8

What is the more common term used in PRINCE2™ for“ deliverable”?

A. Item B. Package C. Product D. Component

Answer: C

QUESTION: 9 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?

A. Exception Assessment B. Highlight Reports C. Project Closure D. Work Package Authorisation

Answer: D

QUESTION: 10 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to the Project Board?

A. Allowance B. Contingency C. Concession D. Tolerance

Answer: D

QUESTION: 11 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?

A. Risk Management B. Project Closure C. Change Control D. Project Initiation

Answer: C

QUESTION: 12 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?

A. Starting Up a Project (SU) B. Initiating a Project (IP) C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) D. Controlling a Stage (CS)

Answer: D

QUESTION: 13 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?

A. Quality B. Specialist C. Technical D. Management

Answer: D

QUESTION: 14 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?

A. An Exception Report is made B. A Project Issue is raised C. An Exception Memo is raised D. The review is reconvened

Answer: B

QUESTION: 15 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?

A. Has an organisation structure B. Produces defined and measurable business products

C. Uses a defined amount of resources D. Uses a defined set of techniques

Answer: D

QUESTION: 16 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?

A. A fixed-PRICE contract B. A Customer/Supplier environment C. A specialist environment D. A third-party environment

Answer: B

QUESTION: 17 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is working on it?

A. Work Package B. Product Description C. Checkpoint Report D. Configuration Management

Answer: D

QUESTION: 18 In“Closing a Project”(CP)the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?

A. To provide useful lessons to future projects B. Never throw anything away. C. This material may be needed by Programme Management D. To permit any future audit of the project’ s actions

Answer: D

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2™ are encouraged to…

A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings

Answer: D

QUESTION: 20 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?

A. Prevention B. Denial C. Reduction D. Transference

Answer: B

QUESTION: 21 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?

A. Plans B. Controls C. Work Package D. Configuration Management

Answer: C

QUESTION: 22 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?

A. Product Outline B. Product Breakdown Structure C. Checkpoint Report D. Product Checklist

Answer: D

QUESTION: 23 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is -

A. The sum total of its products B. The interim products C. Its product description D. The single end-product

Answer: A

QUESTION: 24 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?

A. The change-over to operational use of the product B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use C. The specification of the product D. Finalisation of the business case

Answer: B

QUESTION: 25 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?

A. Allocation of priority B. Logging C. Decision on what type of issue D. Impact Analysis

Answer: B

QUESTION: 26 Which of these statements is FALSE?

A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project. B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.

C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority. D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 27 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process “Starting Up a Project” B. Acompany’sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2 C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company’s QMS D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out

Answer: B

QUESTION: 28 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?

A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits. B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer. C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project. D. To triger‘ Starting up a Project’.

Answer: B

QUESTION: 29 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?

A. Weekly B. At Exception Assessments C. At Checkpoint Meetings D. On a regular basis

Answer: D

QUESTION: 30 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project Plan?

A. The Project Mandate B. The Team Plan C. The Risk Log D. The Project Brief

Answer: C

QUESTION: 31 Why is a copy of the Project Issue always returned to the author?

A. The author owns it. B. To acknowledge its receipt and entry into the system. C. To elicit further information. D. To notify rejection of the Issue.

Answer: B

QUESTION: 32 Which of the options below reviews the benefits achieved by the project?

A. Post-Project Review B. Post-Project Review Plan C. End Project Report D. Follow-on Action Recommendations

Answer: A

QUESTION: 33 Which of these statements is FALSE?

A. A PRINCE2™ project has a finite life span B. A PRINCE2 project has a defined amount of resources C. A PRINCE2 project may have only activities, i.e. no products D. A PRINCE2 project has an organisation structure with defined responsibilities, to manage the project

Answer: C

QUESTION: 34 The person best situated to keep an eye on a risk is called its…?

A. Supporter B. Monitor C. Owner D. Librarian

Answer: C

QUESTION: 35 Which document reviews actual achievements against the Project Initiation Document?

A. End Project Report B. Post-Project Review C. Lessons Learned Report D. Follow-On Action Recommendations

Answer: A

QUESTION: 36 InPRINCE2alpotentialchangesaredealtwithas…?

A. Configuration items B. Requests For Change C. Project Issues D. Exception Reports E. Action items

Answer: C

QUESTION: 37 Which one of these is NOT a key criterion for producing a Product Flow Diagram?

A. Are the products clearly and unambiguously defined? B. On what other products is each product dependent? C. Is any product dependant on a product outside the scope of this plan? D. Which products can be developed in parallel?

Answer: A

QUESTION: 38 For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers identified?

A. When the product is passed to configuration management B. In the Project Quality Plan C. During the QR preparation step D. In planning the relevant stage

Answer: D

QUESTION: 39 The existence of what product is checked in “Starting up a Project” and its initial version finalized in“ Initiating a Project”?

A. The Project Mandate B. The Project Plan C. The Project Brief D. The Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION: 40 Which does PRINCE2 regard as the third project interest, given user and supplier as the other two?

A. Technical B. Management C. Business D. Quality

Answer: C

QUESTION: 41 PRINCE2 lists a number of reasons why it is seldom desirable or possible to plan an entire project in detail at the start. Which of these is NOT one of these reasons?

A. A changing or uncertain environment B. A PRINCE2 requirement C. Difficulty in predicting business conditions in the future D. Difficulty in predicting resource availability well into the future

Answer: B

QUESTION: 42 In which process is the Project Brief produced?

A. Starting Up a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Authorising Initiation D. Authorising a Project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 43 When should a Product Description be baselined?

A. As soon as it is available in draft form B. When the associated product has passed its quality check C. When the plan containing its creation is baselined D. As soon as it is written

Answer: C

QUESTION: 44 An Exception Plan covers what period?

A. From the problem to the end of the project B. From the problem to the end of a plan that will no longer finish within agreed tolerances C. The work needed to put the project back within its tolerances

D. The time needed to produce an Exception Report

Answer: B

QUESTION: 45 There are several benefits that the end stage assessment brings to a project. Which one of the following is NOT a benefit?

A. To enable the approval of an Exception Report B. To provide a review of a risky project at key moments when new information about those risks appears C. To ensure that key decisions are made prior to the detailed work needed to implement them D. To provide a‘ fire break’ for the project by encouraging the Project Board to assess the project viability at regular intervals

Answer: A

QUESTION: 46 The initial Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality Plan and which other product?

A. The Project Approach B. The Project Initiation Document C. The project start-up notification D. The Project Mandate

Answer: A

QUESTION: 47 Which document is a record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirement?

A. Exception Report B. Off-Specification C. Follow-On Action Recommendations D. Highlight Report

Answer: B

QUESTION: 48 If there is a request to change a baselined product, and the change can be done within the stage or Work Package tolerances, how can the decision to implement the change be made?

A. Project Manager’s decision B. Team Manager’s decision C. Team member’ s decision to whom the work has been allocated D. formal change control

Answer: D

QUESTION: 49 “ControlingaStage”driveswhichotherprocesonafrequent,iterativebasis?

A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Approving a Stage or Exception Plan C. Managing Product Delivery D. Planning

Answer: C

QUESTION: 50 The Project Quality Plan is written in which process?

A. Initiating a Project B. Starting up a Project C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Directing a Project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 51 What are defined as“ partitions of the project with decision points”?

A. Work Packages B. Product Descriptions C. Quality Reviews

D. Stages

Answer: D

QUESTION: 52 In which lower level process of“ Controling a Stage”is the Risk Log up dated?

A. Reporting Highlights B. Assessing Progress C. Capturing Project Issues D. Examining Project Issues

Answer: D

QUESTION: 53 If a question arises on why a particular product was changed, which element of PRINCE2 would be of most help in finding the information?

A. Issue Log B. Quality Log C. Configuration Management D. Change Control

Answer: C

QUESTION: 54 In which sub-process is a Stage Plan updated with actuals?

A. Assessing Progress B. Reviewing Stage Status C. Planning a Stage D. Reporting Highlights

Answer: A

QUESTION: 55 In which sub-process are Checkpoint Reports created?

A. Executing a Work Package B. Assessing Progress C. Reporting Highlights D. Reviewing Stage Status

Answer: A

QUESTION: 56 Are the following statements true or false? 1 Delegated Project Assurance roles report directly to corporate or programme management 2 In PRINCE2 the Project Manager role must be full time 3 A project management structure is a temporary structure

A. All three are false B. Only the third is true C. Only the first is false D. The second and third are true

Answer: B

QUESTION: 57 The proces,“Directing a Project” begins when?

A. From“ Starting up a Project” B. After the start-up of the project C. At the end of the Initiation Stage D. Before start-up of the project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 58 Apart from“ Initiating a Project”in which proces is the Busines Caseupdated?

A. Managing Product Delivery B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Authorising a Stage

Answer: C

QUESTION: 59 The existence of what in formation is expected by the proces“ Starting Up a Project”?

A. A Project Plan B. A Project Mandate C. An appointed organisation D. Project Initiation Document

Answer: B

QUESTION: 60 In the PRINCE2 document management structure, how many types of file are recommended?

A. One for each Stage B. Two, Management and Specialist C. Just the Quality File D. Three; project, stages and quality

Answer: D

QUESTION: 61 In a Quality Review which role does PRINCE2 suggest must ensure that all reviewers are provided with the relevant review products?

A. Producer B. Scribe C. Review Chairperson D. Configuration Librarian

Answer: A

QUESTION: 62 Which of these is mandatory in a PRINCE2 project?

A. The use of Team Managers B. The use of Exception Plans C. The use of Stages D. The use of Product Checklists

Answer: C

QUESTION: 63 The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the management of risk. Which of the following options is the FALSE one?

A. Notifying the Project Manager of any external risk exposure to the project B. Making decisions on recommended reactions to risk C. Identifying, recording and regularly reviewing risks D. Striking a balance between levels of risk and potential benefits

Answer: C

QUESTION: 64 What function creates, maintains and monitors the use of a quality system?

A. Project Support B. Quality Planning C. Quality Control D. Quality assurance

Answer: D

QUESTION: 65 Which is NOT a purpose of configuration management?

A. To identify products B. To create products C. To track products D. To protect products

Answer: B

QUESTION: 66 Which step is NOT part of“ Acepting a Work Package”?

A. Understand the reporting requirements B. Agree tolerance margins for the Work Package C. Monitor and control the risks associated with the Work Package D. Produce a Team Plan which shows that the Work Package can be completed within the constraints

Answer: C

QUESTION: 67 Which process provides the information needed for the Project Board to assess the continuing viability of the project?

A. Starting up a Project B. Closing a Project C. Planning D. Managing Stage Boundaries

Answer: D

QUESTION: 68 Which of the following are described in the Communication Plan? 1) Who needs information 2) What information they need 3) Why they need it 4) The format in which it should be presented.

A. The fourth is wrong B. All four are correct C. Only the first two are correct D. The third is wrong.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 69 In which process are decisions made on Exception Reports?

A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Closing a Project C. Directing a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

Answer: C

QUESTION: 70 Which process checks for changes to the project management team?

A. Starting up a Project B. Managing Stage Boundaries C. Closing a Project D. Directing a Project

Answer: B

QUESTION: 71 Fromtheproductslisted,which one i s produced during‘ Starting Up a Project’?

A. The Project Initiation Document B. The Project Plan C. The Project Quality Plan D. The Project Approach

Answer: D

QUESTION: 72 Quality responsibilities, both within and external to the project, are defined in which process?

A. Initiating a Project B. Starting up a Project C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Directing a Project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 73 Acceptance for the completed products is obtained as part of which process?

A. Closing a Project B. Managing Product Delivery C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Controlling a Stage

Answer: B

QUESTION: 74 An Exception Report is produced in which sub-process?

A. Taking Corrective Action B. Reviewing Stage Status C. Escalating Project Issues D. Reporting Highlights

Answer: C

QUESTION: 75 Which of the following are functions of the start-up process, SU? 1) Setting up the project management team 2) Developing the Project Mandate into the Project Brief 3) Confirming the Project Approach 4) Creating the Issue Log

A. All four B. the first three C. the first two D. the third is wrong

Answer: B

QUESTION: 76 Which role from the following list does PRINCE2™ say cannot be delegated?

A. Team Manager B. Project Assurance

C. Project Board Member D. Project Support

Answer: C

QUESTION: 77 New versions of the Project Plan are produced at the end of each stage to reflect updated information. Identify which option is FALSE.

A. Progress already made B. Benefits already achieved C. Any agreed changes in circumstances D. Any revised forecast of cost

Answer: B

QUESTION: 78 The decision on whether a project’s solution will be contracted to third parties is made in which product?

A. The Project Plan B. The Project Approach C. The Project Brief D. The Project Quality Plan

Answer: B

QUESTION: 79 Apart from “Initiating a Project” in which process is the Business Case updated?

A. Managing Product Delivery B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Authorising a Stage

Answer: C

QUESTION: 80

What does PRINCE2 suggest may assist in the ultimate acceptance of the project?

A. Identifying Risks associated with a plan B. Agreeing the Quality Criteria for a product with the Customer C. Establishing tolerance levels D. Follow-on Action Recommendations

Answer: B

QUESTION: 81 Which individual role is ultimately accountable for the project?

A. Project Manager B. Senior Supplier C. Executive D. Senior User

Answer: C

QUESTION: 82 Who is responsible for the project producing a result that is capable of achieving the benefits defined in the Business Case?

A. The Executive B. The Project Manager C. The Senior User D. The entire Project Board

Answer: B

QUESTION: 83 In which document does PRINCE2™ look for the identification of the Chairman of a Quality Review?

A. Project Plan B. Stage Quality Plan C. Project Quality Plan D. Project Initiation Document

Answer: B

QUESTION: 84 Which of the following quality measures is covered in the process “Initiating a Project” (IP)?

A. How quality will be achieved B. When each product will be tested C. By whom each product will be tested D. Options A, B and C

Answer: A

QUESTION: 85 In terms of configuration management what are described as the assets of a project?

A. The resources B. The plans C. The products D. The business benefits

Answer: C

QUESTION: 86 Which of the following products is NOT created during the PRINCE2™ process model?

A. Project Brief B. Project Mandate C. Project Initiation Document D. Project Plan

Answer: B

QUESTION: 87 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of “Closing a Project”?

A. A clear end to a project provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements and experience B. A clear end to a project provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified C. A clear end to a project provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits D. A clear end to a project is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into use and subsequent modification of the product

Answer: C

QUESTION: 88 In which process are checks made for changes to the project management team?

A. Starting up a Project B. Managing Stage Boundaries C. Closing a Project D. Directing a Project

Answer: B

QUESTION: 89 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?

A. Project and Stage Tolerances B. A Change Budget C. Contingency Plans D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

Answer: B

QUESTION: 90 Which option is NOT part of the Project Initiation Document?

A. Project Mandate B. Initial Business Case C. Project Quality Plan D. Communication Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION: 91 On behalf of whom do any appointed assurance jobs assure the project?

A. Project Manager B. Corporate Management C. Project Executive D. One or more members of the Project Board

Answer: D

QUESTION: 92 Which statement most accurately reflects the reason for an Exception Assessment in PRINCE2™?

A. For the Project Manager to present an Exception Plan to the Project Board B. The Project Manager delivers a progress report to the Project Board as a confidence boost C. The Project Board meets to consider an Exception Report D. The Project Manager reviews and revises the Risk Log with those with assurance roles

Answer: A

QUESTION: 93 If a product is to be changed, what else must also pass through change control?

A. Stage Quality Plan B. Product Breakdown Structure C. Product Description D. Quality Log

Answer: C

QUESTION: 94 As part of “Assessing Progress” the Project Manager looks at Checkpoint Reports, Work Packages status and what other product?

A. Highlight Reports B. The Quality Log C. The Business Case D. Project Initiation Document

Answer: B

QUESTION: 95 What document is input to the Project Board with a request to authorise the project?

A. The Project Brief B. The Project Mandate C. The Project Initiation Document D. An Implementation Plan

Answer: C

QUESTION: 96 What is the first task in product-based planning?

A. Creating a Product Checklist B. Creating a Product Description for the final product C. Creating a Product Flow Diagram D. Creating a Product Breakdown Structure

Answer: B

QUESTION: 97 Which one of these is NOT a Project Issue?

A. Annotation of minor errors on a Quality Review product B. Request to change the specification of requirements C. Suggestion to improve a project product D. Record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirement

Answer: A

QUESTION: 98 Which role is suggested might act as Scribe to a Quality Review?

A. Project Assurance B. Reviewer C. Project Support D. The Review Chairman

Answer: C

QUESTION: 99 What does PRINCE2™ say must drive the project?

A. The Project Mandate B. The Project Initiation Document C. The Project Brief D. The Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION: 100 Which phrase applies to the user representative in a PRINCE2 project management team?

A. They will be impacted by the outcome B. May need to use both in-house and external teams to construct the final outcome C. Representation from the business viewpoint D. Will provide the funding

Answer: A

QUESTION: 101 Which process covers overall direction and decision-making of the project?

A. Managing Product Delivery B. Controlling a Stage C. Directing a Project D. Managing Stage Boundaries

Answer: C

QUESTION: 102 What is the fundamental principle behind the process “Managing Product Delivery”?

A. A controlled break between Project Manager and product creation/provision by third party suppliers B. Before a Work Package is allocated to the team, there should be agreement with the Project Manager on what is to be delivered C. Whatever the type of project, the actual task of creating the required products needs to be managed D. Work only commences and continues with the consent of the Project Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION: 103 The Product-based Planning technique is recommended for which plans?

A. Stage Plans only B. Project and Stage Plans only C. All levels of plan D. All levels of plan except the Exception Plan

Answer: C

QUESTION: 104 The use of which of these roles is OPTIONAL?

A. Executive B. Project Manager C. Senior User D. Team Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION: 105 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. The two standard elements to tolerance are time and cost B. Tolerance is the permissible deviation from plan without bringing the deviation to the attention of the next higher authority. C. Separate tolerance figures should be given for time and cost. D. The Project Board has absolute discretion to set new tolerances at Project and Stage Plan levels whenever it wishes to whatever levels it wishes.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 106 In which lower level process of Controlling a Stage is a Stage Plan updated with actuals?

A. Assessing Progress B. Reviewing Stage Status C. Planning a Stage D. Reporting Highlights

Answer: A

QUESTION: 107 Which process produces operational and maintenance acceptance of products?

A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Managing Product Delivery C. Closing a Project D. Controlling a Stage

Answer: C

QUESTION: 108 Who does PRINCE2™ say may re-evaluate the priority of an issue after impact analysis?

A. The Team Manager B. Those with assurance responsibilities C. The Author D. The Project Board

Answer: D

QUESTION: 109 Which report does the Project Manager receive on a regular basis?

A. Highlight Report B. Checkpoint Report C. Issue Report D. Exception Report

Answer: B

QUESTION: 110 In PRINCE2 all potential changes are dealt with as …?

A. Requests For Change B. Off-Specifications C. Configuration Items D. Project Issues

Answer: D

QUESTION: 111 Given that producing a Product Breakdown Structure and a Product Flow Diagram are two of the steps of product-based planning, which is another?

A. Identifying activities and dependencies B. Writing Product Descriptions C. Scheduling D. Defining and analysing products

Answer: B

QUESTION: 112 In preparing for a Quality Review, who should distribute a copy of the product and Product Description to the reviewers?

A. The Project Manager B. the Scribe C. the Team Manager D. the Producer

Answer: D

QUESTION: 113 What are described as “the backbone of the management information system required for any project”?

A. Highlight Reports B. Plans C. The control points D. End Stage Assessments

Answer: C

QUESTION: 114 Which PRINCE2 technique helps to ensure that all personnel affected by a product have the same understanding of the product’s purpose?

A. Quality Review B. Configuration Management C. Product-based Planning D. Change Control

Answer: C

QUESTION: 115 If there were a need to know what the precise content of an old version of a product was, what part of PRINCE2™ would most help us?

A. The Stage Plan B. The Issue Log C. Configuration Management D. Work Package Authorisations

Answer: C

QUESTION: 116 The initial Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality Plan and which other product?

A. The Project Approach B. The Project Initiation Document C. The project start-up notification D. The Project Mandate

Answer: A

QUESTION: 117 What is a concession?

A. A contract to a third party B. An error found in a Quality Review which is not corrected C. An Off-Specification accepted by the Project Board without corrective action D. An allowance above and beyond tolerance levels

Answer: C

QUESTION: 118 Are the majority of PRINCE2™ controls described as…?

A. Event-driven B. Time-driven C. Ad hoc D. Technique-based

Answer: A

QUESTION: 119 Which product does PRINCE2 suggest should include the budget and schedule impact of changes?

A. Checkpoint Report

B. Exception Report C. Highlight Report D. Lessons Learned Report

Answer: C

QUESTION: 120 What time-driven control ascertains the status of team members’ work?

A. Highlight Report B. Checkpoint Report C. Exception Report D. End Stage Report

Answer: B

QUESTION: 121 What plan identifies quality responsibilities for the project?

A. The Project Plan B. a Stage Quality Plan C. the Project Quality Plan D. a Team Plan

Answer: C

QUESTION: 122 In which process does the Project Manager ask the Project Board where the authority for making change lies?

A. During Starting Up A Project B. During Initiating a Project C. In Giving Ad Hoc Direction D. When Authorising a Stage

Answer: B

QUESTION: 123

Apart from the Issue Log, what else is updated by the lower level process “Examining Project Issues”?

A. Lessons Learned Log B. Business Case C. Risk Log D. Stage Plan

Answer: C

QUESTION: 124 Closure of the project can only be authorised in which of these processes?

A. Initiating a Project B. Closing a Project C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Directing a Project

Answer: D

QUESTION: 125 Which report assesses what management processes worked well and what went badly?

A. Follow-on Action Recommendations B. End Stage Report C. Business Case review D. Lessons Learned Report

Answer: D

QUESTION: 126 What does PRINCE2™ suggest is a direct input to the Project Quality Plan?

A. ISO 9001 B. Stage Quality Plan C. The supplier quality policy D. Customer Quality Expectations

Answer: D

QUESTION: 127 What name is given to the review that checks that the configuration management process is being done to a standard?

A. Product Status Account B. Configuration audit C. Quality Review D. Quality Assurance

Answer: B

QUESTION: 128 Who might receive completed products before the Team Manager reports that the Work Package has been completed?

A. The Customer B. The User C. Configuration Librarian D. The Project Board

Answer: C

QUESTION: 129 In the suggested filing system, where is the Risk Log kept?

A. Quality File B. Project File C. Each Stage File D. Specialist File

Answer: B

QUESTION: 130 For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers selected?

A. When the product is passed to Configuration Management

B. In the Project Quality Plan C. During the QR Preparation step D. In planning the relevant stage

Answer: D

QUESTION: 131 Which of these is NOT a specific objective of an end stage assessment?

A. Perform a risk analysis and management review of the project B. Revise the Project Mandate C. Review the tolerances set for the next Stage D. Review the next Stage Plan against the Project Plan

Answer: B

QUESTION: 132 Defining the stages of a project is fundamentally a process of balancing a number of parameters. Which one of the following is NOT one of the parameters

A. The availability of the project board for progress meetings B. How far ahead in the project it is sensible to plan C. Where the key decision points need to be on the project D. Too many small stages versus too few big ones

Answer: A

QUESTION: 133 In which sub-process of “Controlling a Stage” is the Risk Log updated?

A. Capturing Project Issues B. Assessing Progress C. Examining Project Issues D. Reporting Highlights

Answer: C QUESTION:

134

Which step is NOT part of “Accepting a Work Package”?

A. Understand the reporting requirements B. Agree tolerance margins for the Work Package C. Monitor and control the risks associated with the Work Package D. Produce a Team Plan which shows that the Work Package can be completed within the constraints

Answer: C

QUESTION: 135 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is -

A. The single end product B. The interim products C. Its product description D. The sum total of its products

Answer: D

QUESTION: 136 In the PRINCE2™ document management structure, how many major types of file are recommended?

A. Three-plans, risk and quality B. Three-project, stage and quality C. Just the Quality File D. One per Project Issue

Answer: B

QUESTION: 137 When is a Project Quality Plan created?

A. In 'Starting up a Project' B. During Initiation C. As part of 'Managing Stage Boundaries' D. As part of the Project Mandate

Answer: B

QUESTION: 138 The following appears on the cover sheet of a PID: 'Version 1. 3 Draft'. Which Component of PRINCE2 would be responsible for this entry?

A. Controls B. Configuration Management C. Quality in a Project Environment D. Change Control

Answer: B

QUESTION: 139 When should an initial examination of a Project Issue be performed?

A. As soon as it is logged B. On a weekly basis C. At the next execution of the sub-process, Reviewing Stage Status D. At end stage assessment

Answer: A

QUESTION: 140 In addition to the normal steps of a Quality Review an extra one, “Quality Review Planning” is recommended. In which process does PRINCE2 suggest that this step should be done?

A. Planning B. Starting up a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Controlling a Stage

Answer: A

QUESTION: 141 Quality management is …

A. The means of ensuring that products meet the quality criteria B. The establishment of the objectives and requirements for quality C. The creation and maintenance of a quality system D. The process of ensuring that the quality expected by the customer is achieved

Answer: D

QUESTION: 142 What should be reviewed as part of preparing a Work Package?

A. The Issue Log B. The appropriate Product Descriptions C. Project Board Authorisation to Proceed D. Timesheets

Answer: B

QUESTION: 143 The person operating the configuration management method is called

A. Configuration Librarian B. Configuration Auditor C. Product Assurance D. Version Controller

Answer: A

QUESTION: 144 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to …

A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication C. Ensure resource commitment from management is part of any approval to proceed D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings

Answer: D

QUESTION: 145 The Quality File has seven divisions. Five of these are for customer’s quality expectations, Project Quality Plan, Configuration Management Plan, Configuration Item Records and Quality inspection records. Which of the following is another one?

A. Off-Specifications B. Specialist Products C. Acceptance Criteria D. Stage Quality Plans

Answer: C

QUESTION: 146 Which process covers the work required of people who may not be using PRINCE2?

A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Starting up a Project C. Directing a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

Answer: D

QUESTION: 147 It would be chaotic to have the people who are working on the project starting activities whenever they think fit. What product does PRINCE2 use to control this?

A. Project Issue B. Work Package C. Checkpoint Report D. Risk Log

Answer: B

QUESTION: 148 What element of PRINCE2 provides “an objective measurement for management progress control”?

A. Quality Review

B. Checkpoint Report C. Highlight Report D. End Stage Report

Answer: A

QUESTION: 149 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?

A. A fixed-price contract B. A Customer/Supplier environment C. A specialist environment D. A third-party environment

Answer: B

QUESTION: 150 The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the Management of Risk. Which of the following options is the FALSE one?

A. Notifying the Project Manager of any external risk exposure to the project B. Ensuring that risks are identified, recorded and regularly reviewed C. Making decisions on recommended reactions to risk D. Striking a balance between level of risk and potential benefits

Answer: B

QUESTION: 151 There are 6 variables involved in all projects. The first 5 are costs, timescales, quality, scope and risk. What is the 6th?

A. Products B. Management C. Outcomes D. Benefits

Answer: D

QUESTION: 152

In the “Plan the Next Stage” activity, which project role is responsible for reviewing the next Stage Plan?

A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Senior User D. Corporate/Programme Management

Answer: B

QUESTION: 153 What is the first step in Product-based Planning?

A. Create a Product Breakdown Structure B. Write a Project Product Description C. Create a Product Flow Diagram D. Write Product Descriptions

Answer: B

QUESTION: 154 Controlling a Stage describes the day-to-day work of the Project Manager. Which of the following statements is false?

A. In Controlling a Stage, the Stage Plan is updated with actuals and progress is checked against the plan B. Controlling a Stage drives Managing Product Delivery C. The Project Manager uses the process Controlling a Stage to manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans D. All of Controlling a Stage is used in a time-driven manner

Answer: D

QUESTION: 155 At which point should a project be terminated?

A. A project should be terminated once it is predicted to exceed the project tolerance B. A project should be terminated if the Project Manager or a member of the Project Board resigns

C. Once a project commences, it should continue to completion D. A project should be terminated when the Project Board decides that the project is no longer viable

Answer: D

QUESTION: 156 The Project Mandate is usually derived from:

A. A sketch on the back of an envelope? B. The very first PRINCE2 process? C. A PRINCE2 project think-tank of the Project Manager, other team members and the Project Board? D. Programme or corporate management?

Answer: D

QUESTION: 157 Which process is the Quality Register created?

A. Initiating a Project B. Managing Product Delivery C. Controlling a Stage D. Starting Up a project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 158 At which point does the PRINCE2 Project Board carry out its first major activity?

A. After Starting up a Project B. Once corporate / programme management has given a Project Mandate C. At the beginning of Starting up a Project D. Once the Project Mandate has been created

Answer: A

QUESTION: 159

Which of the following does not aid the Project Manager in exerting control?

A. Project Initiation Documentation B. Work Package C. Exception Plan D. Project Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION: 160 Which of the following is an in put to the “Plan the Next Stage” activity in the “Managing a Stage Boundary” process?

A. Issue Register B. Checkpoint Report C. Project Product Descriptions D. Exception Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION: 161 Which of the following are produced during the Starting Up a Project stage?

A. Project Plan B. Project Initiation Document C. Project Quality Plan D. Project Brief

Answer: D

QUESTION: 162 Which of the following is a trigger for the Project Manager to update the Stage Plan with actuals?

A. Once agreed, the Stage Plan never gets updated B. Receipt of a Checkpoint Report from a team manager C. Receipt of a Project Issue D. An entry made into the daily log

Answer: B

QUESTION: 163 A Project Mandate is turned into a Project Brief by which of the following processes?

A. Managing Product Delivery B. Starting Up a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Authorising Initiation

Answer: B

QUESTION: 164 Which product documents issues and should be monitored on a regular basis?

A. Daily Log B. Issue Register C. Lessons Log D. Issue Report

Answer: B

QUESTION: 165 Which of the following is NOT a step in PRINCE2 Risk Management?

A. Assess B. Risk budget C. Identify D. Implement

Answer: B

QUESTION: 166 Which Process is used to design the Project Management Team?

A. Initiating a Project B. Authorising a Project

C. Starting Up a Project D. Directing a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION: 167 Which of the following is not an objective of the process Initiating a Project?

A. It encourages the Project Board to take ownership of the project B. It provides the benchmark for decision-making processes throughout the projects life C. It confirms the existence of an acceptable Business Case justifying the project D. It ensures that all project management authorities are appointed

Answer: D

QUESTION: 168 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the process Controlling a Stage?

A. Ensure that quality is achieved as planned B. Manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans C. Identifying the key products that the project will deliver D. Manage on-time delivery of products within agreed tolerances

Answer: C

QUESTION: 169 Whose responsibility is it to supply the Customer’s quality expectations?

A. Project Manager B. Senior User C. Executive D. Senior Supplier

Answer: B

QUESTION: 170 The Project Board keeps a control of the project through: 1. Highlight Reports

2. Checkpoint Reports 3. Exception assessment 4. Quality Log

A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. All of the above C. land 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

QUESTION: 171 Which of the following is a stable element within the Project Initiation Document?

A. Business Case B. Project Plan C. Project tolerance D. Risk Log

Answer: C

QUESTION: 172 Which of the following are NOT covered in the management product ‘Project Approach’? 1. Whether the solution is to be bespoke 2. What quality levels the product must meet 3. Whether an off the shelf product will be used

A. 2 B. 2&3 C. None of the above D. 1&2

Answer: A

QUESTION: 173 Which of the following is an in put to the “Prepare the Communication Management Strategy” ?

A. Stage Plan B. Quality Management Strategy C. Configuration Item Record D. Benefits Review Plan

Answer: B

QUESTION: 174 Which of the following is the definition for an off-specification?

A. An issue the Project Manager needs to resolve or escalate B. Something forecast or currently not meeting society C. A proposal for a change to a basket D. A statement of concern

Answer: B

QUESTION: 175 In which strategy would the change control process be recorded?

A. Quay Management Strategy B. Configuration Management Strategy C. Risk Management Strategy D. Communication Management Strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION: 176 It me Project Board are too busy to authorize all change requests themsekes they can appoint....?

A. A Change Authorty B. A Change Board C. A Change Commtee D. A Change Budget

Answer: A

QUESTION: 177

What is the purpose of a Product Status Account?

A. A set of records that descrbe rformaton about the project B. A bg used to record problems or concerns about products C. An aud( or review to compare actual status of products D. A report covemg the status about the state of the projects products withn

Answer: D

QUESTION: 178 When examining a project issue, which three aspects should be considered? 1. Performance targets 2. Business Case 3. Resources 4. Risk

A. 1,3,4 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,2,3

Answer: C

QUESTION: 179 Who would be responsible for maintaining the Configuration Item Records?

A. Project Manager B. Project Support C. Project Assurance D. Team Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION: 180 When does Directing a Project begin?

A. From the beginning of Starting up a Project B. From the begnniig of Inliatrig a Project C. From the completion of Startng up a Project D. From the completion of Tniatiig a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION: 181 Which management product do the Project Board use to decide whether to authonse initiation?

A. Project Bnef B. Busness Case C. Project Intiation Documentation D. Project Product Descrption

Answer: A

QUESTION: 182 Which of the following is NOT a tngger fo the project marager to authorise a work package?

A. Stage Authonsation B. Correctie Action C. Exception plan approved D. Reporting hjhkjhts

Answer: B

QUESTION: 183 Which activity is responsible for updating the stage plan with actual during Controlling a Stage?

A. Review the stage status B. Review work package status C. Repot Hhbghts D. Take corrective action

Answer: B

QUESTION: 184 During Execubng a Work package, specialist products are createi and quality reviews are carried out which management product captures the details of these reviews?

A. Team Plan B. Checkpoint Report C. Quay Register D. Configuration Item Record

Answer: C

QUESTION: 185 During a work package the Team manager needs to keep the project manager informed, which management product is used for this?

A. Highhght report B. Checkpont Report C. Issue Report D. End Stage Report

Answer: B

QUESTION: 186 When updating the project plan as part of Managing a stage boundary, what else might be updated?

A. Exception P’an B. Project Management team C. Busriess Case D. Project Inaiabon Documentation

Answer: D

QUESTION: 187 Whicti of the following management products is NOT updated as part of Managing a stage boundary? 1. Business Case 2 Benefits Review Plan 3. Configuration Item Records 4. Project Brief

A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4

C. 1,2,4 D. 23,4

Answer: A

QUESTION: 188 Which of the following activities could tngger the production of an exception plan?

A．Review Stage status B. Givng ad hoc drection C. Escalatng a project issue D. Report stage end

Answer: B

QUESTION: 189 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justifcation

A. The justifcaton for the project must reman the same throughout the project. B. The justAficabon for the project shouki remali vahd. C. The justification for the project may change. D. If the project is no longer justified t should be stopped.

Answer: B

QUESTION: 190 Which of the following activties is NOT an action of preparing for planned closure?

A. Update the project plan wth actua B. Update the Project Management Team C. Request a product status account D. Confirm project has dehvered what defned ii Project PrOduCt Descrtion

Answer: B

QUESTION: 191 Whicts princpIe Is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project9

A. Continued Business Justificaton B. Defried roles and responsbies C. Learn from experence D. Manage by stages

Answer: C

QUESTION: 192 Which of the following is False? A Successful project management team should,

A. Have business, user and suppler stakeholders representation B. Never be reviewed as members should stay with the team for the duration C. Ensure appropriate governance by defiling responsive for directing, managing and delving the project and clearly defining accountable at all levels D. Have an effective strategy to manage communication flows to and from stakeholders

Answer: B

QUESTION: 193 Which of the following statements is true of the business interest on the project?

A. Ensures the project provides value for money B. Ensures the requirements for the project are defined C. Ensures the products produced meet the desired quality D. Represents the users of the product

Answer: A

QUESTION: 194 Which of the following represents the four key characteristics a good Project board should di splay?

A. Authority, Credulity, Ointment, Availably B. Authority, Credibity, Delegation, Avadabity C. Authority, Availably, Connections, Delegation D. Authority, Crudity, Connections, Delegation

Answer: B

QUESTION: 195 In which Management product would the Project Board specify where the authority for change requests lies?

A. Risk Management Strategy B. Quaky Management Strategy C. Communication Strategy D. Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: D

QUESTION: 196 Who is responsible for ensuring That Communication Management Strategy is appropriate and that planned communication activities actually take place?

A. Project Assurance B. Project Manager C. Corporate or Programme Management D. Project Support

Answer: A

QUESTION: 197 Which of the following roles cannot be combined?

A. Executive and Senior User B. Project Manager and Project Support C. Project Assurance and Team Manager D. Senior Supplier and Supplier Assurance

Answer: C

QUESTION: 198 PRINCE2 proposes 3 levels of Plan, which are they?

A. Initiation, Project and Stage Plans

B. Project, Stage and Exception Plans C. I Initiation, Project and Benefit Review Plans D. Project, Stage and Team Plans

Answer: D

QUESTION: 199 Having completed designing the plan, in which order should the next steps take place to produce a plan? 1 Prepare Estimates 2 Define and analyze Products 3. Prepare the schedule 4. Identify activities and dependencies

A. 2,4,3,1 B. 4,2,1,3 C. 4,3,2,1 D. 2,4,1,3

Answer: D

QUESTION: 200 Product based planning focuses on which of the following 1. Creating product descriptions 2. Identifying activities 3 Creating a Product hierarchy 4. Creating a Product sequence

A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4

Answer: C

QUESTION: 201 Who sets the tolerances for a work package?

A. The project board B. The project manager

C. The team manager D. Corporate or programme management

Answer: B

QUESTION: 202 Which of the following is not part of the composition of a Plan?

A. Pre-requests B. Assumptions C. Quality responsibilities D. Product descriptions

Answer: C

QUESTION: 203 Who is responsible for committing user resources to the project?

A. Senior User B. Senior Suppler C. Executive D. Project Board

Answer: A

QUESTION: 204 Which ol the following statements describes an outcome?

A. Any of the projects specialist products B. A result of the change derived from using the project’s products C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeho¼ier

Answer: B

QUESTION: 205 Which of the following should NOT be included in the business case?

A. Reasons

B. Major Risks C. Business options D. Business approach

Answer: D

QUESTION: 206 When considering the business options in the business case, which of these is NOT an option?

A. Do nothing B. Do the maximum C. Do the minimum D. Do something

Answer: B

QUESTION: 207 Which of the following statements s TRUE with regard to expected benefits?

A. They cannot be assented B. They don’t need to follow corporate objectives C. They should be measured D. Tolerances cannot be set against expected benefits

Answer: C

QUESTION: 208 Who is responsible for ensuring that the value-for- money solution is constantly reassessed?

A. Business Assurance B. Senior User C. Corporate or Programme Management D. Project Support

Answer: A

QUESTION: 209

Which of the following activities is the Executive responsible for?

A. Ensure the desired B. Responsible for the C. Assess and update D. Responsible for the

Answer: B

QUESTION: 210 Which of the following principles describes this statement’? xxx defines tolerances for each project objective to establish limits of delegated authority

A. Manage by stages B. Focus on products C. Manage by exception D. Learn from experience

Answer: C

QUESTION: 211 Which of the following statements is NOT correct The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought..

A. When Starting a Project B. When initiating a Project C. As the project progresses D. As the project doses

Answer: c

QUESTION: 212 Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each products purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method?

A. Tailor to suit the project environment B. Focus on products C. Manage by stages

D. Continued business justification

Answer: B

QUESTION: 213 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?

A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project B. The justification for the project should remain valid C. The justications for the project may change D. If the project is no longer justified t. should be stopped

Answer: A

QUESTION: 214 The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time, Cost and Qualities are three of them, what are the other three?

A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit B. Scope, Risk, Product C. Risk, Benefit, Product D. Scope, Risk. Benefit

Answer: D

QUESTION: 215 Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?

A. Ensure project controls are based on project’s scab, complexity, repentance, capably and risk B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project D. To pick which PRTNCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out

Answer: A

QUESTION: 216

If Project tolerances were threatened. who needs to be notified?

A. Project Board B. Project Manager C. Corporate or Programmer Management D. Executive

Answer: C

QUESTION: 217 During which process would the stage tolerances be set?

A. Cantroling a Stage B. initiating a Project C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Directing a Project

Answer: D

QUESTION: 218 Which of the following is not a factor to consider when determining the length of a stage?

A. The amount of resources available in the short term B. How far ahead you can sens plan in detail C. The technical stages within the project D. The amount of r6k associated with the project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 219 Which statement is TRUE with regard to technical stages?

A. technical stages can on’ occur sequenta1y B. Technical stages define where management dec&ons are appointee C. Technical stages often overlap D. Technical stages define the commitment of resources and authority to spend

Answer: C

QUESTION: 220 There are two time driven controls in PRINCE2, which are they’?

A. Highlight and End Stage Reports B. Highlight and Checkpoint Reports C. Checkpoint and End Project Reports D. Highlight and Lessons Reports

Answer: A

QUESTION: 221 Who is responsible for confirming stage and project progress against agreed tolerances?

A. Project Support B. Executive C. Project Assurance D. Project Manager

Answer: C

QUESTION: 222 Which principle is central to the quality theme and provides explicit understanding of what the project will create?

A. Manage by stages B. Focus on products C. Manage by exceptions D. Learn from experience

Answer: B

QUESTION: 223 Which of the following statements are True 1. Quality management is the complete set of quality standards. Procedures and responsibilities for a site or organization 2 Quality planning is about defining products required of the protect with their respective quality criteria methods and responsibilities.

3. Quality control focuses on the op rational techniques and activities used to carry out quality inspections. 4 Quality assurance ensures that quality methods are being correctly followed

A. 1,2&3 B. 1,3&4 C. 1.2&4 D. 2.3&4

Answer: A

QUESTION: 224 Which of the following statements would NOT be included in the Project Product Description?

A. Purpose of the product B. Composition C. Project level tolerances D. Quality criteria

Answer: D

QUESTION: 225 In the PRINCE2 Quality review technique, who would most likely carry out the role of administrator

A. Project manager B. Project support C. Team Manager D. Project Assurance

Answer: B

QUESTION: 226 Which role is responsible for providing the customers quality expectations and acceptance criteria for the project?

A. Executive B. Corporate or Programmer Management

C. Senior User D. Project Assurance

Answer: C

QUESTION: 227 Which management product defines the detailed nature purpose and function of a product?

A. Plan B. Quality Register C. Project Product Description D. Product Description

Answer: D

QUESTION: 228 Which of the following statements is False regarding the Risk Management Strategy’?

A. It captures and maintains al relevant informant on identified threats and opportunists B. It documents the r6k tolerances C. It documents the approach to risk D. It identifies responsible towards risk for the project

Answer: A

QUESTION: 229 There are four steps in the Risk Management procedure, what are they?

A. Identify, Assess, Resource, Implement B. Identify, Evaluate, Resource, Implement C. Identify, Assess, Plan, Implement D. Identify, Evaluate, Plan, Implement

Answer: C

QUESTION: 230

Which of the following risk responses can be used for either an opportunity or a threat’?

A. Reduce B. Share C. Reject D. Enhance

Answer: B

QUESTION: 231 Which of the following reports does not contain any information on risk?

A. Issue Report B. Highlight report C. Lessons Report D. End Stage Report

Answer: A

QUESTION: 232 Which of the following statements best describes what a risk owner is?

A. Best placed to keep an eye on the risk B. Carry out the response actions to a risk C. Responsible for management, mentoring and control of al aspects of a risk D. Reports to the project manager regularly on the status of a risk

Answer: C

QUESTION: 233 Who is responsible for reviewing the risk management practices to ensure they are in line with the project’s risk management strategy?

A. Project Support B. Project Manager C. Team Manager D. Project Assurance

Answer: D

QUESTION: 234 Starting Up a project is triggered by which of the following?

A. Legislation B. Corporate Strategy C. Risks D. Mandate

Answer: D

QUESTION: 235 Who is responsible for appointing the Project Manager?

A. Corporate or Programmer Management B. The Project Board C. The Executive D. Project Assurance

Answer: C

QUESTION: 236 During which of the following activities is the Project Product Description created?

A. Design and appoint the Project Management Team B. Prepare the outline business case C. Select the project approach and assemble the project brief D. Plan the initiation stage

Answer: B

QUESTION: 237 Winch of the following is NOT an objective of Initiating a Project?

A. Understanding the scope of what is to be done and the products to be delivered B. Understanding the roles and responsible of the Project Management Team

C. Understand how quality required will be achieved D. Understand how progress will be monitored and controlled

Answer: B

QUESTION: 238 Which other management product is created when the Business case is updated during Initiating a Project’?

A. Post project review plan B. Risk Register C. Benefits Review plan D. Issue Register

Answer: C

QUESTION: 239 Who is responsible for the initial creation of the Configuration Item records?

A. Project Manager B. Team Manager C. Project Assurance D. Project Support

Answer: D