questions and answers a320

8/18/2019 Questions and Answers A320

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Questions and Answers1. Which lights go off when the gear is retracted

A. Nose and Turn Off

B. Turn Off and Wing

C.Nose and Land

D. Logo and Land

2. Which colour code is correct for push button switches?

A.AMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation

B.GREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position

C.WHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation

D.RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch

3. "Below the passenger door window is a red CABIN PRESSRE light which !!!

A.... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure."

B.... is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 mb."

C.... flashes with residual pressure and slides armed."

D.... cannot be seen from outside the aircraft."

4. "Set on #$ the actual pac% flow &a' be !!!

A. ... HI due to APU bleed supplying."

B. ... NORM due to APU bleed supplying."

C.... HI due to air conditioning temperature demands."

D.... NORM or HI due to single ack operation."

5. "(he )AN *+S C( switch is !!!

A....operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve."

B.... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve."

C.... operative in the MAN pressurisation mofe: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve."

D.... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON."


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6. What is displa'ed on the C#N, S!,! if the pri&ar' channel of the -one Controller has

failed?

A. "ALTN MODE"

B. "PACK REG"

C. Double crosses ( XX )

D. "TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT"

7. What are the .an Air *al/e and pre0cooler used for?

A.Initial cooling of air after entering the pack.

B. Cooling H.P. air only.

C.Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands.

D.Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.

8. (he (ri& Air *al/es1

A.Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.

B. Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.

C.Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.

D.Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

9. With the PAC2 .#W selector to N#R)$ what will the actual flow be?

A. LO or NORM or HI.B. Always NORM.

C. NORM or HI.

D. NORM or LO.

10. (he A/ionics *ent S'ste& has two "conditions" 0 3R#N, and .I34(! When does thetransition fro& 3R#N, to .I34( occur?

A. After second engine start.

B. At lift-off.C. At 100 kts. on the take-off roll.

D. When the thrust is set for take-off.


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11. Regarding the A+(4R indications on the .)A$ which is true?

A.ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

B.ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

C.ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ]

D.ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]

12. When can both Autopilots be engaged at the sa&e ti&e?

A.After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.

B. After APPR is armed on the FCU.

C. After LOC capture.

D. After G/S capture.

13. (he AP has been switched off$

it has not stopped ! Wh' is this?

A. The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.

B. The Air Intake Flap failing to close.

C.A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.

D.A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

14. "(he AP &a' be started !!!

A. ... at or below 35,000 feet only."

B. ... at or below 25,000 feet only."

C. ... at or below 300 knots only."

D. ...throughout the normal flight envelope."

15. What happens when the AP )AS(ER switch is selected to on?

A.The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately

B

.The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open.

C. The APU Fuel Pump will operate.


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D. The APU Intake Flap opens.

16. What does the A*AI light on the S(AR( switch indicate?

A.APU starter disengagement.

B. APU electrical power can be used.

C. N speed greater than 75%

D. ECB power-up check is satisfactory.

17. When does the AP starter engage?

A.When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.

B. When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.

C. When the MASTER SW is pressed on.

D. When the START SW is pressed on.

18. #n the o/erhead$ when should A,I# SWI(C4IN3 be selected to CAP( 5?

A.The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.

B. The Captain's ACP has failed.

C. The Captain's loudspeaker has failed.

D. Both RMPs have failed.

19. .or the ACP$ which is true?

A.The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.

B.The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.

C.The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3

D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

20. #n the ACP$ what does an a&ber light on a (rans&ission 2e' indicate?

A. Failure of the associated transmitter.


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B.Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver.

C. SELCAL operation only.

D.SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

21. What are the correct actions if R)P 6 fails?

A. Switch it off : use ACP 2

B. Switch it off : use RMP 3 only.

C. Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.

D.Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)

22. Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the e/ent of an AC BS 6 .A(?

A. It cannot be powered.

B.It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected.

C.It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2.

D.It will be powered by the emergency generator.

23. What is the effect of selecting the 3EN6 INE to #..?

A.Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS.

B.GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS.

C. GEN 1 is de-energised.

D. GEN 1 is line contactor opens.

24. What happens if$ in flight$ with the h'draulic Blue S'ste& inoperati/e 7fluid loss8$ the )AN

#N switch 7on the E)ER EEC PWR panel8 is pressed?

A.The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.

B.The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT.C. The RAT will not deploy.

D.The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate

.25. (he aircraft is on the choc%s! All sources 7Engine$ AP and E9ternal Power8 are #N! Which

of the following is true?

A.The External Power is supplying the network.


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B.If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network.

C.If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.

D.If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.

26. Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and ighting to illu&inate?

A

.

Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO

SMOKING switch positions.

B

.

Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light

switch is at ARM or ON.

C

.

Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light

switch is at ARM.

D. If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.

27. What is the duration of the Passenger #9'gen suppl'?

A.Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.

B. 20 minutes.

C.15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

D.15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

28. If$ on opening a door with the slide ar&ed$ the slide does not auto0inflate$ what are the correctactions?

A. Close the door and use another exit.

B. Manually open the Air Valve.

C. Recycle the Door Control Handle.

D. Recycle the Slide Arming lever.

29. What will trigger a fire warning?

A.Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine).

B.Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU).

C.Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).

D. Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine).

30. .ollowing an engine fire$ when will A3EN( pushbutton lights illu&inate?


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A.SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired.

B.SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired.

C. SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected.

D

.

SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is

depressurised.

31. What are the pitch and roll li&its in Nor&al aw configuration?

A.Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

B.Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°

C.Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

D. Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°

32. What does the sidestic% control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?

A. Alpha.

B. Altitude.

C. Airspeed.

D. G.

33. In Alternate aw$ how do indications change on the speed scale?

A.Alpha protection is replaced by an extended V .ʟꜱ

B.There are no changes : it is possible to stall the aircraft.

C. V WARNING replacesV .ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ ʟꜱ

D.V WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft.ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ

34. What happens in the e/ent of S.CC 6total failure?

A. SLATS will be inoperative.

B. FLAPS will be inoperative.

C.SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake.

D.SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.

35. When will )EC4 BAC20P occur?

A.Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder.

B.Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder.

C.Loss of G and Y hydraulics : aircraft control with stab and rudder.


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D. Loss of all hydraulics.

36. What does a SPEE, BR2 &e&o indicate #n the EW,?

A.In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction.

B.In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1.

C.In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure.

D.Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of V / Mᴍᴏ ᴍᴏ

37. "*.E NE:( is !!!

A.... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight."

B.... the minimum speed for the present configuration."

C.... the minimum FLAP / SLAAT retraction speed."

D.... the maximum speed for the present configuration."

38. If a spoiler has failed$ how does the s'ste& co&pensate for undesirable 'aw?

A. Automatic rudder trim.

B.Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing.

C. FAC commands.

D. ELAC turn co-ordination commands.

39. A0#C2 7alpha loc%8 appears below the slat + .lap indicator on the E+W,! What causes this

and how do 'ou reco/er?

A.Flaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps.

B.Slats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps.

C

.

Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract

the slats.

D

.

Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to

retract the slats.

40. In nor&al flight$ what does sidestic% deflection de&and?

A.Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.

B.Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll.

C.Rate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand.

D.A pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.


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41. A+C on 3N, 0 .lap e/er Position 6

A. SLATS are 2 FLAPS are 1

B. SLATS are 0 FLAPS are 1

C.SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1

D. SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 0

42. In Alternate AW$ which of the following state&ents is true?

A.High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed.

B.Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled.

C.Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled.

D. It is possible to stall the aircraft.

43. ,uring acceleration on initial cli&b0out 7Config! 6 ; .8 with no &o/e&ent of the flap handle$

what will happen?

A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

B. The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

C.The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts.

D.An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.

44. If both pilots push and hold the ta%e0o/er pushbuttons on the sidestic%s$ which of thefollowing state&ents is true?

A.The last pilot to press a button has priority.

B.They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally.

C.Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.

D.After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

45. #n the .( C( S, the ailerons ha/e two neutral indications! Wh' is this?

A.To show the tolerances when LAF is operating.B.To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.

C.One for clean, one for slats extended (Aileron droop).

D.One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).

46. If 7autopilot + autothrust off8 a ban% angle of is e9ceeded what happens?


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A.The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed.

B.The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed.

C.The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

D. The aircraft goes into Alternate law.

47. Regarding the Sidestic% Priorit' ights on the 3lareshield$ which is true?

A.A red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light.

B.A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light.

C

.

A red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain's side of the

glareshield.

D.A red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.

48. What does "." speed represent at ta%e0off on the IAS strip?

A.Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.

B.Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3.

C. Minimum speed for present flap setting.

D.Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.

49. What infor&ation is gi/en at top right of the NA* ,ispla' in ARC &ode?

A. Raw Data from a tuned VOR.

B.Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.

C. Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint.

D. Track and Groundspeed.

50. After (+#$ when does SRS 7.)A8 change to CB?

A.When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent.

B. After SLAT retraction.

C. When passing acceleration altitude.

D. When passing thrust reduction altitude.

51. "(o @oin an IS on an intercept heading$ the .P* will be lined up with the !!!

A. ... glideslope demand."

B. ... ILS inbound course."


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C. ... actual aircraft heading."

D. ... actual aircraft track."

52.Regarding the P.,$ which of the following state&ents is true?

A.The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the MACH NO. at all times.

B.On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb.

C.Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits.

D.An excess rate of descent will cause the IVSI to go RED.

53. What infor&ation is gi/en b' the speed trend arrow on the P.,?

A.The direction the speed should be adjusted to achieve the required speed.

B. The ECON speed range during descent.

C.The speed attained in 5 seconds with constant acceleration.

D.The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration.

54. If the IAS is a "split" triangle$ which of the following state&ents is correct?

A. It may be magenta or blue.

B. It indicates a speed constraint.

C.It will be magenta and signify a Managed Climb or Managed Descent.

D.It will be magenta and signify a Managed Descent only.

55. (he ECA) C( PANE "W4EE" pushbutton switch has failed! What &ust 'ou do to

displa' the W4EE page?

A. Use the STS button.

B. Use the ALL button.

C.Transfer the SD to the F/O (or CAPT) using the SWTG PANEL.

D. Use the RECAL button.

56. SRS &eans?

A. Speed Retard System.

B. Speed Reference System.

C. Safety Reference System.

D. Stall Reference System.


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57. When does the RE.E3 &e&o appear?

A.When the END Light illuminates steady green.

B.When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling.

C.When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL.

D.When the re-fuelling control panel door is open.

58. Which is true if both booster pu&ps in the centre tan% fail?

A.You must descend to 15000' when gravity feeding becomes necessary.

B.The SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications.

C.The SD shows amber = through the CTR tank quantity indications.

D.The FOB (EWD) will show a half-box (amber).

59. What happens when the first inner tan% le/el reaches = %g?

A.Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 kg.

B.Transfer valves on the associated wing will open.

C.One transfer valve in each wing will open.

D. The centre tank pumps will stop.

60. With all tan%s full and the )#,E selector in A(#$ which is correct?

A.The centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

B.The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended.

C. All pumps will run continuously.

D.The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

61. #n the S!,! what signifies an inaccurate uantit' indication?

A. An amber box round a fuel figure.

B.An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure.

C. Double crosses in place of a fuel figure.

D. An amber half-box round a fuel figure.

62. What happens auto&aticall' when the aircraft is being refuelled?


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A. The transfer valves close.

B.The Fuel Used (engine S.D.) goes to zero.

C. The Cross-feed valve opens.

D. The booster pumps stop running.

63. With fuel in the centre tan%$ but both centre booster pu&ps failed$ what will be indicated onthe EW,?

A. FOB quantity indicating amber.

B. FOB quantity indicating pulsing.

C.A full amber box round the FOB indication.

D.A half amber box round the FOB indication.

64. With the BE switch at A(#$ when will the pu&p operate?

A. After the first engine has been started.

B.After the both engines have been started.

C. For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.

D. After engine No. 1 has been started.

65. Which is true with regard to the P(?

A. It is inhibited between engine starts.

B.It is inhibited from electrical power-up until second engine start.

C.It is used as a back-up following a leak in the Green or Yellow systems.

D.It operates if the Green or Yellow system pressure falls below 2600 psi.66. #n the 4D, o/erhead panel$ which is true of an' pu&p .A( light?

A.It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature.

B.It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken.

C.It will extinguish when the switch is placed to OFF.

D. It is inhibited with engines running.

67. Which h'draulic s'ste& ha/e fluid shutoff /al/es and wh'?

A.G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire.

B.G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures.

C.All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss.

D. All systems; for use by maintenance.


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68. What happens auto&aticall' after first engine start?

A. The Blue pump operates.

B.The Blue pump stops until the second engine has been started.

C.The P.T.U. operates until the second engine has been started.

D. The P.T.U. operates continuously.

69. Which of the following correctl' co&pletes this state&ent?"With the Dellow Electric pu&p

not switched #N$ it will operate auto&aticall' !!!

A.... if the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails."

B.... if the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 p.s.i.."

C. ... when the Cargo Door is operated."

D... when a Cabin Door is opened with the slide armed."

70. When can the RA( be restored?

A. At any time.

B. Below 140 kts.

C. Below 100 kts.

D. On the ground only.

71. Which of the following defines icing conditions?

A.Before T/O : OAT 8℃ or below, contaminated runway.

B.In flight : TAT 10℃ down to SAT minus 30℃.

C. In flight : SAT 10℃ or below.

D.Before T/O : OAT 10℃ or below, visible moisture, visibility < 1nm.

72. What is the failsafe situation if Wing and Engine Anti0ice are lost?

A. Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine anti-ice ON.B. Wing Anti-ice ON, Engine anti-ice OFF.

C. Both ON.

D. Both OFF.

73. Which parts of the aircraft are anti0iced?


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A.Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., and engine nacelles.

B.Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles.

C.Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., fin L.E. and engine nacelles.

D. All of the wing L.E. and engine nacelles.

74. .ro& where does Engine 6 anti0ice obtain its heat?

A. Directly from its own fan air system.

B. Directly from its own bleed.

C.Directly from its own bleed or engine 2 bleed.

D.Directly from its own bleed or the main bleed system.

75. What do green lines ne9t to the RE indicators show?

A.Nothing in flight and brake applications after landing.

B.Serviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing.

C.Unserviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing.

D.Release of brake pressure after landing only if autobrake is selected.

76. .ollowing 3ra/it' E9tension which state&ent is true?

A. Brakes and steering will be normal.

B. Alternate braking will be operational.

C.Braking will be normal and nosewheel steering will be lost.

D.Nosewheel steering will be normal and anti-skid will not be available.

77. With the aircraft on the ground$ which is true with regard to the gear le/er?

A.It can be moved, retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression.

B.It cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber compression.

C.It can be selected up by operating the override trigger.

D.It cannot be moved if the Green hydraulic system is pressurised.

78. What does a red N2 light indicate on the anding 3ear indicator panel?

A. LGCIU 1 and 2 failure.

B. Associated door is not locked / closed.


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C. Associated gear leg is in transit.

D.Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position.

79.What happens during pushbac% 7inc engine start8 with the steering selector in the (#WIN3 position?

A.A caution NW STEER FAULT will appear on the EWD

B.Green N WHEEL STEERING DISC until steering selector is NORMAL.

C.Amber N WHEEL STEERING DISC if at least one engine is running.

D.STEERING is displayed (in amber) on the Wheels SD.

80. When does a ,ECE light illu&inate?

A.With autobrake in use, and green hydraulic pressure satisfactory.

B.With LO autobrake selected, two seconds after touchdown.

C.With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate.

D. To show that the anti-skid is serviceable.

81. Regarding landing with Autobra%e )E, selected$ which is true?

A.Braking starts 2 secs. after both main landing gears are compressed.

B.Braking starts 2 secs. after spoiler deployment.

C.Braking starts 4 secs. after mainwheel spin-up.

D.During braking a specific pressure will be applied to the wheelbrakes.

82. Pressing the ,ISC button on the Captains steering handwheels does what?

A.Disconnects the steering system completely.

B.Disconnects the Captain's steering handwheels from the system.

C.Disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system.

D.Disconnects the Captain's pedal movement from the steering system.

83. When &a' the )E)# "N!W! S(R3 ,ISC" appear on the EW,?

A

.

When the Captain and / or First Officer are depressing their DISC buttons on the

steering handle.

B.In green (only) during a pushback which includes engine start.

C.When the ANTISKID and NWS switch B placed to OFF.


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D.In amber, during a pushback with an engine running.

84. Regarding 3ra/it' E9tension$ which of the following is true?

A.Only the nosewheel doors remain open.

B. Only the mainwheel doors remain open.

C. N'wheel steering is not available.

D.N'wheel steering is available if the Green hydraulic system is operating.

85. Wh' &a' the IRS AI3N lights flash during a pre0flight chec%?

A. The IRS is using battery power.

B.Loss of all functions except ATT and HDG.

C. Failure to switch on the associated ADR.

D. The IRS is awaiting a position entry.

86. Which can be tuned b' R)P No! 6?

A.Any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids.

B.Any radio communication equipment only.

C.Associated radio aids and onside communication equipment.

D. VHF 1 and HF 1 only.

87. What does the Captains N, show when selected to R#SE IS?

A.ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected.

B. ILS receiver No. 1 signals only.

C. ILS receiver No. 2 signals only.

D. ILS receiver No. 2 signals and the map.

88. When R)P tuning is in operation$ which is true!

A.The MCDU's will display the tuned navaids.

B. There will be an amber light on the ACP.

C. ILS SME is not available.

D.The ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMP's.


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89. When landing a ser/iceable aircraft with .laps 5$ what is the correct action on the 3PWS

panel?

A. Switch OFF the SYS switch.

B. Switch ON the G/S MODE switch.

C. Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch.

D. Switch ON the FLAP MODE switch.

90. When and how is a rapid align&ent carried out?

A.On all transit stops, if the accuracy is LOW, by recycling IR selectors.

B

.

If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV

within 5 seconds.

C

.

If residual groundspeed < 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV after

more than 5 seconds.

D.On all transit stops, by recycling the NAV and ADR switches OFF / ON.

91. E3PWS uses which baro infor&ation?

A. Captain's.

B. First Officer's.

C.The lower setting of the Captain's and First Officer's settings.

D. The pilot whose autopilot is engaged.

92. If both .)3Cs fail$ how is *#R F tuned?

A. Using ACP 2.

B. It cannot be tuned.

C. Using RMP2 only.

D. Using RMP1 or RMP2.

93. Wh' is the PAN &ode 7N,8 used onl' to chec% flight plans?

A.Weather radar (only) cannot be displayed.B. Navaids (only) cannot be displayed.

C.Weather radar and navaids cannot be displayed.

D. It is orientated to MAG. NORTH.

94. Wh' is a NA* ACCRACD chec% carried out?


19/49

A

.

By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance against "BG and DIST to" on MCDU

PROG page.

B

.

By comparing TO WPT information (top right of ND) against "BG and DIST to" on

MCDU PROG page.

C.By checking both MCDUs show HI accuracy.D.By checking NAV ACCURACY UPGRADE is displayed in the MCDU.

95. If the radar on the N, sweeps fro& the centre outwards$ what does it &ean?

A.Weather radar picture is offset due to a fault.

B.Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain.

C.Nav. Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain.

D. It is giving a TEST pattern.

96. What would cause a &anaged cli&b to re/ert to an #pen Cli&b!

A. Pushing the heading knob on the FCU.

B. Pulling the heading knob on the FCU.

C. Pushing the altitude knob on the FCU.

D.Pushing the vertical speed knob on the FCU.

97. Which of the following correctl' describes the cross0bleed /al/e operation?

A.In manual, it is electrically selected and pneumatically operated.

B. In auto, it is pneumatically operated.

C.In auto, it will open as necessary, to equalise the duct pressures.

D.In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open.

98. If 3R#N, 4!P! AIR is connected$ which of the following is true?

A. Do not use the PACKS.

B. Do not mix with ENG. BLEED AIR.

C.Do not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR.

D.The GD. H.P. AIR can be used without restrictions.

99. Which is true of the .A,EC s'ste&?

A.It is continuously powered from when the aircraft receives A.C. power.

B.It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.


20/49

C.It is not available until the engine MODE SEL is set to IGN/START.

D. It is self-powered above 5% N1.

100.What auto&aticall' acti/ates the igniters for ta%e0off?

A. Extending the SLATS whilst taxying.

B. Extending the FLAPS whilst taxying.

C. Selecting FLX or TOGA.

D. Weight off wheels.

101. At the start of the flight$ what will be the condition of A(4R?

A. ACTIVE at 1500 feet AAL.

B.ACTIVE on selection of TOGA or FLX power.

C.ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power.

D. ARMED at 80 kts.

102. When is the .E SE, indication 7on the S,8 reset to Gero?

A.When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on ground only).

B.When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time).

C. During associated engine start.

D.Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground.

103. Regarding an Auto Start$ which of the following is a correct state&ent?

A.Loss of the N2 grey background signifies start valve closure.

B. Engine No.2 normally uses igniter B.

C.Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence.

D.Putting the MODE SEL to START closes the bleed valve.

104. Which of the following indications &a' be ignored?

A. Amber EGT during take-off.

B. Red EGT during take-off.

C. Amber N1 during take-off.

D. Amber N2 during take-off.


21/49

105. Regarding .A,EC$ which of the following state&ents is true?

A.It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START.

B. Each FADEC has three channels.

C.The FADEC is able to abort a MANUAL START.

D.FADEC runs for 10 minutes after the aircraft is electrically powered-up.

106. In flight$ how is the crew ad/ised that the engines are spooled0down?

A."ADVISORY" displayed on the ENG. S.D.

B. Aural alert " SPEED, SPEED, SPEED".

C. Master Caution and Single chime.

D."IDLE" displayed between the EPR gauges.

107. After (a%e0#ff$ when does the A(4R beco&e AC(I*E?

A. 1500 feet above airfield elevation.

B. 1500 feet R.A.

C. Thrust Reduction altitude.

D. Acceleration Altitude.

108. ,uring a &anual start$ what does the )AN S(AR( pushbutton do?

A. It controls the FUEL VALVE.

B.It controls the START VALVE and the FUEL VALVES.

C.It opens the start valve and must be selected OFF to close the start valve.

D.It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically.

109. #n the approach to land$ what auto&aticall' acti/ates the igniters?

A. Selecting Config.1.

B. Selecting Gear Down.

C. Passing 2500' R.A.

D. Selecting Config.2 from Config. 1.

110. 4ow is an i&&inent change of trust highlighted?


22/49

A. A pulsing EPR gauge.

B. TLA movements on the N1 gauge.

C. A blue arc on the EPR gauge.

D. A magenta arc on the N1 gauge.

111. Regarding an A(# S(AR($ which of the following is correct state&ent?

A.Putting the Master Switch ON starts IGN immediately.

B. The start sequence ends at 40% N2.

C.If the start is aborted, the pilot must select CRANK on the mode selector.

D.Igniter operation alternates A/B at each start.

112.

What does .A,EC do if there is no ignition during an auto&atic start c'cle?A.Show an ECAM message : the crew must perform a dry crank.

B.If no EGT after 30 seconds, it will activate the other igniter.

C.Abort the start, then attempt another start using the other igniter.

D. Abort the start and perform a dry crank.

113. What is the &a9i&u& de&onstrated crosswind for ta%e0off!

A. 29 (gusting 38) knots.

B. 33 (gusting 38) knots.

C. 29 (gusting 33) knots.

D. 34 knots.

114. What is the &a9i&u& wind speed for door operation?

A. 70 knots.

B. 65 knots.

C. 55 knots(gusting 60 knots).

D. 52 knots.

115. What is the li&iting speed for selecting the gear down?

A. 220 kt.

B. 250 kt.

C. 260 kt.


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D. Green Dot.

116.What is the &a9i&u& runwa' slope?

A. +/-1%

B. +1% / -2%

C. +/-2%

D. +2% / -1%

117. What are the &a9i&u& acceleration 738 li&its?

A.Slats extended and flaps retracted, 0g to +2g.

B. Slats and flaps extended, 0g to 2.5g.

C.Clean -1g to +2.5g and flaps extended -1g to +2g.

D. Clean, and slats extended, -1g to +2.5g.

118. What are the Power Plant Starter li&itations?

A.The maximum speed for starter engagement is 20% N1.

B.The maximum speed for starter engagement is 30% N2.

C.After 3 failed start attempts, maintenance action is necessary.

D.After 3 failed start attempts, allow 30 minutes cooling.

119. What is the &ini&u& speed for use of full re/erse thrust?

A. 50 kt.

B. 60 kt.

C. 70 kt.

D. 75 kt.

120. What is the &a9i&u& speed for .AP 5?

A. 177 kts.

B. 185 kts.

C. 200 kts.

D. 205 kts.


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121. What is the &a9i&u& cabin pressure differential?

A. Positive 8.4 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

B. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.2 psi.

C.Positive 8.5 psi., Negative 0.4 psi.

D. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

122. What is the li&iting factor for opening the Ra& Air *al/e?

A. Aircraft altitude at or below 10,000 ft.

B.Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi.

C. Aircraft must be on ground.

D. Aircraft must be fully depressurised.

123. What is the &a9i&u& EPR with the par% bra%e #N?

A. 1.05

B. 1.15

C. 1.18

D. 1.25

124. What is the &a9i&u& de&onstrated crosswind for landing?

A. 33 (Gusting 38) knots.

B. 33 (Gusting 37) knots.

C. 29 (Gusting 33) knots.

D. 34 (Gusting 33) knots.

125. What is the &a9i&u& speed for flight with the side window open?

A. 200 kts.

B. 230 kts.

C. Green Dot.

D. 250 kts.

126. What is the li&iting speed with the gear down loc%ed?


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A. 250 kts.

B. 280 kts.

C. 300 kts.

D. Green Dot

127. What is the li&iting altitude for use of AP bleed?

A. 15,000 feet.

B. 20,000 feet.

C. 25,000 feet.

D. 39,100 feet.

128. What is the &a9i&u& altitude for AP start on batteries onl'?

A. 15,000 feet.

B. 20,000 feet.

C. 25,000 feet.

D. 39,000 feet.

129. What is the &a9i&u& E3( at (#3A (4R?

A. 710℃

B. 950℃

C. 765℃

D. 690℃

130. Which of the following is a correct starter li&itation?

A.The max speed for starter engagement is 20% N2, (recommended 10%)

B.After 3 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling.

C.After 4 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling.

D.Maximum continuous cranking is 3 minutes.

131. What is the &a9! speed for .AP .?

A. 177 kts.

B. 185 kts.


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C. 200 kts.

D. 205 kts.

132.What is the &a9i&u& speed for the use of windscreen wipers?

A. Green Dot.

B. 230 kts.

C. 240 kts.

D. 250 kts.

133. What is the li&iting groundspeed for the t'res?

A. 185 kts.

B. 190 kts.

C. 195 kts.

D. 198 kts.

134. What is the &ini&u& fuel for ta%e0off?

A. 2000 kg.

B. 1800 kg.

C. 1500 kg.

D.1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed.

135. In the )E "re&ar%s or E9ceptions" colu&n$ what is signified b' 78?

A.Aircraft may be flown back to base for rectification.

B.A procedure to be carried out by the flight crew.

C.A procedure to be carried out by maintenance.

D. Dispatch is not allowed.

136. In the )E "re&ar%s or E9ceptions" colu&n$ what is signified b' an 7H8?

A. A crew operational procedure.

B. Maintenance action is required.

C.Inoperative equipment must have a placard.

D. Aircraft may operate back to base.


27/49

137. What do we do if the bra%es fail during an R(#?

A

.

Brake pedals PUSH, reverse max, brakes RELEASE, A/SKID & N/W STRG SW off,

brakes use max 1000 psi.

B.Reverse max, recycle A/SKID & N/W STRG, brakes use as normal.

C.Brake pedals PUSH and hold, A/SKID & N/W STR SW off, brakes use as normal.

D

.

Reverse max, brake pedals release, A/SKID & N/W STRG off, brakes use max 1000

psi.

138. After donning o9'gen$ what are the initial actions reuired in order to start an e&ergenc'descent following rapid deco&pression 7structural failure8?

A

.

FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : SPD - PULL :

MACH / SPD adjust target.

B

.

FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : MACH / SPD

change over switch PUSH.

C

.

FCU:ALT - Select lower and PUSH : HDG - turn left or right and PULL when IAS

increasing, select FULL speedbrake.

D

.

FCU:ALT - Select lower and EXPEDITE : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : THR

levers to IDLE : select half speedbrake.

139. .ollowing a (CAS "CI)B" &essage$ what are the initial actions?

A.A/P OFF : TOGA power : VERT SPD to Green Band

B. ATHR OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.C.A/P OFF : FD's OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.

D. V/S SELECT +1500 : CLM power.

140. I&&ediate actions with unreliable IAS on ta%e0of before SA( retraction?

A. AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move.

B. AP/FD ON : FLAPS - do not move.

C. FD OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.

D. AP OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.

141. Initial actions in the e/ent of a 3PWS alert including "P P"?

A.AP ON : TOGA power : Select V/S 3000 ft/min.

B.AP OFF : TOGA power : Select 17° pitch-up.

C.AP OFF : sidestick hard back : TOGA power.


28/49

D.AP OFF : TOGA power : follow pitch demands on FD.142. " In order to lea/e the coc%pit in an e&ergenc'$ 'ou should !!!

A.... leave via a sliding window, using its associated escape rope only."

B.... leave via a sliding window only, using either escape rope."

C.... kick out the panel in the cockpit door."

D.... leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door in either direction."

143. Initial actions in e/ent of a re@ected (a%e0#ff at &ore than F %ts!?

A.Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX : Maximum foot brakes.

B.Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX : Reverse idle by 80 kts.

C.Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX :SPD BRAKES FULL.

D. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX .

144. Initial actions when airborne after a "WIN,S4EAR" warning?

A. TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand.

B. TOGA PWR : ignore FD - pitch to 17.5°

C.TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand : raise landing gear.

D.TOGA PWR : sidestick fully back : maintain gear / flap config.

145. What are the initial actions$ after selecting )A: RE*ERSE$ in e/ent of loss of bra%ing

when Autobra%e is selected #..?

A.Recycle A/SKID & NW STEERING switch : use brakes normal.

B.Apply Parking Brake intermittently max 1000 psi.

C.Switch to ALTN BRAKING, brakes use max 1000 psi.

D.Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING off, brakes max 1000 psi.

146. What is the seuence of actions$ on the .C$ in order to start an e&ergenc' descent

7structural failure8?

A.Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL : SPEED knob :PULL : MACH / SPEED target adjust.

B

.

PULL and select lower ALT : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : MACH / SPEED

changeover button - PRESS.

C

.

Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob :

PULL and descend at M /V minus 10 kts.ᴍᴏ ᴍᴏ

DSelect lower ALT and PUSH : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob :


29/49

.PULL : MACH / SPEED changeover button - PRESS.

147. .ollowing a (CAS ",escend$ descend now"$ what are the initial actions?

A. Follow Flight Director commands.

B.A/P OFF : ATHR OFF : increase rate of descent from present value.

C.A/P OFF : Both FD's OFF : set vertical speed to Green area.

D.A/P OFF : THR LVRS idle : set vertical speed to Green area.148. I&&ediate actions with speed indications unreliable abo/e (4R RE, A(?

A.AP off, F/D off, A/T off, Flaps maintain config, speedbrakes retract.

B.Set CLB THR : above FL 100, set pitch +5° : below FL 100 set pitch + 10°.

C.Maintain present pitch attitude and set CLB THR.

D. Set TOGA THR : set pitch +5°.

149. Initial actions in the e/ent of a 3PWS alert which includes "P P"?

A. Set TOGA THR : set pitch + 17 ½°.

B.Set TOGA THR : climb aircraft at alpha prot.

C.Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : A/P OFF.

D.Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : then follow FD commands.

150. "In order to lea/e the coc%pit in an e&ergenc'$ 'ou should !!!

A.... force the cockpit door open by pulling it."B.... lock the sliding window fully open using the locking pin."

C.... leave via a sliding window using associated escape rope only."

D.... leave via a sliding window using either escape rope."

151. After calling "S(#P"$ what are the ne9t actions in e/ent of an R(#?

A.THR IDLE : Select G.D. SPOILERS FULL : REV MAX.

B.REV MAX : foot braking max. pedal deflection.

C.REV MAX : if all DECEL lights not illuminated, foot braking max.

D

.

REVERSE THR. MAX : if brake response not appropriate for runway conditions, FULL

MAN braking applied an maintained.

152. When airborne$ what are the initial actions after selecting (#3A following a


30/49

"WIN,S4EAR" warning?

A. Follow FD pitch demand.

B. Sidestick fully aft : raise gear, (if down).

C.Follow FD and raise Slats / Flaps if above S speed / F speed respectfully.

D.Sidestick fully aft : maintain config. until clear of windshear.

153. What are the lowest &ini&a for a CA( II Auto0land?

A. DH 100 ft & RVR 500 m.

B. DH 121 ft & RVR 400 m.

C. DH 141 ft & RVR 450 m.

D. DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m.

154. What are the &ini&u& /isual refs reuired at ,4 for CA( IIIa approach?

A.Five consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights.

B.Three consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights.

C.Any combination of two centre line / runway edge / TDZ lights.

D. One centre line or touch down zone light.

155. After clearing the runwa'$ 'ou are clear of the "sensiti/e" area when 1

A.The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become green only.

B.The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become blue.

C. You pass a red stop bar.

D. You pass the normal holding point.

156. What is the opti&u& flap setting to use for landing?

A.Maximum - in order to reduce the approach speed.

B.Maximum - in order to increase the visual segment.

C.Minimum - in order to increase the visual segment.

D.Minimum - in order to improve forward vision.

157. ,uring ta9i 'ou obser/e flashing 'ellow lights each side of the ta9iwa'!

A.You are about to enter an active runway.

B.You must stop and ask ATC for instructions.


31/49

C.You are approaching a taxiway intersection.

D.You have reached the CAT III Holding Point.

158.Dou co&&ence an approach with R*R abo/e &ini&a and inside the .A.+#) A(C reportan R*R below &ini&a! What is the correct action?

A. Make an immediate Go-around.

B. Continue to descend to Alert Height.

C.Continue to CAT I DH and then decide whether to go-around.

D.Continue to DH and go-around if visual reference is not established.

159. Runwa' centre lighting is !!!

A.White until 900m remaining, red and white until 300m and then red.

B.White for the first 900m, red and white until 600m remains, then red.

C. White until 300m remains, then red.

D.White until 900m remains, then red and white until the runway ends.

160. In a fail0operational flight control s'ste&$ following a failure of an' co&ponent on final

approach$ which is true?

A.An immediate go-around must be executed.

B.The crew should reset the DH to 100feet above the normal DH.

C.Below alert altitude a manual lading can be executed (if visual).D.Below alert height, the aircraft will execute an auto-land.

161. What are the authorised lowest &ini&a for a CA( IIIa Approach?

A. DH 100 ft & RVR 200m.

B. DH 100 ft & RVR 100m.

C. DH 50 ft & RVR 200m.

D. DH 50 ft & RVR 100m.

162. .or CA( III operations with no ,4 what are the &ini&u& /isual references?

A.At least one centre line and one edge light each side should be visible.

B.There is no requirement for visual contact with the runway.

C.Either three centre line lights (assuming 15m spacing).

D.Two centre line lights (assuming 30m spacing).


32/49

163. (,- R*R non a/ailable$ but crew assess&ent is! When is ta%e0off allowed?

A. Take-off is not allowed.

B.Take-off is allowed only if the Mid Point RVR is in limits.

C.Take-off is allowed if the Mid Point RVR or Stop End RVR is in limits.

D.When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR's are in limits.

164. 4ow is the opti&u& touchdown point &ar%ed on the runwa'?

A. Red barrettes.

B.Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface.

C. Yellow edge lights.

D. Green centreline lights.

165. What are the restrictions on A(C reports to an aircraft on finals?

A. Inside the O.M. - radio silence.

B. Inside the O.M. - RVR reports only.

C.Less than 3nm to touchdown - ILS failures only.

D.Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence.

166. Clearing the runwa'$ 'ou are clear of the "obstacle0free" Gone when !!!

A. You pass the normal holding point.

B.You pass a double yellow bar on the taxiway.

C.You pass a special notice identifying the edge of the obstacle-free zone.

D.You pass yellow flashing lights (each side of the taxiway).

167. (he weather is abo/e CA( I li&its$ but A(C report *Ps are in force! Which of thefollowing state&ents is true?

A.You may carry out a CAT I approach unrestricted.B.You must follow Low Visibility Procedures.

C.You may carry out a CAT I approach if you advise ATC.

D.You may carry out a CAT I approach only if authorised by ATC.

168. In a fail0passi/e flight control s'ste&$ following a failure of an' co&ponent$ which of the


33/49

following state&ents is true?

A. The pilot need not take any action.

B.The aircraft may be out of trim nose-up but the pilot can control it.

C

.

There is no significant out of trim condition or flight path deviation and the pilot can

monitor the approach provided no other failures occur.D

.

There is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path, but the pilot

must fly the aircraft manually after the failure.

169. If the ECA) pper , fails$ how can an S,+Status page be displa'ed?

A

.

On the Captain's left EFIS using the EIS DMC SWITCHING panel an the ECAM

Control Panel.

B

.

On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM Control

Panel push-button switch.

C

.

On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated ECAM Control

Panel push-button switch.

D.By use of the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM Control Panel.

170. #n the E+W,$ when does &agenta ,3 IN4IBI( appear auto&aticall'?

A. Below 800 feet radio altitude.

B. Below 2000 feet radio altitude.

C.With selection of FLAP2 on the approach.

D. With selection of GEAR DOWN.

171. "Pressing the ECA) control panel RC push0button switch !!!

A.... displays the STATUS page on the lower ECAM."

B.... continuously scrolls through all the System Displays."

C.... for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED CAUTIONS."

D.... displays the LANDING MEMO on the E.W.D."

172. #n the SDS(E) ,ISPAD$ what has occurred if the EEC(RICS page appearsauto&aticall' with no other caution or warning indications?

A.An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be pulsing.

B.An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be amber.

C. An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred.

D. A PRIMARY failure has occurred.


34/49

173. What happens if E)ER CANC button on the ECA) control panel is pressed?

A.EWD Red Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D.

B.EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D.

C.Aural Warnings are inhibited for the remainder of the flight.

D.If pressed for more than 3 seconds, cautions will be suppressed.

174. Regarding ECA)$ which of the following state&ents is true?

A.Amber messages on EWD are always accompanied by Master Cautions.

B.Master Cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on EWD.

C.Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them.

D.Independent failures are identified by a star (*) against them.

175. What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?

A.The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display.

B.The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display.

C

.

The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a malfunction

showing on the STS page.

D.The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates.

176. Where can 'ou see &etric altitude?

A. EWD

B. SD

C. PFD

D. ND

177. (he Captains left E.IS has failed$ so what &ust be done to displa' the P.,?

A.Push the button on the Captain's panel (outboard of the EFIS screens).

B.Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen.

C.Using the ECAM/ND SWITCHING PANEL switch.

D.Nothing. It cannot be displayed on the Captain's right EFIS.

178. #n the ECA) E+W,$ when does the "(# IN4IBI(" &e&o disappear auto&aticall' afterta%e0off?


35/49

A. 800 ft.

B. 2000 ft. Radio Altitude.

C. On flap retraction.

D. 1500 ft. or 2 minutes after lift off.

179. 4ow are the secondar' failures identified?

A. They are in amber on the STS page.

B.They are displayed on the bottom left of the EWD.

C.They are in white at the bottom left of the STS page.

D. They have a star (*) against them.

180.

What does the green arrow on the EW, at botto& centre signif'?A. Refer to the S.D. for more information.

B.There is more information. To access it, press the CLR button.

C.There is more information. To access it, press the STS button.

D.You should press the emergency cancel button.

181. 4ow can cancelled cautions be returned to the s'ste&?

A.Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel).

B.Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel) for more that 3 secs.

C.Press the ALL button for more that 3 secs.

D. Press the CLR button 3 times.

182. (o re/iew the procedure at the end of ECA)$ what should 'ou do?

A.Press the RCL button for less than three seconds.

B.Press the RCL button for more than three seconds.

C. Press the CLR button.

D. Press the STS button.

183. If the upper ECA) screen fails$ now can 'ou /iew the W4EE S!,!?

A.Select the DMC switch to CAPT 3, then press the WHEEL button.

B.Scroll through the systems using the ALL button.

C. Push and hold the WHEEL button.


36/49

D.Push the WHEEL button momentarily to display the SD for 30 secs.

184. What S, is displa'ed during the (+# roll?

A.Cruise.

B. Wheel.

C. Engine.

D. Flight Controls.

185. ,uring an approach$ in &anaged speed$ the speed bug auto&aticall' goes to a speed higherthan * indicated on the )C, PER. page!ᴀᴘᴘ Wh'?

A

.

The "local" (IRS) wind is giving a smaller headwind component than that entered in

the PERF page.

B

.

The "local" (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the

PERF page.

C.The flaps are not in the configuration sown on the MCDU PERF page.

D.A sudden tailwind component has been encountered.

186. What will the .)A 7lateral8 i&&ediatel' show in the e/ent of a 3o0Around?

A.G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power).

B.G/A TRK (The initial track of the G/A procedure).

C.NAV (Managed navigation for the go-around).

D. RWY HDG (The runway heading).


37/49

A320

Induction

Technical\

A320Induction


38/49

Technical

Test

T o t a l M a

r k s : 5 0 T e st D u r a t i o n: 2 h r s

1) The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC usses is:

a) !"ternal power# engine generators then A$%) !"ternal power# A$%# then engine generatorsc) A$%# e"ternal power then engine generators&) !ngine generators# e"ternal power then A$%


39/49

A320

Induction

TechnicalTest

T o t a lM a r k s :5 0 T e s tD u r a t i o


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n : 2 h r s1)The normalpriority for

supplying electrical power to the

AC usses is:a)


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!"ternal power#engine generatorsthen A$%

) !"ternal power#

A$%# then enginegenerators

c)

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A$%# e"ternalpower thenengine generators

&) !ngine

generators#e"ternal power

then A$%2)'hatis the ma"imum



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altitu&e at whichthe A$% may estarte& using the

atteriesonly(a)15# 000 ft)

0# 000 ft c) 25# 000 ft&) *# 000 ft)Can A$% euse& for 'ing


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Anti +ce(a ) , o )-es utonly elow

./150c)

-es ut onlywhen one pack is

..&)-es can euse& without any


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restrictions)+nnormal flight inclose& circuit

configuration# thea3ionics 3entilatio

n systemcontrolsthe temperature of the cooling airy:a) A&&ing air

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con&itione& air totheflow) !"tracting

airo3eroar&c) $assi

ng air through askin heate"changer &)



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,one of theao3e5)

'hat is the Ma"negati3e

Differentialpressure for the

cain(a)0


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psi )1 psi c )2ps i &)4 psiThere are ho"

*an

*a-or ones in

theaircraft

$A%

&1% &2' A.


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4

B.$

C.%

&.1

questions and answers a320

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