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USMLE Step I Comprehensive review

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1. 3.5 g/day of protein, along with generalizededema, hypoalbuminemia, andhyperlipidemia

How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hoursto produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

3. >5 mm What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?(Reactive) • Posttransplantation patient takingimmunosuppressive agents

4. >5 mm What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?(Reactive) • Patient with AIDS

5. >10 mm What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?(Reactive) • IV drug abuser

6. >10 mm What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?(Reactive) • Recent immigrant from India

7. >15 mm What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?(Reactive) • Healthy suburban male without any medicalillnesses

8. 0.2 How many milliliters of O2 per milliliter of blood?

9. 0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of theair is O2. What is the FiO2 of room air?

10. 1:1. Remember, the flow through thepulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit areequal.

What is the ratio of pulmonary to systemic blood flow?

11. 1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3.Removal of introns

What are the three posttranscriptional modifications?

12. 1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2 What are the three platelet aggregating factors?

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13. 1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cellanemia

What are the five conditions associated with normochromicnormocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevatedreticulocyte count?

14. 1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of theprocedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. Thealternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this iswhere physicians get in trouble.)

What are the five piecesof informationconsidered necessaryfor fully informed

consent?

15. 1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm What are the three Bs ofadult polycystic kidneys?

16. 1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR What are the four segmented RNAviruses?

17. 1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 3. Thymic carcinoma What three carcinomasare associated withEBV?

18. 1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides What are the four chemotactic agents?

19. 1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon What three substancesstimulateglycogenolysis?

20. 1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5.Hemorrhoids

What are the fivecomponents of portalHTN?

21. 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone What threecephalosporins areeliminated via biliarymechanisms?

22. 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam What threecephalosporins canproduce disulfiram-likereactions?

23. 1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime What threecephalosporins havegood penetration againsBacteroides fragilis?

24. 1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renalartery stenosis

What four conditionsresult in secondaryhyperaldosteronism?

25. 1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam What are the three Betalactamase inhibitors?

26. 1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM) What are the fivepenicillinase-resistantpenicillins?


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27. 1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GImucosa

What are the five tissues inwhich glucose uptake isinsulin independent?

28. 1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemicalspecificity needed for transportation 3. Zero-order saturation kinetics(Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than if by simple diffusion

What are the four characteristics of all proteinmediated transportation?

29. 1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient, greater diffusion rate) 2.Surface area (greater surface area, greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility(greater solubility, greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker themembrane, slower the diffusion rate) Molecular weight is clinicallyunimportant

What four factors affectdiffusion rate?

30. 1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see,can't wee, can't kick with your knee

What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?

31. 1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP What three substratescontrol the enzyme PEPCKfor the conversion of oxaloacetate (OAA) to

pyruvate in the cytoplasm?

32. 1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis What are the three C's of measles?

33. 1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier 2. B-cell exposure tohapten twice 3. T-cell exposure to carrier twice

What are the three rulesgoverning a secondaryimmune response?

34. 1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine What three bases arepyrimidines?

35. 1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm What three embryonic celllayers form the chorion?

36. 1 day prior to ovulation How many days prior to ovulationdoes LH surge occur in themenstrual cycle?

37. 1. Decrease alpha-1 activity 2. Increase Beta-2 activity 3. Increase ACh levels

Name the three methods of vasodilation via the sympatheticnervous system.

38. 1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high

concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes)4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti-Ab

What are the four ways to down-

regulate the immune system?

39. 1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of thevessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallelchannels

What are the four ways to increaseTPR?

40. 1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death What are the four Ds of niacindeficiency?


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41. 1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of the efferentarteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of sodium and water in thecollecting ducts

What are the three mechanisms of action for atrial natriuretic peptide'sdiuretic and natriuretic affects?

42. 1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve tosubclavius

What four branches of the brachialplexus arise prior to the first rib?

43. 1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3. Creatine 4.Methylation of cytosine 5. N-methyl cap of mRNA

What five pathways use SAM (S-adenosylmethionine) as the methyl

donor?

44. 1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The threeEs)

Which three factors cause therelease of epinephrine from theadrenal medulla?

45. 1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile What are the five F's associated withgallstones?

46. 1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans What are the three components of amyloid?

47. 1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism

3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes

What are the three characteristics of

autoregulation?

48. 1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvatecarboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase 8. Glucose-6-phosphatase

What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?

49. 1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

At what three sites can theHMP shunt enter intoglycolysis?

50. 1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP What four substancesincrease the rate of gluconeogenesis?

51. 1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4.Glucagon 5. β-Agonists 6. ACh

What are the sixsubstances that promotethe secretion of insulin?

52. 1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Bodyprotein 4. Body fat

What is the order of fueluse in a prolonged fast?

53. 1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine What three AAs are usedto synthesize the purinering?

54. 1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5.Hypochlorous acid

What five main oxidizingreactions are used to killingested organisms?

55. 1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma What are the four DNAoncogenic viruses?

56. 1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases

What are the three major functions of secretory IgA?


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57. 1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love Science" muscles) What three musclesconstitute the erector spinae?

58. 1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (inthe best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency

What are the four exceptions torequirements for informedconsent?

59. 1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation

What are the threefunctions of surfactant?

60. 1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2. Decreased protein breakdown3. Increased protein synthesis

What are the threeeffects of insulin onprotein metabolism?

61. 1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased triglyceride uptake by fatcells 3. Increased conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in fattissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation

What are the five effectsof insulin on fatmetabolism?

62. 1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased

thickness of the membrane

What three factors

increase simplediffusion?

63. 1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2. Increased release of PIF bythe hypothalamus 3. Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milksecretion

What are the four effectsof suckling on themother?

64. 1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. Decreased viscosity 4.Increased number of branches 5. Narrowing of an orifice

What five factors promoteturbulent flow?

65. 1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen-binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibitingfactor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antimüullerian hormone

What are the fivehormones produced bySertoli cells?

66. 1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors

What are the four types osignaling mechanisms?

67. 1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IVcollagen

What are the four components of thebasement membrane?

68. 1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater In biostatistics, what arethe three criteria requiredto increase power?

69. 1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3.Musculocutaneus

What are the three branches of the lateralcord of the brachial plexus?

70. 1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surroundingmucosa

What three criteria allow you todifferentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?

71. 1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinaseenzyme)

At which three sites in the body is T4converted to T3?

72. 1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue What are the three tissues wheretriacylglycerols are produced?


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73. 1. Lowers surface tension, so it decreases recoil andincreases compliance 2. Reduces capillary filtration 3.Promotes stability in small alveoli by lowering surface tension

What are the three main functions of surfactant?

74. 1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low sodiumsensed by the macula densa 3. Increased β-1-sympatheticstimulation of the JG cells

What are the three stimuli that result in thereninangiotensin-aldosterone secretion?

75. 1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. α-

Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

What three steps of the TCA cycle

generate NADH?

76. 1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. α-Limit dextrans (α-1, 6 binding) What are the three end products of amylase digestion?

77. 1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateralpterygoid

What are the four muscles of mastication?

78. 1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine andsebaceous)

What are the three epidermal derivatives?

79. 1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3.Streptococcus pneumoniae

What three bacteria are positive toquellung reactive test?

80. 1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat.3. Notify the threatened victim.

What three actions should take placewhen one person threatens the life of another? (Hint: think of the Tarasoff decision.)

81. 1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound Ag undergoclonal expansion

What are the three rules of clonalselection?

82. 1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3.Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult(e.g., long bone fracture)

What is the triad of fat embolism?

83. 1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2.Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate aminoacids

What are the four posttranslational modificationsdone by the Golgi apparatus?

84. 1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)

What are the three naked RNA viruses?

85. 1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma What are the three signs of morphine overdose?

86. 1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3.Microvilli (600 times) What three structures increase the surface areaof the GI tract?

87. 1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of theretromandibular vein

What two vessels come together to form theexternal jugular vein?

88. 1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol What three β-blockers are used in the treatmentof glaucoma?

89. 1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment What are the three stages that children aged 7months to 5 years go through when they areseparated from a primary caregiver for a longtime?


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90. 1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. BeginCHO digestion 4. Begin fat digestion

What are the four functions of saliva?

91. 1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell

division or complementation 3. Control the level of theresponse 4. Remove foreign material

What are the four major functions of the

acquired immune system?

92. 1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous What three muscles constitute the pesanserinus?

93. 1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity What are the three characteristics of ADHD?

94. 1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e., porphyrin and hemesynthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4.Lead poisoning

What are the four reasons for hypochromicmicrocytic anemia with a low MCV?

95. 1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney What three organs participate in production of

vitamin D?

96. 1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR, Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

What five things arechecked in the APGAR test?

97. 1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3. Sleepattacks with excessive daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic)Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep, with REM occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.

Name the four components of thenarcoleptic tetrad.

98. 1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia What are the four most commoncauses of femoralhead necrosis?

99. 1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin Which threeaminoglycosideshave vestibular toxicity?

100. 1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity Name five causesfor zero-order metabolism.

101. 1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins In what three areasof the body aresympathetics thepredominant tone?

102. 1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit MyClavicle.)

What are the fiveterminal branchesof the facial nerve?


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103. 1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable toself-care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardianshave no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety eventhough they refuse hospitalization.

What threecircumstances allowa child to becommitted toinstitutional care?

104. 1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastricligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery

derivatives.

Name the four ventral mesenteryderivatives.

105. 1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selectivepinocytosis by the capillaries

What are the threereasons for theeffectiveness of theblood-brain barrier?

106. 1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages What are the threeanatomic characteristicsthat differentiate the largebowel from the smallbowel and the rectum?

107. 1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3. Coenzyme A from pantothenate 4. NAD(H) (fromniacin or tryptophan) 5. FADH2 (from riboflavin)

What five cofactors andcoenzymes are requiredby pyruvatedehydrogenase?

108. 1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA What are the three left-toright shunts?

109. 1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in thepatient's best interests?

What are the threesurrogate criteria?

110. 1. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3.Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vitalto tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-coenzyme A, providing entry of oxidizable substrateinto the Krebs cycle for the generation of energy

With what three enzymesis thiamin pyrophosphate(TPP) associated?

111. 2.0 or greater What lecithin:sphingomyelin ratioindicates lung maturity?

112. 2, 4-Dinitrophenol What attaches to protonsand allows them to enter into the mitochondria

without going through the ATP-generating system?

113. 2 acetyl CoA per glucose, producing 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA, resulting in a total of 24 ATPs producedfrom glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle

How many acetyl CoAs per glucose enter into theTCA cycle?

114. 2 ATPs, because RBCs use only anaerobicmetabolism.

How many ATPs per glucose are generated fromglycolysis in RBCs?


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115. 2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmicNADH oxidation using the glycerol phosphateshuttle?

116. 2 ATPs, via the amino acyl tRNA synthase enzyme How many high-energy bonds are used toactivate an AA?

117. 2 days prior to ovulation How many days prior to ovulation does estradiolpeak in the menstrual cycle?

118. 2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA How many NADPHs are used per addition of acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?

119. 2% of population, 2 cm long, 2 feet from ileocecalvalve, 2 years old, and 2% of carcinoid tumors

What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?

120. 2 to 4 hours How long is the transit time through the smallintestine?

121. 3'-5' direction, synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction What direction does RNA polymerase movealong the template strand of DNA duringtranscription?

122. 3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmicNADH oxidation using the malate shuttle?

123. 3'end of the codon (third position) on mRNA and 5'end of the anticodon (first position) on tRNA.

Where on the codon and anticodon does thewobble hypothesis take place?

124. 3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end. Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the3' or the 5' end?

125. 3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years How many months in how many years must aperson cough with copious sputum production fothe diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?

126. 3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; thisproduces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)

What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze thesubstrate-level phosphorylations?

127. 3 to 4 days How long is the transit time through the largeintestine?

128. 3 years old By what age should children be able to drawthe following figures? • Circle

129. 4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except with a diamond

last: circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle)

By what age should children be able to draw

the following figures? • Rectangle

130. 4.7 L, 5% of body weight What is the amount in liters and percent bodyweight for the following compartments? •Vascular fluid

131. 4 years old By what age should children be able to drawthe following figures? • Cross

132. 5' deiodinase What enzyme is inhibited by propylthiouracil(PTU)?


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133. 5HT1D Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan anagonist?

134. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) What urinary metabolite is increased inpatients with carcinoid syndrome?

135. 5 years old By what age should children be able to drawthe following figures? • Square

136. 6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose areproduced, and 2 NADHs result from production of acetylCoA, so 6 ATPs)

How many ATPs per glucose are produced bypyruvate dehydrogenase?

137. 6 weeks 10 weeks When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into theembryo?

138. 6 years old By what age should children be able to drawthe following figures? • Triangle

139. 7 to 14 days What is a plasma cell's life expectancy?

140. 7 years old By what age should children beable to draw the followingfigures? • Diamond

141. 8 to 25 hours How long after ovulation doesfertilization occur?

142. 8 weeks (response to a face) At what age does a child develop• Exogenous smile?

143. 9.3 L, 15% of body weight What is the amount in liters andpercent body weight for the

following compartments? •Interstitial fluid

144. 9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and proteinmetabolism

How many kilocalories per gramare produced from thedegradation of fat? CHO?Protein?

145. 10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, and 10% familial, 10% in children,and 10% outside the adrenal gland

What are the rules of 10regarding pheochromocytoma?

146. 11-Beta-Hydroxylase deficiency results in excess production of 11-

deoxycorticosterone, a weak mineralocorticoid. It increases BP, Na+,and ECF volume along with production of adrenal androgens.

What adrenal enzyme deficiency

results in hypertension,hypernatremia, and virilization?

147. 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle(Krebs cycle)

How many ATPs are generatedper acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)?

148. 12 days after ovulation If no fertilization occurs, howmany days after ovulation doesthe corpus luteum begin todegenerate?

149. 12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face) At what age does a child develop• Preferential smile?


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150. 14 days What is the bone marrowmaturation time for a phagocyticcell?

151. 14 days in most women (Remember, the luteal

phase is always constant.)

How many days before the first day of menstrual

bleeding is ovulation?

152. 14 L, 33% of body weight What is the amount in liters and percent body weightfor the following compartments? • ECF

153. 16S subunit What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

154. 17-alpha-Hydroxylase deficiency What adrenal enzyme deficiency results inhypertension, hypernatremia, increased ECF volume,and decreased adrenal androgen production?

155. 18 years old (except if emancipated) What is the legal age to be deemed competent to mak

decisions?

156. 20:1T4T3. There is an increase in theproduction of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.

What is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion from the thyroidgland?

157. 21-β-Hydroxylase deficiency leads tohypotension, hyponatremia, and virilization.

What adrenal enzyme deficiency can be summed upas a mineralocorticoid deficiency, glucocorticoiddeficiency, and an excess of adrenal androgens?

158. 28 L, 40% of body weight What is the amount in liters and percent body weightfor the following compartments? • ICF

159. 31 pairs How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal

cord?

160. 38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)

How many ATPs per glucose are generated inglycolysis?

161. 42 L, 67% of body weight What is the amount in liters and percent body weightfor the following compartments? • Total body water

162. 45XO What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?

163. 50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likelyperpetrators, although stepfathers also have a high rate.

What percent of sexual abuse cases arecommitted by family members?

164. 50%, with 50% of them having the child What percent of unwed mothers areteenagers?

165. 60% What is the PO2 of aortic blood in fetalcirculation?

166. 60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in thenucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in thenucleus.

What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryoticcells have?


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167. 61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA, UGA, UAG)code for the termination of translation.

How many codons code for AAs? Howmany for termination of translation?

168. 70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes ineukaryotes

What is the size of the prokaryoticribosome?

169. 80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic) What size ribosomes do fungi have?

170. 90% as HCO3-, 5% as carbamino compounds, and 5% as

dissolved CO2

What percentage of CO2 is carried in the

plasma as HCO3- ?

171. 90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium near the fossa ovalis.

What is the most common cardiac tumor?In what chamber does it most commonlyarise?

172. 95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and fluidintake is essential.

Where is lithium metabolized and excreted

173. 100%; the percentage of blood flow through the pulmonaryand systemic circulations are equal.

What percentage of cardiac output flowsthrough the pulmonary circuit?

174. 100%, with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year What percentage of children born to HIV-

positive mothers will test positive for HIV atbirth?

175. 150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Mostpeople ingest 500 mcg/day.

How much dietary iodine is necessary tomaintain normal thyroid hormonesecretion?

176. 0157:H7 What is the most common serotype of enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?

177. 300 mOsm/L What are the following changes seen in theluminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the

nephron? • Osmolarity

178. About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered,approximately half of REM is recovered, and onlyone-third of total sleep is ever made up.

When attempting to make up sleep, what stage of sleep is recovered?

179. Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked. If a patient asks you a question and you do notknow the answer, do you tell a white lie or simplynot respond?

180. Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a β-blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better

outcomes than those who do not.

Is DM a contraindication to use of a β-blocker in apatient who is having an MI?

181. Absolute refractory period is due to voltageinactivation of sodium channels.

Name the period described by the followingstatement: no matter how strong a stimulus is, nofurther action potentials can be stimulated.

182. Abs to HBsAg Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?

183. Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptorsincreases with chronic alcohol abuse)

What medication is used to help alcoholics avoidrelapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?


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184. Acanthosis nigricans What is the term for thickened, hyperpigmentedskin in the axillae, groin, and skin folds associatedwith malignancies, obesity, and DM?

185. Acarbose What oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits α-glucosidase in the brush border of the smallintestine?

186. Accessory nucleus What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical

spinal cord?

187. Accidents What is the MCC of death in children aged 1 to 14in the United States?

188. Accommodation What term describes the reflex that increasesthe curvature of the lens, allowing near vision?

189. Accuracy (think of it as all the trues, because they arethe ones correctly identified)

What is the term for the total percentage of correct answers selected on a screening test?

190. Acebutolol and Pindolol What two β-blockers decrease serum lipids?

191. ACE inhibitors (-pril) Which antihypertensive class is used to helpstop the progression of microalbuminuria?

192. ACE inhibitors (the-pril agents) Which class of antihypertensives producesangioedema, hyperkalemia, and a dry cough?

193. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

194. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme isblocked, acetaldehyde builds up, and its presence inexcess results in nausea and hypotension.

What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

195. Acetazolamide What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl-used in the short-term treatment of glaucomaand of acute mountain sickness?

196. Acetoacetate, acetone, and β-hydroxybutyrate Name the three ketone bodies.

197. Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate andcholine (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerveterminal).

What enzyme found in a cholinergic synapsebreaks down ACh? What are the byproducts?

198. Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids) Name the end product or products: • Fatty acioxidation

199. Acetyl CoA carboxylase What is the rate-limiting step of the following?• Fatty acid synthesis

200. Acetyl CoA carboxylase What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting stepin fatty acid synthesis?

201. Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH At the end of each round of β-oxidation, whatis released?

202. Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA) What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?


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203. ACh What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • All motor neurons, postganglionic parasympathetic neurons

204. ACh What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Autonomic preganglionic neurons

205. Achalasia What occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relaxduring swallowing due to abnormalities of the enteric nervousplexus?

206. Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if itpresents in a person from Central or South America.)

What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophagealsphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak bariumswallow result?

207. ACh, histamine, and gastrin What three substances stimulate parietal cells?

208. Achondroplasia What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 results in normal-size vertebral column and skull andshort, thick extremities?

209. Achondroplasia What is the most common form of inherited dwarfism?

210. ACh receptor To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?

211. ACh; think about the ANS. Name the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junctions for all of the voluntary muscles in the body.

212. Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.

What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for pepsinogen topepsin conversion?

213. ACL What structure of the knee is described thus? • Preventsanterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment onthe tibia

214. Acral-lentiginous melanoma What is the most common one? • Melanoma in dark-skinnedpersons

215. ACTH What hormone excess produces adrenal hyperplasia?

216. Acting out Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered, notredirected).

217. Actinomyces israelii What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branchingfilaments is a component of the normal flora of themouth and female genital tract and is responsible

for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in theexudates?

218. Action potential What type of potential is characterized as being anall-or-none response, propagated and notsummated?

219. Actually, yes. You should encourage your patient totry other forms of medicine as long as they are notcontraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness.You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your patients, even if you don't agree.

Should you refer a patient to a form of folkmedicine even if you don't believe in it?


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220. Acute CO poisoning With what is cherry red intoxication associated?

221. Acute cystitis WBCs in the urine

222. Acute glomerulonephritis RBC casts in the urine

223. Acute pyelonephritis WBC casts in the urine

224. Acute rejection Based on the following information, is the renal

transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or hyperacute? • Weeks to months after transplantation; abrupt onset of oliguria andazotemia; seen as neutrophilic vasculitis andinterstitial lymphocytes

225. Acute toxic or viral nephrosis Renal epithelial casts in the urine

226. Acute tubular necrosis Name the most common type or cause. • Acuterenal failure in the United States

227. Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of theimmune system has a slow initiation with rapid

responses thereafter.

What branch of the immune system is acquired inresponse to an Ag?

228. Addition (They are mutuallyexclusive.)

If one event precludes another event, their probabilities are combined bywhat method?

229. Adenine and guanine Name the two purine bases found in both DNA and RNA.

230. Adenocarcinoma What is the most common one? • Primary lung cancer

231. Adenocarcinoma (30% to35%)

What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the lungs

232. Adenocarcinoma (becauseof Barrett esophagus)

What is the most common one? Esophageal cancer in the United States

233. Adenocarcinoma of thecervix

What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the femalegenital tract in the United States

234. Adenosine deaminase What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? •SCID

235. Adenosine deaminase(ADA) deficiency

What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?

236. Adenosine (it is an excellentagent to use in emergenciesbecause its half-life is 30seconds)

What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating and diagnosingparoxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodalarrhythmias?

237. Adenovirus Name the DNA virus: • Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus

238. Adenovirus What is the MCC of viral conjunctivitis?

239. Adhesions and hernias Name the most common type or cause. • Intestinal obstructions in adults


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240. ADH is secreted inresponse to increasedplasma osmolarity anddecreased blood volume.

ADH is secreted in response to what two stimuli?

241. Adjustment disorder. It is adiagnosis of exclusion (usedif no other choice).

What axis I disorder is characterized by a clinically significant syndromethat affects social, occupational, and/or academic achievement; occursless than 3 months after a stressor; and abates less than 6 months after the stressor is removed?

242. Adrenal medulla What is the only organ in the body supplied bypreganglionic sympathetic fibers?

243. Adrenarche What is the term to describe the increased rate of secretion of adrenal androgens at the onset of puberty?

244. Adulthood What stage of male development is characterized bythe following LH and testosterone levels? • LHsecretion drives testosterone production, with bothlevels paralleling each other.

245. Adult polycystic kidney disease What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations othe PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berryaneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in thefifth decade with abdominal masses, flank pain,hematuria, HTN, and renal insufficiency?

246. Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host,whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in theintermediate host.

Where do adult tapeworms develop, in theintermediate or definitive host?

247. Adult T-cell leukemia What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?

248. Aedes mosquito What is the vector for yellow fever?

249. Aedes (the same for yellow fever) What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?

250. Afferent arteriole Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent oefferent arteriole?

251. Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in anefferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L constrictwhen light is shined in the unaffected eye andconsentual pupil constriction occurs when light is

shined in the affected eye.

Is an afferent or efferent pupillary defect described asB/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in theunaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when lightis shined in the affected eye?

252. Affinity What type of binding occurs with one Fab or oneidiotype of IgG?

253. Affinity decreases; they are inverselyproportional.

What happens to affinity if you increase Km?

254. The affinity of the drug for itsreceptor

What is the most important determinant of drug potency?


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255. Affinity (one of each) What is the term for the strength of the association between Agand an Ab?

256. Afterload What is the term for the load a muscle is trying to move duringstimulation?

257. Afterload What is the term for the force the ventricular muscle mustgenerate to expel the blood into the aorta?

258. Afterload What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?

259. After the eclipse period Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal virus presentbefore or after the eclipse period?

260. After the latent period Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external virus presentbefore or after the latent period?

261. Ag-Ab complexes. The alternativepathway protects without use of Abs;the pathogen is the stimulus.

What is the stimulus for the classical pathway activation?

262. Aged adult What stage of male development is characterized by the following

LH and testosterone levels? • Decreased testosterone productionis accompanied by an increase in LH production.

263. Agents that decrease ACh functionreduce tremors and rigidity, notbradykinesias.

Do agents used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease thatdecrease ACh function have little effect on reducing tremors andrigidity?

264. Agglutination test What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and aparticular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)

265. Agoraphobia. It also means having asense of humiliation or hopelessness.

What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?

266. Ag processing; it is needed for class Imolecules. Class II molecules have aninvariant chain that protects them frombreakdown.

What is the term for processing an APC's pinocytosedmaterial by fusing with a lysosomal granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?

267. Agranulocytosis; approximately 2%develop this side effect.

What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should bemonitored with frequent blood drawing?

268. Air flows into the respiratory system. What result occurs because of the negative alveolar pressure generated during inspiration?

269. Akathisia What antipsychotic movement disorder can occur at anytime and is characterized by a subjective sense of discomfort that brings on restlessness, pacing, sitting down,and getting up?

270. ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase What two enzymes of heme synthesis are inhibited by lead?

271. Alanine and glutamine As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?

272. Alanine cycle In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it isconverted to pyruvate and then into alanine before beingtaken back to the liver?


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273. Al-Anon What is the name of the program that deals withcodependency and enabling behaviors for family membersof alcohol abusers?

274. Albendazole What drug blocks glucose uptake, leading to decreasedformation of ATP and resulting in immobilization of theparasite?

275. Albinism What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?

276. Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melaninby the enzyme tyrosinase.

What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzymetyrosinase?

277. Albumin What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?

278. Alcohol abuse Name the most common type or cause. • Reversible HTN inthe United States

279. Alcohol abuse Name the most common cause. • Chronic pancreatitis

280. Alcohol and its related problems cost the

country approximately $100 billion a year.

What is the costliest health care problem in the United

States?

281. Alcohol consumption Name the most common type or cause. • Cirrhosis in theUnited States

282. Alcoholic cirrhosis Name the most common type or cause. • Liver transplantation in adults

283. Alcoholics Anonymous What is the name of the 12-step program believed to be themost successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse?

284. Alcoholism Name the most common type or cause. • Mallory-Weisssyndrome

285. Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have aproblem with alcohol.

What is the most abused drug across all age groups?

286. Aldehyde dehydrogenase What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?

287. Aldolase B deficiencies are treated byeliminating fructose from the diet.

What fructose metabolism enzyme is deficient in patientswith vomiting, apathy, diarrhea, jaundice, proximal renaltubular acidosis, hypoglycemia, and hyperuricemia?

288. Aldosterone Remember, from the outer cortex to the inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex.

The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you godeeper.

What is the major hormone produced in the following areasof the adrenal cortex? • Zona glomerulosa

289. Alendronate What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced osteoporosis?

290. Alkaline phosphatase What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?

291. ALL What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of fever, fatigue, generalized lymphadenopathy, CNSinvolvement, hepatosplenomegaly, bleeding, and plateletcount below 100, 000?

292. ALL What is the most common one? • Malignancy in children


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293. All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia andProteus.

Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae familymembers—Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter,Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter— do not fermenlactose?

294. Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cellproduces only one Ab.

What is the name of the process that ensures thateach B cell produces only one heavy-chain variabledomain and one light chain?

295. ALL (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk) What hematological malignancy is particularly likely toaffect patients with Down syndrome?

296. Allograft Name the type of graft described by these transplants:• From one person to the next (the same species)

297. Allopurinol What is the drug of choice for treating a patient withhyperuricemia due to overproduction of uric acid?

298. Allotypes What are the genetic variants of a molecule withinmembers of the same species?

299. alpha2-Receptors What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate

further neurotransmitter release?

300. alpha-Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on-cells and inhibitory effects on -cells.

What pancreatic islet cell secretes glucagons?

301. alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusalmuscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas gamma-motor neurons innervate intrafusal musclefibers.

Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervateextrafusal muscle fibers?

302. Alteplase Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence offibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA process?

303. Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the nullhas been defined)

What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying toprove?

304. Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition,the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with adecreased level of cortical excitation.

Does the direct or indirect basal gangliapathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?

305. Altruism Name these mature defense mechanisms: •Helping others without expecting any return

306. Alveolar dead space What is the term for ventilation of

unperfused alveoli?

307. Alveolar macrophages Name the macrophages by location: • Lungs

308. Alveolar macrophages (dust cells) In the alveoli, what cell type is • part of themononuclear phagocytic system?

309. The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior to inflation, and although they are large, they receive lowlevels of alveolar ventilation.

Why is the apex of the lung hypoventilatedwhen a person is standing upright?


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310. The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant, sothere is a large change in their size and volume andtherefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.

Why is the base of the lung hyperventilatedwhen a person is standing upright?

311. Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion. Which of the following is not part of theconducting portion of the respiratory systemtrachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx?

312. Alzheimer disease Senile plaques

313. Alzheimer disease Neurofibrillary tangles

314. Alzheimer disease Name the most common cause. • Dementiain persons aged 60 to 90 years

315. Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type, DAT).(Remember, Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementiasseen in patients 65 years old.)

What is the most common form of dementia?

316. Amanita phalloides What mushroom poisoning is associatedwith fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?

317. Amantadine What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and penetration of influenza A virus?

318. Amantadine What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug-inducedParkinson's disease?

319. Amiloride What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus inducedby lithium?

320. Amiloride Which sodium channel blocker is used to treat lithium-induceddiabetes insipidus?

321. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, whichuses 2 ATPs for this reaction.

What enzyme catalyzes the covalent bonding of the AA's carboxylgroup to the 3' end of tRNA?

322. Aminoglycosides Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere withthe initiation complex, causing a misreading of mRNA?

323. Aminoglycosides Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. •CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)

324. Aminophylline What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the management ostatus asthmaticus ?

325. AML-M3 Auer rods

326. Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)

What term describes the inability to recall personal information,commonly associated with trauma?

327. Amphotericin B What is the DOC for severe infections with Sporothrix, Mucor,Histoplasma, Cryptococcus, Candida, and Aspergillus?

328. Ampicillin and amoxicillin What are the two broad-spectrum penicillins?

329. Ampulla What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization mostcommonly occurs?


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330. Ampulla of the fallopian tube Where is the most frequent site of ectopic pregnancy?

331. Amygdala; it helps imprint anemotional response in memory.

What area of the limbic system is responsible for attachingemotional significance to a stimulus?

332. Amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1, 4-glucosidelinkages, forming alpha-limit dextrins, maltotriose,and maltose.

What linkage of complex CHOs does pancreaticamylase hydrolyze? What three complexes areformed?

333. Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate Name the antidote. • Cyanide

334. Amyloidosis Name the most common type or cause. • Restrictivecardiomyopathy

335. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig'sdisease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesionand UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.

What disease is described by bilateral flaccidweakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateralspastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN)beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord andprogressing up or down the cord?

336. Anatomical dead space, which ends at the level of

the terminal bronchioles.

What is the term for any region of the respiratory

system that is incapable of gas exchange?

337. Androgen-binding protein What hormone, produced by the Sertoli cells, isresponsible for keeping testosterone levels in theseminiferous tubules nearly 50 times that of theserum?

338. Androgens are 19-carbon steroids. How many carbons do androgens have?

339. Anemia What toxicities are caused by the following agents?Occupational nitrous oxide exposure

340. Anemia of chronic disease Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on

the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron,TIBC, and percent saturation; increased ferritin

341. Anemic patients have a depressed O2 contentbecause of the reduced concentration of Hgb inthe blood. As for polycythemic patients, their O2content is increased because of the excess Hgbconcentrations.

Why is O2 content depressed in anemic patients?

342. Angiosarcoma of the liver Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Somemay have more than one answer.) • Vinyl chloride

343. Anhedonia What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions?

344. Ankylosing spondylitis What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positiveyoung men, involves the sacroiliac joints, has no subcutaneous nodules,and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?

345. Anopheles mosquito What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria?

346. Anopheles mosquito What vector is associated with malaria?

347. Anorgasmia. (The overallprevalence is 30%.)

What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?


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348. Anterior compartment (it'sthe blood supply to theposterior compartment)

In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?

349. Anterior compartment of theleg, deep peroneal nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on itsmovements. • Dorsiflex the foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot

350. Anterior compartment of thethigh, femoral nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on itsmovements. • Flex the hip and extend the knee

351. Anterior hypothalamic zone;lesions here result inhyperthermia.

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increasein body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?

352. Anterior limb of the internalcapsule is supplied by theanterior cerebral artery.

What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebralartery?

353. Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuitof the limbic system)

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Inputfrom the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract andthe cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the

anterior limb of the internal capsule

354. The anterior nucleus of the thalamus What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies projectto?

355. Anterior spinal artery What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The ventrolateraltwo-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?

356. Anterior tibial artery What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses theextensor retinaculum?

357. Anterior wall of the first part of theduodenum

What is the most common one? • Location of a duodenal ulcer

358. Anticipation Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Preparing for anupcoming event

359. Anticipation, associated with fragile Xsyndrome; Huntington's disease isalso associated with a decrease inonset of age.

What is the term for the number of trinucleotide repeatsincreasing with successive generations and correlating withincreased severity of disease?

360. Antidigoxin Fab fragments Name the antidote. • Digoxin

361. Antigenic determinant (epitope) What is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that isrecognized by an Ab?

362. Antigenic determinant (epitope).(Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)

What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will actually berecognized and bound to an Ab and that contains approximatelyfive to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?

363. Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated withimmunization or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.

Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recentinfection?


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364. Antisocial Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Criminal behavior; lackingfriends, reckless, and unable to conform to social norms

365. Antisocial personality What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?

366. Antithyroglobulin andantimicrosomal Abs

What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

367. Anxiety disorders; for men it

is substance abuse.

Name the most common type. • Psychiatric disorder in women of all ages

368. The aorta What large-diameter vessel has the smallest cross-sectional area insystemic circulation?

369. Aorta, azygos vein, andthoracic duct Remember: 1at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 atT12

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T12 level?

370. The aorta has the greatestvelocity and the capillarieshave the slowest velocity.

What vessels in the systemic circulation have the greatest and slowestvelocity?

371. Aortic insufficiency Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Diastolicmurmur; increased preload, stroke volume, and aortic pulse pressure;decreased coronary blood flow; no incisura; and peripheral vasodilation

372. Aortic stenosis Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Systolicmurmur, increased preload and afterload, decreased aortic pulse pressureand coronary blood flow

373. Apneustic center (deepbreathing place)

What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the center for rhythmpromoting prolonged inspirations?

374. apo A-1 What apoprotein on HDL activates lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase(LCAT)?

375. apo B-48 What apoprotein is required for the release of chylomicrons from theepithelial cells into the lymphatics?

376. APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus allbegin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell(odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervoussystem would be firing (innervation).

What sweat gland type isassociated with odor production and hair folliclesand is found in the axilla?

377. Apoptosis (Remember, there is a lack of inflammatory response.) What is the term for

programmed cell death?

378. Appendix (second is terminal ileum) What is the most commonone? • Site for carcinoidtumors

379. Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus) What is the term given toarthropod-borne viruses?

380. Arch of the aorta Name the correct artery. •The left recurrent laryngeanerve passes around it.


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381. Area 4 What Brodmann area isassociated with • Primarymotor cortex?

382. Area 6 What Brodmann area isassociated with • Premotorcortex?

383. Area 8 What Brodmann area is

associated with • Frontaleye fields?

384. Area 17 What Brodmann area isassociated with • Primaryvisual cortex?

385. Area 22 and occasionally 39and 40

What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke's area?

386. Areas 1, 2, and 3 What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary somatosensorycortex?

387. Areas 5 and 7 What Brodmann area is associated with • Somatosensory associationcortex?

388. Areas 18 and 19 What Brodmann area is associated with • Visual association cortex?

389. Areas 41 and 42 What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary auditory cortex?

390. Areas 44 and 45 What Brodmann area is associated with • Broca's area?

391. These are the gross pathologicchanges associated with Alzheimer's disease.

What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse corticaatrophy, decreased parietal lobe blood flow, and a decrease in cholineacetyl transferase activity?

392. The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.

Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?

393. Arginine What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • N2O

394. Arginine What AA is broken down into N2O, causing an increase in cyclicguanosine monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth muscle, hencevasodilation?

395. Arginine What AA has a pKa of 13?

396. Argyll Robertson pupils What is the term for pupils that react normally to accommodation buthave bilateral loss of constriction in response to light?

397. Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both directand consensual light reflexes, but the accommodation-convergence reaction remains intact. It can also beseen in patients with pineal tumors or multiplesclerosis.

What is the term for the type of pupil seen inneurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes arelost?


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398. Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2 What CNS developmental abnormality isassociated with downward displacement of thecerebellar vermis and medulla compressing thefourth ventricle and leading to obstructivehydrocephalus?

399. Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2 What CNS developmental abnormality isassociated with 90% of syringomyelia?

400. Aromatase What enzyme converts androgens toestrogens?

401. Arsenic Name the most common type or cause. • Acutemetal poisoning in the United States

402. Arsenic, thorotrast, and vinyl chloride What three chemical agents are associatedwith angiosarcomas of the liver?

403. Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral bloodflow.

Under resting conditions, what is the maindeterminant of cerebral blood flow?

404. Arterioles What component of the vascular system is

most sensitive to the effects of calcium channeblockers?

405. Arterioles have the largest drop, whereas the venacava has the smallest pressure drop in systemiccirculation.

In the systemic circulation, what blood vesselshave the largest pressure drop? Smallestpressure drop?

406. Arthroconidia with hyphae A suspected dermatophyte infection is stainedwith KOH. What spore type do you expect tosee?

407. ASA What is the only NSAID that causes irreversibleinhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?

408. ASA (salicylate) What commonly encountered overdose produces headache,tinnitus, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, confusion,vomiting, and tachypnea?

409. Asbestosis What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to thefollowing occupations or materials? • Shipyards, brake linings,insulation, and old building construction

410. Asbestosis Name the most common type or cause. • Nonorganicpneumoconiosis

411. Asbestosis and silicosis With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?

412. Ascaris lumbricoides What is the most common one? • Helminthic parasiteworldwide

413. Ascending limb What is the site of action of the following? • Loop diuretics

414. Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytesand macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?

415. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency(These are the signs of scurvy.)

What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing,loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and ecchymosis?


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436. AT II What hormone constricts afferent and efferent arterioles(efferent more so) in an effort to preserve glomerular capillarypressure as the renal blood flow decreases?

437. AT II What component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosteroneaxis increases sodium reabsorption in the proximalconvoluted tubules and increases thirst drive?

438. At least 5 lobes How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus arenecessary for it to be called hypersegmented?

439. At least 15% How far below ideal body weight are patients withanorexia nervosa?

440. At least 30% blast in the bone marrow What percentage of the bone marrow must be composedof blast for leukemia to be considered?

441. At least six How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for thediagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?

442. ATP/ADP Translocase What component of the ETC is inhibited by the

following? • Atractyloside

443. Atracurium Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated tolaudanosine?

444. Atrial contraction Atrial, Contraction, Venous On the venous pressure curve, what do the followingwaves represent? • A wave?

445. Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial, Contraction,Venous

On the venous pressure curve, what do the followingwaves represent? • V wave?

446. Atrophy. Disuse can also be due toimmobilization, ischemia, aging, and a host of

other causes.

What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell sizeand function usually associated with disuse?

447. Atropine, 2-PAM (pralidoxime) Name the antidote. • Organophosphates

448. Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime) What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?

449. Atropine with pralidoxime Name the antidote. • AChE inhibitors

450. At the beginning of splay is when the renalthreshold for glucose occurs and the excessbegins to spill over into the urine.

On a graphical representation of filtration, reabsorption,and excretion, when does glucose first appear in theurine?

451. At the end of the PCT25% of Na+, Cl-, K+ isleft

What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leavesthe PCT of the nephron? • Percentage of Na+, Cl-, K+ left in the lumen

452. At the end of the PCT25% of the originalvolume is left

What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leavesthe PCT of the nephron? • Percentage of original filtered volume left in thelumen

453. Auspitz sign What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed andpinpoint bleeding occurs?


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454. Autism. Head-banging,rocking, and self-injurious behaviors arealso common in autism.

What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal, preference for inanimate objects, obliviousness to the external environment, lack of separation anxiety, and abnormalities in language development?

455. Autograft Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one site toanother on the same person

456. Autoimmune hemolytic

anemia

What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens, positive

direct Coombs test, and splenomegaly?

457. Autoimmune hemolyticanemia

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directedagainst RBC Ag I?

458. Autoimmunethrombocytopeniapurpura

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directedagainst platelet integrin?

459. Autosomal dominant Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and Fare affected; M may transmit to M; each generation has at least one affectedparent; and one mutant allele may produce the disease.

460. Autosomal recessive Name the pattern of genetic transmission: both M and F are affected; M-to-Mtransmission may be present; both parents must be carriers; the trait skipsgenerations; two mutant alleles are needed for disease; and affected childrenmay be born of unaffected adults?

461. Average What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 90 to 109

462. Aversive conditioning What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Pairingnoxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior?

463. Avidity (more than one bindingsite)

What is the term for the strength of association between multiple Abbinding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?

464. Avidity. There is a positivecorrelation between valencenumbers and avidity.

What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and Abs?

465. Avoidant Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Sensitive to criticism, shyanxious; socially isolated but yearns to be in the crowd

466. Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery

What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture?

467. Axis I The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In

what axis would you place • Clinical disorders (e.g., schizophrenia)?

468. Axis II The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. Inwhat axis would you place • Personality and mental disorders?

469. Axis III The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. Inwhat axis would you place • Medical or physical ailments?

470. Axis IV The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. Inwhat axis would you place • Psychosocial and environmentalproblems (stressors)?


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471. Axis V The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. Inwhat axis would you place • Global assessment of function?

472. Axon hillock Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?

473. Azathioprine What immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6-mercaptopurine?

474. Azithromycin Which macrolide is given as 1200 mg/week for the prophylaxis of Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex?

475. The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions.Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia,spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, andweakness are commonly seen in UMNlesions.

What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract, isan extension of the great toe with fanning the of remaining toes?

476. Bacillus anthracis What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shapedgram-positive rods and is spore-forming, aerobic, andassociated with cutaneous infections and woolsorter'sdisease?

477. Bacillus anthracis What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?

478. Bacillus cereus What organism would you suspect in a patient withdiarrhea after eating rice?

479. Bacteria Which of the following characteristics accurately describefungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? • Small prokaryoticcells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cellmembrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate bybinary fission

480. Bacterial meningitis What condition results in the following CSF results? •Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90%PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120

481. Bactericidal What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for animmunocompromised patient?

482. Bainbridge reflex What cardiac reflex is characterized by stretch receptorsin the right atrium, afferent and efferent limbs via thevagus nerve, and increased stretch leading to anincrease in heart rate via inhibition of parasympatheticstimulation?

483. Barbiturate overdose and benzodiazepine

withdrawal carry the highest mortality rates.

Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate, that of

benzodiazepines or barbiturates?

484. Barr bodies in females, T-cell receptor loci, andimmunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci

What are the three exceptions to the rule of codominant gene expression?

485. Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developingadenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary tochronic inflammation?

486. Basal cell carcinoma What is the most common one? • Skin tumor inthe United States


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487. Basal cell carcinoma What is the most common one? • Tumor on sun-exposed sites

488. Basal ganglia Name the area of the cerebral cortex with thefunction described: • Initiation and control of movements

489. Baseline apical intrapleural pressure is -10 cm H2O(more negative than the mean) resulting in a force to

expand the alveoli.

At the apex of the lung, what is the baselineintrapleural pressure, and what force does it

exert on the alveoli?

490. The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.

What artery is formed by the union of the twovertebral arteries?

491. Basophilic stippling What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs, seen in lead poisoning?

492. B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulpand germinal centers in the spleen.

What cell type is found in the peripheral whitepulp of the spleen?

493. B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells arenonspecific.

What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?

494. Bcl-2 What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing therelease of cytochrome c from mitochondria?

495. Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount issecreted

Why is the clearance of creatinine always slightlygreater than the clearance of inulin and GFR?

496. Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does notdecrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).

Why isn't the incidence of adisease decreased when a newtreatment is initiated?

497. Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in

systemic circulation

Why will turbulence first appear in

the aorta in patients with anemia?

498. Because RPF is markedly decreased, while GFR is only minimallydiminished; this results in an increase in FF (remember FF =GFR/RPF).

Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is decreased under sympathetic stimulation?

499. Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is removed, therebyincreasing the secretion of prolactin.

Why is there an increase inprolactin if the hypothalamic-pituitary axis was severed?

500. Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increasein cardiac output, resulting in a minimal change in BP.

Why is there a minimal change inBP during exercise if there is a

large drop in TPR?

501. Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterialvessels, small changes in pressure result in large changes in bloodvolume.

Regarding the venous system,what happens to blood volume if there is a small change inpressure?

502. Because they do not block D2A receptors, they are antagonists of 5HT2 receptors.

Why are clozapine and olanzapineunlikely to result in EPS effects?

503. Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.

Does being a female physicianincrease or decrease the risk of suicide?


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504. Being awake Name the stages of sleep withthese EEG patterns: • Alphawaves

505. Bell pad What has proved to be the best

way to extinguish enuresis?

506. Bender Visual Motor GestaltTest

What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient, thenasks for recall of as many as possible?

507. Benign lentigo What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytespresenting as small, oval, light brown macules?

508. Benign nevus (mole) What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sunexposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharplydefined well-circumscribed borders?

509. Berger disease (IgAnephropathy)

What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and dermatitisherpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of IgA, C3, properdin, IgG, andIgM?

510. Bernard-Soulier syndrome What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib, resultingin a defect in platelet adhesion?

511. Berry aneurysm What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystickidney disease?

512. Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid hemorrhage

513. Berylliosis What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the followingoccupations or materials? • Aerospace industry, nuclear reactors

514. Beryllium What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industror in nuclear plants?

515. Beta2-integrins Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migrationin and out of the blood during an immune response?

516. The Beta-2-microglobin. It is theseparately encoded Beta-chainfor class I Ags.

What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II Ag? (Hint: it's inthe light chain.)

517. Between the renal arteries andat the bifurcation of theabdominal aorta

What is the most common one? • Sites for abdominal aorta aneurysm

518. The bifurcation of the abdominalaorta

What is the most common one? • Site for atherosclerotic plaques inthe abdominal aorta


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519. Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinalcord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. Ahigh-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalisbecause of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.

What sensory system is affected in the latespinal cord manifestation of syphilis?

520. Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol)increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore, they arenot used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.

Which class of antihyperlipidemics would youavoid for a patient with elevated triglyceridelevels?

521. Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum. Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption obile salts take place?

522. Bioavailability What is the term for the proportion of a drugthat reaches systemic circulation?

523. Biofeedback What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Providing theperson with information regarding his or her internal responses to stimuli with methods of controlling them?

524. The biofeedback model is based on the parasympatheticnervous system.

What part of the ANS is affected in thebiofeedback model of operant conditioning?

525. Biotin, ATP, and CO2 In the mitochondria, what complex is neededfor pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze thereaction from pyruvate to OAA?

526. Biotin, ATP, and CO2 What complex is needed for propionyl CoAcarboxylase?

527. Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites. Avidin decreases the absorption of whatvitamin?

528. Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities) What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency mayresult from eating raw eggs?

529. Bipolar disorder (manic-depressivedisorder)

Increased self-esteem, flight of ideas, decreased sleep, increasedlibido, weight loss, and erratic behavior are all symptoms of whatdisorder?

530. Birds What is the reservoir for the togavirus?

531. Birth defects, low birth weight (<1500 g) with neonatal respiratory

distress syndrome (NRDS), andSIDS

What are the top three causes of infant mortality?

532. Bisphosphonates What class of drugs is used in the treatment of demineralization ofthe bone?

533. Bitemporal heteronymoushemianopsia

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm lesion

534. Bladder cancer Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents.(Some may have more than one answer.) • Naphthylamine

535. Bladder carcinoma RBCs in the urine


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536. Blastoconidia What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell?

537. Blastomyces dermatitidis Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescriptconidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes, Ohio,Mississippi, eastern seaboard of the United States, and southernCanada?

538. Blocking Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Inability to

remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)

539. Blood What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?

540. The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus,inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). Theneedle is part of the blood-drawing procedure and is theconditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditionedstimuli are paired) resulting in the conditioned response(fainting at the sight of the needle).

Which is the conditioned response, theconditioned stimulus, the unconditionedresponse, the unconditioned stimulus in thiscase? A patient has blood withdrawn andfaints. The next time she goes to have bloodtaken, she faints at the sight of the needle.

541. B lymphocyte What cell type involves humoral immunity?

542. Body dysmorphic disorder What somatoform disorder is described as •Unrealistic negative opinion of personalappearance, seeing self as ugly?

543. Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4-concentrations, whereas resorption (breakdown) isincreased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or PO4-.

Is bone deposition or resorption due toincreased interstitial Ca2+concentrations?

544. Borderline Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Inconstant state of crisis, promiscuous, unableto tolerate anxiety-causing situations, afraidof being alone, and having intense but brief relationships

545. Borderline What is the label given to an individual whoseIQ is 70 to 79

546. Bordetella pertussis What small gram-negative aerobic rodrequires Regan-Lowe or Bordet- Gengoumedium for growth?

547. Borrelia burgdorferi What spirochete is responsible for Lymedisease?

548. Borrelia recurrentis Which organism causes multiple infections byantigen switching?

549. Both What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answermotor, sensory, or both) • Ventral rami?

550. Both What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answermotor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal rami?

551. Both What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answermotor, sensory, or both) • Spinal nerve?


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567. Breathing high-pressure nitrogen over a long time and suddendecompression result in the bends.

What two factors lead to the development of the bends (caissondisease)?

568. Bridging veins draining into the sagittal

sinus

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascula

pathologies. • Subdural hemorrhage

569. Brief psychotic disorder. (Inschizophreniform disorder thesymptoms last longer than 6 months.)

What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than30 days with full return to former functioning capacity?

570. Broca's aphasia Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Nonfluentspeech, telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in Brodmann'sarea 44; unimpaired comprehension

571. Bronchial asthma (eosinophilmembranes)

Charcot-Leyden crystals

572. Bronchial asthma (whorled mucousplugs)

Curschmann spirals

573. Bronchiectasis What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infectionsresulting in permanent airway dilation and associated withKartagener syndrome?

574. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminalbronchioles and/or alveolar walls?

575. Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation(ACh), and catecholamine stimulation is associated with

bronchodilation (why epinephrine is used in emergency treatment of bronchial asthma.)

Is ACh associated withbronchoconstriction or

bronchodilation?

576. Bronchogenic carcinoma What is the most common one? •Tumor in individuals exposed toasbestos

577. Bronchogenic carcinoma Name the cancer associated withthe following chemical agents.(Some may have more than oneanswer.) • Chromium and nickel

578. Bronchogenic carcinoma Name the cancer associated withthe following chemical agents.(Some may have more than oneanswer.) • Polycyclic aromatichydrocarbons

579. Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could notapply because the patient had never been competent, so no oneknew what the patient would have wanted. Therefore, the decisionwas based on what a "reasonable" person would have wanted.

What case is best known for useof the "best interest standard"?


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580. Brucella What small, facultative gram-negative intracellular rod'stransmission is associated withunpasteurized dairy products andundulant fever?

581. Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility) What two bacteria are associatedwith drinking unpasteurized milk?

582. Brushfield spots What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris inpatients with Down syndrome?

583. Bruton X-linkedhypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosinekinase deficiency leads to inadequateB cell maturation.

What B cell disorder is characterized by pre-B cells in the bonemarrow, no circulating B cells in plasma, normal cell-mediatedimmunity, low Igs, and appearance by 6 months of age?

584. Budd-Chiari syndrome What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly,ascites, and abdominal pain due to hepatic vein thrombosis?

585. Buerger disease (thromboangiitis

obliterans)

What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old

man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudicationsymptoms in the upper and lower extremities?

586. Buffers (remember that buffers arebest when they are used in a pHrange near its pK)

What is the term for chemicals that keep the pH constant despitethe formation of acids and bases during metabolism?

587. Bulbus cordis From what embryonic structure are the following structuresderived? • The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus

588. Bulla What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cmthat lies between the layers of the skin

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