relativistic quantum mechanics. four vectors the covariant position-time four vector is defined as x...
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Relativistic Quantum Mechanics
Four Vectors
The covariant position-time four vector is defined as
x0 =ct, x1 =x, x2 =y, x3 =z
And is written compactly as
x
Lorentz Transformations
2
2
2
1
1
)('
'
'
)('
cv
and
xc
vtt
zz
yy
vtxx
)''(
'
'
)''(
2x
c
vtt
zz
yy
vtxx
Transforms from x,y,z into x’,y’,z’ i.e from S into a moving reference frame S’ which has an uniform velocity of v in the x-hat direction
And back again
Now combining four vectors with Lorentz
c
v
and
xx
xx
xxx
xxx
33
22
011
100
'
'
)('
)(' But we may more compactly write this as
1000
0100
00
00
'3
0
where
xx
Rows are index,And is column
Einstein Summation Convention
Repeated indices are to be summed as one (i.e. leave off the sigmas)
OR When a sub/superscript
(letter) appears twice on one side of the equation, summation with respect to that index is implied
xxx
3
0
'
Lorentz invariance
23222120
23222120
'''' xxxxI
xxxxI
The Metric Tensor, g
xxgI
so
g
Let
1000
0100
0010
0001
Covariant
x=gx
Where the subcripted x is called the covariant four vector
And the superscripted x is called the contravariant four vector
I=x x
Note: a ·b=ab
a · b is different from a 3 dimensional dot product
aaaa 202 )(
If a2>0, then a is timelikeIf a2<0, then a is spacelikeIf a2=0, then a is lightlike
From vectors to tensors
A second rank tensor, s carries two indices, has 42=16 components, and transforms like two factors of :
ss '
ss '
A third rank tensor, s carries 3 indices, has 43=64 components, and transforms like three factors of :
What I’ve used these things for years?
In this hierarchy, a vector is a tensor of rank 1, and scalar (invariant) is a tensor of rank 0
A couple of quick definitions
dt
xdv
and
dtd
Proper time is the time w.r.t. to the moving reference frame.
The differential to the left indicates the proper time interval in the moving reference frame.
It should be getting larger and larger as v approaches c.
This is our old friend velocity.
Proper Velocity
cdt
ctd
d
dx
d
dx
or
vd
xd
1
)(00
22
222
22222
)1(
)(
),,,(
cc
vc
vvvc
vvvc
so
zyx
zyx
Very invariant!
In relativity, momentum is the product of mass and proper velocity
22422
222
2
,,,
cpcmE
so
mcmc
Epp
pppc
Ep
mp
zyx
p
Klein-Gordon Equation
acpcmaE
pandt
iELet
cpcmE
)( 22422
222
22422
accmat
)( 222422
22
Klein-Gordon Equation
The trouble is that this equation does not describe spin; although we have used kets for convenience, these kets cannot describe angular momentum transformations.
Actually, this equation works well for pions…
Deriving Dirac
0))(()( 002220 mcpmcpcmp
Dirac’s basic strategy was to factor pp –m2c2 into a perfect square;
now if p is zero, then
Now either p0-mc or p0+mc guarantees that pp –m2c2 =0
))(
))((22
22
cmpmcpp
mcpmcpcmppk
We don’t want any terms linear in momentum: need perfect squares
322332
311331
211221
300330
200220
100110
2323222221212020
23222120
)(
)()(
)()()(
)()()()()()()()(
)()()()(
0
pp
pppp
pppppp
pppp
pppp
or
pppp
So k
Need to get rid of the cross-terms… Dirac said let the gammas be matrices, not numbers g2,
Recall for Spin,
3
2
1
10
01
0
0
01
10
z
y
x
i
i
Pauli Spin Matrices Dirac noted that
0
0
10
010
i
ii
Note: 1 with an arrow is the identity matrix and therefore, these are 4 x 4 matrices
Now for the last bit
))((22 mcpmcpcmpp
3
2
1
0
0
)(0)(
where
mci
ipthen
conventionmcpLet
The wavefunction is NOT a four vector but is called a Dirac spinor or bi-spinor
Dirac Equation
Ugly little sucker, isn’t it?
A Pretty Form:
I
I
where
amcct
ai
0
0
0
0
)( 2
α
Pα
A “simple” example problem
Consider a particle at rest, p=0
So the Dirac equation becomes
00 mctc
i
B
A
B
A
mci
t
t
2
10
01
Where A carries the upper components and B carries the lower components
4
3
2
1
B
A
SO
BB
AA
mci
t
andmci
t
2
2
)0()(
)0()(2
2
B
tmci
B
A
tmci
A
et
andet
so
tEi
e Recall
is the time dependent solution of SE
So one of these states represents the rest mass of “normal” matter.
The other state represents a “negative” energy state. Interpreted as the rest mass of the positron
Wavefunctions
1
0
0
0
)(
0
1
0
0
)(
0
0
1
0
)(
0
0
0
1
)(
22
22
43
21
tmcit
mci
tmcit
mci
etandet
etandet
What if there is momentum?
Then substitute h-bar * k Then take the inner product with alphaSee your text on pages 803 and 804 for
details
Okay, what about potentials?
0
)()(
2
2
2
mcVEc
cmcVE
so
Construct
mccVE
Let
Pσ
Pσ
Pα
PσPσ
Pσ
Pσ
cmcVE
cmcVE
so
cmcVE
cmcVE
22
2
2
1)(
0)(
0)(
Let E-V+mc2 =2mc2
Vm
PE
Vm
E
s
s
2
2
)(
2
2Pσ
So if the energy is low (less than mc2), then the SE is used otherwise, we must use Dirac Equation