rrb-je (paper-1), full length test - engineers club · 2019. 5. 17. · rrb-je (paper-1), full...

RRB-JE (PAPER-1), FULL LENGTH TEST SOLUTION ECA

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RRB TEST SERIES TEST No.1

(SOLUTIONS)

Note: There is a small correction in question no. 37

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 1. 47 is added to the product of 71 and an unknown number. The new number is divisible by 7 giving the quotient 98. The unknown number is a multiple of (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 3 1. (d) Let the unknown number be 𝑥𝑥. ∴ 71 × 𝑥𝑥 + 47 = 98 × 7

⇒ 71𝑥𝑥 = 686 − 47 = 639

⇒ 𝑥𝑥 =

63971

= 9 = 3 × 3

2. The unit digit in the product (122)173 is (1) 2 (b) 4 (3) 6 (d) 8 2. (a) 21 = 2; 22 = 4; 23 = 8; 24 = 16; 25 = 32

∴ Unit digit in the product of (122)173 = Unit digit in (122)1 = 2 (1 = remainder when 173 is divided by 4). 3. In a school, 391 boys and 323 girls have been divided into the largest possible equal classes, so that each class of boys numbers the same as each class of girls. What is the number of classes ? (a) 23 (b) 19 (c) 44 (d) 17 3. (d) First of all we find HCF of 391 and 323. 391 = 17 × 23 323 = 17 × 19 HCF of both the number is 17, so the largest possiblr equal classes is 17. 4. The smallest five digit number which is divisible by 12, 18 and 21 is: (a) 10224 (b) 30256 (c) 10080 (d) 50321

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4. (c)

∴ LCM of 12, 18 and 21 = 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 7 = 252 Of the options, 10080 ÷ 252 = 40 5. What number should be added to each of 6, 14, 18 and 38 so that the resulting numbers make a proportion? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

5 (b) 6+𝑥𝑥

14+𝑥𝑥= 18+𝑥𝑥

38+𝑥𝑥

From the given alternatives 6+2

14+2= 18+2

38+2

⇒

12

=12

6. A and B together have Rs. 6300. If 5

19th of A’s

amount is equal to 25

th of B’s amount. The

amount of ‘B’ is (a) Rs. 2500 (b) Rs. 3800 (c) Rs. 2300 (d) Rs. 4000 6. (a) According to the question,

5A19

= 2B5

⇒ 5A =

19 × 2 B5

⇒ A =

38 × B5 × 5

⇒ A ∶ B = 38 ∶ 25

Sum of the terms of ratio = 38 + 25 = 63

⇒ B’s share = Rs. �25

63× 6300�

= Rs. 2500

7. In an alloy, the ratio of copper and zinc is 5 : 2. If 1.250 kg of zinc is mixed in 17 kg 500 g of alloy, then the ratio of copper and zinc will be (a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 7. (a) Weight of copper in 17kg 500 gm i.e. 17500 gm of alloy

= 57

× 17500 = 12500 gm

Weight of zinc = (17500-12500) =5000 gm 1250 gm of zinc is mixed in alloy. ∴ Total weight of zinc = 1250 + 5000 = 6250 gm. ∴ Required ratio =12500 : 6250 = 2 : 1

8. If 40% of 45

of 34 of a number is 48, then what

is 1% of the same number? (a) 20 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 1 8. (b) Let the number be 𝑥𝑥.

∴ 𝑥𝑥 ×34

×45

×40

100= 48

⇒ 𝑥𝑥 ×

35

×25

= 48

⇒ 𝑥𝑥 =

48 × 5 × 53 × 2

= 200

∴ 1% of 200

= 200 ×1

100= 2

9. If a number is increased by 25% and the resulting number is decreased by 25%. Then the percentage increase or decrease finally is (a) No change

(b) Decreased by 6 14

%

(c) Increased by 6 14

%

(d) increased by 6% 9. (b) Effective value

= �𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 +𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦

100�%




= �25 − 25 −25 × 25

100�%

[Here 𝑥𝑥 = 25, 𝑦𝑦 = −25]

= -6.25% = 6 14

% decreased

(Negative value shows decrease).

10. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 30% of the girls are scholarship holders, then the percentage of students, who do not get scholarship, is (a) 50% (b) 72% (c) 75% (d) 76% 10. (d) Let the number of boys = 3𝑥𝑥 and that of girls = 2𝑥𝑥 Number of boys who do not hold scholarship =80 % of 3𝑥𝑥

= 3𝑥𝑥 ×80

100=

12𝑥𝑥5

Number of girls who do not hold scholarship

= 2𝑥𝑥 × 70100

= 14𝑥𝑥10

∴ Number of students who not hold scholarship

=12𝑥𝑥

5+

14𝑥𝑥10

=24𝑥𝑥 + 14𝑥𝑥

10

=38𝑥𝑥10

∴ Required percentage

=38𝑥𝑥105𝑥𝑥

× 100

=38

10 × 5× 100 = 76%

11. A man buys a cycle for 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of the cycle? (a) 1202 (b) 1190 (c) 1160 (d) 1000 11. (b) Selling price

= 1400 ×100 − 15

100

= 1400 ×85

100= 1190

12. Two toys are sold at Rs. 504 each. One toy brings the dealer a gain of 12% and the other a loss of 4%. The gain or loss percent by selling both the toys is

(a) 3 513

% Profit (b) 4 513

% Profit

(c) 5 113

% Profit (d) 2 313

% Profit

12. (a) C.P. of first toy = 𝑥𝑥 C.P. of second toy = 𝑦𝑦

∴ 𝑥𝑥 × 112

100= 504

⇒ 𝑥𝑥 =

504 × 100112

= 450

Again, 𝑦𝑦 × 96100

= 504

⇒𝑦𝑦=

504 × 10096

= 525

Total C.P. =(450+525) =975 Total S.P. = 2 × 504 = 1008 Gain = 1008−975 = 33

∴ Profit per cent = 33×100975

=4413

= 35

13%

13. A man sold 250 chairs and had a gain equal to selling price of 50 chairs. His Profit per cent is: (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 15% 13. (b) S.P. of 250 chairs – C.P. of 250 chairs = S.P. of 50 chairs

⇒ S.P. of 200 chairs

= C.P. of 250 chairs ∴ profit %

=250 − 200

200× 100 = 25%

14. Applied to a bill for 1,00,000 the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% is: (a) Nil (b) 1,440




(c) 2,500 (d) 4,000 14. (b) Successive discount of 36% and 4% is overall equals to

= �36 + 4 −36 × 4

100�%

=38.56% ∴ Percentage difference =40-38.56 =1.44% Difference between discount = 1.44% of 100000

= 1.44 × 100000

1000= 1440

15. 40% discount is offered on an item. By applying a promo code the customer wins 10% cash back. What is the effective discount? (a) 50.6 per cent (b) 46 per cent (c) 50 per cent (d) 14 per cent 15. (b) Effective discount

= �𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 −𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦

100�%

= �40 + 10 −40 × 10

100�%

= (50 − 4)% = 46% 16. How much percent more than the cost price should a shopkeeper mark his goods so that after allowing a discount of 25% on the marked price, he gains 20%? (a) 70% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 55% 16. (c) r = 25%, R = 20%

Required percentage

= �𝑟𝑟 + 𝑅𝑅

100 − 𝑟𝑟× 100�%

= �25 + 20

100 − 25× 100�%

= 4575

× 100 =60%

17. A sum of Rs. 3000 amounts to Rs. 6000 in two years at compound interest. The interest for four years is: (a) Rs. 9000 (b) Rs. 12000 (c) Rs. 6000 (d) Rs. 3000

17. (a) A = 𝑃𝑃 �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�𝑇𝑇

⇒ 6000 = 3000 �1 +

𝑅𝑅100

�2

⇒ 2 = �1 +

𝑅𝑅100

�2

On squatting.

4 = �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�4

i.e. Amount = Rs. (4×3000) =Rs. 12000 ∴ 𝐶𝐶. 𝐼𝐼. = Rs. (12000-3000) = Rs. 9000 18. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do it in 12 days. A and C can so it in 15 days. How long will A take to do it alone? (a) 24 days (b) 20 days (c) 40 days (d) 30 days 18. (a) A alone can do it in

= 2×𝑥𝑥×𝑦𝑦×𝑧𝑧𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦+𝑦𝑦𝑧𝑧−𝑧𝑧𝑥𝑥

= 2×10×12×15(10×12)+(12×15)−(15×10)

= 3600120+180−150

= 3600150

= 24 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦𝑑𝑑

19. A alone can complete a work in 18 days and B alone in 15 days. B alone worked at it for 10 days and then left the work. In how many more days, will A alone complete the remaining work?

(a) 5 days (b) 5 12 days

(c) 6 days (d) 8 days




19. (c) Part of work done by B in 10 days

= 10 × 115

= 23

Remaining work = 1 − 23

= 13

∴ Time taken by A = 13

× 18

= 6 days 20. A cistern can be filled with water by a pipe in 5 hours and it can be emptied by a second pipe in 4 hours. If both the pipes are opened when the cistern is full, the time in which it will be emptied is: (a) 9 hours (b) 18 hours

(c) 20 hours (d) 20 12 hours

20. (c) Here, 𝑥𝑥 = 5,𝑦𝑦 = 4

Required time = � 𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦𝑥𝑥−𝑦𝑦

�ℎ𝑟𝑟𝑑𝑑

=5 × 45 − 4

ℎ𝑟𝑟𝑑𝑑

= 20 hrs. 21. A car travelling at a speed of 40 km/hour can complete a journey in 9 hours. How long will it take to travel the same distance at 60 km/hour? (a) 6 hours (b) 3 hours

(c) 4 hours (d) 4 12 hours

21. (a) Total distance covered = Speed × Time = 40 × 9 = 360 km.

The required time at 60 kmph = 36060

= 6 ℎours.

22. A man completes 30 km of a journey at the speed of 6 km/hr and the remaining 40 km of the journey in 5 hours. His average speed for the whole journey is

(a) 7 km/hr (b) 6 411

km/hr

(c) 8 km/hr (d) 7.5 km/hr 22. (a) Time taken to cover 30 km at 6 kmph

= 306

= 5 hours

Time taken to cover 40 km =5 hours ∴ Average speed

=Total distance

Total time =

30 + 4010

= 7010

= 7 kmph

23. A boat goes 75km upstream in 3 hours and 60 km downstream in 1.5 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is: (a)32.5 kmph (b) 30 kmph (c) 65 kmph (d) 60 kmph

23. (a) Rate upstream of boat = 753

=25 kmph

Rate downstream of boat = 601.5

= 40 kmph

∴ Speed of boat in still water = 12

(25 + 40)

= �12

× 65�kmph

=32.5 kmph 24. The next term of the sequence 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, ………..is (a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 20 24. (a) The pattern of the sequence is:

∴ Required no. =15

25. If 𝑥𝑥 = 7 − 4√3, then the value of �𝑥𝑥 + 1𝑥𝑥� is:

(a) 3√3 (b) 8√3 (c) 14 + 8√3 (d) 14 25. (d) 𝑥𝑥 = 7 − 4√3

∴1𝑥𝑥

=1

7 − 4√3

=1(7 + 4√3)

�7 + 4√3�(7 − 4√3)

=7 + 4√349 − 48

= 7 + 4√3

∴ 𝑥𝑥 +1𝑥𝑥

= 7 − 4√3 + 7 + 4√3 = 14




26. Maximum value of (2 sin θ+ 3 cos θ ) is (a) 2 (b) √13 (c) √15 (d) 1 26. (b) Maximum value of a sin 𝜃𝜃 + 𝑏𝑏 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑑𝑑𝜃𝜃 =√𝑑𝑑2 + 𝑏𝑏2 ∴ Maximum value of 2 sin 𝜃𝜃 + 3 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑑𝑑𝜃𝜃 =√22 + 32 = √13 27. If ABC is an isosceles triangle with ∠C = 900 and AC = 5 cm, then AB is: (a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 5√2 cm (d) 2.5 cm 27. (c)

AC = BC = 5 cm ∴ AB = √𝐴𝐴𝐶𝐶2 + 𝐵𝐵𝐶𝐶2

= �52 + 52 = √50 = 5√2 28. The perimeter of two squares are 24 cm and 32 cm. The perimeter (in cm) of a third square equal in area to the sum of the areas of these squares is: (a) 45 (b) 40 (c) 32 (d) 48 28. (b) Side of square, whose perimeter is 24 cm

= 244

= 6 cm

So, area of the square = 62 = 36 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 Again, side of square, whose perimeter is 32 cm

= 324

= 8 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 So, area of this square = 82 = 64 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 According to the question Area of new square = 64 + 36 = 100 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 ∴ Side of the new square = √100 = 10𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

Hence, Perimeter of new square = 10 × 4 =40 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 29. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fourth of its length. If the area of the floor is 768 sq. m., then the difference between the length and breadth of the hall is: (a) 8 metres (b) 12 metres (c) 24 metres (d) 32 metres 29. (a) Let the length of rectangular hall = 𝑥𝑥 metere

∴ Breadth = �34

× 𝑥𝑥�metre

Area of rectangular = Length× Breadth

= 𝑥𝑥 ×34𝑥𝑥 𝑑𝑑𝑠𝑠.𝑐𝑐. =

34𝑥𝑥2𝑐𝑐2

According to question, 34𝑥𝑥2 = 768

∴ 𝑥𝑥2 =768 × 4

3

Or, 𝑥𝑥 = �768×43

= 32 m

∴ Length =32 m and Breadth = 24m ∴ Required difference = 32 − 24 = 8m

GENERAL SCIENCE 30. If an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in (a) circular motion (b) uniform motion (c) oscillatory motion (d) Non-uniform motion 31. A train travels 40 km at auniform speed of 30 km/hr. Its average speed after travelling another 40 km is 45 km/hr for the whole journey. Its speed in the second hald of the journey is (a) 45 km/hr (b) 90 km/hr (c) 60 km/hr (d) none of these




31. (b) Let the speed of the train in later half is 𝑥𝑥, then the time taken to travel later 40 km is 40𝑥𝑥ℎ𝑐𝑐𝑜𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑑𝑑

Total time taken = 4030

+ 40𝑥𝑥

Average speed is 45 km/hr = 8040 30⁄ +40 x⁄

On solving 𝑥𝑥 =90 km/hr 32. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight less than actual when- (a) The elevator moves upward with constant acceleration (b) The elevator moves downward with constant acceleration (c) The elevator moves upward with uniform velocity (d) The elevator moves downward with uniform velocity 32. (b) If we stand on a weighing scale in an elevator upward, you feel heavier because the elevator’s floor presses harder on your feet,and the scale will show a higher reading than when the elevator is at rest. On the other hand, when the elevator accelerates downward, you feel lighter. The force exerted by the scale is known as apparent weight. Note: If the speed does not change the apparent weight is constant. 33. The force of gravitation between two bodies does not depend on : (a) their separation (b) the product of their masses (c) the sum of their masses (d) the gravitational constant 33. (c) According to the universal law of gravitation, the force between two objects is given by

𝐹𝐹 = 𝐺𝐺 𝑀𝑀×𝑐𝑐𝑑𝑑2

34. The acceleration due to gravity (a) has the same values everywhere in space

(b) has the same values everywhere on the earth (c) varies with the latitude on the earth (d) is greater on the moon due to its smaller diameter 34. (c) The acceleration due to gravity at a place is inversely proportional to the square of the distance of the point from the centre of the earth. Since, the earth is not perfectly spherical . Hence acceleration due to gravity is maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator.

35. Kinetic energy of a body moving with speed 10 m/s is 30 J. If its speed becomes 30 m/s, its kinetic energy will be (a) 10 J (b) 90 J (c) 180 J (d) 270 J

35. (d) K.E= 12𝑐𝑐𝑣𝑣2. If the velocity is increased

from 3 times, Then the new K.E will be

K.E= 12𝑐𝑐(3𝑣𝑣)2. So the K.E will increase from 9

times. So the new K.E will be 270 J 36. Sun is said to be the ultimate source of energy. Solar energy gets transformed into (a) Chemical energy during photosynthesis (b) heat energy in drying food grains (c) electrical energy in solar cells (d) All of these 37. Sound is a (a) Mechanical wave (b) electro-magnetic wave (c) longitudinal waves (d) Both (a) and (b) 37 (*) Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves. 38. The amount of sound energy passing each second through a unit area is called (a) Loudness or Intensity of sound (b) Amplitude of sound (c) Pitch of the sound (d) Frequency of sound




38. (a) Loudness or softness of a sound wave is the sensation that depends upon its amplitude. The loudness of a sound is a measure of the sound energy reaching the ear per second. Amplitude of sound is the maximum displacement of the wave particle from its mean position. Pitch of the sound is the sensation of the frequency of an emitted sound and is the characteristic which distinguishes a sharp sound from a grave (flat) sound. Faster the vibration of the source, higher is the frequency and higher is the pitch. Note : A low pitch sound is called a hoarse sound (roar of a lion, car horn, etc.) The pitch of female voice is higher than the pitch of male voice. Frequency of sound is the number of vibrations (or oscillations) completed by a particle in one second. 39. Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form an image larger than the actual object? (a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature (b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length (c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature (d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature 39. (c) Image formed by a Concave Mirror for different positions of the object Position Position of Size of the Nature of of object the image image the image

At infinity At the Focus Highly diminished, Real & inverted (F) point-sized Beyond C Between F & C Diminished Real & inverted At C At C same size Real & inverted Between C Beyond C Enlarged Real & inverted & F At F At infinity Highly enlarged Real & inverted

Between Behind the mirror Enlarged Virtual & erect P & F

40. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed (a) Between the pole and the focus of the reflector (b) Very near to the focus of the reflector (c) Between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector (d) At the centre of curvature of the reflector 40. (b) When the bulb of a torch is lit, light rays from the bulb travel in all directions. Only the light rays travelling in the forward directions are useful to us. In order to make the other rays also useful, a concave mirror is placed behind the bulb. The bulb is kept at the focus of the mirror, so that the rays going in the backward are reflected by the mirror towards the forward direction, parallel to the axis of the mirror. 41. Which of the following does not describe working of the human eye? (a) The lens system forms an image on a light sensitive screen called the retina. (b) Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea (c) Rainbow is formed due to splitting of white light (d) Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil for regulating the amount of light entering into the eye 42. The combined resistance of any number of resistances connected in series is equal to (a) The sum of individual resistances (b) The sum of reciprocals of individual resistances (c) Product of individual resistances (d) Highest individual resistance 43. ……………are used to produce energy in OTEC. (a) Tidal energy




(b) Temperature difference between the different layers of water in ocean (c) Ocean waves (d) None of the above 43. (b) Ocean thermal energy conversion uses the temperature difference between cooler deep and warmer shallower or surface sea waters to run a heat engine and produce useful work, usually in the form of electricity . OTEC can operate with a very high capacity factor and also can operate in base load mode. 44. The blue colour of water in the sea is due to (a) absorption of other colour except blue by water molecules (b) scattering of blue light by sol particles (c) refraction of blue light by impurities present in sea water (d) reflection of blue sky by sea water 44. (b) The ocean looks blue because red, orange and yellow (long wavelength light) are absorbed more strongly by water than is blue (short wavelength light). So when white light from the sun enters the ocean, it is mostly the blue that gets returned. Note: It is the reason why the sky is blue. 45. Which of the following have equal number of neutrons and protons? (a) Hydrogen (b) Deuterium (c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine 45. (b) The number of protons is the atomic number. Atomic mass− Atomic number =No. of neutrons Hydrogen( 𝐻𝐻1

1 ) →Protons→ 1 𝑑𝑑𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑟𝑟𝑐𝑐𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 0 Deuterium is one of the isotope of Hydrogen ( 𝐻𝐻1

2 ) →Protons→ 1 𝑑𝑑𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑟𝑟𝑐𝑐𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 1 Fluorine( 𝐻𝐻9

19 ) →Protons→ 9 𝑑𝑑𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑟𝑟𝑐𝑐𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 10 Chlorine� H17

35.5 � →Protons→17 and neutrons 18.5

46. An atom has 7 electrons in its M-shell and contains 18 neutrons in its nucleus. What is its mass number? (a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 35 (d) 43 46. (c) Number of neutrons= 18 Number of electrons= Number of protons = 2 + 8 + 7 = 17 Mass number= No. of protons + No. of neutrons 17 + 18 = 35 47. A neutralization reaction is a (a) Decomposition reaction. (b) Displacement reaction. (c) Combination reaction. (d) Double displacement reaction. 47. (d) A neutralization reaction is a double displacement reaction. In this reaction two reactants exchange their ions to form two new products. For example 𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇(𝐚𝐚𝐚𝐚) + 𝐍𝐍𝐚𝐚𝐍𝐍𝐇𝐇(𝐚𝐚𝐚𝐚) → 𝐍𝐍𝐚𝐚𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇(𝐚𝐚𝐚𝐚) + 𝐇𝐇𝟐𝟐𝐍𝐍 48. A drop of liquid sample was put on pH paper. The colour of pH paper turned blue. The liquid sample could be (a) Lemon juice (b) Hydrochloric acid (c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate (d) Ethanoic acid 48. (c) The blue colour of pH paper indicates basic nature of solution. Only Sodium hydrogen carbonate solution show basic nature. All other are acidic 49. The metal that reacts with cold water is- (a) Mercury (b) Sodium (c) Zine (d) Tungsten 49. (b) It is because Sodium has extremely high reactivity. 50. Soaps are sodium salts of fatty acids. Which of the following fatty acid does not from soap? (a) Butyric acid (b) Oleic acid




(c) Palmitic acid (d) Stearic acid 50. (a) Soaps are made from fats and oils, or their fatty acids, by treating them chemically with a strong alkali. So soaps and detergents are salts. They are prepared by reaction of strong bases like NaOH or KOH with weak organic acids like stearic acid, Palmitic acid or Oleic acid. 51. As you move down the group, the alkali metals become (a) Brighter (b) Hotter (c) More reactive (d) Less reactive 52. The suicide bags of the cells are (a) Plastids (b) Mitochondria (c) Lysosomes (d) Ribosomes 53. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower? (a) Pollination, fertilization, seedling, embryo (b) Seedling, embryo, fertilization, pollination (c) Pollination, fertilization, embryo, seedling (d) Embryo, seedling, Pollination, fertilization, 54. The reptile with a four chambered heart is (a) Crocodile (b) Turtle (c) Lizards (d) Snakes 55. In which of the following animals, respiration occurs without any respiratory organ? (a) Fish (b) Frog (c) Cockroach (d) Earthworm 56. In anaerobic respiration (a) Oxygen is taken in (b) Carbon dioxide is taken in (c) Oxygen is given out. (d) Carbon dioxide is given out. 57. ……………..is a section of cellular DNA that provides information for one protein. (a) Progeny (b) Traits (c) Gene (d) Hormone

58. Age of a fossil can be estimated by (a) How closer to earth surface the fossil was found (b) detecting the ratio of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil (c) comparing DNA of different species (d) All of these 59. Palaentology is the study of (a) Fossils (b) Bones (c) Birds (d) Embryo 60. A non-biodegradable waste is (a) Garbage (b) Metallic articles (c) Sewage (d) Waste Paper 61. All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents of the environment from (a) community (b) ecosystem (c) atmosphere (d) soil

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 62. Montreal Protocol is related to (a) Ozone depletion (b) Nuclear weapons (c) Landmines (d) Seabed 63. The term dribbling is not associated with (a) Hockey (b) Football (c) Basketball (d) Baseball 64. The hill stations in ascending order of heights are (a) Darjeeling, Srinagar, Leh, Shimla (b) Srinagar, Darjeeling, Shimla, Leh (c) Srinagar, Leh, Shimla, Darjeeling (d) Shimla, Srinagar, Leh, Darjeeling 65. Core of the earth is considered to comprise of (a) Silicon and aluminium (b) Iron and silicon




(c) Iron and nickel (d) Nickel and aluminium 66. Ghazni was a small principality in (a) Mongolia (b) Turkey (c) Persia (d) Afghanistan 67. Aligarh Muslim University was founded by (a) Jinnah (b) Syed Ahmed khan (c) Abul Kalam Azad (d) Bhutto 68. There is no provision for the impeachment of (a) The Vice-President (b) The Chief Justice of the High Court (c) The Chief Justice of India (d) The Governor 69. Who have been honoured with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award in the year 2018? (a) Rohit Sharma and Sardar Singh (b) Sardar Singh and Devendra Jhajharia (c) Virat Kohli and Mirabai Chanu (d) Virat kohli and Devendra Jhajharia 70. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the ‘Promotion of International Peace and Security’? (a) Article 51 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 36 (d) Article 49 71. Who has become the first ever women cricketer to play 200 one day international ? (a) Meg Lanning (b) Amy Sterthwaite (c) Chamari Attapatu (d) Mithali Raj 72. Which two countries have officially quit the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural organization (UNESCO) (a) Israel and USA (b) UK and France (c) Pakistan and China (d) none of these

73. which of the following points in the Indian constitution are similar to that of USA ? (a) Rule of Law (b) Fundamental Rights (c) DPSP (d) Rigid Constitution 74. Gulf of Mannar is situated along the coast of (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) karanataka (d) Andhra Pradesh 75. Which one among the following is the world’s largest exporter of agricultural products ? (a) Brazil (b) China (c) India (d) USA 76. Harappan weapons were made of (a) stone (b) copper (c) Bronze (d) all of the above

REASONING 77. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. Wallet : Cash :: Jar : ? (a) Glass (b) Pickle (c) Cylinder (d) Tight 77. (b) Cash is stored in wallet, Similarly pickle is stored in Jar 78. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. ZAYB : XCWD :: VEUF : ? (a) TSRQ (b) TGSH (c) GHIJ (d) GSHR 78. (b)

79. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.




Mouse : Museums :: Worst : ? (a) Rotor (b) Sorrows (c) Row (d) Root 79. (b) ‘Museums’ is formed using letters of ‘Mouse’, ‘Sorrows’ is formed using letters of ‘Worst’ 80. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 78 : 15 :: 67 : ? (a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10 80. (a) 78 : 15 : : 67 : 13 15 x 5 + 3 : : 78 13 x 5 + 2 = 67 81. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 111 : 120 :: 222 : ? (a) 211 (b) 312 (c) 130 (d) 231 81. (d) 111 : 120 : : 222 : 231 111 + 9 = 120 222 +9 = 231 82. Select the odd word/letters/figure/number /word pair/ number pair from the given alternatives. (a) Radio (b) Television (c) Laptop (d) Smartphone 82. (a) All have display except radio. 83. Select the odd word/letters/number /word pair/ number pair from the given alternatives. (a) Sword and Spear (b) Bow and Arrow (c) Sword and Shield (d) Bow and Shield 83. (d) Bow and shield are not used together 84. Select the odd word/letters/figure/number /word pair/ number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) DA (b) GD (c) IF (d) MO 84. (d) DA

⇒ A + 3 = D

GD ⇒ D + 3 = G

IF ⇒ F + 3 = I

MO ⇒ O + 3 = Q ≠ O

85. Select the odd word/letters/figure/number /word pair/ number pair form the given alternatives. (a) 13, 169 (b) 17, 269 (c) 14, 196 (d) 16, 256 85. (b) (13)2= 169 (14)2= 196 (16)2= 256 86. In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. asDEGT, FbulON, BDcsTY, DFGhjk, ? (a) ZXCAsd (b) CVvbTY (c) CVBfgR (d) YHijOO 86. (a) Position of small letters are (1,2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6) 87. In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. X, S, N, I, ? (a) E (b) D (c) F (d) G 87. (b)




88. In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 7, 5, 2, ?, –7 (a) –2 (b) 0 (c) –1 (d) 3 88. (a)

89. In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. –2, –0.5, 1, ?, 4 (a) 1.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 2.5 (d) 2 89. (c)

90. In the given series one word/one term/one number is missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 29, 31, 37, ?, 43 (a) 38 (b) 40 (c) 41 (d) 42 90. (c) 29, 31, 37, 41, 43 are series of prime numbers

91. If URBANITY is coded as FIYZMRGB, then how will HOW be coded as? (a) YHN (b) NHY (c) SLD (d) TYU 91. (c) Opposite letters are used URBANITY HOW FIYZMRGB SLD 92. In a certain code language, 528 means ‘leaf is flat’, 513 means ‘glass is curved’, 923 means ‘flat or curved’. Find the code for ‘or’ (a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2 92. (a) 528 → leaf is flat 513 → glass is curved 923 → flat or curved Leaf→ 5, Flat→ 2, curved → 3 ∴ or → 9 93. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘×’, ‘– ‘ represent ‘+’, ‘×’represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘– ‘. Find out the answer to the following question. 0.002 + 8000 – 126 × 3 = ? (a) 58 (b) –26 (c) 38 (d) 21 93. (a) 0.002 + 8000 – 126 x 3 After conversion the equation becomes 0.002 x 8000 + 126 ÷ 3 = 58 94. If A % B means A is mother of B, A & B means A is sister of B and A $ B means A is daughter of B, then what does P % Q & R $ S mean? (a) S is aunt of P (b) S is sister of P (c) S is husband of P (d) S is mother of P




94. (c)

95. The marathon route goes 6 km south from the starting point. It then turn west and goes 6 kms, then turn north and goes 6 km, finally it turns left and goes 2 km to reach the end point. Where is the end point with reference to the starting point? (a) 4 km to the West of the starting point (b) 8 km to the West of the starting point (c) 8 km to the East of the starting point (d) 4 km to the East of the starting point 95 (b)

96. Two children A and B are playing. B is standing 5 m to the north of A. B then walks 10 m East, then turns to his right and walks 8 m. At the same time, A has walked 2 m to the west, then has turned to his left and he turns to his left and walked 3 m. Where is B now with respect to the position of A ? (a) B is 8 m to the East of A (b) B is 12 m to the West of A (c) B is 12 m to the East of A (d) B is 8 m to the West of A

96. (b)

97. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement 1: All apples red. Statement 2: Some red things are fruits. Conclusion I: Some fruits are apples. Conclusion II: All red things are fruits. (a) Neither I nor II follows (b) Only conclusion I follows (c) Only conclusion II follows (d) Either I or II follows 97. (a)

98. In the following figure, square represents hindi speakers, triangle represents tamil speakers, circle represents Marathi speakers and rectangle represents English speakers. Which set of letters represents English speakers who do not speak hindi and tamil speakers who do not speak English?




(a) L, K, M, N and O (b) I, N, M, K and O (c) I, J, M, K and O (d) I, J, K and O 98. (a) Square→ Hindi → IJ Circle→ Marathi → OIN Triangle→ Tamil→ NML Rectangle→ English → IJONMK So, English speakers who do not speak hindi are ONMK and tamil speakers who do not speak English is only L so, the solution is ONMKL 99. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened. 99. (c)

100. If a mirror is placed and the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

100. (c)


rrb-je (paper-1), full length test - engineers club · 2019. 5. 17. · rrb-je (paper-1), full...

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