Full Syllabus

with Answer Key & Hints

NEET-UG 10

INCLUDES 10 OMR SHEETS

BASED ON NEW PAPER PATTERN

2021 Mock Tests

• Set of 10 full length Question Papers with Solutions as per the latest paper pattern of NEET (UG) provided by NTA.

• Hints provided wherever necessary. • 10 OMR Sheets provided for practice. • Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2020.

Salient Features:

P.O. No. 3009 TEID: 2201

Printed at: Print to Print, Mumbai

© Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. No part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, C.D. ROM/Audio Video Cassettes or electronic, mechanical

including photocopying; recording or by any information storage and retrieval system without permission in writing from the Publisher.

Sample Content

The journey to create a complete book is strewn with triumphs, failures and near misses. If you think

we’ve nearly missed something or want to applaud us for our triumphs, we’d love to hear from you. Please write to us on : mail@targetpublications.org A book affects eternity; one can never tell where its influence stops.

Disclaimer This reference book is transformative work based on textual contents published by National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT). We the publishers are making this book which constitutes as fair use of textual contents which are transformed in the form of Multiple Choice Questions and their relevant hints, with a view to enable the students to understand, memorize and reproduce the same in NEET (UG) examination. This work is purely inspired by the paper pattern prescribed by NTA (National Testing Agency). Every care has been taken in the publication of this reference book by the Authors while creating the contents. The Authors and the Publishers shall not be responsible for any loss or damages caused to any person on account of errors or omissions which might have crept in or disagreement of any third party on the point of view expressed in the reference book. © reserved with the Publisher for all the contents created by our Authors. No copyright is claimed in the textual contents which are presented as part of fair dealing with a view to provide best supplementary study material for the benefit of students.

PREFACE

Our latest offering ‘NEET (UG) 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests’ is a meticulously designed book to assess the threshold of knowledge imbibed by students over a period of two years in junior college. The book charts out a compilation of Mock Tests aimed at students appearing for the NEET (UG) examination. Every question paper in this book has been created in line with the examination pattern and touches upon all the conceptual nodes of Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). The questions throughout this book are specifically curated by our expert authors with an astute attention to detail. The core objective of this book is to gauge the student’s preparedness to appear for NEET (UG) examination. To aid students, hints are provided as deemed necessary. Also, to offer students an insight about the weightage allotted to each chapter in recent examinations, analysis of past 8 years papers is given at the start of the book. We have also provided 10 OMR sheets to build speed and accuracy of the students for NEET (UG) examination. We aspire this book to be the perfect tool that’d help students to excel in the examination. - Publisher Edition: First

Sample Content

NEW PAPER PATTERN

INDEX

Paper Pattern NEET (UG)-2021 The Paper Pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of subjects - Physics, Chemistry and Biology

(Botany and Zoology). Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions. Out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.

The New Paper Pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination is as follows:

Sr. No. Subject(s) Section(s) No. of

Questions(s)

Mark(s) (Each Question Carries

04 (Four) Marks)

Type of Questions(s)

1. Physics Section A 35 140

MCQ (Multiple Choice

Questions)

Section B *15 40

2. Chemistry Section A 35 140 Section B *15 40

3. Botany Section A 35 140 Section B *15 40

4. Zoology Section A 35 140 Section B *15 40

Total Marks 720 * Only the first 10 attempted questions from out of 15 will be considered for evaluation.

Important points to note for Section A & B: i. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks. ii. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score. iii. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option. iv. In case of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one of

the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4). However, unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.

v. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by the candidate.

Mode of Examination: NEET (UG) – 2021 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine

gradable OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen. Duration of Examination: The duration of the examination would be three (03) hours.

Sr. No. Test Name Page No.

Mock Test Answer Key Hints OMR Sheet 1 Mock Test – 1 1

159 164 245

2 Mock Test – 2 17 172 247 3 Mock Test - 3 34

160 180 249

4 Mock Test - 4 51 188 251 5 Mock Test - 5 68

161 196 253

6 Mock Test - 6 84 204 255 7 Mock Test - 7 99

162 212 257

8 Mock Test - 8 114 220 259 9 Mock Test - 9 129

163 228 261

10 Mock Test - 10 144 237 263

Sample Content

Tot

al

14

23

34

18

30

20

46

21

20

15

20

23

10

33

22

10

28

14

29

25

23

27

33

538

2020

(P

hase

II)

2 1 3 0 1 1 3 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 0 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 4 45

2020

(P

hase

I)

3 1 1 0 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 4 1 4 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 4 45

Odi

sha

20

19

1 3 5 1 1 2 5 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 1 3 0 3 2 2 2 2 45

2019

1 2 4 2 2 2 5 1 1 3 0 3 0 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 45

2018

1 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 45

2017

1 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 45

2016

(P

hase

II)

1 2 3 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 45

2016

(P

hase

I)

0 2 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 45

Re-

Tes

t 20

15

1 3 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 0 2 1 1 3 2 0 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 44

2015

1 2 2 4 4 1 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 0 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 45

2014

1 2 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 44

2013

1 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 0 3 2 0 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 45

Top

ic N

ame

Phys

ical

Wor

ld a

nd m

easu

rem

ent

Kin

emat

ics

Law

s of M

otio

n W

ork,

ene

rgy

and

pow

er

Syst

em o

f Par

ticle

s and

Rot

atio

nal

Mot

ion

Gra

vita

tion

Prop

ertie

s of M

atte

r Th

erm

odyn

amic

s K

inet

ic T

heor

y of

gas

es

Osc

illat

ions

W

ave

Mec

hani

cs

Elec

trost

atic

s C

apac

itors

C

urre

nt E

lect

ricity

M

agne

tic E

ffect

of E

lect

ric C

urre

nt

Mag

netis

m

Elec

trom

agne

tic In

duct

ion

and

Alte

rnat

ing

Cur

rent

El

ectro

mag

netic

Wav

es

Ray

Opt

ics

Inte

rfere

nce

and

Diff

ract

ion

Dua

l Nat

ure

of M

atte

r and

Rad

iatio

n

Ato

ms a

nd N

ucle

i El

ectro

nic

Dev

ices

T

otal

Sr.

No.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

Ana

lysi

s of N

EE

T (U

G) E

xam

Pap

ers f

rom

the

year

201

3 to

202

0 N

ote:

NEE

T (U

G) e

xam

was

con

duct

ed tw

ice;

In

yea

r 201

5 an

d 20

16, a

s per

Sup

rem

e C

ourt'

s Dire

ctiv

e

In y

ear 2

019,

due

to fl

ood

situa

tion

in O

dish

a St

ate

In

yea

r 202

0, d

ue to

CO

VID

-19

pand

emic

PHY

SIC

S

Not

e: In

abo

ve st

atis

tics,

ques

tions

con

side

red

to b

e am

bigu

ous a

nd ir

rele

vant

to c

urre

nt sy

llabu

s are

not

con

side

red.

Sample Content

Tot

al

14

19

05

22

09

18

34

07

04

18

16

24

31

07

2020

(P

hase

II)

1 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 1

2020

(P

hase

I)

1 1 1 2 0 3 2 1 0 2 1 2 2 1

Odi

sha

20

19

0 2 0 2 1 2 3 0 1 2 2 1 2 1

2019

1 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 1

2018

2 1 0 1 2 1 3 2 0 3 2 2 1 1

2017

0 1 0 2 0 2 3 0 0 1 2 3 3 1

2016

(P

hase

II)

1 2 0 1 0 1 3 1 0 2 2 1 5 0

2016

(P

hase

I)

1 1 0 2 1 1 3 0 0 1 0 0 3 0

Re-

Tes

t 20

15

1 1 1 2 1 1 3 0 0 1 0 4 3 0

2015

3 1 1 2 0 1 4 0 0 2 1 4 3 0

2014

3 3 0 2 0 3 2 0 1 0 0 2 1 1

2013

0 3 0 3 2 0 2 0 0 0 3 2 3 0

Top

ic N

ame

Som

e B

asic

Con

cept

s of C

hem

istry

St

ruct

ure

of A

tom

Cla

ssifi

catio

n of

Ele

men

ts a

nd

Perio

dici

ty in

Pro

perti

es

Che

mic

al B

ondi

ng a

nd M

olec

ular

St

ruct

ure

Stat

es o

f Mat

ter

Ther

mod

ynam

ics

Equi

libriu

m

Red

ox R

eact

ions

H

ydro

gen

s-B

lock

Ele

men

ts

p-B

lock

Ele

men

ts (g

roup

13

and

14)

Org

anic

Che

mis

try -

Som

e ba

sic

Prin

cipl

e an

d te

chni

ques

Hyd

roca

rbon

s En

viro

nmen

tal C

hem

istry

Sr.

No.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11

12

13

14

Ana

lysi

s of N

EE

T (U

G) E

xam

Pap

ers f

rom

the

year

201

3 to

202

0 N

ote:

NEE

T (U

G) e

xam

was

con

duct

ed tw

ice;

In

yea

r 201

5 an

d 20

16, a

s per

Sup

rem

e C

ourt'

s Dire

ctiv

e

In y

ear 2

019,

due

to fl

ood

situa

tion

in O

dish

a St

ate

In

yea

r 202

0, d

ue to

CO

VID

-19

pand

emic

CH

EM

ISTR

Y

Sample Content

Ana

lysi

s of N

EE

T (U

G) E

xam

Pap

ers f

rom

the

year

201

3 to

202

0 N

ote:

NEE

T (U

G) e

xam

was

con

duct

ed tw

ice;

In

yea

r 201

5 an

d 20

16, a

s per

Sup

rem

e C

ourt'

s Dire

ctiv

e

In y

ear 2

019,

due

to fl

ood

situa

tion

in O

dish

a St

ate

In

yea

r 202

0, d

ue to

CO

VID

-19

pand

emic

CH

EM

ISTR

Y

Tot

al

15

23

23

20

10

09

35

27

23

14

19

22

18

17

13

09

525

2020

(P

hase

II)

1 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 45

2020

(P

hase

I)

1 3 2 2 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 1 1 45

Odi

sha

20

19

1 2 2 2 1 0 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 41

2019

1 2 2 2 0 1 4 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 42

2018

1 0 1 2 1 1 2 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 1 0 44

2017

1 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 1 0 1 44

2016

(P

hase

II)

1 2 5 2 1 0 2 1 1 1 0 3 2 3 1 0 44

2016

(P

hase

I)

2 2 1 1 2 1 6 2 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 43

Re-

Tes

t 20

15

2 2 1 1 0 1 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 0 1 0 45

2015

1 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 0 1 1 45

2014

1 1 2 0 1 0 1 4 2 1 3 1 2 2 2 1 44

2013

2 2 3 2 0 1 2 3 2 0 1 2 2 0 2 1 43

Top

ic N

ame

The

Solid

Sta

te

Solu

tions

Elec

troch

emis

try

Che

mic

al K

inet

ics

Surfa

ce C

hem

istry

Gen

eral

Prin

cipl

es a

nd P

roce

sses

of

Isol

atio

n of

Ele

men

ts

p-B

lock

Ele

men

ts (g

roup

15

to 1

8)

d- a

nd f-

bloc

k el

emen

ts

Coo

rdin

atio

n co

mpo

unds

H

aloa

lkan

es a

nd h

aloa

rene

s

Alc

ohol

s, Ph

enol

s and

Eth

ers

Ald

ehyd

es, K

eton

es a

nd C

arbo

xylic

A

cids

Org

anic

Com

poun

ds C

onta

inin

g N

itrog

en

Bio

mol

ecul

es N

ew

Poly

mer

s C

hem

istry

In E

very

day

Life

T

otal

Sr.

No.

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Not

e: In

abo

ve st

atis

tics,

ques

tions

con

side

red

to b

e am

bigu

ous a

nd ir

rele

vant

to c

urre

nt sy

llabu

s are

not

con

side

red.

Sample Content

Tot

al

9 32

27

42

26

43

29

18

14

16

13

19

11

46

53

53

14

24

24

25

27

27

2020

(P

hase

II)

0 1 3 4 2 4 4 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 5 1 3 2 3 3 2

2020

(P

hase

I)

0 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 0 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 2 2

Odi

sha

20

19

2 2 0 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 5 2 3 2 0 2 3

2019

1 2 1 1 3 4 2 3 1 0 1 2 1 3 6 5 1 5 0 1 3 4

2018

1 5 2 3 4 4 1 0 1 1 2 0 2 5 3 7 0 1 4 1 1 4

2017

0 3 5 5 3 2 2 2 0 2 1 1 0 5 5 6 1 3 2 2 3 1

2016

(P

hase

II)

3 2 1 5 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 5 2 1 3 1 4 2

2016

(P

hase

I)

1 5 2 5 1 3 3 1 0 4 0 1 0 5 7 4 1 1 3 3 1 3

Re-

Tes

t 20

15

0 5 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 0 1 1 5 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 1

2015

0 1 2 4 2 9 2 4 1 0 1 2 1 5 9 3 1 1 1 4 2 2

2014

0 4 3 4 2 2 3 0 1 0 1 2 0 5 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 1

2013

1 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 0 2 1 2 3 5 2 1 1 2 3 2 2

Top

ic N

ame

The

Livi

ng W

orld

B

iolo

gica

l Cla

ssifi

catio

n Pl

ant K

ingd

om

Mor

phol

ogy

of F

low

erin

g Pl

ants

A

nato

my

of F

low

erin

g Pl

ants

Cel

l: Th

e U

nit o

f Life

C

ell C

ycle

and

Cel

l Div

isio

n Tr

ansp

ort i

n Pl

ants

Min

eral

Nut

ritio

n Ph

otos

ynth

esis

in H

ighe

r Pla

nts

Res

pira

tion

in P

lant

s Pl

ant G

row

th a

nd D

evel

opm

ent

Rep

rodu

ctio

n in

Org

anis

ms

Sexu

al R

epro

duct

ion

in F

low

erin

g Pl

ants

Pr

inci

ples

of

In

herit

ance

an

d V

aria

tion

Mol

ecul

ar B

asis

of

Inhe

ritan

ce

Stra

tegi

es o

f En

hanc

emen

t in

Foo

d Pr

oduc

tion

Mic

robe

s in

Hum

an W

elfa

re

Org

anis

ms a

nd P

opul

atio

ns

Ecos

yste

m

Bio

dive

rsity

and

Con

serv

atio

n

Envi

ronm

enta

l Iss

ues

Sr.

No.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

Ana

lysi

s of N

EE

T (U

G) E

xam

Pap

ers f

rom

the

year

201

3 to

202

0 N

ote:

NEE

T (U

G) e

xam

was

con

duct

ed tw

ice;

In

yea

r 201

5 an

d 20

16, a

s per

Sup

rem

e C

ourt'

s Dire

ctiv

e

In y

ear 2

019,

due

to fl

ood

situa

tion

in O

dish

a St

ate

In

yea

r 202

0, d

ue to

CO

VID

-19

pand

emic

BIO

LO

GY

(Bot

any)

Sample Content

Tot

al

33

18

28

24

21

25

17

19

21

28

32

26

36

28

36

24

1008

2020

(P

hase

II)

4 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 4 2 4 3 90

2020

(P

hase

I)

4 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 4 3 6 3 90

Odi

sha

20

19

2 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 3 82

2019

2 2 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 5 4 3 2 89

2018

3 1 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 85

2017

3 0 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 5 0 88

2016

(P

hase

II)

0 2 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 1 4 1 83

2016

(P

hase

I)

3 2 2 2 3 2 0 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 88

Re-

Tes

t 20

15

2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 2 2 68

2015

2 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 0 3 90

2014

4 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 78

2013

4 1 3 1 1 2 0 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 0 77

Top

ic N

ame

Ani

mal

Kin

gdom

St

ruct

ural

org

anis

atio

n in

Ani

mal

s B

iom

olec

ules

D

iges

tion

and

Abs

orpt

ion

Bre

athi

ng a

nd E

xcha

nge

of G

ases

Bod

y Fl

uids

and

Circ

ulat

ion

Excr

etor

y Pr

oduc

ts

and

Thei

r El

imin

atio

n

Loco

mot

ion

and

Mov

emen

t N

eura

l Con

trol a

nd C

oord

inat

ion

Che

mic

al

Coo

rdin

atio

n an

d In

tegr

atio

n

Hum

an R

epro

duct

ion

Rep

rodu

ctiv

e H

ealth

Ev

olut

ion

Hum

an H

ealth

and

Dis

ease

s

Bio

tech

nolo

gy

Prin

cipl

es

and

Proc

esse

s

Bio

tech

nolo

gy a

nd it

s App

licat

ion

Tot

al

Sr.

No.

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

Ana

lysi

s of N

EE

T (U

G) E

xam

Pap

ers f

rom

the

year

201

3 to

202

0 N

ote:

NEE

T (U

G) e

xam

was

con

duct

ed tw

ice;

In

yea

r 201

5 an

d 20

16, a

s per

Sup

rem

e C

ourt'

s Dire

ctiv

e

In y

ear 2

019,

due

to fl

ood

situa

tion

in O

dish

a St

ate

In

yea

r 202

0, d

ue to

CO

VID

-19

pand

emic

BIO

LO

GY

(Zoo

logy

)

Not

e: In

abo

ve st

atis

tics,

ques

tions

con

side

red

to b

e am

bigu

ous a

nd ir

rele

vant

to c

urre

nt sy

llabu

s are

not

con

side

red.

Sample Content

1

Mock Test - 1

Mock Test - 1 Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 720

1. If x = (a – b), the maximum percentage error inthe measurement of x will be

(1) a ba b a b

100

(2) a ba b a b

100

(3) a ba b

100

(4) a ba b

100

2. A person can see clearly objects only when theylie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. Inorder to increase the maximum distance ofdistinct vision to infinity, the type and power ofthe correcting lens, the person has to use, will be(1) convex, +0.15 diopter(2) convex, +2.25 diopter(3) concave, 0.25 diopter(4) concave, 0.2 diopter

3. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

4. The value of P

V

CC

for hydrogen, helium

and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose molecules are not rigid but have an additional vibrational mode), are respectively equal to,

(1) 75

, 53

, 74

(2) 75

, 53

, 97

(3) 53

, 75

, 97

(4) 53

, 75

, 75

5. The energy of the e.m. waves is of the order of15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does itbelong?(1) -rays (2) X-rays(3) Infra-red rays (4) Ultraviolet

6. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kgrespectively are attached to the ends of a rigidrod of length 1 m with negligible mass. Thecentre of mass of the system from the 5 kgparticle is nearly at a distance of:(1) 50 cm (2) 67 cm(3) 80 cm (4) 33 cm

7. Two solid conductors are made up of samematerial, have same length and same resistance.One of them has a circular cross section of areaA1 and the other one has a square cross sectionof area A2. The ratio A1/A2 is(1) 2 (2) 1.5(3) 1 (4) 0.8

8. Which of the following is the graph between theheight (h) of a projectile and time (t), when it isprojected from the ground?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

9. The equation of the progressive wave is

Y = 3 sin t x3 5 4

where x and Y are in

metre and time in second. Which of the following is correct? (1) velocity, v = 1.5 m/s(2) amplitude, A = 3 cm(3) frequency, f = 0.2 Hz(4) wavelength, = 10 m

10. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected toa magnetising field of 1200 A m1. Thepermeability of the material of the rod is:(0 = 4 107 T m A1)(1) 8.0 105 T m A1

(2) 2.4 105 T m A1

(3) 2.4 107 T m A1

(4) 2.4 104 T m A1

B

Y

A

A B Y 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0

A B Y 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1

A B Y 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0

A B Y 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1

O t

h

t

h

O

O t

h

t

h

O

Physics (Section A)

Sample Content

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NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

2

11. Preeti reached the metro station and found thatthe escalator was not working. She walked upthe stationary escalator in time t1. On other days,if she remains stationary on the movingescalator, then the escalator takes her up in timet2. The time taken by her to walk up on themoving escalator will be:

(1) 1 2t t2 (2) 1 2

2 1

t tt t

(3) 1 2

2 1

t tt t

(4) t1 – t2

12. The force F acting on a particle of mass m isindicated by the force-time graph shown below.The change in momentum of the particle overthe time interval from zero to 8 s is

(1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns(3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns

13. Match the physical quantities listed in column Iwith their corresponding dimensions listed incolumn II.

Column-I Column-II Physical quantity Dimensions

(a) Specific heat capacity (p) [L2 T2] (b) Latent heat (q) [M0 L0 T0] (c) Adiabatic Constant (r) [M0L0 T0 K1] (d) Coefficient of

superficial expansion (s) [L2 T2 K1]

(1) (a) (p), (b) (q), (c) (r), (d) (s)(2) (a) (s), (b) (p), (c) (q), (d) (r)(3) (a) (r), (b) (s), (c) (p), (d) (q)(4) (a) (s), (b) (q), (c) (r), (d) (p)

14. A charge moves in circular path perpendicularto magnetic field. The time period of revolutionis independent of(1) mass of the particle.(2) charge.(3) magnetic field.(4) velocity of the particle.

15. Ina single slit diffraction experiment the firstminimum for red light of wavelength 6600 Åcoincides with the first maximum for other lightof wavelength . The value of is(1) 2200 Å (2) 3300 Å(3) 4400 Å (4) 5000 Å

16. Out of the following which one is a forwardbiased diode?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17. The difference between angular speed of minutehand and second hand of a clock is

(1) 59π900

rad/s (2) 59π1800

rad/s

(3) 59π2400

rad/s (4) 59π3600

rad/s

18. If and form a right angled triangle then out of the following which one is satisfied?

(1) and A2 = B2 + C2

(2) and B2 = A2 + C2

(3) and B2 = A2 + C2

(4) and A2 = B2 + C2

19. The increase in energy of a metal bar of length‘L’ and cross-sectional area ‘A’ when compressed with a load ‘M’ along its length is (Y = Young’s modulus of the material of metal bar)

(1) FL2AY

(2)2F L

2AY

(3) FLAY

(4) 2 2F L

2AY

20. An object kept in a large room having airtemperature of 25 °C takes 12 minutes to coolfrom 80 °C to 70 °C. The time taken to cool forthe same object from 70 °C to 60 °C would benearly,(1) 15 min (2) 10 min(3) 12 min (4) 20 min

21. The velocity-time diagram of a harmonicoscillator is shown in the figure. The frequencyof oscillation is

(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz(3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 2 j k, B i 3j 5k

ˆ ˆ ˆC 2i j 4k

A B C

A B C

B A C

B A C

6

3

0

32 4 6 8

F(N

)

t(s)

0 V –3 V

– 4 V –2 V

–2 V +2V

+4+2

– 4

– 20.01 0.02 0.03

0.04

T(in s)

(m/s) v in

2 V 5 V

Sample Content

3

Mock Test - 1

22. A spherical shell of radius 10 cm is carrying a charge q. If the electric potential at distances 5 cm, 10 cm and 15 cm from the centre of spherical shell is V1, V2 and V3 respectively, then

(1) V1= V2 > V3 (2) V1 > V2 > V3 (3) V1 = V2 < V3 (4) V1 < V2 <V3 23. The mutual inductance between two coils is

1.25 henry. If the current in the primary changes at the rate of 80 ampere/second, then the induced e.m.f in the secondary is

(1) 12.5 V (2) 64.0 V (3) 0.016 V (4) 100.0 V 24. A ray of light is incident normally on a glass

slab of thickness 5 cm and refractive index 1.6. The time taken to travel by a ray from source to surface of slab is same as to travel through glass slab. The distance of source from the surface is

(1) 4 cm (2) 8 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 16 cm 25. The total energy of an electron in the nth

stationary orbit of the hydrogen atom can be obtained by

(1) En = –13.6 × n2 eV

(2) En = 2

13.6 eVn

(3) En = 2

13.6eVn

(4) En = 2

1.36eVn

26. For a pnp transistor, the base is (1) an insulator (2) a conductor (3) an n-type semiconductor (4) a conductor of very low resistance 27. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction

with a constant speed of 10 ms1, is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be

(1) 475 J (2) 450 J (3) 275 J (4) 250 J 28. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers

distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is

(1) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3

(2) h1 = 2h3

= 3h5

(3) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2

(4) h1 = h2 = h3

29. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 2 30. A simple pendulum is oscillating with amplitude

‘A’ and angular frequency ‘’. At displacement ‘x’ from mean position, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is

(1) 2

2 2

xA x

(2) 2 2

2

x Ax

(3) 2 2

2

A xx (4) A x

x

31. Two capacitors of 10 pF and 20 pF are

connected to 200 V and 100 V sources respectively. If they are connected by the wire, what is the common potential of the capacitors?

(1) 133.3 volt (2) 150 volt (3) 300 volt (4) 400 volt 32. Light waves travel from optically rarer medium

to optically denser medium. Its velocity decreases because of change in _______.

(1) frequency (2) wavelength (3) amplitude (4) phase 33. O2 molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In

the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei of the two atoms

(1) is not important because nuclear forces are short-ranged.

(2) is as important as electrostatic forces for binding the two atoms.

(3) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the nuclei.

(4) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal number of neutrons and protons.

34. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go-off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms–1 speed. If the third part flies-off with 4 ms–1 speed, then its mass is

(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg 35. Three blocks with masses m, 2m

and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2 m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

(1) zero (2) 2 mg (3) 3 mg (4) 6 mg

m

2 m

3 m

F v

Sample Content

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NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

4

36. The correct graph representing the variation oftotal energy (E), kinetic energy (K) andpotential energy (U) of a satellite with itsdistance from the centre of earth is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

37. A small metal ball of mass ‘m’ is dropped in aliquid contained in a vessel, attains a terminalvelocity ‘v’. If a metal ball of same material butof mass ‘8m’ is dropped in same liquid then theterminal velocity will be(1) v (2) 2v (3) 4v (4) 8v

38. Consider an ideal gas at pressure P, volume Vand temperature T. The mean free path formolecules of the gas is L. If the radius of gasmolecules, as well as pressure, volume andtemperature of the gas are doubled, then themean free path will be

(1) 5L2

(2) L4

(3) L8

(4) 2L

39. Two wires of same material are vibrating underthe same tension. If the first overtone of firstwire is equal to the second overtone of secondwire and radius of first wire is twice the radiusof the second then the ratio of length of firstwire to second wire is(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

40. When the value of R inthe balanced Wheatstonebridge, shown in thefigure, is increased from5 to 7 , the value ofS has to be increased by3 in order to maintainthe balance. What is theinitial value of S?(1) 2.5 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7.5

41. Two inductors each of inductance L areconnected in parallel. One more inductor ofvalue 5 mH is connected in series of thisconfiguration then, the effective inductance is15 mH. The value of L is _______ mH.(1) 10 (2) 5.0(3) 2.5 (4) 20

42. Two coherent sources of light interfere andproduce fringe pattern on a screen. For centralmaximum, the phase difference between the twowaves will be,(1) π/2 (2) zero(3) π (4) 3π/2

43. When an electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ isaccelerated from rest through a potentialdifference ‘V’, the maximum velocity ofelectron is

(1) eVm

(2) eV2m

(3) 4eVm

(4) 2eVm

44. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod oflength L and mass M about an axis passingthrough a point at a distance of L/3 from one ofits ends and perpendicular to the rod is

(1)27ML

48(2)

2ML36

(3)2ML

9(4)

2ML3

45. A liquid does not wet the solid surface if angleof contact is(1) zero (2) equal to 45°(3) equal to 60° (4) greater than 90°

46. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and400 K has 800 J of useful work. The amount ofheat energy supplied to the engine from thesource is(1) 2400 J (2) 3200 J(3) 1200 J (4) 3600 J

47. Two point charges A and B, having charges + Qand Q respectively, are placed at certaindistance apart and force acting between them isF. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, thenforce between the charges becomes:

(1) 16F9

(2) 4F3

(3) F (4) 9F16

48. A proton, an alpha particle both enter a regionof uniform magnetic field B, moving at rightangles to the field B. If the radius of circularorbits for both the particles is equal and thekinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, theenergy acquired by alpha particle will be:(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV(3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV

K

UO

Ener

gy

r

E

U

K

EO

Ener

gy

r

K

U

O

Ener

gy

r

E

E

K

U

O

Ener

gy

r

S

QP

R

G

Physics (Section B)

Sample Content

5

Mock Test - 1

49. The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is 2 F and voltage between the plates is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The displacement current in the capacitor is

(1) 2 A (2) 3 A (3) 5 A (4) 6 A 50. The diameter of the pupil of human eye is

2.5 mm. Assuming the wavelength of light used is 5000 Å. What must be the minimum distance between two point like objects to be seen clearly if they are at a distance of 5 m from the eye?

(1) 1.34 × 10–3 m (2) 1.22 × 10–3 m (3) 1.5 × 10–3 m (4) 1.6 × 10–3 m 51. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction

with excess water gives _______. (1) one mole of phosphine (2) two moles of phosphoric acid (3) two moles of phosphine (4) one mole of phosphorus pentaoxide 52. A gas placed in a cylinder fitted with a

frictionless piston expands against a constant external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 10 litres to 15 litres by absorbing 400 J heat. The change in internal energy is _______.

(1) –106.5 J (2) 106.5 J (3) –906.5 J (4) 906.5 J 53. The atoms of element ‘Y’ form hexagonal close

packing and the atoms of element X occupies 23

rd

portion of the number of tetrahedral voids. Write the formula of the compound formed by X and Y.

(1) X2Y2 (2) X2Y (3) X3Y4 (4) X4Y3 54. A cell constructed by coupling a standard copper

electrode and a standard magnesium electrode, has e.m.f. of 2.7 volts. If the standard reduction potential of copper electrode is + 0.34 volt; that of magnesium electrode is _______.

(1) + 3.04 volts (2) – 3.04 volts (3) + 2.36 volts (4) – 2.36 volts 55. In group 15 elements, _______ shows

maximum tendency for catenation. (1) phosphorus (2) arsenic (3) antimony (4) bismuth 56. IUPAC name of the following compound is

_______. (1) 1,2-dimethylcyclobutane (2) 2,3-dimethylcyclobutene

(3) 2,3-dimethylbutene (4) 1,2-dimethylcyclobut-1-ene 57. Under what conditions will a pure sample of an

ideal gas exhibit a pressure of 1 atm and a concentration of 1 mol L1?

(R = 0.082 litre atm mol1deg1) (1) At STP (2) When V = 22.4 litres (3) When T = 12 K (4) When T = 56 K 58. Find the CORRECT match.

Calcium salt of fatty acid Dry distillation product

i. Calcium acetate a. Ethanal ii. Calcium propanoate b. Cyclopentanone iii. Calcium formate +

Calcium acetate c. 3-Pentanone

iv. Calcium adipate d. Propanone (1) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b (2) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a (3) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c (4) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b 59. In Lucas test for alcohols, the appearance of

turbidity is due to the formation of _______. (1) acid anhydride (2) allyl chloride (3) alkyl chloride (4) acid chloride 60. By Wurtz reaction, a mixture of methyl iodide

and ethyl iodide gives _______. (1) butane (2) ethane (3) propane (4) a mixture of the above three 61. The CORRECT order of bond angles (smallest

first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is _______. (1) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 (2) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3 (3) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 (4) H2S < NH3< BF3< SiH4 62. Among alkali metal salts, the lithium salts are

the poorest conductors of electricity in aqueous solution because of _______.

(1) easy diffusion of Li+ ions (2) low ability of Li+ ions to polarize water (3) lowest charge to radius ratio (4) high degree of hydration of Li+ ions 63. When white phosphorus (P4) is treated with

thionyl chloride, the products obtained are _______.

(1) PCl3 and PCl5 (2) PCl3 and POCl3 (3) PCl3, S2Cl2 and SO2 (4) PCl3, PCl5 and S2Cl2

Chemistry (Section A)

CH3

CH3

Sample Content

6

NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

6

64. Which of the following amino acids is basic in nature?

(1) Valine (2) Tyrosine (3) Arginine (4) Leucine 65. Which of the following has a bond formed by

overlap of sp sp3 hybrid orbitals? (1) CH3 C C H (2) CH3 CH = CH CH3

(3) CH2 = CH CH = CH2 (4) HC CH 66. For which of the following processes, S is

negative? (1) H2(g) 2H(g) (2) N2 (g, 1 atm) N2(g, 5 atm) (3) C (diamond) C (graphite) (4) N2 (g, 273 K) N2 (g, 300 K) 67. Which of the following is a CORRECT

statement? (1) The hydroxide of aluminium is acidic. (2) The hydroxide of boron is basic, while

that of aluminium is amphoteric. (3) The hydroxide of boron is acidic, while

that of aluminium is amphoteric. (4) The hydroxides of aluminium and boron

are amphoteric. 68. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When

1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. The molar mass of the solute is ______. (Kb for benzene = 2.53 K m–1)

(1) 5.8 g mol1 (2) 0.58 g mol1 (3) 58 g mol1 (4) 0.88 g mol1 69. The CORRECT acidic order of the following is

_______.

I. II. III. (1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II (3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II 70. The Glycosidic linkage present in sucrose is

between _______. (1) C1 of α-glucose and C2 of β-fructose (2) C1 of α-glucose and C4 of α-glucose (3) C1 of β-galactose and C4 of α-glucose (4) C1 of α-glucose and C4 of β-fructose

71. In the synthesis of acetylene by Kolbe's process, the aqueous solution of _______ salt would be used.

(1) potassium acetate (2) potassium maleate (3) potassium formate (4) potassium succinate 72. Which of the following statements indicates that

law of multiple proportion is being followed?

(1) Sample of carbon dioxide taken from any source will always have carbon and oxygen in the ratio 1:2.

(2) Carbon forms two oxides namely CO2 and CO, where masses of oxygen which combine with fixed mass of carbon are in the simple ratio 2:1.

(3) When magnesium burns in oxygen, the amount of magnesium taken for the reaction is equal to the amount of magnesium in magnesium oxide formed.

(4) At constant temperature and pressure, 200 mL of hydrogen will combine with 100 mL oxygen to produce 200 mL of water vapour.

73. The Kc for H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is 64. If the volume of the container is reduced to one-half of its original volume, the value of the equilibrium constant will be _______.

(1) 28 (2) 64 (3) 32 (4) 16 74. Which of the following is used in van Arkel

method? (1) Br2 (2) NaCN (3) I2 (4) CO 75. Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by

_______.

(1) mx = k log p1/n (2) m

x = k log p1/n

(3) mx

= 1/ n

1pk

(4) mx = 1/ n

1pk

76. Identify product ‘X’ in the following. (1) Salicylic acid (2) Adipic acid (3) Glutaric acid (4) Succinic acid 77. What is the symbol of element if it’s atomic

number is 116? (1) Uut (2) Uus (3) Uuh (4) Uun 78. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (1) CO (2) NO (3) SO2 (4) SO3

KMnO /dil.H SO4 2 4Δ X

OH OH

NO2

OH

CH3Sample Content

7

Mock Test - 1

79.

Y in this reaction is _______. (1) 2-methylpropan-1-amine (2) 2-methylpropene(3) 2- methylpropan-2-amine(4) but-2-ene

80. If the rate constant of zero order reaction is3 10–3 M s–1, the time taken for the initialconcentration of the reactant to fall from 0.5 Mto 0.05 M in minutes is _______.(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5(3) 5.0 (4) 15.0

81. In which of the following process, dihydrogengas is NOT formed?

(1) When a piece of sodium is added to coldwater.

(2) When zinc granules are added to diluteHCl.

(3) When magnesium is exposed to steam.(4) When iron is added to cold water.

82. Which one is CORRECT for a non-idealsolution that shows positive deviation fromRaoult’s law?(1) mixH < 0, mixV < 0, PobservedPRaoult < 0 (2) mixH > 0, mixV > 0, PobservedPRaoult > 0(3) mixH > 0, mixV < 0, PobservedPRaoult < 0(4) mixH < 0, mixV > 0, PobservedPRaoult < 0

83. Which of the following will displace thehalogen from the solution of halide?(1) Br2 added to NaCl solution.(2) Cl2 added to KF solution.(3) Cl2 added to KBr solution.(4) Br2 added to KF solution.

84. Which one of the following lanthanide ions doesNOT exhibit paramagnetism?(1) Lu3+ (2) Ce3+

(3) Eu3+ (4) Yb3+

85. The drug chlordiazepoxide belongs to the classof _______.(1) tranquilizer (2) hypnotic(3) analgesic (4) antipyretic

86. Na2CO3 can be manufactured by Solvay processbut K2CO3 CANNOT be prepared, because_______.(1) K2CO3 is more soluble(2) K2CO3 is less soluble(3) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3(4) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3

87. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is_______.(1) 3.33 M (2) 3.05 M(3) 3.64 M (4) 3.0504 M

88. The number of S=O and S–OH bonds present inperoxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acidrespectively are _______.(1) (2 and 2) and (2 and 2)(2) (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)(3) (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)(4) (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)

89. The order of basic strength among the followingamines in the vapour phase (non-aqueous phase)is _______.(1) CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH(2) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2(3) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N(4) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH

90. The order of the reaction occurring by followingmechanism should be _______.(i) A2 + B2 AB2 + A (slow)(ii) A + B2 AB2 (fast)

(1) 112

(2) 132

(3) 2 (4) 3

91. This does NOT convert a ketone to an alcohol_______.(1) Zn/Hg + HCl (2) H2/Raney Ni(3) LiAlH4 (4) Na/Hg + H2O

92. The ratio of number of and -bonds inbut-1-en-3-yne is _______.

(1) 1 (2) 73

(3) 4 (4) 32

93. Which of the following does NOT represent aconjugate acid-base pair?

(1) 4NH and 2NH (2) HNO3 and 3NO

(3) 4HSO and 24SO (4) 3HCO and 2

3CO

94. Interstitial compounds have higher meltingpoint then pure metal because _______.(1) they are chemically inert(2) of stronger metal – nonmetal bond(3) of stronger metal – metal bond(4) of high density

95. Ethene on heating in a hydrocarbon solvent at373 K, under pressure of 6 atm to 7 atm in thepresence of [TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al] results in theformation of ________.(1) LDPE (2) HDPE(3) polypropylene (4) melamine

CH3 C CH3 Alc.NH3

HBr

Y

Br

CH3

Chemistry (Section B)

Sample Content

8

NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

8

96. The net cell reaction for cell Ni | Ni2+ || Sn2+ | Sn is _______. (1) Sn Sn2+ + 2e (2) Ni Ni2+ 2e (3) Ni2+ + Sn Ni + Sn2+ (4) Ni + Sn2+ Ni2+ + Sn 97. The number of radial nodes present in a given

orbital is equal to _______. (1) l (2) n – l (3) n – l – 2 (4) n – l – 1 98. Enthalpy of formation of two compounds x and

y are – 84 kJ and – 156 kJ respectively. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(1) x is more stable than y. (2) x is less stable than y. (3) Both x and y are unstable. (4) x and y are endothermic compounds. 99. Which of the following complex compounds is

a poor electrolytic conductor in solution? (1) K2[PtCl6] (2) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 100. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal

with density d = 10 g/cm3 and cell edge equal to 100 pm, is equal to _______.

(1) 4 1025 (2) 3 1025 (3) 2 1025 (4) 1 1025

101. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is:

(1) Chara (2) Chlorella (3) Cycas (4) Cedrus

102. Stem thorns is a characteristic feature seen in (1) Citrus (2) Opuntia (3) Pumpkins (4) Mint 103. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic

function of veins of leaf? (1) Provide rigidity to leaf blade. (2) Act as channels for transport of food,

water and minerals. (3) Provide structural framework for the

lamina. (4) Store the food prepared by leaf. 104. Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in

size is termed as (1) Oogamy (2) Isogamy (3) Anisogamy (4) Zoogamy 105. Which of the following information about

collenchyma is INCORRECT? (1) Simple, living mechanical tissue. (2) Cells thickened at the corners due to

deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin.

(3) Intercellular spaces are absent. (4) Perform function of secretion and storage

of food. 106. Which is the highest in the hierarchy of

taxonomic category? (1) Genus (2) Family (3) Order (4) Class 107. Select the INCORRECT pair from the following

options. (1) Epipetalous – Brinjal (2) Epiphyllous – Lily (3) Diadelphous – Pea (4) Polyadelphous – China rose

108. Complete the following table and opt for the appropriate answer.

Features Five Kingdoms Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia

Cell type (i) Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Cell wall (ii) Present in some Present (without chitin) (iii) Absent Organization Cellular Cellular (iv) Present Present

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Eukaryotic Present (Non cellulosic) Absent Cellular (2) Eukaryotic Present (Cellulosic) Present Tissue organ (3) Prokaryotic Present (Cellulosic) Absent Organ system (4) Prokaryotic Present (Non cellulosic) Present Multicellular

109. Cell organelles found only in plants are (1) Golgi complex (2) Mitochondria (3) Plastids (4) Ribosomes

Biology Botany (Section A)

Sample Content

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To see complete chapter buy Target Notes or Target E‐Notes

Sample Content

159

Answer Key to Mock Tests

Mock Test - 1

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4)11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (3)31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (4)41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (2)51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (4)61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (3) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (1)71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2)81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (1) 85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (3)91. (1) 92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (2) 100. (1)101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (4) 104. (3) 105. (4) 106. (4) 107. (4) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2)111. (3) 112. (2) 113. (1) 114. (2) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (4) 119. (2) 120. (2)121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (3) 127. (3) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (2)131. (2) 132. (2) 133. (3) 134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (2) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (3)141. (1) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (4) 145. (3) 146. (2) 147. (3) 148. (1) 149. (2) 150. (2)151. (3) 152. (2) 153. (1) 154. (3) 155. (3) 156. (2) 157. (1) 158. (3) 159. (2) 160. (1)161. (4) 162. (4) 163. (2) 164. (1) 165. (4) 166. (1) 167. (3) 168. (3) 169. (1) 170. (3)171. (3) 172. (4) 173. (3) 174. (2) 175. (3) 176. (2) 177. (4) 178. (1) 179. (4) 180. (2)181. (3) 182. (1) 183. (3) 184. (4) 185. (3) 186. (1) 187. (2) 188. (1) 189. (1) 190. (2)191. (3) 192. (2) 193. (1) 194. (1) 195. (1) 196. (4) 197. (3) 198. (2) 199. (4) 200. (1)

Mock Test - 2

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4)11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1)21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (1)31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3)41. (3) 42. (4) 43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (3)51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (4)61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (4)71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (2) 78. (1) 79. (4) 80. (1)81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (2) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (4)91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (1) 98 (3) 99. (4) 100. (1)101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (3) 106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (1) 109. (1) 110. (2)111. (2) 112. (2) 113. (2) 114. (1) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (3) 118. (3) 119. (3) 120. (2)121. (2) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (4) 125. (2) 126. (3) 127. (1) 128. (4) 129. (2) 130. (2)131. (3) 132. (2) 133. (3) 134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (2) 138. (4) 139. (3) 140. (1)141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (4) 146. (2) 147. (3) 148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (3)151. (1) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (4) 155. (4) 156. (3) 157. (2) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (1)161. (2) 162. (1) 163. (1) 164. (4) 165. (3) 166. (3) 167. (1) 168. (3) 169. (1) 170. (3)171. (3) 172. (2) 173. (3) 174. (3) 175. (3) 176. (4) 177. (2) 178. (1) 179. (3) 180. (2)181. (1) 182. (3) 183. (4) 184. (2) 185. (3) 186. (4) 187. (3) 188. (2) 189. (4) 190. (3)191. (2) 192. (4) 193. (4) 194. (4) 195. (4) 196. (2) 197. (1) 198. (4) 199. (2) 200. (4)

Answer Key to Mock Tests

Sample Content

Page no. 160 to 163 are purposely left blank.

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164 164

Mock Test - 1 2. The person to be able to see object at infinity,

the image should be formed at 400 cm. u = v = 400 cm = 4 m By lens formula,

1 1 1f v u =

1 14

f = 4 m As focal length is negative, the lens used is

concave.

P = 1f

= 0.25 D 3. The given logic circuit corresponds to AND

gate which produces high output only when all inputs are high. Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.

4. Diatomic gases have 5 degrees of freedom, neglecting vibrational mode.

For hydrogen, 1 = 1 + 2f

= 1 + 25

= 75

Monoatomic gases have 3 degrees of freedom,

For Helium, 2 = 1 + 2f

= 1 + 23

= 53

Considering two vibrational modes, diatomic gases have 7 degrees of freedom,

For gas X, 3 = 1 + 2f

= 1 + 27

= 97

(1, 2, 3) = 7 5 9, ,5 3 7

5. = hcE

=34 8

3 19

6.6×10 ×3×1015×10 ×1.6×10

= 0.825 Å

1 Å This wavelength value belongs to X-ray region

of the spectrum. 6. Centre of mass from 5 kg particle,

Xcm = 1 1 2 2

1 2

m x m xm m

= 5 0 10 1 10 25 10 15 3

m 67 cm 7. Resistance of conductor, R = ρ

Al ∴ A = ρ

Rl

⇒ 1 1 1 2

2 2 2 1

A ρ R= × ×A ρ R

ll

Here R1 = R2, l1 = l2 and ρ1 = ρ2 ∴ 1

2

AA

= 1 9. Given equation of the wave can also be written as,

Y = 3 sin t x26 10 4

Comparing with y = A sin t x2T 4

(where, x and y are in metre) we get,

A = 3 m, n= 1T

= 0.17 Hz, = 10 m and

v = n = 1.7 m/s Hence, option (4) is correct. 10. Relative permeability, r = 1 + = 1 + 599 = 600 Magnetic permeability, = r0 = 600 4 107 = 2.4 104 TmA1

11. Let velocity of Preeti be v1, velocity of escalator

be v2 and distance travelled be l.

Speed = distancetime

time = distanceSpeed

t = 1 2v v

l

t =

1 2t t

ll l = 1 2

2 1

t tt t

12. Change in momentum = Area under the F versus

t graph in that interval

= 1 2 62

(2 3) + (4 3) = 6 6 + 12 = 12 Ns 14. Time period of revolution is given by,

T = 2 mqB

Hence, time period is independent of velocity of the particle.

15. For first minima in diffraction pattern, a sin = 1 Red For first maxima in diffraction pattern,

a sin = 32

As both coincide, Red = 32

= Red23

= 6600 23

= 4400 Å

1 m

m1 m2

x2 = 1 m x1 = 0

Physics (Section A)

Hints to Mock Tests

Sample Content

165

Hints to Mock Test - 1

16. In option (1), p-type is connected to the higher potential with respect to the n-type of diode. Hence, it is forward biased.

17. = 2πT

minute = 2π60 ×60

rad/s

second = 2π60

rad/s

minute second = 2π60

1 160

= 59π1800

rad/s 18. Here, B C

= ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆi 3j 5k 2i j 4k

= ˆ ˆ ˆ3i 2j k A

As, ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 2j k

,

A

= 9 4 1 14 ….(i)

Similarly,

B

= 1 9 25 35 ….(ii)

C

= 4 1 16 21 ….(iii)

From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get, B2 = A2 + C2 19. U = 1 F

2 l = 1 FLF

2 AY =

2F L2AY

20. By Newton’s law of cooling, 1 2 1 2

0Kt 2

80 7012 = K(75 25)

10 = K 600

K = 160

….(i)

70 60t

= K(65 25)

K = 1

t 4 ….(ii)

From (i) and (ii), 1 14t 60

t = 604

t = 15 minutes 21. n = 1 1

T 0.04 = 25 Hz

22. As, the potential is constant inside the spherical

shell, V1 = V2 Also, V 1

r

V1 = V2 > V3

23. e = M dIdt

= 1.25 80 = 100 V 24. thickness of slab (t) = 5 cm = 1.6

Now, g = c d / T dv t / T t

d = gt = 1.6 5 = 8 cm 27. W = K.Ef K.Ei K.Ef = W + K.Ei

K.Ef = F.d s

+ 12

mu2 = 0.1 30

2

20

1xdx + 10 102

= –25 + 500 = 475 J 28. At point A, u = 0 h1 = 1

2gt2 = 1

2 10 25

h1 = 125 m Now, v = u + gt = 0 + 10(5) v = 50 m/s At point B, final velocity from A to B = initial

velocity at B

h2 = ut + gt2 = 50 5 + 12

10 25

Now, h2 = 375 m v = u + gt = 50 + 10(5) v = 100 m/s Similarly, At point C, we get, h3 = 625 m h1 : h2 : h3 = 125 : 375 : 625 = 1 : 3 : 5

i.e., h1 = 2h3

= 3h5

29. Escape velocity, ve = 8R G

3

e

p p p

Rvv R

Given: Rp = 2R and p = 2

e

p

vv

= 12 2

d

5 cm

S

u = 0 t = 5s

t = 5s

t = 5s

A

B

C

D

h1

h3

h2

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