series 15 : explanations gs (days 65-66) · the magnificent ruins at hampi reveal a well-fortified...

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SERIES – 15 : EXPLANATIONS GS (Days 65-66)

1. Which of the following is/are correct about Hampi ?

1. It is located in Krishna-cauvery basin

2. It was the capital of Vijayanagara empire

3. Cementing agent was excessively used by the kings for forts

4. It is a part of HRIDAY programme

a) Only 2

b) Only 1,2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 2

d) 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: a

Justification:

Hampi is located in the Krishna-Tungabhadra basin, which formed the nucleus of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded in 1336.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

The magnificent ruins at Hampi reveal a well-fortified city. No mortar or cementing agent was used in the construction of these walls and the technique followed was to wedge them together by interlocking.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The architecture of Hampi was distinctive. The buildings in the royal complex had splendid arches, domes and pillared halls with niches for holding sculptures. They also had well-planned orchards and pleasure gardens with sculptural motifs such as the lotus and corbels. In its heyday in the fifteenth sixteenth centuries, Hampi bustled with commercial and cultural activities. Moors (a name used collectively for Muslim merchants), Chettis and agents of European traders such as the Portuguese, thronged the markets of Hampi. Hampi is not part of HRIDAY initiative.

(Hence option a is correct)

Source: NCERT class VII our pasts II

2. Consider the following statement

1. The songs compilations of Nayanars are tevaram and tiruvakam

2. Andal is a famous woman Nayanar saint

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) Only 1 b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Solution: a

Justification:

There were 63 Nayanars, who belonged to different caste backgrounds such as potters, “untouchable” workers, peasants, hunters, soldiers, Brahmanas and chiefs. The best known among them were Appar, Sambandar, Sundarar and Manikkavasagar. There are two sets of compilations of their songs – Tevaram and Tiruvacakam.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

There were 12 Alvars, who came from equally divergent backgrounds, the best known being Periyalvar, his daughter Andal, Tondaradippodi Alvar and Nammalvar. Their songs were compiled in the Divya Prabandham.




3. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Sikhism has influences of bhakti tradition

2. It is a syncretic religion

3. Guru Arjan gave it a militaristic outlook

a) Only 1

b) Only 2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Justification:

Guru Angad compiled the compositions of Guru Nanak, to which he added his own in a new script known as Gurmukhi.

The three successors of Guru Angad also wrote under the name of “Nanak” and all of their compositions were compiled by Guru Arjan in 1604.

To this compilation were added the writings of other figures like Shaikh Farid, Sant Kabir, Bhagat Namdev and Guru Tegh Bahadur.

In 1706 this compilation was authenticated by his son and successor, Guru Gobind Singh. It is now known as Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of the Sikhs.(syncreticsm )

By the beginning of the seventeenth century the town of Ramdaspur (Amritsar) had developed around the central Gurdwara called Harmandar Sahib (Golden Temple). It was virtually self-governing and modern historians refer to the early seventeenth century Sikh community as ‘a state within the state’.




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The Mughal emperor Jahangir looked upon them as a potential threat and he ordered the execution of Guru Arjan in 1606.

The Sikh movement began to get politicized in the seventeenth century, a development which culminated in the institution of the Khalsa by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699. The community of the Sikhs, called the Khalsa Panth, became a political entity (militaristic outlook)

Nanak had a huge impact on this development from the very beginning. He emphasized the importance of the worship of one God. He insisted that caste, creed or gender was irrelevant for attaining liberation. His idea of liberation was not that of a state of inert bliss but rather the pursuit of active life with a strong sense of social commitment. He himself used the terms nam, dan and isnan for the essence of his teaching, which actually meant right worship, welfare of others and purity of conduct. His teachings are now remembered as nam-japna, kirt-karna and vand-chhakna, which also underline the importance of right belief and worship, honest living, and helping others. Thus, Guru Nanak’s idea of equality had social and political implications.

This might partly explain the difference between the history of the followers of Guru Nanak and the history of the followers of the other religious figures of the medieval centuries, like Kabir, Ravidas and Dadu whose ideas were very similar to those of Guru Nanak (bhakti)

(Hence option c is correct)


4. Which of the following is/are NOT correct ?

1. Lilatilakam a 14th century text dealt with grammar and politics

2. It was composed in manipravalam language

3. Manipravalam was a mixture of Sanskrit and tamil

Select the correct answer using codes below

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 2 and 3

c) Only 3

d) Only 1 and 3

Solution: c

Justification:

The Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram was established in the ninth century in the south-western part of the peninsula, part of present-day Kerala. It is likely that Malayalam was spoken in this area. The rulers introduced the Malayalam language and script in their inscriptions. In fact, this is one of the earliest examples of the use of a regional language in official records in the subcontinent. At the same time, the Cheras also drew upon Sanskritic traditions. The temple theatre of Kerala, which is traced to this period, borrowed stories from the Sanskrit epics.

The first literary works in Malayalam, dated to about the twelfth century, are directly indebted to Sanskrit. Interestingly enough, a fourteenth-century text, the Lilatilakam, dealing with




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grammar and poetics, was composed in Manipravalam literally, “diamonds and corals” referring to the two languages, Sanskrit and the regional language.



5. Jagannatha temple at Puri is a pilgrimage centre today. Which of the following is/are correct about it ?

1. It is a based on Vaishnavite cult

2. The deity has a tribal inspiration

3. The temple was built by King Anangabhima III

Select the correct answer using the code below.

a) Only 1

b) Only 2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Justification:

In other regions, regional cultures grew around religious traditions. The best example of this process is the cult of Jagannatha (literally, lord of the world, a name for Vishnu) at Puri, Orissa. To date, the local tribal people make the wooden image of the deity, which suggests that the deity was originally a local god, who was later identified with Vishnu.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

In the twelfth century, one of the most important rulers of the Ganga dynasty, Anantavarman, decided to erect a temple for Purushottama Jagannatha at Puri. Subsequently, in 1230, king Anangabhima III dedicated his kingdom to the deity and proclaimed himself as the “deputy” of the god.




6. Which of the following is NOT correct about Kathak?

a) It is hugely influenced by bhakti movement

b) It is a dance form which narrates stories

c) It was disallowed in Mughal courts

d) It is one of the Classical dances today




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Solution: c

Justification:

If heroic traditions can be found in different regions in different forms, the same is true of dance. Let us look at the history of one dance form, Kathak, now associated with several parts of north India. The term kathak is derived from katha, a word used in Sanskrit and other languages for story. The kathaks were originally a caste of story-tellers in temples of north India, who embellished their performances with gestures and songs. Kathak began evolving into a distinct mode of dance in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries with the spread of the bhakti movement. The legends of Radha-Krishna were enacted in folk plays called rasa lila, which combined folk dance with the basic gestures of the kathak story-tellers.

Under the Mughal emperors and their nobles, Kathak was performed in the court, where it acquired its present features and developed into a form of dance with a distinctive style. Subsequently, it developed in two traditions or gharanas: one in the courts of Rajasthan (Jaipur) and the other in Lucknow. Under the patronage of Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, it grew into a major art form. By the third quarter of the nineteenth century it was firmly entrenched as a dance form.



7. Which of the following is/are responsible for the downfall of Hindu states during medieval India?

1. Lack of unity among them.

2. Outdated military methods used by them.

3. Work division based on Varna system.

a) Only 2

b) Only 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) Only 1 and 3

Solution : c

Justification:

The causes for the downfall of Hindu states have to be analysed historically

The most important cause was that they lacked unity. They were divided by factions. The Rajput princes exhausted one another by their mutual conflicts.


many Hindu states were declining in power. Their military methods were out of date and far inferior to those of Muslim Indians continued to rely on elephants while the Muslims possessed quick-moving cavalry.





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The Muslims soldiers had better organization and able leaders. Their religious zeal and their greed for the greater wealth of India provided stimulus to them

Among the Hindus, the duty of fighting was confined to a particular class, the Kshatriyas. Moreover


Hindus were always on the defensive, which was always a weak position.



8. Consider the following statements

1. Iltumish patronised the great scholar Hasan Nizami

2. Qutubudin Aibak was called Lakh Baksh by the Muslim writer

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Justification:

Qutbuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian possessions. He set up his military headquarters at Indraprasta, near Delhi. He raised a standing army and established his hold over north India even during the life time of Ghori. After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared his independence. He severed all connections with the kingdom of Ghori and thus founded the Slave dynasty as well as the Delhi Sultanate. He assumed the title Sultan and made Lahore his capital. His rule lasted for a short period of four years.

Muslim writers call Aibak Lakh Baksh or giver of lakhs because he gave liberal donations to them. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Aibak patronized the great scholar Hasan Nizami. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

He also started the construction of after the name of a famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar. It was later completed by Iltutmish. Aibak died suddenly while playing chaugan (horse polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by his son Aram Baksh, who was replaced by Iltutmish after eight months.

(Hence option b is correct)





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9. Who was the first Sultan to impose irrigation tax ?

a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

c) Allauddin Khilji

d) Iltumish

Solution : b

Justification:

The reign of Firoz Tughlaq was more notable for his administration.

1. He strictly followed the advice of the ulemas in running the administration.

2. He pleased the nobles and assured hereditary succession to their properties. Thus the iqta system was not only revived but also it was made hereditary.

3. As per the Islamic law he levied the taxes.

Jiziya was strictly imposed on non-Muslims. He was the first Sultan to impose irrigation tax But at the same time he dug irrigation

canals and wells. The longest canal was about 200 kilometres from Sutlej to Hansi. Another canal was between Yamuna and Hissar.

The special tax on 28 items was abolished by him since they were against the Islamic law.

4. He also developed royal factories called karkhanas in which thousands of slaves were employed.

5. About 300 new towns were built during his reign. The famous among them was Firozabad near Red Fort in Delhi, now called Firoz Shah Kotla.

6. Old monuments like Jama Masjid and Qutb-Minar were also repaired.



10. Ariz-i-mumalik headed the military department under the Delhi Sultana technology.

Which of the following is /are correct about him?

1. He was responsible for recruiting the soldiers and administering the military department.

2. He was commander in chief of the Army

Select the correct answers using code below

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2




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Solution : a

Justification:

The Sultan was assisted by a number of departments and officials in his administration.

1. The post of Naib was the most powerful one. The Naib practically enjoyed all the powers of the Sultan and exercised general control over all the departments.

2. Next to him was the Wazir who was heading the finance department called Diwani Wizarat.

3. The military department was called Diwani Ariz. It was headed by Ariz-i-mumalik. He was responsible for recruiting the soldiers and administering the military department. Hence statement 1 is correct.

He was not the commander-in-chief of the army. The Sultan himself was the commander-in-chief of the army. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The military department was first set up by Balban and it was further improved by Alauddin Khalji under whom the strength of the army crossed three lakh soldiers. Alauddin introduced the system of branding of the horses and payment of salary in cash. Cavalry was given importance under the Delhi Sultanate.



11. Which of the following is /are correct about Jiziya?

1. Jiziya was not a separate tax since beginning under Muslim rule

2. At times Brahmins were exempted from paying Jiziya

3. Firoz Tughlaq made it a part of Land Tax

Select the correct answers using the codes below

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 2

c) Only 2 and 3

d) Only 1

Solution : a

Justification :

During the Sultanate period, the Muslim society remained divided into several ethnic and racial groups. The Turks, Iranians, Afghans and Indian Muslims developed exclusively and there were no intermarriages between these groups. Hindu converts from lower castes were also not given equal respect. The Muslim nobles occupied high offices and very rarely the Hindu nobles were given high position in the government.

The Hindus were considered zimmis or protected people for which they were forced to pay a tax called jiziya.

In the beginning jiziya was collected as part of land tax. Hence statement 1 is correct.




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Firoz Tughlaq separated it from the land revenue and collected jiziya as a separate tax. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Sometimes Brahmins were exempted from paying Jiziya. Hence statement 2 is correct.




1. Tughlaq architecture combined both arch and dome features

2. They mostly used red sand stone for their building.

3. Muhammad bin Tugulaq built the city Tughlaqabad.

Which of the above statements is /are NOT correct ?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Only 2 and 3

d) Only 3

Solution : c

Justification:

The art and architecture of the Delhi Sultanate period was distinct from the Indian style.

The Turks introduced arches, domes, lofty towers or minarets and decorations using the Arabic script. They used the skill of the Indian stone cutters. They also added colour to their buildings by using marbles, red and yellow sand stones.

The buildings of the Tughlaq period were constructed by combining arch and dome. Hence statement 1 is correct.

They also used the cheaper and easily available grey colour stones. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The palace complex called Tughlaqabad with its beautiful lake was built during the period of Ghyasuddin Tughlaq. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Muhammad bin Tughlaq built the tomb of Ghyasuddin on a high platform. The Kotla fort at Delhi was the creation of Firoz Tughlaq. The Lodi garden in Delhi was the example for the architecture of the Lodis.






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13. Which of the following is NOT correct about Vishistadvaita philosophy propounded by Ramanujacharya ?

a) God is a Saguna brahman

b) Self-surrender to God is the way to achieve him

c) Soul and matter are not Real

d) His philosophy was rooted in Vaishnavism

Solution: c

Justification:

In the twelfth century, Ramanuja, who was born at Sriperumbudur near modern Chennai, preached Visishtadvaita. According to him God is Sagunabrahman. The creative process and all the objects in creation are real but not illusory as was held by Sankaracharya. Therefore, God, soul, matter are real. But God is inner substance and the rest are his attributes. He also advocated prabattimarga or path of self-surrender to God. He invited the downtrodden to Vaishnavism.



14. Which of the following is/are feature/features of Swadeshi movement?

1. Emphasis on self-reliance

2. Extensive participation of the peasantry

3. Cultural revivalism

a) Only 3

b) Only 2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 3

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: c

Justification:

The militant nationalists put forward several fresh ideas at the theoretical, propaganda and programme levels. Among the several forms of struggle thrown up by the movement were

1. Boycott of foreign goods: This included boycott and public burning of foreign cloth, boycott of foreign made salt or sugar, refusal by priests to rihmlise marriages involving exchange of foreign goods, refusal by washermen to wash foreign clothes. This form of protest met with great success at the practical and popular level.

2. Public meetings and processions: These emerged as major methods of mass mobilisation and simultaneously as forms of popular expression.




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3. Corps of volunteers or ‘samitis: Samitis such as the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti of Ashwini Kumar Dutta (in Barisal) emerged as a very popular and powerful method of mass mobilisation. These samitis, generated political consciousness among the masses through magic lantern lectures, swadeshi songs, physical and moral training to their members, social work during famines and epidemics, organisation of schools, training in swadeshi crafts and arbitration courts.

4. Imaginative use of traditional popular festivals and, melas: The idea was to use such occasions as a means of reaching out to the masses and spreading political messages. For instance,. Tilak’s Ganapati and Shivaji festivals became a medium of swadeshi propaganda not only in western India, but also in Bengal. In, Bengal also, the traditional folk theatre forms were used for this purpose. Hence statement 3 is correct.

5. Emphasis given to self-reliance or ‘atma shaktz: This implied reassertion of national dignity, honour and confidence and social and economic regeneration of the villages. Hence statement 1 is correct.

There was limited participation of peasentry. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.


Source: Spectrum History


1. The first session of Indian National Congress was presided by W.C Banerjee.

2. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay addressed the session in 1885

Which of the above statement is/are NOT correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Justifiaction:

The first session of the Indian National Congress was, attended by 72 delegates and presided over by Vomesh Chandra Bannerjee. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Hereafter, the Congress met every year in December, in a different part of the country each time. Some of the great presidents of the Congress during this early phase were Dadabhai Naoroji (thrice president), 13adruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta, P. Anandacharlu, Surendranath Banerjee, Romesh Chandra Dutt, Ananda Mohan Bose and Gopal Krishna Gokhale. Other prominent leaders included Mahadeo Govind Ranade, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Sisir Kumar Ghosh, Motilal Ghosh, Madan Mohan Malaviya, G. Subramaniya Aiyar, C. Vijayaraghavachariar, Dinshaw E. Wacha.

In 1890, Kadambiny the first woman graduate of Caktiffa University addressed the Congress session, which symbolised the commitment of the freedom struggle to give the women of India their due status in national life. Apart from the Indian National Congress, nationalist




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activity was carried out through provincial conferences and associations, newspapers and literature.




16. Who started the newspaper Al Hilal ?

a) Maulana Azad

b) Mohammmad Ali

c) Hasrat Mohani

d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Solution: a

Justification:

Khilafat movement

Younger Muslims were infuriated by the government repression during the War. Maulana Azad’s Al Hilal and Mohammad Ali’s Comrade faced suppression while the Ali brothers, Maulana Azad and Hasrat Mohani faced internment. This generated anti-imperialist sentiments among the “Young Party”.



17. Which of the following was/were a part of Vivekananda’s ideas ?

1. Fundamental oneness of God.

2. Social action along with knowledge.

3. Usage of Modern science and technology for the development of the nation

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 2

c) Only 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Justification:

Narendranath Datta (1862-1902), who later came to be known as Swami Vivekananda spread Ramakrishna’s message and tried to reconcile it to the needs of contemporary Indian society.




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He emerged as the preacher of neo-Hinduism. Certain spiritual experiences of Ramakrishna, the teachings of the Upanishads and the Gita and the examples, of the Buddha and Jesus are the basis of Vivekananda’s message to the world about human values.

He subscribed to the Vedanta which he considered a fully rational system with a superior approach.

His mission was to bridge the gulf between ararnartha (service) and vyavahara (behaviour), and between spirituality.

He believed in the fundamental oneness of God and said, “For our own motherland a junction of the two great systems, Hinduism and Islam, is the only hope.” Hence statement 1 is correct.

Emphasising social action, he declared that knowledge without action is useless. Hence statement 2 is correct.

He lamented the isolationist tendencies and the touch-me-not attitude of Hindus in religious matters. He frowned at religion’s tacit approval of the oppression of the poor by the rich. He believed that it was an insult to God and humanity to teach religion to a starving man. He called upon his countrymen to imbibe a spirit of liberty, equality and free thinking.

Vivekananda was a great humanist and used the Ramakrishna Mission for humanitarian relief and social work. The Mission stands for religious and social reform. Vivekananda advocated the doctrine of service—the service of all beings. is itself is religion. service, the Divine exists within man.

Vivekananda was for using technology and modern science in the service of mankind. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Ever since its inception, the Mission has been running a number of chocies. It offers help to the affected of calamities like famines, floods and epidemics. a worldwide organisation. It is a deeply religious body, but it is not a proselytising body. It does not consider itself to be a sect of Hinduism. In fact, this is one of the strong reasons for the success of the Mission. Unlike the Arya Samaj, the Mission recognises the utility and value of image worship in developing spiritual fervour and worship of the eternal omnipotent God, although it emphasises the essential spirit and not the symbols or rituals. It believes that the philosophy of Vedanta will make a Christian a better Christian, and a Hindu a better Hindu.(Hence option d is correct)



1. Servants of Indian Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

2. Sudharak was the periodical which projected the views of the Society

3. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar started the periodical Sudharak

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

a) Only 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 2

d) Only 1




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Solution: a

Justification:

Servants of Indian society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale. it was meant to prepare indian for the service of the society and the Nation.


Hitabada was the newspaper which projected the ideas of the society.


Sudharak, meaning Reformer, was a newspaper in India.it was founded in 1888 by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, who had previously edited Kesari. The newspaper was an Anglo Marathi-language work and was published in Poona, Maharastra.




19. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Social service league was founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi

2. He was one of the founding members of All India Trade Union Congress.

Select the correct answer using the code below

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Justification:

Narayan Malhar Joshi, a leading member of the Servants of India Society, founded the Social Service League in 1911. The objective of the movement was “to collect and study social facts and discuss social problems with a view to forming public opinion on questions of social service” and to secure for the masses a better quality of life and work. The League opened number of day and night schools, libraries, dispensaries and started boys’ clubs and scouts corps.


Narayan Malhar Joshi (June 1879 – 30 May 1955) was an Indian trade union leader.Joshi got involved in labour issues and started the All India trade union congress in 1921 along with Lala Lajpat Rai.


He was the general secretary of AITUC from 1925 to 1929 and from 1940 to 1948. In 1931, he left AITUC and started the All India Trade Union Federation. In 1909, Joshi established an


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lala_Lajpat_Rai



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organization called the Social Service League. The League conducted training programmes for volunteers, whose services were later utilized for relief work among people suffering form famines, epidemics, floods and other disasters, and also for welfare programmes among the poor and the destitute. Among other titles, he is considered as one of the pioneers in Modern Indian Social Work



20. Match the following

Women’s Organisations Founder

1. Bharat Stree Mahamandal Mehribai Tata

2. Bharat Mahila Parishad Sarala Devi Chaudhurani

3. Arya Mahila Samaj Pandita Ramabai

4. National Council of women in India Ramabai Ranade

1 2 3 4

a) D B C A

b) B D C A

c) B D A C

d) D B A C

Solution: b

Justification :

Bharat Stree Mahamandal Sarala Devi Chaudhurani

Bharat Mahila Parishad Ramabai Ranade

Arya Mahila Samaj Pandita Ramabai

National Council of women in India Mehribai Tata



http://epgp.inflibnet.ac.in/epgpdata/uploads/epgp_content/women_studies/gender_studies/03._women_and_history/17._history_of_womens_organisations_in_india/et/7886_et_et_17.pdf

21. Which of the following ideas was/were supported by Dayananda Saraswati ?

1. A classless and casteless society

2. Vedic nation of Chaturvana system

3. Infallibility of Vedas and Puranas







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a) Only 2 and 3

b) Only 2

c) 1,2 and 3

d) Only 1 and 2

Solution: d

Justification :

Maharishi Dayanand was a believer in Hinduism just as the Vedas have outlined, devoid of any corruption and embellishments. Preserving the purity of the faith was of utmost important to him. He strongly advocated the concepts of Dharma which he believed to be free from any partiality and as an embodiment of truthfulness. To him Adharma was anything that did not hold true, was not just or fair and was opposed to the teachings of the Vedas. He believed in reverence of human life irrespective of anything and condoned the practice of Ahimsa or non-violence. He advised his countrymen to direct their energy towards betterment of mankind as a whole and not waste away in unnecessary rituals. He revoked the practice of idol worship and considered them a contamination introduced by the priesthood for their own benefit. He was against other social evils like superstitions and caste segregation. He advocated the concept of Swarajya, meaning a country free of foreign influence, resplendent in the glory of fair and just participants.

Dayanand Saraswati & Arya Samaj

On 7 April, 1875 Dayanand Saraswati formed the Arya Samaj at Bombay. It was a Hindu reforms movement, meaning “society of the nobles”. The purpose of the Samaj was to move the Hindu religion away from the fictitious beliefs. ‘Krinvan to Vishvam Aryam” was the motto of the Samaj, which means, “Make this world noble”. The ten tenets of the Arya Samaj are as follows:

1. God is the efficient cause of all true knowledge and all that is known through knowledge.

2. God is existent, intelligent and blissful. He is formless, omniscient, just, merciful, unborn, endless, unchangeable, beginning-less, unequalled, the support of all, the master of all, omnipresent, immanent, un-aging, immortal, fearless, eternal and holy, and the maker of all. He alone is worthy of being worshiped.

3. The Vedas are the scriptures of all true knowledge. It is the paramount duty of all Aryas to read, teach, and recite them and to hear them being read.

4. One should always be ready to accept truth and to renounce untruth.

5. All acts should be performed in accordance with Dharma that is, after deliberating what is right and wrong.

6. The prime object of the Arya Samaj is to do good to the world, that is, to promote physical, spiritual and social good of everyone.

7. Our conduct towards all should be guided by love, righteousness and justice.

8. We should dispel Avidya (ignorance) and promote Vidya (knowledge).

9. No one should be content with promoting his/her good only; on the contrary, one should look for his/her good in promoting the good of all.




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10. One should regard oneself under restriction to follow the rules of society calculated to promote the wellbeing of all, while in following the rules of individual welfare all should be free.

These 10 founding principles of the Arya Samaj was the pillar on which Maharishi Dayanad sought to reform India and asked people to go back to the Vedas and its undiluted spiritual teaching. The Samaj directs its members to condemn ritualistic practices like idol worship, pilgrimage and bathing in holy rivers, animal sacrifice, offering in temples, sponsoring priesthood etc. The Samaj also encouraged followers to question existing beliefs and rituals instead of blindly follow them.

The Arya Samaj not only sought spiritual reorganisation of the Indian psyche, it also worked towards abolishing various social issues. Primary among these were widow remarriage and women education. The Samaj launched programs to support widow remarriage in the 1880s. Maharishi Dayanand also underlined the importance of educating the girl child and opposed child marriage. He proclaimed that an educated man needs and educated wife for the overall benefit of the society.

(Hence option d is correct)


22. Which of the following explains why one side of a mountain usually has more precipitation than the other side?

(a) Mountains force air to rise, and air cools and releases moisture as it rises

(b) The atmosphere gets denser as elevation increases

(c) Temperatures are higher on one side of a mountain than on the other

(d)The land on one side is more green and lush than the other

Answer: (a)

Justification:

Mountains also cause air to rise. As the wind blows across a mountain range, air rises and cools and clouds can form on the windward side. This is why windward sides of mountain ranges tend to get heavy precipitation.

When the air sinks on the leeward side of the mountain range, it is usually much drier and warmer than it was to begin with

23. Which of the following statements describes an anticyclone?

(a) It is an area of low pressure

(b) It is an area of high pressure

(c) It has air masses that meet and rise

(d) It moves in the direction of the Earth’s rotation

Answer: (b)




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Justification:

An anticyclone (that is, opposite to a cyclone) is a weather phenomenon defined by the United States National Weather Service’s glossary as “a large-scale circulation of winds around a central region of high atmospheric pressure, clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere”. Effects of surface-based anticyclones include clearing skies as well as cooler, drier air.

24. “They are the largest and deepest intrusive features. They are often the magma chambers of volcanoes.” To which intrusive volcanic landform is the above statement referring?

a) Batholith

b) Lopolith

c) Phacolith

d) Laccolith

Answer: (a)

Justification:

A batholith is a very large mass of intrusive igneous rock that forms and cools deep in the Earth’s crust. An igneous rock is a type of rock formed through the cooling of lava or magma. The term ‘batholith’ comes from the Greek words bathos, meaning ‘depth,’ and lithos, meaning ‘rock.’ In order for an intrusion to be called a batholith, the exposed area showing at the Earth’s surface should be at least 100 square kilometers, though ssome of these formations are much larger than that.

25. The type of soil called loam is made up of

a) Purely humus

b) Mostly clayey

c) Nearly equal amount of sand, silt and clay

d) Sand and gravel

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Loam is soil composed mostly of sand (particle size > 63 µm), silt (particle size > 2 µm), and a smaller amount of clay (particle size < 2 µm). By weight, its mineral composition is about 40–40–20% concentration of sand-silt-clay, respectively. These proportions can vary to a degree, however, and result in different types of loam soils: sandy loam, silty loam, clay loam, sandy clay loam, silty clay loam, and loam. Loam soils generally contain more nutrients, moisture, and humus than sandy soils, have better drainage and infiltration of water and air than silt and clay-rich soils, and are easier to till than clay soils.




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26. The most prominent feature in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the

a) Abyssal plain

b) Deep ocean trench

c) Seamount

d) Mid-ocean ridge

Answer: (d)

Justification:

A mid-ocean ridge or mid-oceanic ridge is an underwater mountain range, formed by plate tectonics.

This uplifting of the ocean floor occurs when convection currents rise in the mantle beneath the oceanic crust and create magma where two tectonic plates meet at a divergent boundary.

The mid-ocean ridges of the world are connected and form a single global mid-oceanic ridge system that is part of every ocean, making the mid-oceanic ridge system the longest mountain range in the world, with a total length of about 60,000 km.

27. The California Ocean current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a

a) Cold current, flowing south

b) Cold current, flowing north

c) Warm current, flowing north

d) Warm current, flowing south

Answer: (a)

Justification:

The California Current is a Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California Peninsula. It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of the North American coastline on its course. It is also one of five major coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali Current. The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.

28. ‘Syntaxial Bend’ is a feature of which one of the following?

a) Himalayas b) Aravallis

c) Satpuras d) Vindhyas




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Answer: (a)

Justification:

The general east-west trend of the Himalayas terminates suddenly at its western and eastern extremities and the ranges are sharply bent southward in deep knee-bend flextures which are called syntaxial bends. Western syntaxial bend is near Nanga Parbat and eastern syntaxial bend is near Namcha Barwa

29. Which one of the following is the junction point of the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats

a) Javadi hills

b) Anaimalai hills

c) Nilgiri hills

d) Shevaroy hills

Answer: (c)

Justification:

The Nilgiri, far south in Tamil Nadu is the meeting place of the Western Ghats, the Eastern Ghats and the Southern hills, rising abruptly from the surrounding areas, it has the highest peak of Doddabeta ( 2,637 m ) and Udagammdulam (Ooty) hill station.

30. Bhabar belt is found in the

a) Chota Nagpur plateau

b) Himalayan Piedmont zone

c) Western Ghats

d) Coastal Orissa

Answer: (b)

The Bhabar belt is a narrow belt about 8-16 km wide running in east-west direction along the foot of the Shivaliks with a remarkable continuity from the Indus to the Teesta. Rivers descending from the Himalayas deposit their load along the foothills in the form of alluvial fans.

31. During winter, north-western part of India gets rainfall from

a) Thunderstroms

b) Retreating monsoon

c) Tropical cyclones

d) Western disturbances

Answer: (d)




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Justification:

A Western Disturbance is an extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent. It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies. The moisture in these storms usually originates over the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean.Extratropical storms are a global phenomena with moisture usually carried in the upper atmosphere, unlike their tropical counterparts where the moisture is carried in the lower atmosphere.

32. Which one of the following pairs of lands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’

a) Andaman and Nicobar

b) Nicobar and Sumatra

c) Maldives and Lakshadweep

d) Sumatra and Java

Answer: (a)

Justification:

The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal. Ten degrees Channel which lies between Little Andaman Island and the Car Nicobar.

33. Which one of the following places is located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi

a) Vishnuprayag

b) Devaprayag

c) Rudrapravag

d) Karnaprayag

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Devaprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi

Vishnuprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Dhauliganga

Rudraprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Mandakini

Karanprayag – Confluence of Alaknanda and Pindar

34. Consider the following

1. Coal – Raniganj

2. Diamond – Panna




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Which of the following is/are correctly matched

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

35. As per 2011 census which amongst of the following states has already achieved the replacement level of fertility

a) Assam

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Jammu Kashmir

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Replacement level fertility is the number of children a woman should have to replace herself and her mate for a stable population, and [it] has been fixed at 2.1 globally due to child mortality. A stable population is that where fertility and mortality are constant. The provisional Census 2011 figures suggest that two contrasting demographic “nations” are emerging in the country with all four south Indian States — Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu — already having achieved the replacement level fertility of 2.1 children per women required to initiate the process of population stabilisation, while the four large north Indian States — Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh — have still a long way to go before they achieve the required level.


1. After Arunachal Pradesh, Assam is the Eastern most state in India

2. Tripura shares international boundary with Myanmar

Which of the following statements is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (a)




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37. River Wainganga is a tributary of

a) Krishna

b) Narmada

c) Godavari

d) Kaveri

Answer: (c)

38. Great Nicobar , the southernmost island of Nicobar islands is nearest to which of the following country

a) Myanmar

b) Malaysia

c) Thailand

d) Indonesia

Answer: (d)

39. Silent valley National Park is located in

a) Anaimalai hills

b) Palani hills

c) Nilgiri hills

d) Cardamom hills

Answer: (c)

40. Which of the following lake is NOT part of Great Lakes region of North America

a) Lake Superior

b) Great Slave Lake

c) Michigan Lake

d) Lake Huron

Answer: (b)




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41. Which of the following is the longest river of Asia

a) Brahmaputra

b) Indus

c) Yangtze

d) Mekong

Answer: (c)

CSAT

42. Two persons start walking towards each other from their houses which are 24km apart. Their speeds are 8 km/hr and 10 km/hr respectively. When they will meet each other if both of them start at 8:00 am simultaneously?

a) 9:00 am

b) 9:20 am

c) 9:40 am

d) 10:00 am

Solution: b

Justification:

The distance between the houses = 24km.

The relative speed of both the persons = 10 + 8 = 18 km/hr

Time taken by both to meet each other = Distance/Relative speed = 24/18

= 4/3 hours

= 1 hour 20 mins.

Hence, they will meet at 9:20am.

43. If a book is sold at a gain of 6% instead of at a loss of 6%, then the seller gets Rs.9 more. The cost price of the book is:

a) 75

b) 45

c) 60

d) 90




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Solution: a

Justification:

Let the Cost Price of the book be Rs.x

Initial Selling Price of the book = x + 6% of x = 1.06x

Final Selling Price of the book = x – 6% of x = 0.94x

The difference = 1.06x – 0.94x = 0.12x

But 0.12x = Rs.9

x = 9/(0.12) = Rs.75

44. The Compound Interest on Rs.5000 for 3 years at 8% for first year, 10% for second year and 15% for third year will be:

a) 1655

b) 1650

c) 1681

d) 1831

Solution: d

Justification:

CI for first year = 8% of Rs.5000 = Rs.400

Principle for second year = Rs.5000 + Rs.400 = Rs.5400

CI for second year = 10% of Rs.5400 = Rs.540

Principle for third year = Rs.5400 + Rs.540 = Rs.5940

CI for third year = 15% of Rs.5940 = Rs.891

Total amount after 3 years = Rs.5940 + Rs.891 = Rs.6831

CI for 3 years = Rs.6831 – Rs.5000 = Rs.1831

45. If 25 men can do a piece of work in 36 days working 10 hours a day, then how many men are required to complete the work working 6 hours a day in 20 days.

a) 150

b) 75

c) 45

d) 90

Solution: b




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Justification:

Since the work done is directly proportional to the men and the time we have to equate the product of men and number of hours. i.e.

Men required × 6 × 20 = 25 × 36 × 10

The men required = = 75

46. How many 10 digits numbers can be formed by using the digits only 0 and 1?

a) 210

b) 102

c) 29

d) 90

Solution: c

Justification:

In 10 digits numbers, the first digit has to be only 1.

In the remaining 9 places, any of 0 and 1 can be placed.

So, each of these 9 places can be filled in 2 ways.

Hence, the number of ways = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×2×2 = 29

47. A milk man has a mixture of milk and water in which the ratio of milk and water is 5:3. He sells 40 litres of this mixture and then he adds up 15 litres of pure water. Now, the ratio of milk and water is 5:4. What is the new quantity of mixture?

a) 72 litres

b) 270 litres

c) 135 litres

d) Data insufficient

Solution: c

Justification:

Let the quantities of milk and water be 5x litres and 3x litres respectively.

After selling the mixture, the quantities of remaining milk and water respectively are,

5x – (5/8 of 40) = 5x – 25 and 3x – (3/8 of 40) = 3x – 15

After adding 15 litres of water, the quantities of remaining milk and water respectively are,

5x – 25 and 3x – 15 + 15 = 3x

The new ratio = (5x-25)/3x = 5:4

20x – 100 = 15x




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5x = 100

x = 20.

New quantity of mixture = 5x – 25 + 3x

= 8x – 25

= 160 -25

= 135 litres

48. Harsha started a business by investing Rs.36000. After 4 months Varsha joined him with some investment. At the end of the year, the total profit was divided between them in the ratio 9:7. How much capital was invested by Varsha in the business?

a) Rs.42000

b) Rs.21000

c) Rs.84000

d) Rs.28000

Solution: a

Justification:

The ratio of shares in the profit = Ratio of products of the investments and the time period

9:7 = 36000 × 12 : (Varsha’s investement) × (12-4)

Varsha’s investment × 8 × 9 = 36000 × 12 × 7

Varsha’s investment = (36000 × 12 × 7)/(8×9)

Varsha’s investment = Rs. 42000

49. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 39 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was 28. The ages of the son and the father are respectively:

a) 6 years and 33 years

b) 1 year and 28 years

c) 7 years and 19 years

d) 6 years and 28 years

Solution: a

Justification:

Let the age of father be ‘x’ years.

Therefore, the age of son = 39 – x years.

Five years ago, age of the father = x – 5 years.




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Five years ago, age of the son = 39 – x – 5 years.

The product = 28 = (x – 5) (39 – x – 5)

(x – 5) (34 – x) = 28

39x – x2 – 170 = 28

x2 – 39x + 198 = 0

x2 – 33x – 6x + 198 = 0

x (x – 33) – 6 (x – 33) = 0

(x – 33) (x – 6) = 0

x = 33 or x = 6

Father’s age = 33 years and son’s age = 6 years.

50. A motor boat takes 12 hours to go downstream and it takes 24 hours to return the same distance. What is the time taken by boat in still water?

a) 8 hours

b) 12 hours

c) 16 hours

d) 9 hours

Solution: c

Justification:

Let the distance be ‘d’ km.

Let the speed of the boat and the stream be ‘b’ km/h and ‘s’ km/h respectively.

Thus, the time taken by the boat downstream = d / (b + s) = 12

b + s = d/12 …..(Eq1)

Time taken by the boat upstream = d / (b – s) = 24

b – s = d/24 ……(Eq2)

Adding Eq1 and Eq2, we get

2b = (d/12) + (d/24) = d/8

b = d/16

d = 16b

Since distance = time × speed,

Time taken by the boat in still water = 16 hours.




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51. A dice is thrown twice. What is the probability that at least one of the two numbers is 6?

a) 11/12

b) 1/6

c) 7/36

d) 11/36

Solution: d

Justification:

When a dice is thrown twice, there are 6 × 6 = 36 possibilities.

The desired events are (6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6), (5,6), (4,6), (3,6), (2,6) and (1,6).

There are 11 desired events.

Hence, the probability = 11/36

52. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 minutes and 32 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time B should be closed so that the tank is full in 21 minutes?

a) 3 minutes

b) 4 minutes

c) 6 minutes

d) 11 minutes

Solution: b

Justification:

Pipe A can fill 1/24 of the tank in 1 minute.

Pipe B can fill 1/32 of the tank in 1 minute.

Pipe B is closed after sometime but pipe A is opened for 21 minutes.

Fraction of the tank that is filled in 21 minutes by pipe A = 21/24 =7/8

Rest 1/8 of the tank is filled by pipe B.

Number of minutes for which the pipe B was open = (1/8) of 32 = 4 minutes.

53. Two trains 137m and 163m in length are running towards each other on parallel lines, one at the rate of 42 km/h and another at 48 km/h. In what time will they cross each other completely?

a) 12 s b) 3 min

c) 3 min d) 30 s




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Solution: a

Justification:

Relative speed of the trains = 42 + 48 = 90 km/h.

We have to convert 90 km/h into m/s i.e. 90 km/h = 90/3.6 = 25 m/s.

The time taken by trains to cross each other = Sum of lengths of trains/relative speed

= (137+163)/25

= 300/25

= 12s.

54. A rectangular grassy plot of length 125m and breadth 80m has a gravel path 2.5m wide all round it inside the plot. Find the cost of gravelling the path at 75 paise per square metre.

a) 787.50

b) 750

c) 431.25

d) 393.75

Solution: b

Justification:

Length of the plot = 125m

Breadth of the plot = 80m

Area of the plot = 125 × 80 = 10000 sq.m.

Length of the plot after gravelling = 125 – 5 = 120 m

Breadth of the plot after gravelling = 80 – 5 = 75 m

Area of the plot after gravelling = 120 × 75 = 9000 sq.m.

Area of gravelling = 10000 – 9000 = 1000 sq.m.

Cost of gravelling = 1000 × 75ps = Rs.750

55. How many words with or without meaning can be formed from the letters of word ‘INSIGHTS’ in such a way that the letters G and H are always together?

a) 840

b) 1680

c) 420

d) 1260

Solution: d




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Justification:

Since, G and H are to be together, they become one unit and other 6 letters will become 6 individual units.

With total 7 units, 2 ‘I’s and 2 ‘S’s, we can have the number of words = 7!/2!2!

= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1)/(2×2)

= 1260

56. A book is listed at Rs.1500 and a discount of 20% is offered on the list price. What additional discount on the discounted price must be offered to the customer to bring the net price to Rs.1104?

a) 8%

b) 10%

c) 4%

d) 12%

Solution: a

Justification:

The selling price after discount = (100-20)% of Rs.1500 = 80% of Rs.1500 = Rs.1200.

The intended selling price = Rs.1104

Additional Discount on discounted price = (1200-1104)×100/1200 = 8%

57. The maximum possible difference between the 4 digit numbers formed by using the four different digits 1, 2, 3 and 5 is:

a) 4086

b) 5076

c) 4386

d) 3242

Solution: a

Justification:

The highest 4 digit number can be formed by arranging the numbers in decreasing order. So, the highest number is 5321.

The lowest 4 digit number can be formed by arranging the numbers in increasing order. So, the lowest number is 1235.

Maximum possible difference = 5321 – 1235 = 4086




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58. In an exam, a student gets 3 marks for each correct answer and loses 2 marks for each wrong answer. He attempts 30 questions and obtains 40 marks. The number of questions solved correctly is:

a) 10

b) 15

c) 20

d) 25

Solution: c

Justification:

Let the number of correct answers be ‘c’.

Let the number of wrong answers be ‘w’.

Thus, c + w = 30 ……..Eq1

Also, 3c – 2w = 40 ……..Eq2

By 2 × Eq1 + Eq2, we get

5c = 100

c = 20

The number of questions solved correctly is 20.

59. A farmer wants to plant 36 mango trees, 144 orange trees and 234 apple trees in his garden. If he wants to plant the equal number of trees in every row, but the rows of mango, orange and apple trees will be separate, then the minimum number of rows in his garden is:

a) 18

b) 23

c) 36

d) 28

Solution: b

Justification:

We have to divide the number of trees into number of rows. So, we have to find HCF of the given numbers.

Hence, the HCF of 36, 144 and 234 = 18

Therefore, there will be 18 trees in a row.

The number of rows = (36 + 144 + 234)/18 = 23.




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60. The average age of 6 servants in a farmhouse is 28 years. A new and young servant replaces an old servant, then the new average reduces by 1 year. The age of the new servant is:

a) 26 years

b) 22 years

c) 35 years

d) Can’t determined

Solution: d

Justification:

Old average = 28

Old total = 28 × 6 = 168

New average = 28 – 1 = 27

New total = 27 × 6 = 162

Change in the total = 168 – 162 = 6

We can’t find the age of individual servant.

Hence, the answer can’t be determined.

61. There are number of 20 paise, 50 paise, and Rs.1 in the ratio of 7:8:5. What is the number of coins of 50 paise if the difference between the amount yielded by 20 paise and Rs.1 coin is Rs.18?

a) 32

b) 40

c) 26

d) 56

Solution: b

Justification:

Let the number of 20 paise, 50 paise, and Rs.1 be 7x, 8x and 5x respectively.

Amount yielded by 20paise = 7x × 20 paise = 140x paise.

Amount yielded by Rs.1 = 5x × 100 paise = 500x paise.

Difference between the amounts = 500x – 140x = 360x paise

Also, 360x paise = 1800 paise

x = 5

Hence, number of 50ps coins = 8 × 5 = 40.




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62. A page contains 50 lines. A chapter contains 150 pages. A book contains 4 chapters. 25 such books from a bound. If there are totally 30 lakhs lines in an x numbers of bounds then the value of x is:

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Solution: b

Justification:

Total number of lines = x × 25 × 4 × 150 × 5

But also, 30 lakhs = x × 25 × 4 × 150 × 5

x = (30 lakhs) / 25 × 4 × 150 × 5

x = 4.

63. A fruit seller gives away to each of his sons 1/12, 5/18, 7/30 and 7/48 of the apples in a basket and has only just enough apples to be able to do so without dividing an apple. The minimum number of apples he had?

a) 250

b) 720

c) 750

d) 240

Solution: b

Justification:

The total number of apples has to be perfectly divided by 12, 18, 30 and 48.

We have to find the LCM of 12, 18, 30 and 48.

LCM = 720.

Hence, the fruit seller had 720 apples.

64. Half-life of a substance is defined as the time period in which a substance becomes just half of it. If it is known that the half-life of a substance ‘X’ is 512 years, then after 2048 years, 128 g of ‘X’ becomes:

a) 8g b) 4g

c) 16g d) 32g




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Solution: a

Justification:

After 512 years, the substance will become half i.e. 128g/2 = 64g

After 512 years more i.e. after 1024 years, the substance will become half of 64g i.e. 64g/2 = 32g

After 512 years more i.e. after 1536 years, the substance will become half of 32g i.e. 32g/2 = 16g

After 512 years more i.e. after 2048 years, the substance will become half of 16g i.e. 16g/2 = 8g.

65. A student started writing down the counting numbers as 1, 2, 3, 4….. and then he added all those numbers and got the result 100. But when the result was checked it was found that the student had missed a number. What is the missing number?

a) 15

b) 14

c) 10

d) 5

Solution: d

Justification:

The sum of first n numbers = n (n+1)/2

100 = n (n+1)/2

To get the sum 100 the nearest natural number ‘n’ = 14.

For n = 14,

n (n+1)/2 = 105.

When the correct sum is 105 and the sum with mistake is 100, the missed out number = 5.

Hence, the sum of numbers from 1 to 14 while missing ‘5’ is 100.

66. There are five locks exactly with one key for each lock. All the keys are mixed. The maximum number of attempts needed to get the correct combination is:

a) 15

b) 20

c) 25

d) 10

Solution: d

Justification:

Let’s take a random key out of 5 keys.




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The maximum number of unsuccessful attempts with the first key can be done is 4. After 4 unsuccessful attempts, the fifth lock is the right lock for that key.

Similarly, 3 attempts with second key.

Hence, maximum number of attempts = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10.

67. A tank contains water 5/6th of its full capacity, then 5 litres of water is taken out and 2 litres is put back. Now, the pot is 4/5th What is the capacity of pot?

a) 72 litres

b) 80 litres

c) 90 litres

d) 108 litres

Solution: c

Justification:

Original volume of water = 5/6 of the tank

After taking out 5 litres and adding 2 litres, i.e. adding 3 litres effectively, the volume of water = 4/5 of the tank

So, 3 litres = (5/6) – (4/5) = 1/30 of the tank.

Full capacity of the tank = 90 litres.

68. The number of pairs of two numbers whose product is 300 and their HCF is 5:

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Solution: a

Justification:

We know that the product of two numbers = the product of their LCM and HCF.

Thus, LCM = 300/5 = 60

Since two numbers’ HCF is 5, let the numbers be 5x and 5y.

So, LCM of 5x and 5y = 5xy

But, 5xy = 60

xy = 12

Possible values of (x,y) = {(1,12), (2,6), (3,4)}.

But the pair of 2 and 6 can’t be considered because they have a common factor of 2. Otherwise the HCF would have been 5×2 = 10.




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Hence, the possible two pairs are (1, 12) and (3, 4).

69. The number of zeros at the end of 100!?

a) 20

b) 25

c) 10

d) 24

Solution: d

Justification:

100! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 ……….. × 100

The number of zeros is nothing but numbers of factor 5 in the above RHS.

So, to get numbers of factor 5, we have to divide 100 by 5.

100/5 = 20.

Again we have to divide 20 by 5.

20/5 = 4.

Hence, the number of zeros = 20 + 4 = 24.

70. In an election between two candidates, the candidate who got 66% valid votes won by a majority of 1024 votes. Find the total number of votes.

a) 3136

b) 3264

c) 3200

d) 3096

Solution: c

Justification:

When the victorious candidate got 67% of valid votes, the defeated candidate got 34% of valid votes.

The victorious candidate has won by 32% of valid votes or by 1024 votes.

Hence, the total number of votes = (100/32) × 1024 = 3200.




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71. For a journey the cost of a child ticket is 1/3rd of the cost of an adult ticket. If the cost of the tickets for 5 adults and 4 children is Rs.114, the cost of a child ticket?

a) 10

b) 5

c) 15

d) 20

Solution: b

Justification:

Let the cost of each adult ticket be Rs.’x’

So, the cost of each child ticket = Rs. x/3

Hence, the total ticket cost = 5x + (4x/3) = 19x/3

But, (19x/3) = Rs.95

x = Rs.15

Hence, the cost of child ticket = 15/3 = Rs.5

72. Five plays A, B, C, D and E are to be staged from Monday to Friday of a week. On each day, only one play will be staged. D or E should not be either the first or last to be staged. E should be immediately followed by C. B should be staged immediately after D. One play is staged between A and B. Which of the following is the correct sequence of staging all the plays?

a) A D B C E

b) A E C D B

c) B D A E C


Solution: d

Justification:

E should be immediately followed by C i.e. the order EC should be followed.

D should be immediately followed by B i.e. the order DB should be followed.

Since D and E should be within Tuesday to Thursday, the possible order from Tuesday to Friday is

DBEC or ECDB

Since one play is staged between A and B, the possible arrangement from Monday to Friday is

ADBEC.

Hence, option (d) is correct.




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Directions for questions 73 and 74:

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six students procuring their Master’s degree in six different subjects- English, History, Philosophy, Physics, Statistics and Mathematics.

2. Two of them stay in hostel; two stay as paying guest (PG) and the remaining two stay at their home.

3. R does not stay as PG and studies Philosophy.

4. The students studying Statistics and History do not stay as PG.

5. T studies Mathematics and S studies Physics.

6. U and S stay in hostel. T stays as PG and Q stays at home.

73. Which of the following combinations of subjects and place of stay is not correct?

a) English- Hostel

b) Mathematics- PG

c) Philosophy- Home

d) Physics- Hostel

Solution: a

Justification:




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74. Which of the following pairs of students stay one each at hostel and at home?

a) QR

b) SR

c) US

d) Data inadequate

Solution: b

Justification:

Refer the explanation for previous question.

S stays in hostel and R stays at home.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

75. By how many minutes does the minute hand move in the same time, in which the hour hand move by 18 degrees?

a) 24

b) 36

c) 48

d) 54

Solution: b

Justification:

When the hour hand moves by 18 degrees, the minute hand is moves 12 times 18 degrees i.e. 216 degrees.

1 minute = 6 degrees

So, 216 degrees = (216/6) minutes = 36 minutes.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

76. Mr.Ramu’s mother’s father-in-law’s only son’s only daughter’s son is Chetan. How is Ramu related to Chetan?

a) Uncle

b) Nephew

c) Niece

d) Father




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Solution: a

Justification:

77. Avi covered 150km distance in 10 hours. The first part of his journey he covered by car, then he hired a rickshaw. The speed of car and rickshaw is 20 km/h and 12 km/h respectively. The ratio of distances covered by car and the rickshaw respectively are:

a) 2:3

b) 4:5

c) 1:1


Solution: c

Justification:

Let the time period for which Avi has travelled by car and rickshaw be ‘x’ hours and ‘y’ hours respectively.

Thus, x + y = 10 …..Eq1




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The distance covered by car = x × 20 = 20x km.

The distance covered by rickshaw = y × 12 = 12y km.

Therefore, 20x + 12y = 150 ……Eq2

By multiplying Eq1 with 20, we get

20x + 20y = 200 …….Eq3

Subtracting Eq2 from Eq3, we get

20x + 20y – 20x – 12y = 200 – 150

8y = 50

y = 50/8 = 25/4

By substituting y in Eq1, we get

x + 25/4 = 10

x = 15/4

The ratio of distances covered by car and rickshaw = 20x : 12y = 20×(15/4) : 12×(25/4)

= 75 : 75

= 1:1

78. 12 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. If 4 women deny to work, then how many more days are required to finish the work?

a) 6

b) 10

c) 12

d) 15

Solution: b

Justification:

If 12 women can do a piece of work in 20 days, then the total work is of 12 × 20 = 240 women days.

If 4 women deny to work, 8 women will work.

Hence, number of days required for finishing the work = 240/8 = 30.

Number of more days required = 30 – 20 = 10.

79. A shopkeeper uses a weight of 450g instead of 500g and sells the articles at the cost price. What is the profit percentage?

a) 10% b) 5%

c) 11% d) None of the above




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Solution: c

Justification:

Let the cost price of 1 kg of articles be Rs.100

The cost price of 450g of articles = Rs.45

The cost price of 500g of articles = Rs.50

The profit earned by selling 450g of articles = Rs.5

Hence, profit percentage = (5/45) × 100 = 11.11%

80. X can beat Y by 200m in a race of 2000m. Y can beat Z by 100m in a race of 2500m. By how many meters can X beat Z in a race of 1000m?

a) 680m

b) 136m

c) 300m

d) 320m

Solution: b

Justification:

Case 1: When X completes 2000m, Y completes 1800m.

Case 2: When Y completes 2500m, Z completes 2400m.

To draw relation between X and Z, we have to make common Y in both the cases.

To have common Y, we have to take LCM of 1800 and 2500.

LCM of 1800 and 2500 is 4500.

When Y is 4500, X = (2000/1800) × 4500 = 5000.

When Y is 4500, Z = (2400/2500) × 4500 = 4320.

Therefore, X : Z = 5000 : 4320

When X completes 1000m, Z completes (4320/5000) × 1000 = 864m

Thus, X beats Z by (1000-864) = 136m.

81. Sita has 5 friends. In how many ways can she invite one or more of them to a dinner?

a) 31

b) 13

c) 55

d) 25

Solution: a




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series 15 : explanations gs (days 65-66) · the magnificent ruins at hampi reveal a well-fortified...

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