srigayatri educational institutions · 21. 5-kingdom classification was proposed by 1) linnaeus 2)...
TRANSCRIPT
SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS
INDIA
SR BIPC Date:24-04-2020 Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks:160
BOTANY 1. Elater mechanism of spore dispersal is found in
1) Liverworts 2) Mosses 3) Ferns 4) Cycads
2. In pinus, male cone is made up of
1) Microsporophylls 2) Megasporophylls 3) Anthers 4) Embryosae
3. Mannitol is food stored in
1) Porphyra 2) Polysiphoria 3) Fucus 4) Chara
4. Sex-organs of pteridophytes are
1) Multicellular and non jacketed 2) Multicellular and jacketed
3) Unicellular and jacketed 4) Unicellular and non jacketed
5. Tallest gymnosperm is
1) Sequoia 2) Ginkgo 3) Cedrus 4) Juniperus
6. Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams as they are non-seeded plants
containing
1) Only xylem 2) Only phloem
3) Neither xylem nor phloem 4) Xylem and phloem
7. Leaves of Fern are covered with
1) Ramenta 2) Spores 3) Wax 4) Indusium
8. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column I Column II
a) Algae p) Gymnosperms
b) Riccia q) Pond scum
c) Spirogyra r) Autotrophic
d) Gnetum s) Liverwort
1) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p 2) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r 3) a-s, b-p, c-r, d-q 4) a-r, b-q, c-s,
d-p
9. Which of the following groups of algae belongs to class Rhodophyceae?
1) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra, Volvox
2) Gelidium, Porphyra, Dictyota, Fucus
3) Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphoria
4) Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix
10. Prothallus of pteridophytes is
1) Inconspicuous, Small, Multicellular, Free living photosynthetic
2) Inconspicuous, Small, Multicellular, Free living non photosynthetic
3) Inconspicuous, Large, Unicellular, Free living photosynthetic
4) Conspicuous, Small, Multicellular, Free living photosynthetic
11. Which one of following is a rootless fossil plant
1) Lepidodendron 2) Rhynia 3) Williamsonia 4) Lyginopteris
PART TEST-6 (EAMCET MODEL ) MOMODEL EAEA
12. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column I ColumnII
a) Chlorophyta i) Equisetum
b) Lycopsida ii) Chara
c) Phaeophyta iii) Selaginella
d) Sphenopsida iv) Ectocarpus
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-
iii, d-ii
13. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
1) Haplontic, Diplontic 2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic 4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
14. Select the mismatch
1) Pinus-Dioecious 2) Cycas-Dioecious
3) Salvinia-Heterosporous 4) Equisetum-Homosporous
15. An example of colonial algae is
1) Chlorella 2) Volvox 3) Ulothrix 4) Spirogyra
16. Chief producers in the ocean relatively are
1) Diatoms 2) Green algae 3) Pteriodophytes 4) Bryophytes
17. Whirling whips are
1) Chrysophytes 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Euglenoids 4) Slime
moulds
18. Red tides in Medeterranian sea are because of
1) Gonyaulax 2) Trichodesmium 3) Fungi 4)
Actinomycetes
19. Rejuventory spores in diatoms are
1) Auxospores 2) Parthenospores 3) Akinetes 4) Conidia
20. Diatomaceous earth is indestructible due to cell walls embedded by
1) Calcium 2) Silica 3) zinc 4) Phosphorus
21. 5-kingdom classification was proposed by
1) Linnaeus 2) R.H whittaker 3) E. Haeckel 4)
Theophrastaus
22. Black rust of wheat is caused by
1) Alternaria solani 2) Ustilago tritici
3) Puccinia graminis tritici 4) Claviceps purpurea
23. Alginic acid is produced by
1) Green algae 2) Red algae 3) Brown algae 4) BGA
24. Edible part of mushroom is
1) Basidiocarp 2) Fungal hypae 3) Primary mycelium 4) Basidiospore
25. The fungus which grows on dung is called
1) Hamicolous 2) Lignicolous 3) Coprophilous 4) Fungicolous
26. Aflatoxins are produced by
1) Bacteria 2) Viruses 3) Fungi 4) Protista
27. Lichen is an association between
1) Fungi & Bryophyles 2) Fungi & Algae
3) Algae & Pteridophyte 4) Algae & Bacteria
28. Total number of aminoacids in capsid of TMV having 2130 capsomers is
1) 336540 2) 162622 3) 948 4) 387921
29. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column I Column II
a) Ernst Mayr i) Discovered viroids
b) Whittaker ii) Give the name of virus
c) Pasteur iii) Proposed five kingdom classification
d) Diener iv) Darwin of 20th century
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-
i, d-ii
30. Association between roots of higher plants and fungi is
1) Mycorrhiza 2) Lichen 3) Fern 4) Moss
31. Order generally end with suffix
1) -eles 2) –ales 3) –aceae 4) –both 1&2
32. National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) situated in
1) Lucknow 2) England(kew) 3) Kolkata 4) Howrah
33. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column I Column II
a) Man i) Poaceae
b) Datura ii) Anacardiaceae
c) Mango iii) Solanaceae
d) Wheat iv) Homonidae
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-
iii, d-i
34. Herbarium is a
1) Sheet of paper on which dried plants are sticked
2) Store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on tick
paper sheets
3) Museum for dead plants
4) Museum for live plants
35. The material available for observation and study in Museums is called
1) Herbarium 2) Key 3) Collection 4) Formalin
36. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order
i) Order ii) Class iii) Family iv) Species iv) Genus
1) v, iv, ii, i, iii 2) iv, v, i, iii, ii 3) iv, v, iii, i, ii 4) iv, v, ii, iii, i
37. Basic unit of classification
1) Genus 2) Species 3) Family 4) Order
38. Who is the father of Indian Taxonomy
1) Linnaeus 2) Santapau 3) John Ray 4) Swanson
39. The term ‘Systematics’ refers to:
1) Identification and classification of plants and animals
2) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
4) Different kinds of organisms and their classification
40. Scientific names of plants are based on principles and criteria agreed by
1) ICNB 2) ICZN 3) ICBN 4) ICTV
ZOOLOGY 41. While travelling to higher altitudes, people can feel pain in the ear and dizziness.
Which part among the following is involved?
1) Cochlea
2) Tympanic membrane
3) Eustachian tube, Utricle, Saccule and Semicircular canals
4) None of the above
42. Which of the following is not involved in Knee-Jerk reflex?
1) Muscle spindle 2) Motor neuron 3) Brain 4) Inter neurons
43. The organ of corti is a structure present in
1) External ear 2) Middle ear 3) Semicircular canal 4) Cochlea
44. Maeula maintains
1) Static equilibrium 2) Dynamic equilibrium
3) Both 1) and 2) 4) None of these
45. Hypoglosal nerve controls the movements of
1) Ear 2) Heart 3) Tongue 4) Limbs
46. A typical value of resting membrane potential
1) 100 mv− 2) 70 mv− 3) 40 mv− 4) 60 mv−
47. The primary visual area is located in
1) Temporal lobe 2) Occipital lope 3) Frontal lobe 4) Parietal lobe
48. Which of the following parts of human brain is also called emotional brain
1) Corpus callosam 2) Limbic system 3) Epithalamus 4) Broca’s area
49. Which one is an incorrect match
1) Myopia – Biconvex lens
2) Olfactory – Smell
3) Algeri receptor – Pain
4) Organ of corti cells – Sensory and supporting
50. The cavity of di-encephalon is known as
1) First ventricle 2) Second ventricle 3) Third ventricle 4) Fourth
ventricle
51. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in human may lead to
1) hoarse voice 2) Peptic ulsers
3) Efficient digestion of proteins 4) irregular contraction of diaphragm
52. Which of the following cranial nerves of both sensory and motor?
1) Olfactory 2) Optic 3) Trigeminal 4) Vagus
53. Sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from
1) Sacral region 2) Cervical region
3) 3rd, 7th, 9th, 10th cranial nerves 4) Thoroco-lumbar system
54. The part of the ear where sound is Transduced is
1) Tympanic membrane 2) Ear ossicles 3) Semiicircular canals 4) Cochlea
55. Internal ear is filled with
1) Perilymph 2) Endolymph 3) Lymph 4) Both 1) and
2)
56. Blind spot in vertebrate eye is the place where
1) There are no cones 2) There are no rods
3) There are neither rods nor cones 4) Retina is absent
57. The fluid filled in the space between lens and cornea is termed as
1) Vitreous humor 2) Aqueous humor 3) Synovial fluid 4) CSF
58. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called
1) Sweat gland 2) Prostate gland 3) Cowper’s gland 4) Ceruminous
gland
59. The brain disease caused due to the accumilation of Amyloid B-peptide is
1) Addison’s disease 2) Huntington’s disease
3) Parkinson’s disease 4) Alzhemer’s disease
60. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected this is because
1) It is composed of enucleated cells
2) It is a non living layer
3) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
4) It has no blood supply
61. The amino acids derivative among the following hormone is
1) Insulin 2) Testosterone 3) Oestradiol 4) Epine phrine
62. Conn’s disease is caused by the over secretion of
1) ADH 2) ACTH 3) Oxytocin 4) Aldosterone
63. Match the column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given
below
Column I Column II
a. ANF i. Regulates blood calcium levels
b. MSH ii. Decrease blood pressure
c. GIP iii. Pigmentation
d. CT iv. Inhibits gastric secretion
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
64. Which of the following hormone never reaches to cytoplasm
1) Estrogen 2) FSH 3) Progesterone 4) Testosterone
65. Insulin receptors are
1) Extrinsic proteins 2) Intrinsic proteins 3) G-proteins 4) Trimeric
proteins
66. Which of the following hormone is a steroid ?
1) Epinephrine 2) Thyroxine 3) Estrogen 4)
Gonadotropin
67. Which of the following hormones is not a poly-peptide
1) LH 2) FSH 3) Insulin 4) Thyrozine
68. The source of somatostatin is same as that of
1) Thyrozine and calcitonin 2) Insulin and glucagon
3) Somatotropin and prolactin 4) Vasopressin and oxytocin
69. To yield more milk, cow is injected with
1) Sorbitol 2) Prolactin 3) Gonadotrophs 4) Stilbesterol
70. Addison’s disease result from
1) Hyposecretion of gonads 2) Hyposecretion of adrenal
3) Hypertrophy of kidney 4) Hyposecretion of pitutary gland
71. The development of adult characteristic in a moulting insect is promoted by
1) Thyroxin 2) Ecdysone 3) Pheramone 4) Sex hormone
72. Damage of thymus gland in a child may lead to
1) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
2) A reduction in stem cell production
3) Loss of anti body- mediated immunity
4) Loss of cell mediated immunity
73. Heart beat increases at the time of interview because of the
1) Hypersecretion of rennin 2) Hyposecretion of rennin
3) Secretion of adrenaline 4) Secretion of insulin
74. Diabetes incipidus occurs due to the hyposecretion of
1) Thymosine 2) Oxytocin 3) Insulin 4) Vasopressin
75. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep wake cycle is regulated by
the hormone
1) Calcitonin 2) Prolactin 3) Adrenaline 4) Melatonin
76. Steroid hormones are similar in structure to
1) Tyrosine 2) Cholestrol 3) Co enzyme-A 4) Glycerol
77. Exopthlmic goiter is also called
1) Addison’s disease 2) Diabetes incipidus 3) Graves disease 4) Acromegaly
78. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of
1) Thyroxine 2) Calcitonin 3) Parathormone 4) Both (1) and
(2)
79. Which one of the following is proteinaceous in chemical nature
1) Thyroxine 2) FSH 3) Progesterone 4) Oxytocin
80. Pregangloinic sympathetic fibres are
1) Synergic 2) Adrenergic 3) Hypergonic 4) Cholinergic
PHYSICS 81. If a body is charged by rubbing, its weight
1) Remains preceisly constant
2) Increase slightly
3) Decrease slightly
4) May increase slightly or may decrease slightly
82. There are two charges 1mc+ and 5mc+ . The ratio of forces acting on them will be
1) 1:5 2) 1:1 3) 5:1 4) 1:25
83. The path of a charged particle projected into a uniform transverse electric field is
1) Circle 2) Hyperbola 3) Parabola 4) Ellipse
84. The force ‘f’ experienced by a charge q placed in a electric field of strength ‘E’ is
given by
1) E
fq
= 2) q
fE
= 3) f qE= 4) f E q= −
85. A force ‘F’ is acting between two charges in air. If the space between them will be
completely filled within the medium having a dielectric constant 4k = , the force will
be
1) F 2) 4F 3) 4
F 4) 2F
86. In the region of space, the electric field is given by 8 4 3E i j k= + + , the electric flux
through a surface are 100 unit in XY plane is
1) 300 units 2) 800 units 3) 400 units 4) 1200 units
87. A charge of 5c is placed at the centre of a spherical gaussian surface of radius 5cm.
The electric flux through the surface is 0
1
time of
1) 20.1 N-m / c 2)
20.5 N-m / c 3) 21 N-m / c 4)
25 N-m / c
88. An - particle and a - particle are projected into the same electric field. The ratio
of forces on them is
1) 2:1 2) 1:2 3) 2:3 4) 3:2
89. Two point charges 4c+ and 6c+ repel each other with a force ‘F’. If a charge 5c− is
given to each of these charges, the force becomes
1) Repulsive force of 24
F 2) Attractive force of
24
F
3) Repulsive force of 24F 4) Attractive force of 24F
90. A copper rod AB of length l is rotated about an end A with a constant angular
velocity . Find electric field at a distance x from the axis of rotation
1) 2m x
e
2)
m x
el
3)
2
mx
l 4)
2
me
x
91. A point source of light is located 20cm in front of a convex mirror with 15f cm= .
Determine the position and nature of the image point
1) 8.6 cmv = , the image is located behind the mirror
2) 7.6 cmv = , the image is located back the mirror
3) 5.4 cmv = , the image is located behind the mirror
4) 8.6 cmv = , the image is located back the mirror
92. When white light enters a prison, its gets splits into its constituent colours. This is due
to
1) High density of prison material
2) Because it is different for different wave length
3) Diffraction of light
4) Interference of light
93. The image of an object formed on the retina of the eye is
1) Virtual and inverted 2) Virtual and erect
3) Real and erect 4) Real and inverted
94. Two plane mirrors are at 045 to each other. If an object is placed between them, then
the number of images will be
1) 5 2) 9 3) 7 4) 8
95. The angle of incidence on the surface of a diamond of refractive index 2.4, if the angle
between the reflected and refracted rays is 090 is
1) ( )1tan 2.4− 2) 1 1sin
2.4
−
3) 1 1tan
2.4
−
4) 1 1cos
2.4
−
96. Two thin lenses of powers 2D and 3D are placed in contact. An object is placed at a
distance of 30cm from the combination. The distance in cm of the image from the
combination is
1) 30 2) 40 3) 50 4) 60
97. A prison has a retracting angle of 060 when placed in the position of minimum
deviation, it produces a deviation of 030 . The angle of incidence is
1) 030 2)
045 3) 015 4)
060
98. A thin prism 1p of angle 04 and refractive index 1.54 is combined with another thin
prism 2P of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle
of 2P is
1) 04 2) 05.33 3)
02.6 4) 03
99. The far point of a nyopic eye is 10cm from the eye. The focal length of a lens for
reading at normal distance (25cm) is
1) 8.35cm− 2) 16.7cm− 3) 35.4cm− 4) 32.7cm−
100. Which of the following quantities can be measured using only a travelling
microscope?
1) R.I of glass slab
2) R.I of a prism
3) Refracting angle of prism
4) Refractive index of small drop of water
101. When two light waves meet at a place
1) Their displacements add up 2) Their intensities add up
3) Both will add up 4) Energy becomes zero
102. Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfere
1) Momentum 2) Amplitude 3) Energy 4) Intensity
103. Waves that cannot be polarized are
1) Longitudinal 2) Transverse 3) Electromagnetic 4) Light
104. The displacement of two interfering light waves are 1 24 sin wt y 3 cos wty = = . The
amplitude of the resultant wave is
1) 5 cm 2)7 cm 3) 1 cm 4) zero
105. First diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at 030 = for a light of
wavelength 06000A . The width of slit is
1) 61 10 cm− 2)
61.2 10 m− 3) 62 10 cm− 4)
62.4 10 m−
106. The least resolvable angle by a telescope using objective of aperture 5m is nearly
( )04000A =
1) 0
1
50 2)
1
50 minute 3)
1
50 sec 4)
1
500 sec
107. A light ray is incident on a transparent medium of 1.732 = at the polarizing angle.
The angle of refraction is
1) 060 2)
030 3) 045 4)
090
108. Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves that interfere the ratio of
maximum to minimum intensity is 25. The intensity ratio of the sources is
1) 25:1 2) 5:1 3) 9:4 4) 625:1
109. Red shift is an illustration of
1) Low temperature emission 2) High frequency absorption
3) Doppler effect 4) Unknown phenomenon
110. Transverse wave nature is established by
1) Interference 2) Diffraction 3) Polarization 4) All the
above
111. The time period of an earth’s satellite in circular orbit is independent of
1) The mass of the satellite
2) Radius of its orbit
3) Both the mass and radius of the orbit
4) Neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit
112. If the area swept by the line joining the sun and the earth from Feb 1 to Feb 7 is A,
then the area swept by the radius vector from Feb ‘8’ to Feb 28 is
1) A 2) 2A 3) 3A 4) 4A
113. A person will get more quantity of matter in kg-wt at
1) Poles 2) A latitude of 060 3) Equator 4) Satellite
114. The ratio of the escape velocity and the orbital velocity is
1) 2 2) 1
2 3) 2 4)
1
2
115. An artificial satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving round the earth in a circle of radius R.
Then work done in one revolution is
1) mgR 2) 2
mgR 3) 2 R mg 4) zero
116. If ‘A’ is areal velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is
1) M
A 2) 2MA 3) 2A M 4) 2AM
117. If ‘g’ on the surface of the earth is 9.8 2/m s its value at a height of 6400 km is
( )6400R km=
1) 24.9 m/s 2)
29.8 m/s 3) 22.45 m/s 4)
219.6 m/s
118. Masses 2 kg and 8 kg are 18 cm apart. The print where the gravitational field due to
them is zero is
1) 6 cm from 8 kg mass 2) 6 cm from 2 kg mass
3) 1.8 cm from 8 kg mass 4) 9 cm from each mass
119. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth of radius R and density ' '
1) 2
23
GR
2)
22
3
G 3) 2
R
g 4)
2
2 G
R
120. A satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit with speed ‘V’. If ‘m’ is mass of
the satellite then its total energy is
1) 21
2mv 2)
2mv 3) 21
2mv− 4)
23
2mv
CHEMISTRY
121. For a first order reaction at 027 C the ratio of time required for 75% completion to 25%
completion of reaction is
1) 3.0 2) 2.303 3) 4.8 4) 0.477
122. The rate constants of a first order reaction is 10.0693min−. What is the time required in
minutes for reducing an initial concentration of 120 mol.lit− to
12.5 mol.lit−
1) 40 2) 30 3) 20 4) 10
123. Observe the following reaction ( ) ( ) ( )3 2g g g
A B C+ → the rate of this reaction d A
dt
−
is 3 1 13 10 . .minmol lit− − − . What is the value of
d B
dtin
1 1. .minmol lit− −
1) 33 10− 2)
39 10− 3) 310− 4)
31.5 10−
124. Observe the following reaction 2A B C+ → the formation of ‘C’ is
3 1 12.2 10 . .minmol lit− − − . What is the value of ( )d A
dt− ( )1 1in mol.lit .min− −
1) 32.2 10− 2)
31.1 10− 3) 34.4 10− 4)
35.5 10−
125. For a chemical reaction ____________ can never be a fractional number
1) Order 2) Half life 3) Molecularity 4) Rate
constant
126. The rate constant of first order reaction at 027 C is
3 110 min− − the temperature
coefficient of this reaction is 2. What is the rate constant ( )1in min− at 017 C for this
reaction
1) 310− 2)
45 10− 3) 32 10− 4)
210−
127. If wM is the weight. Average molecular weight and
nM is number average molecular
weight of a polymer the Poly Dispersity Index (PDI) of the polymer is given by
1) n
w
M
M 2) w
n
M
M 3)
w nM M 4) 1
w nM M
128. Natural rubber is a polymer of
1) 1,3-butadiene 2) 2-methyl 1,3-butadiene
3) 2,3-dimethyl 1,3-butadiene 4) 1-butene
129. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer
1) Polythene 2) Bakelite 3) PHBV 4) PVC
130. The raw material used in Nylon -6 is
1) Adipic acid 2) Pthalic acid 3) Ethylene glycol 4) Capro
lactum
131. What happens when Benzene diazoniumchloride is boiled with water?
1) Benzene 2) Aniline 3) Phenol 4)
Chlorobenzene
132. Nitro benzene undergoes reduction with Zn/Alcoholic KOH to form a compound ‘A’
the number of sigma and pi bonds in ‘A’ respectively are
1) 17, 6 2) 27,6 3) 27, 8 4) 17, 8
133. In the series of reactions 2 20 0
2
/
6 5 2 20 5
NaNO HCl HNO
Cu OCC H NH X Y N HCl
−⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ + + , X and Y are
respectively
1) 6 5 6 5 6 5 2,C H H N C H C H N Cl+ −− = − 2) 2OH COOH CH OH− − −
3) 6 5 2 6 5 2,C H N Cl C H NO+ − 4) 6 5 2 6 6,C H NO C H
134. Which of the following is used to convert Nitro benzene to Azobenzene
1) 4LiAlH 2) /Zn NaOH 3) 4/Zn NH Cl 4) SnlHCl
135. The extent of physisorption of an Adsorbate increases with
1) Increase in temperature 2) Decrease in surface area of the
adsorbate
3) Decrease in pressure of adsorbate 4) Decrease in temperature
136. Which one of the following is an example of Auto catalysis
1) 3 22 2 3ASH AS H→ + 2) ( )
2 2 33 2Fe sN H NH+ ⎯⎯⎯→
3) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 32 2g g g
SO O SO+ → 4) AgCN
137. Which of the following is not correct
1) Milk is naturally occurring emulsion
2) Gold is Lyophilic solution
3) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in temperature
4) Chemical adsorption is not uni layered
138. Which of the following is correct
1) Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change
2) Particle size of solute in true solution is 310 m−
3) Starch solution is Hydrosol
4) Hydrolysis of liquid ester in the presence of mineral acid is an example of hetegeneous
catalysis reactions
139. Which one of the following equation represents Freundlich adsorption isotherm
1) x
kpm= 2)
nxkp
m= 3) log nx
kpm= 4)
log logx
kn pm=
140. Which one of the following salts forms a micelle
1) Sodium Formate 2) Sodium acetate 3) Sodium stearate 4)Sodium
chloride
141. Which one of the following statement is true for the optical rotation exhibited by
(2R,3R) and (2S,3S) dibromo butene
1) The direction and magnitude are same
2) The direction is opposite but magnitude is different
3) The direction is same but magnitude different
4) Both the direction magnitude are different
142. Which of the following do not obey Huckelis rule for aromaticity
1) All the above 2) I, II 3) III, IV 4) I, IV
143. Which of the following compound(s) has Z-configuration
1) I only 2) II only 3) III only 4) I and III only
144. According to Cohn-Ingold-Prelog sequence rules the correct order of priority for the
given groups.
1) 2COOH CH OH OH CHO− − − − 2)
2COOH CHO CH OH OH− − − −
3) 2OH CH OH CHO COOH− − − − 4) 2OH COOH CH OH− − −
145. Identify ‘B’ in the following reaction
1) 4CH 2) 2 6C H 3) 2 5C H Cl 4) 2 5C H OH
146. The compound formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of
potassium acetate are
1) 2 6 2 and COC H 2) 2 4 2 and COC H 3) 4 2 and HCH 4)
4 2 and COCH
147. The chemicals and the reaction conditions required for the preparation of Ethane
1) 2 5 2 5, /C H I Zn Cu C H OH− 2) 3 2, ,CH Cl Na H O
3) , electrolysisKOOC CH CH COOK− = − 4) 3 2 , , ,CH CO Na NaOH CaO
148. Wet Ether is not used as a solvent in wurtz reaction, because the water present in it
1) Hydrolyses Rx to RH 2) Reduces Rx to RH
3) Destroy the Na metal 4) Reacts with R-R
149. Which one of the following gas is liberated when Ethyl Alcohol is heated with Methyl
magnesium iodide
1) Methane 2) Ethane 3) Propane 4) 2CO
150. Wurtz reaction of methyl iodide yields an organic compound ‘X’ which one of the
following reactions also yields ?
1) dry ether
2 5C H Cl mg+ ⎯⎯⎯→ 2) 2 5 4C H Cl LiAlH+ ⎯⎯→
3) 2 5 2 5C H Cl C H ONa+ ⎯⎯→ 4) Aq powder
3CHCl
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
151. In the following reaction ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are /
2 6 2 5
A Zn HClC H C H Cl B⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→
1) 2 2 6/ light and CCl UV H 2) 3 2 4 and CPCl H
3) 2 6 and CHCl H 4) 2 2 2 and CCl H
152. In the following reaction X and Y are 2 6 22 7 combustionC H O x y heat+ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ + +
1) 2 5 22 ,6C H OH O 2) 24 ,5HCHO H O
3) 2 24 ,10CO H O 4) 2 24 ,6CO H O
153. What is the minimum quantity of methyl iodide required for preparing one mole of
Ethane by wurtz reaction (At wt of iodine = 127)
1) 142 grams 2) 568 grams 3) 326 grams 4) 289 grams
154. Cyanides and Isocyanides are isomers of the type
1) Position isomers 2) Tautomers 3) Functional group 4) None of
these
155. Dipole moments of Alkyl cyanides and alkyl isocyanides are related as
1) RCN RNC = 2) RCN RNC 3) RCN RNC 4)
Unpredictable
156. Halo Alkanes react with KCN to form Alkyl cyanides as main product. When it reacts
with AgCN the main product is
1) Alkyl Isocyanides 2) Alkyl cyanide 3) Alkane 4) Alkyl halide
157. Phenyl Isocyanides are prepared from which of the following reaction
1) Rosenmundis reaction 2) Carbyl amine reaction
3) Reimer – Tiemann reaction 4) Wurtz reaction
158. ( )2 2
xR CO NH R C N H O− − ⎯⎯→ − + . What is ‘x’ in the above reaction
1) ( )2 5 2PO or SOCl 2) 2 /NaNO HCl 3) Alcoholic KOH 4) Aq KOH
159. IUPAC name of 3CH NC
1) Methyl isocyanide 2) Methyl cyanide 3) Methyl carbyl amine 4) None of the
above
160. ( )
1
|
2/ mgBr
R
H H OEtherR C N R mgx R C N A+
− + − ⎯⎯⎯→ − = ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
. What is ‘A’ in the above
reaction
1) Alkyl halide 2) Aryl halide 3) Aldehyde 4) Ketone