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Test Name : Test 35 REVISION TEST 3 Total Questions : 100Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins

Instruction :Please read the instructions carefully

The total duration of examination is 120 minutes.1.Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer.2.The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will3.display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timerreaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit yourexamination.The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or4.English)A test can be given only once5.In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider6.the best.All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question7.You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not8.possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam.Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours9.and you will get your score based on the responses marked till thenThere are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks10.assigned to that question will be deducted as penaltyThe Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each11.question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

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Q.1 India’s Sulphur dioxide (SO2) emission is among the highest in world, this has been releasedby a recent study. With reference to nitiatives taken by government to reduce the emission ofSulphur dioxide consider the below given statements1. Sulphur dioxide is included in hazardous gas list2. Air Quality Index now measures SO23. An increase of Rs 400 per tonnes as a cess is imposed by GoI4. Implementation of Bharat Stage NormsChoose the correct optionA. 2 and 3B. 1 and 3C. 2, 3 and 4D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

SO2 is not listed under hazardous gas list. It is widely used in industrial productions. Over thelast 10 years, India's SO2 emissions have spiked by 50% and it could become the world'slargest emitter of the toxic air pollutant.

• Government Action on SO2

• It’s one of the pollutants being measured under Air Quality Index.

• Increasing cess on coal production to Rs 400 per tonnes.

• Implementation of Bharat Stage Norms

• Emission norms for Thermal power plant (2015): It directs them to reduce emission ofPM 10, SO2 and oxide of nitrogen.

Q.2 Objectives of Negative Emission Technologies is the large-scale removal of carbon dioxide fromthe atmosphere. With reference to Negative Emission Technologies consider the below giventechnologies that fall in this category1. Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS)2. Biochar3. Carbon capture and storage4. Ocean fertilizationChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. All the above


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Answer : D,

Solution :

Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) also known as negative emission technologies refer to anumber of technologies, the objective of which is the large-scale removal of carbon dioxidefrom the atmosphere. Among such technologies are bio-energy with carbon capture andstorage, biochar, ocean fertilization, enhanced weathering, and direct air capture whencombined with storage. CDR is a different approach than removing CO2 from the stackemissions of large fossil fuel point sources, such as power stations. The latter reduces emissionto the atmosphere but cannot reduce the amount of carbon dioxide already in the atmosphere.

Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage

Like most charcoal, biochar is made from biomass via pyrolysis. Biochar is under carboncapture and storage (BECCS) is a future greenhouse gas mitigation technology whichproduces negative carbon dioxide emissions by combining bioenergy (energy from biomass)use with geologic carbon capture and storage.

Biochar is charcoal used as a soil amendment. Biochar is a stable Ansid, rich in carbon, andcan endure in soil for thousands of yearsinvestigation as an approach to carbon sequestration.

Carbon capture and storage (CCS) (or carbon capture and sequestration or carbon control andsequestration) is the process of capturing waste carbon dioxide (CO2) from large pointsources, such as fossil fuel power plants, transporting it to a storage site, and depositing itwhere it will not enter the atmosphere, normally an underground geological formation. Oceanfertilization or ocean nourishment is a type of climate engineering based on the purposefulintroduction of nutrients to the upper ocean to increase marine food production and to removecarbon dioxide from the atmosphere. A number of techniques, including fertilization by iron,urea and phosphorus have been proposed.

Q.3 With reference to Pet Coke or Petroleum coke consider the below given statements1. Pet coke is a Ansid carbon rich material derived from oil refining.2. It is cleaner alternative to coal and emits 11% less greenhouse gas.3. India is the world’s largest producer of pet coke.4. It has the least sulfur content among fossil fuels.Choose the incorrect statement using the below given codesA. 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. None

Answer : C,

Solution :


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Petroleum coke or pet coke is a Ansid carbon rich (90% carbon and 3% to 6% sulfur) materialderived from oil refining. It is categorized as a “bottom of the barrel” fuel. It is a dirtieralternative to coal and emits 11% more greenhouse gases than coal. India is the world’sbiggest consumer of petroleum coke. It is an approved fuel in many states such as AndhraPradesh, Telangana, Gujarat and Karnataka.

Q.4 With reference to permaculture consider the below given statementsA. Permaculture is a system of agriculture and aquaculture within the ecological carrying

capacity of the region.B. Permaculture is a system of agricultural and social design principles centered on

simulating or directly utilizing the patterns and features observed in natural ecosystems.C. Permaculture is a system of agriculture and agro based industry developing side by side.D. None.

Answer : B,

Solution :

It is the conscious design and maintenance of agriculturally productive ecosystems which havethe diversity, stability, and resilience of natural ecosystems. It is the harmonious integration oflandscape and people —providing their food, energy, shelter, and other material and non-material needs in a sustainable way. The term was coined by Bill Mollison in 1978.

Q.5 Consider the below given statements1. Suspension of fine Ansid particles or liquid droplets, in air or another gas is known asaeroAns2. Fog, dust, forest exudates and geyser steam are examples of anthropogenic aeroAnss3. Haze, particulate air pollutants and smoke are examples of natural aeroAnss4. AeroAns contributes to global warming.Choose the correct optionA. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 4 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

An aeroAns is a suspension of fine Ansid particles or liquid droplets, in air or another gas.AeroAnss can be natural or anthropogenic. Examples of natural aeroAnss are fog, dust, forestexudates and geyser steam. Examples of anthropogenic aeroAnss are haze, particulate airpollutants and smoke.


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· Impact cloud formations because water condenses on aeroAns particles.

· Offset warming from greenhouse gases because it sends some of the sun's radiantenergy back to space and exerting a cooling influence on Earth's climate.

· Climatologist from Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology contended that aeroAnss(particulate matter) are the major cause of weakening of the monsoon.

Q.6 Match the following:1. Vaigai (i) Nasik Hills2. Tapti (ii) Beetul3. Godavari (iii) Cardamam Hills4. Thamiraparani (iv)Agasthiyar HillsA. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)B. 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)C. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)D. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

Answer : B,

Solution :

None

Q.7 Match the following:1. Loktak Lake (i) Assam2. Chilika Lake (ii) Haryana3. Sannihit Sarovar (iii) Manipur4. Chandubi Lake (iv)OdishaA. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)B. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i)C. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)D. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.8 Which of the following devices is used to measure pressure?A. HydrometerB. Manometer


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C. AnemometerD. Hygrometer

Answer : B,

Solution :

None

Q.9 What is ‘rectified spirit’?A. Highly concentrated EthanolB. Iodide compound disAnsved in ethanol and waterC. Calium Hydroxide and Calcium oxideD. Calcium sulfate hemihydrate

Answer : A,

Solution :

Rectified spirit, also known as neutral spirits, rectified alcohol, or ethyl alcohol of agriculturalorigin is highly concentrated ethanol which has been purified by means of repeateddistillation, a process that is called rectification. In some countries (e.g. India), denaturedalcohol or denatured rectified spirit may commonly be available as "rectified spirit", but it ispoisonous and ingestion can be fatal.

Q.10 What is Wind Pollination also known as?A. AnemophilyB. OrnithophilyC. EntomophilyD. Chiropterophily

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.11 Which is the third highest civilian award in India?A. Padma VibhushanB. Padma BhushanC. Bharatiya Jananpith AwardD. Padma Shri


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Answer : B,

Solution :

Padma Shri (also Padma Shree) is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India,after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan and the Padma Bhushan. Awarded by theGovernment of India, it is announced every year on India's Republic Day.

[source: Wikipedia]

Q.12 Who wrote the book ‘Hard Choices’?A. Hillary ClintonB. Javier MoroC. Malala YousafzaiD. Marlon James

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.13 On which Committee’s recommendation was NABARD established?A. Wanchoo CommitteeB. Ashok Mehta CommitteeC. Sachar CommitteeD. B.Sivaraman Committee

Answer : D,

Solution :

NABARD was established on the recommendations of B.Sivaraman Committee, (by Act 61,1981 of Parliament) on 12 July 1982 to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and RuralDevelopment Act 1981. It replaced the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and RuralPlanning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of Reserve Bank of India, and Agricultural Refinance andDevelopment Corporation (ARDC). It is one of the premier agencies providing developmentalcredit in rural areas. NABARD is India's specialised bank for Agriculture and RuralDevelopment in India.

[Source: Wikipedia]

Q.14 Which is India’s oldest Paramilitary Force?


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A. Assam RiflesB. Central Reserve Police ForceC. Sashastra Seema BalD. Border Security Force

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Assam Rifles is the oldest paramilitary force of India. The unit can trace its lineage back toa paramilitary police force that was formed under the British in 1835 called Cachar Levy.Since then the Assam Rifles have undergone a number of name changes—the Assam FrontierPolice (1883), the Assam Military Police (1891) and Eastern Bengal and Assam Military Police(1913), before finally becoming the Assam Rifles in 1917

Q.15 The CIRUS research reactor was supplied to India by which country?A. RussiaB. FranceC. CanadaD. Iraq

Answer : C,

Solution :

CIRUS (Canadian-Indian Reactor Uranium System) was a research reactor at the BhabhaAtomic Research Center (BARC) in Trombay near Mumbai, India. CIRUS was supplied byCanada in 1954, but used heavy water (deuterium oxide) supplied by the United States. It wasthe second nuclear reactor to be built in India.

Q.16 Who was the first Muslim president of the Indian National Congress?A. Badruddin TayyabjiB. Rahimtullah M SayaniC. Nawab Syed Muhammad BahadurD. Syed Hasan Imam

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.17 Which of the following id the most application of Sodium Benzoate?


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A. Washing DetergentB. PerfumeC. Food PreservativeD. Battery Constituent

Answer : C,

Solution :

Sodium benzoate is a substance which has the chemical formula NaC7H5O2. It is a widelyused food preservative, with an E number of E211. It is the sodium salt of benzoic acid andexists in this form when disAnsved in water. It can be produced by reacting sodium hydroxidewith benzoic acid.

Q.18 Where was the third Tamil Sangam held?A. TanjoreB. MaduraiC. TirunelveliD. Namakkal

Answer : B,

Solution :

None

Q.19 Which of the following causes Fasciolosis?A. Tape wormB. Fluke wormC. Round wormD. Lice

Answer : B,

Solution :

Fasciolosis is a parasitic worm infection caused by the common liver fluke Fasciola hepatica aswell as by Fasciola gigantica. The disease is a plant-borne trematode zoonosis, and is classifiedas a neglected tropical disease (NTD). It affects humans, but its main host is ruminants such ascattle and sheep.

[source: Wikipedia]


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Q.20 Consider the following statements:1. Nilgiri is India’s first biosphere reserve.2. The Gulf of Mannar houses Dugong.Which of the following is TRUE?A. 1 OnlyB. 2 OnlyC. Both 1 and 2D. None

Answer : C,

Solution :

None

Q.21 Consider the following statements:1. The High court, apart from the Supreme Court, also has the power to protectfundamental rights.2. Both courts have the power to issue the five-different writs.3. The writs are Certiorari, Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition and Quo Warranto.Identify the TRUE statements:A. Only 2 and 3B. Only 1 and 3C. All 3D. Only 1 and 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

None

Q.22 Consider the following statements:1. March 21(around) is called the Vernal Equinox and September 23(around) is called theautumnal equinox.2. The Torrid Zone is the region receiving least heat.Identify the TRUE statements:A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. BothD. None

Answer : A,


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Solution :

The Torrid Zone is the region that receives maximum heat. It is bounded by Tropic of Cancerand Tropic of Capricon.

Q.23 Where is the Bass Strait located?A. EnglandB. MozambiqueC. AustraliaD. Sri Lanka

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.24 What is ‘syzygy’?A. The near straight line configuration of the Earth, Moon and Sun.B. The uneven surface after the impact of an earthquakeC. The name of a combination of VaccinationsD. The residual waste of a nuclear power plant

Answer : A,

Solution :

The word is often used in reference to the Sun, Earth, and either the Moon or a planet, wherethe latter is in conjunction or opposition. Ansar and lunar eclipses occur at times of syzygy, asdo transits and occultations. The term is often applied when the Sun and Moon are inconjunction (new moon) or opposition (full moon).

Q.25 The Golgi Network is a collection of disk like structures calledA. DictyosomesB. RibosomesC. LysosomesD. Phagosomes

Answer : A,

Solution :

In most eukaryotes, the Golgi apparatus is made up of a series of compartments consisting of


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two main networks: the cis Golgi network (CGN) and the trans Golgi network (TGN). The CGNis a collection of fused, flattened membrane-enclosed disks known as cisternae (singular:cisterna, also called "dictyosomes")

Q.26 What is the Knee Cap also called asA. SternumB. ScapulaC. PatellaD. Femur

Answer : C,

Solution :

The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a thick, circular-triangular bone which articulateswith the femur (thigh bone) and covers and protects the anterior articular surface of the kneejoint.

Q.27 A single-seed simple fruit where the pericarp and the seed coat are fused into one layer iscalledA. CaryopsisB. DrupeC. CapsuleD. Berry

Answer : A,

Solution :

The grains of grasses are single-seed simple fruits wherein the pericarp (ovary wall) and seedcoat are fused into one layer. This type of fruit is called a caryopsis. Examples include cerealgrains, such as wheat, barley, and rice.

The dead pericarp of dry fruits represents an elaborated layer that is capable of storing activeproteins and other substances for increasing survival rate of germinating seeds.

Q.28 Which amongst the following is the weakest force?A. Hydrogen BondB. IonicC. CovalentD. Van Der Waals FOrce

Answer : D,


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Solution :

In molecular physics, the van der Waals forces, named after Dutch scientist Johannes Diderikvan der Waals, are distance-dependent interactions between atoms or molecules. Unlike ionicor covalent bonds, these attractions are not a result of any chemical electronic bond, and theyare comparatively weak and more susceptible to being perturbed. Van der Waals forcesquickly vanish at longer distances between interacting molecules.

Q.29 Consider the following statements:1. RNA is synthesised by a process known as Transcription.2. The tRNA is also called the Ansuble RNA.3. Unlike DNA, RNA is a single stranded molecule.Which of the following is True?A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

None

Q.30 Diphtheria is aA. Bacterial infectionB. Viral infectionC. DeficiencyD. Vaccine

Answer : A,

Solution :

Diphtheria is an infection caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Q.31 Which of the following Protein is involved in Muscle Movement and Contraction ?A. InsulinB. MyosinC. CollagenD. Keratin

Answer : B,


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Solution :

Myosin is a common protein found in the muscles which are responsible for making the musclecontract and relax. It is a large, asymmetric molecule, and has one long tail as well as twoglobular heads.

Q.32 What is Bagasse?A. The staple food in SE Asian countriesB. A sharp edged igneous rock formation.C. The fibrous remains after sugarcane is crushedD. A mechanism used to collect and store rainwater

Answer : C,

Solution :

Bagasse is the fibrous matter that remains after sugarcane or sorghum stalks are crushed toextract their juice. It is dry pulpy residue left after the extraction of juice from sugar cane.Bagasse is used as a biofuel and in the manufacture of pulp and building materials.

Q.33 Which of the following animals are allowed to be hunted as per Schedule V of the WildlifeProtection Act?A. Fruit BatsB. Common CrowC. Monal PheasantD. Rats

Answer : C,

Solution :

Under the Wildlife Protection Act-1972, only three animals -- common crow, fruit bats, miceand rats -- are specified as vermin.

Q.34 Consider the following statements:1. Protons are stable hadrons2. Pions are examples of Mesons.Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT:A. Only 1B. Only 2C. BothD. None


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Answer : C,

Solution :

In particle physics, a hadron is a composite particle made of quarks held together by thestrong force in a similar way as molecules are held together by the electromagnetic force.

Hadrons are categorized into two families: baryons, made of three quarks, and mesons, madeof one quark and one antiquark. Protons and neutrons are examples of baryons; pions are anexample of a meson.

Q.35 The alloy ‘Nickel SIlver’ comprises of:A. Silver, Nickel and CopperB. Copper, Nickel and zincC. Copper, Silver, AluminiumD. Silver, Nickel and Manganese

Answer : B,

Solution :

Nickel silver,is a copper alloy with nickel and often zinc. The usual formulation is 60% copper,20% nickel and 20% zinc.

Nickel silver is named for its silvery appearance, but it contains no elemental silver unlessplated.

The name "German silver" refers to its development by 19th-century German metalworkersfrom the Chinese alloy known as paktong (cupronickel).

Q.36 With reference to Methanol consider the below given statements and choose an incorrectstatement about it.A. Methanol can be produced from natural gasB. It is a biodegradable fuelC. Methanol is not Ansuble in waterD. It can be blended with gaAnsine and ethanol

Answer : C,

Solution :

Methanol, like ethanol but unlike hydrocarbon fuels, is water Ansuble. As a consequence, it istransported through diffusion and convection through the environment at much faster ratethan hydrocarbons. In addition to fast migration, methanol bio-degrades much faster than


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hydrocarbons. Fast transport and degradation result in short lifetimes. Hydrocarbons, on theother hand, comprise many stable compounds, which include some, such as aromatics, that arehighly toxic to bio-organisms and degrade slowly. It is a liquid fuel which can be blended withgaAnsine and ethanol and can be used with today’s vehicle technology at minimal incrementalcosts. It is a safe fuel. The toxicity (mortality) is comparable to or better than gaAnsine. It alsobiodegrades quickly (compared to petroleum fuels) in case of a spill.

Q.37 With reference to Energy Conservation and Building Code (ECBC), 2017 consider the belowgiven statements1. It prescribes the energy performance standards for all new and old commercial buildingsof India.2. To be considered ECBC-compliant building needs to demonstrate minimum energysavings of 25%.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

Power, Coal, New and Renewable Energy and Mines launched the Energy ConservationBuilding Code 2017 (ECBC 2017).

Developed by Ministry of Power and Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), ECBC 2017 prescribesthe energy performance standards for new commercial buildings to be constructed acrossIndia. The updated version of ECBC provides current as well as futuristic advancements inbuilding technology to further reduce building energy consumption and promote low-carbongrowth. ECBC 2017 sets parameters for builders, designers and architects to integraterenewable energy sources in building design with the inclusion of passive design strategies.The code aims to optimise energy savings with the comfort levels for occupants, and preferslife-cycle cost effectiveness to achieve energy neutrality in commercial buildings. In order for abuilding to be considered ECBC-compliant, it would need to demonstrate minimum energysavings of 25%. Additional improvements in energy efficiency performance would enable thenew buildings to achieve higher grades like ECBC Plus or Super ECBC status leading tofurther energy savings of 35% and 50%, respectively. With the adoption of ECBC 2017 for newcommercial building construction throughout the country, it is estimated to achieve a 50%reduction in energy use by 2030. This will translate to energy savings of about 300 BillionUnits by 2030 and peak demand reduction of over 15 GW in a year. This will be equivalent toexpenditure savings of Rs 35,000 crore and 250 million tonnes of CO2 reduction.


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Q.38 Which of the below given item is known as Terror of Bengal?A. Norway MapleB. Water HyacinthC. Common IvyD. Honeysuckle

Answer : B,

Solution :

The beautiful mauve-colored flowers found on very appealingly-shaped floating plants in waterbodies. These plants which were introduced into India for their lovely flowers have causedhavoc by their excessive growth by causing blocks in our waterways. They grow faster thanour ability to remove them. These are plants of water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes), theworld’s most problematic aquatic weed, also called Terror of Bengal.They grow abundantly ineutrophic water bodies, and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the waterbody. Fish is a supplement food in Bengal, and because of the fish scarcity in Bengal caused byEichhornia, the water hyacinth is also called "Terror of Bengal".

Q.39 With reference to ‘Kubuqi Model’ consider the below given statements. Note:The ‘Kubuqi Model’has been praised by the UN Environment Programme for desertification control and being an“eco-pioneer” in greening the world.1. With the help of local people it is developed by a private firm2. To promote livelihood and small industries in the region it is implemented in Egypt3. The UNEP calls it Kubuqi Ecological restoration project.Choose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

Life has a chance these days in Inner Mongolia’s Kubuqi Desert, around 18,600 sq km ofgolden sand dunes that plunge south in an arc from China’s Yellow River. Centuries of grazinghad denuded the land of all vegetation, and the region’s 740,000 people were wallowing iniAnsated poverty. In 1988, the Chinese firm Elion Resources Group partnered with localpeople and the Beijing government to combat desertification. Almost three decades later, onethird of Kubuqi has been greened. Special plants have been grown to grip the shifting sandsand to prevent the dunes encroaching on farms and villages. The Kubuqi project illustrateshow private firms can tackle environmental degradation, boost livelihoods and safeguardingthe planet — all while chasing profits for themselves. The scheme won Elion the 2013 Global


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Dryland Champion Award — a prize given out by the U.N. Convention to CombatDesertification — in recognition of the “tremendous impact” on local people’s lives.

Q.40 With reference to 'Ganga Gram' project consider the below given statements1. One of the main aim of the project is holistic sanitation development in villages on banksof river Ganga2. It was launched under Namami Ganga Programme3. It works under the aegis of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate ChangeChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. 1 and 2C. 2 and 3D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MDWS) launched ‘Ganga Gram’ – a project forsanitation based integrated development of all 4470 villages along the River Ganga. GangaGram vision is an integrated approach for holistic development of villages situated on thebanks of River Ganga with active participation of the villagers. After achieving ODF target inGanga Villages, implementation of Ansid and liquid waste management and other integratedactivities are remaining tasks. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation is the nodal agencyfor implementation of the Ganga Gram Project.

Q.41 With reference to Rhizofiltration consider the below given statements1. It is a method of using hydroponically cultivated plant roots to remediate contaminatedwater.2. It is used for treatment in soil remediationChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

This process is very similar to phytoextraction in that it removes contaminants by trappingthem into harvestable plant biomass. The major difference between rhizofiltration andphytoextraction is that rhizofiltration is used for treatment in aquatic environments, while


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phytoextraction deals with soil remediation. Rhizofiltration is a treatment method that may beconducted in situ, with plants being grown directly in the contaminated water body.

Q.42 With reference to Ozone hole consider the below given statements1. It is a region in the stratosphere where no ozone gas is present.2. It is caused by CFCs and bromine only3. Substances that deplete ozone layer are covered by Montreal ProtocolChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 3B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 2D. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

The ozone hole is not technically a hole where no ozone gas is present, but is actually a regionof exceptionally depleted ozone in the stratosphere over the Antarctica. That happens at thebeginning of southern hemisphere spring. Ozone hole can be formed anywhere in thestratosphere due to depletion of ozone molecules but as of today it is found only in the regionabove Antarctic continent which has favourable weather conditions like polar stratosphericclouds which aid the process of ozone hole formation. In this particular region the ozone hasdepleted by 65% that is the reason it is called as ozone hole where as in other region it is 20%.It is caused by CFCs, halons, carbon tetrachloride and methyl chloroform. Montreal protocolon substances that deplete the ozone layer is the most successful international treaty till datewhich prohibits the production and consumption of compounds that deplete the ozone layer.

Q.43 With reference to Ocean Acidification consider the below given statements1. The ongoing increase in the pH of the Earth's oceans, caused by the uptake of carbondioxide from the atmosphere is called ocean acidification2. Ocean acidification leads to seawater pH go below 73. Ocean Acidification decreases the concentration of carbonate ions and increases theconcentration of hydrogen ions.Identify incorrect statements by choosing the below given codesA. 1 and 2B. Only 2C. 1 and 3D. Only 3

Answer : A,

Solution :


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Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the Earth's oceans, caused by theuptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. It increases the concentration ofhydrogen ions and decreases the concentration of carbonate ions. Seawater is slightly basic,and the process in question is a shift towards pH-neutral conditions rather than a transition toacidic conditions (pH < 7). If pH will get to 7 the entire marine life will extinguish.

Q.44 With reference to a by-product of the thermal power plants Fly ash consider the below givenstatements1. Heavy metals and organic compounds are present in Fly ash2. It can be used to produce high quality walling material and construct eco-friendly andcost-effective houses.3. It can transform barren wasteland into lush green forests as it can improve survival,growth and quality of plantation. Choose the correct optionA. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

Chhonkar, ICAR emeritus scientist, IARI, New Delhi, has said that the use of fly ash inagriculture would play a major role in the second green revolution. Findings of years-longexperiments by scientists and forest administrators showed fly ash improved survival, growthand quality of plantation taken up in wasteland. They suggested fly ash should be used forforestry and development of degraded or wasteland — a Ansution to ever-increasing fly ashburden. Fly ash is a resourceful material and can be effectively utilized as soil modifier in largequantity and micro fertilizer in converting wasteland (barren land, rocky nature, sandy andwater logged soil, highly alkali and acidic soil etc.) into agriculturally productive land. Bestthing about fly ash is, that it retains water in ground and helps bacterial actions to take placeto cultivate good quality of crops or vegetables. Blending fly ash with concrete can produce amore durable structure, resistant to corrosion as well as water. Fly ash often containspollutants such as heavy metals and organic compounds. Its inhalation has been linked tosilicosis and results in TB, asthama and weakening of the lungs.

Q.45 With reference to Bomb cyclone or bombogenesis consider the below given statementsA. Predominantly found in continental settings, It is a rapidly deepening tropical cyclonic low-

pressure area.B. When the pressure drops rapidly — at least 24 millibars in 24 hours a storm is considered a

‘bomb’.C. It is a storm caused by a collision of warm air and cold air which develop into rotating


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storm-like pattern and lead to an explosive deepening of pressure.D. None of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

Explosive cyclogenesis or bomb cyclone or bombogenesis refers in a strict sense to a rapidlydeepening extra-tropical cyclonic low-pressure area. To enter this category, the centralpressure of a depression at 60° latitude is required to decrease by 24 mbar (hPa) or more in 24hours. What makes a storm a “bomb” is how fast the atmospheric pressure falls; fallingatmospheric pressure is a characteristic of all storms. By definition, the barometric pressuremust drop by at least 24 millibars in 24 hours for a storm to be called a bomb cyclone; theformation of such a storm is called bombogenesis. This is a predominantly maritime, winterevent, but also occurs in continental settings. In other words, bomb cyclones are mostly foundover open oceans and are rarely seen over land. Hence, statement (1) is wrong and alsobecause it is wrongly mentioned as tropical cyclonic low-pressure area.

Q.46 With reference to World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) consider the below givenstatements1. It is annual flagship event of UN.2. The Energy and Resources Institute organized the 2018 WSDS Summit.3. ‘Partnerships for a Resilient Planet’ is 2018 theme of WSDSChoose the correct optionA. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : C,

Solution :

The 2018 edition of World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS 2018) was held atVigyanBhawan in New Delhi. It was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. WSDS isflagship forum of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). It seeks to bring together globalleaders and thinkers in the fields of sustainable development, energy and environment sectorson common platform. The WSDS series seeks to bring together the finest minds and leadingthinkers of the world to focus attention on the challenge of sustainable development and hasemerged as a landmark event addressing issues pertinent to the future of humanity. Anexhibition, named as ‘Greenovation Exhibition’ will be exhibiting the latest technologicaladvancements to meet Sustainable Development Goals. The theme of the 2018 Summit is‘Partnerships for a Resilient Planet’.


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Q.47 With reference to Talanoa Diaologue consider the below given statements1. Under this international conversation countries will check progress and strive to meet thegoals of the Paris Climate Change Agreement.2. It was launched during COP23 that was held in Bonn city.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

With the official launch of the 2018 Talanoa Dialogue in January, countries are now embarkingon the first global assessment of collective efforts to achieve the Paris goals. It is an importantinternational conversation in which countries will check progress and seek to increase globalambition to meet the goals of the Paris Climate Change Agreement. The Dialogue waslaunched at the UN Climate Change Conference COP23 in Bonn in November 2017 and willrun throughout 2018. The Paris Agreement’s central goal is keep the global averagetemperature rise to below 2C degrees and as close as possible to 1.5C.

Q.48 Observe the below given statements and choose the correct one.A. Decreasing levels of ozone in the stratosphere can lead to increase in the occurrence of

skin cancer in humans.B. Decreasing levels of ozone in the stratosphere will lead to reduction in rate of global

warming.C. Decreasing levels of ozone in the stratosphere will lead to reduction in the levels of smog

in major cities.D. Decreasing levels of ozone in the stratosphere will lead to increase in photosynthetic

activity of phytoplankton.

Answer : A,

Solution :

Ground-level ozone is involved with smog formation, not ozone in the stratosphere. Whiletropospheric ozone is considered a greenhouse gas, stratospheric ozone is not thought to havea significant effect on global warming. Decreasing levels of stratospheric ozone result inincreased levels of ultraviolet radiation reaching the ocean, which may inhibit phytoplanktonphotosynthetic activity in surface waters. The increased levels of ultraviolet radiation can alsonegatively affect human health.


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Q.49 With reference to Global Environment Facility, identify the items to which it provides grants.1. Climate change2. Ozone layer3. International waters4. Land degradation5. Persistent Organic PollutantsChoose the correct option using below given codesA. 1, 3, 4 and 5 onlyB. 1, 4 and 5 onlyC. 1, 2, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer : D,

Solution :

GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters,land degradation, the ozone layer, and persistent organic pollutants. The Global EnvironmentFacility (GEF) unites 183 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil societyorganizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues whilesupporting national sustainable development initiatives. Today the GEF is the largest publicfunder of projects to improve the global environment.

The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions:

· Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

· United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

· UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

· Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

· Minamata Convention on Mercury

Q.50 With reference to thermal pollution consider the below given statements1. Thermal pollution is caused by volcanic eruption2. DisAnsved oxygen content in water increases due to thermal pollution3. Thermal pollution comes in the form of dumping warm waters not cold waters into lake,river, or ocean.Choose the correct optionA. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. None


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Answer : B,

Solution :

Any practice that affects the equilibrium of an aquatic environment may alter the temperatureof that environment and subsequently cause thermal pollution. It may come in the form ofwarm or cold water being dumped into a lake, river, or ocean.In layman’s terms, thermalpollution is when an industry or other human-made organization takes in water from a naturalsource and either cools it down or heats it up. They then eject that water back into the naturalresource, which changes the oxygen levels and can have disastrous effects on local ecosystemsand communities. Thermal pollution is defined as sudden increase or decrease in temperatureof a natural body of water which may be ocean, lake, river or pond by human influence. Thisnormally occurs when a plant or facility takes in water from a natural resource and puts itback with an altered temperature. Usually, these facilities use it as a cooling method for theirmachinery or to help better produce their products.

Source of thermal pollution

ü Volcanic eruption or geothermal activities below the ocean.

ü Heated waste water produces from coal-based power plant

ü Textile paper and pulp industry.

ü Deforestation and decreasing tree coverage and Soil erosion.

Q.51 With reference to Government of India 1935 act consider the below given statements1. Diarchy was abolished at the central level and adopted it in provinces.2. It abolished council of India, which was established in GOI act 1858 to assist secretary ofstate3. The establishment of federal court done by this act.Which of the above statements are correct?Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Both 2 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

Government of India Act of 1935

The Act marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible government in India. It


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was a lengthy and detailed document having 321 Sections and 10 Schedules.

Features of the Act

1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provincesand princely states as units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and unitsin terms of three lists—Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (forprovinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuarypowers were given to the Viceroy. However, the federation never came into being asthe princely states did not join it.

2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in itsplace. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in theirdefined spheres. Moreover, the Act introduced responsible governments in provinces,that is, the governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to theprovincial legislature. This came into effect in 1937 and was discontinued in 1939.

3. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. Consequently, the federalsubjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. However, thisprovision of the Act did not come into operation at all.

4. It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the legislatures ofBengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameralconsisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lowerhouse). However, many restrictions were placed on them.

5. It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separateelectorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).

6. It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858.The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors.

7. It extended franchise. About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right.

8. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currencyand credit of the country.

9. It provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service Commission butalso a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission fortwo or more provinces.

10. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937.

Q.52 Indian citizenship can be lost from which of the below given modes?1. Naturalisation


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2. Renunciation3. Termination4. DeprivationChoose the correct optionA. 1,2 and 3B. 2,3 and 4C. 1,3 and 4D. All of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired underthe Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation:

1. By Renunciation Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declarationrenouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceasesto be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India isengaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government.

Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person alsoloses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he mayresume Indian citizenship.

2. By Termination When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and withoutduress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indiancitizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war inwhich India is engaged.

3. By Deprivation It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Centralgovernment, if:

· the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud:

· the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:

· the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;

· the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisonedin any country for two years; and

· the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Note: Naturalisation is the process of attaining the Indian Citizenship.


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Q.53 After end of Kargil war in 1999 India started developing a multi-tiered Ballistic MissileDefense (BMD) system. With reference to BMD consider the below given statements1. Prithvi Air Defense (PAD) / Pradyumna Ballistic Missile Interceptor destroys missiles atendo-atmospheric altitudes.2. Advanced Air Defense (AAD)/ Ashvin Advanced Defense interceptor missile destroys exo-atmosphere at altitudes.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D,

Solution :

India began developing a multi-tiered Ballistic Missile Defense (BMD) system in 1999, afterthe end of the Kargil War in reaction to Pakistan’s growing missile arsenal. A consortium of 40Indian companies were involved in the development of the missile defense shield. India’s BMDshield is a two-tiered defense system

Prithvi Air Defense (PAD) / Pradyumna Ballistic Missile Interceptor destroying missiles at exo-atmospheric altitudes of 50–80 kilometers (31–50 miles). Advanced Air Defense (AAD)/ AshvinAdvanced Defense interceptor missile endo-atmosphere at altitudes of 20-40 kilometers (12-24miles).

Q.54 BrahMos is the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world. With reference toBrahMosconsider the below given statements1. It is a medium-range scramjet supersonic cruise missile.2. The BrahMos can be launched from ships, submarine, aircraft, and land.3. The BrahMos is a joint venture between the DRDO of India and the Federal State UnitaryEnterprise NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM) of Russia.Choose the correct optionA. 1 and 3B. 2 and 3C. Only 3D. All of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched fromsubmarine, ships, aircraft, or land. It is the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world. It is


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a joint venture between the Russian Federation's NPO Mashinostroeyenia and India's DefenceResearch and Development Organisation (DRDO) who together have formed BrahMosAerospace.

Q.55 The Kalvari class is a class of diesel-electric attack submarines based on the Scorpène classsubmarine being built for the Indian Navy. With reference to Kalvari consider the below givenstatements1. The submarines are manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai and designed byenergy company DCNS and French naval defence.2. The submarine will feature advanced Air-independent propulsion (AIP) systems.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Kalvari class is a class of diesel-electric attack submarines based on the Scorpène classsubmarine being built for the Indian Navy. The submarines are designed by French navaldefence and energy company DCNS and are being manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited inMumbai.

Which will also feature advanced Air-independent propulsion (AIP) systems to enable them tostay submerged for longer duration and substantially increase their operational range.

Q.56 K-4 missile – intermediate-range submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM).With reference to SLMB consider the below given statements1.SLBM is nuclear capable missile.2.SLBM will arm the kalavari-class submarines.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

K-4 missile – intermediate-range submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM).


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Q.57 With reference to consider the below given statements1. The Indian Navy uses INS Jalashwa is an amphibious transport dock currently in service.2. Indian Army uses Dhanush howitzer.3. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision making body of procurementheaded by Defence Secretary.Choose the correct optionA. Both 1 and 2B. Both 2 and 3C. Both 1 andD. 1,2 and 3

Answer : A,

Solution :

INS Jalashwa is an amphibious transport dock currently in service with the Indian Navy.Formerly USS Trenton, she, along with six Sikorsky SH-3 Sea King helicopters were procuredfrom the United States by India for a total of US$90 million in 2005. She was commissioned on22 June 2007. INS Jalashwa is the only Indian Naval ship to be acquired from the UnitedStates. She is based in Visakhapatnam under the Eastern Naval Command.

Dhanush: The Dhanush is a 155 mm towed howitzer used by the Indian Army.

Defence Acquisition Council

DAC – is the government’s highest decision-making body on procurement.

DAC is chaired by Union Defence Minister.

To counter corruption and speed up decision-making in military procurements.

The decision flowing from the Defence Acquisition Council are to be implemented by thefollowing 3 Boards –

Defence Procurement Board headed by the Defence Secretary

Defence Production Board headed by the Secretary (Defence Production)

Defence Research & Development Board headed by the Secretary (Defence Research &Development)

Q.58 With reference to ‘NavikaSagarParikrama’ consider the below given statements1. NavikaSagarParikrama is the world’s first ever circumnavigation of globe by an allwomen crew2. The voyage is undertaken by INS Tarini which is an indigenously built sailing vessel


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3. NavikaSagarParikrama will have 10 stopovers before it reaches India in its entirejourneyChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

NavikaSagarParikrama is the name of expedition for circumnavigation the globe on INSVTarini by Indian Navy's Women Naval Officers. The six-member all-woman team willcircumnavigate and manage the whole operation in this first ever global journey. The voyage isexpected to be finished around March 2018 when the crew returns to Goa, with only 4 portcalls in Fremantle Australia; Lyttelton, New Zealand; Port Stanley, Falklands; and Cape Town,South Africa.

Q.59 With reference to ‘SagarKavach’ security program consider the below given statements1. ‘SagarKavach’ security program is a naval exercise between Sri Lanka and India.2. To check the effectiveness of Marine Policing a drill terror attack called Red Force wascreated.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Governments of Odisha and West Bengal conducted joint security exercise named‘SagarKavach’ to further tighten the existing coastal security mechanism along the 630 kmlong coastline. SagarKavach security exercise is a realistic drill to check the efficacy of thesecurity parameters and preparedness of various security forces like the Indian Navy, Marinepolice force, Indian Coast Guard (ICG), Forest Department, Fisheries and districtadministration. A simulated terror attack named 'red force' was organized at a random placealong Odisha or West Bengal coast and check how effective our marine policing is.

Q.60 Which of the following has been named ‘Fat boy’?1.Fat boy was the name given to the nuclear bomb used in Japan by USA


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2. Fat boy is the name given to India’s GSLV Mk III3. Fat boy is the name given to NASA’s quiet supersonic aircraft4. Fat boy is the name given to Agni V missile.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

GSLV Mk III is popularly known as ‘Fat Boy’. It is one of the most heaviest satellite launchvehicles of the World and also one of the shortest.

It has the capacity to carry payload of 4 – 8 tonnes.

It has three stage engine with Ansid, liquid and cryogenic phase.

Q.61 With reference to ‘Thermobaric bomb of increased power’ consider the below given statements1.It is known as the Father of all Bombs.2.It do not contain an oxidizer but instead uses atmospheric oxygen for explosion3.it is the world’s most powerful non-nuclear bomb4.It has been recently developed by USAChoose the correct optionA. 1 ,2 and 3B. 2,3 and 4C. 1,3 and 4D. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

Aviation Thermobaric Bomb of Increased Power nicknamed "Father of All Bombs" (FOAB) is aRussian-designed, bomber-delivered thermobaric weapon.

The bomb is reportedly similar to the US military's GBU-43/B Massive Ordnance Air Blastwhich is often unofficially called "Mother of All Bombs" derived from its official militaryacronym "MOAB". This weapon would therefore be the most powerful conventional (non-nuclear) weapon in the world.

Q.62 With reference to ‘Mountain Strike Corps’ of India consider the below given statements


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1. It has been built as counter offensive force and quick reaction force against China alongLAC2. Panagarh, West Bengal is its HeadquarterChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

XVII Corps of Indian army is the first mountain strike corps of India which has been built as anquick reaction force and as well as counter offensive force against China along LAC. Itsheadquarters are located at Panagarh in West Bengal. China, incidentally, has re-organized its2.3-million PLA into five theatre commands to crank up its offensive capabilities as well asestablish better command-and-control structures. Its western theatre command now handlesthe entire LAC with India instead of the earlier Chengdu Military Region in the east and theLanzhou Military Region towards the north.

Q.63 From the below given names identify the person who is known as Missile Women of India.A. Tessy ThomasB. Nandini HarinathC. J ManjulaD. N Valarmathi

Answer : A,

Solution :

Born in 1963, an engineer and the Project Director for Agni-IV missile in Defence Researchand Development Organisation, Tessy is is the first woman engineer to head a missile projectin India. She is known as the 'Missile Woman' of India.

Q.64 With reference to India’s first unmanned tank MUNTRA consider the below given statements1.It has been indigenously developed by DRDO.2.It has three variants for mine detection, reconnaissance and surveillance in areas with biothreat or nuclear.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2


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D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an unmanned,remotely operated tank which has three variants - surveillance, mine detection andreconnaissance in areas with nuclear and bio threats. It is called Muntra. Muntra-S is thecountry's first tracked unmanned ground vehicle developed for unmanned surveillancemissions while Muntra-M is for detecting mines and Muntra-N is for operation in areas wherethere is a nuclear radiation or bio weapon risk. The vehicle has been tested and validated atMahajan field firing range in Rajasthan under dusty desert conditions where temperaturestouched 52 C. Army comfortably tele-operated the vehicle. It has surveillance radar, anintegrated camera along with laser range finder which can be used to spy on ground target15km away - may be a crawling men or heavy vehicles.

Q.65 From the below given list identify surface-to-surface missile/s?1. Prithvi II2. Agni II3. K-15 Missile4. Shaurya MissileChoose the correct optionA. Only 2B. Both 2 and 4C. 1, 2 and 3D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer : D,

Solution :

Agni II

Agni-II (fire), is a nuclear-capable, surface-to-surface strategic ballistic missile. The Agni(missile) family is envisaged to be the mainstay of the Indian missile-based strategic nucleardeterrence. It is a two stage surface-to-surface missile, equipped with an advanced highaccuracy navigation system and guided by a novel state-of-the-art command and controlsystem.

The Agni-II missile

is developed by Advanced Systems Laboratory (ASL) and integrated by the Bharat DynamicsLimited (BDL), Hyderabad.


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Prithvi II

Prithvi-II is India’s first developed indigenously and inducted indigenous surface-to-surfacestrategic missile.

It is first missile to be indigenously developed by DRDO under India’s prestigious IntegratedGuided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).

K-15

K-15 (K-15 Sagarika missile) is an underwater missile developed by Defence Research andDevelopment Organisation (DRDO) It is a nuclear-capable submarine launched ballistic missilewith a range of 700 kilometres. It belongs to the K Missile family. It is being developed for usewith Indian Navy nucleur-powered Arihant class submarime.

Shaurya missile

The Shaurya missile is a canister launched hypersonic boost-glide surface-to-surface tacticalmissile developed by the Indian Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) foruse by the Indian Armed Forces.

Q.66 Which among the following activities are part of Indian Navy’s ‘Constabulary Role’?1. Anti-poaching operations2. Anti-smuggling operations3. Anti-piracy operations4. To deter any military adventurism against the country5. Coastal surveillanceChoose the correct optionA. Both 4 and 5B. 3,4 and 5C. 1,2,3 and 5D. 1,2,3,4 and 5

Answer : C,

Solution :

Indian Navy undertakes the following roles - military, diplomatic, constabulary and benign.The primary military objective of the IN is to deter any military adventurism against thecountry, including intervention in India’s affairs and subversive strategies against the nationalinterests and the ability to inflict a crushing defeat on the adversary in the event of hostilities.

However, as part of its ‘Constabulary Role’, the IN is involved in operations like anti-poaching,anti-smuggling, coastal surveillance and anti-piracy.


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Q.67 With reference to Scorpene-class submarines consider the below given statements and identifya incorrect statement1. The submarines are built with the French technology at the Mazagaon Dock Ltd inMumbai.2. The Scorpene-class submarines are a class of diesel-electric attack submarines jointlydeveloped by the French Direction des Constructions Navales (DCN) and the Spanish companyNavantia, and now by DCNS.3. All the six submarines under this class will be equipped with the Air IndependentPropulsion (AIP) system, which will enable them to stay underwater for longer duration.4. None of the aboveChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. Only 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Scorpène-class submarines are a class of diesel-electric attack submarines jointlydeveloped by the French Direction des Constructions Navales (DCN) and the Spanish companyNavantia, and now by DCNS. It features diesel propulsion and an additional air-independentpropulsion (AIP).

In 2005, India chose the Scorpène design; purchasing six submarines. Under a technologytransfer agreement, the state-owned Mazagon Docks in Mumbai will manufacture thesubmarines.

India plans to incorporate the DRDO-developed air independent propulsion (AIP) system ontothe last two submarines being built and also to equip the P75I submarines, of which the DCNSis participating in the tender process.

In other words, in 2005 the Indian Navy ordered six Scorpène-class: all the Indian boats willbe built in India, at Mazagon Dock and elsewhere, and only the last two are to be fitted with anIndian Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system. Hence, statement (c) is incorrect.

Q.68 With reference to India’s Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) system consider the below givenstatements1. To protect important cities from external threats India plans to deploy a two tiered BMDsystem2. BMD system can intercept incoming missiles both at endo-atmopshere and exo-atmosphere altitudes3. Exo-atmopshere is altitudes between 47 and 80 km and endo-atmosphere is below 40 km


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altitude.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 1 and 2D. All of above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Self-explanatory – All the given statements are correct.

India plans to deploy a two-tiered BMD system to protect important cities from externalthreats.

BMD system can intercept incoming missiles both at exo-atmopshere and endo-atmospherealtitudes Exo-atmopshere is altitudes between 47 and 80 km and endo-atmosphere is below 40km altitude.

India’s BMD shield is a two-tiered defense system, with – Prithvi Air Defense (PAD) /Pradyumna Ballistic Missile Interceptor destroying missiles at exo-atmospheric altitudes of50–80 kilometers (31–50 miles). Advanced Air Defense (AAD)/ Ashvin Advanced Defenseinterceptor

Q.69 With reference to consider the below given pairs and choose the correctly matched pair/s frombelow options: Missile deal Associated country1. Spike anti-tank guided missile India-US2. S-400 Triumf long-rangesurface-to-air missile systems India-RussiaJavelin anti-tank guided missile India-IsraelChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 1 and 2D. All of above

Answer : B,

Solution :

Correct pairs are:

1. Spike anti-tank guided missile : : India-Israel


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2. S-400 Triumf long-range surface-to-air missile systems : : India-Russia

3. Javelin anti-tank guided missile : : India-US

India will purchase Spike antitank guided missiles from Israel through the so-calledgovernment to government route. “Spike is a battle-proven missile which has much longerrange and comparatively light in weight when compared to locally made Nag missile. India andRussia signed an intergovernmental agreement on the sale of the S-400 systems during abilateral summit in October 2016 in Goa, India, in the presence of Russian President VladimirPutin and Indian Prime Minister NarendraModi. India plans to procure Israeli Spike, AmericanJavelin and Indigenous MPATGM Anti-Tank missile for Indian Army.

Q.70 With reference to 'Ajeya Warrior' identify a country that is partner of India in joint armytraining exercise1.Nepal2. UK3. US4.RussiaChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 1 and 2D. All of above

Answer : B,

Solution :

Exercise Ajeya Warrior-2017, a fourteen days training exercise between the Indian Army andthe British Army, was concluded during December 2017 at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges inRajasthan.

It was third joint military exercise between India and UK. The first exercise was conducted in2013 at Belgaum, Karnataka and second exercise was held in 2015 in UK.

Q.71 With reference to The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project covers which of thefollowing?1. West Bengal and Rakhine2. Odisha and Yangon3. West Bengal and Yangon4. Mizoram and MandalayChoose the correct optionA. Only 1


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B. Only 2C. Only 3D. All of above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will connect the easternIndian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea. In Myanmar,it will then link Sittwe seaport to Paletwa, Chin State via the Kaladan river boat route, andthen from Paletwa by road to Mizoram state in Northeast India.

Q.72 With reference to ‘SATH’ Programme consider the below given statements1. SATH Programme is launched by Centre for Policy Research (CPR) with NITI Aayog incollaboration.2. SATH Programme aims to transform healthcare and education sectors along with Stategovernments.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 1 and 2D. All of above

Answer : B,

Solution :

To usher in transformation in the education and healthcare sectors along with Stategovernments, NITI Aayog has launched the SATH (Sustainable Action for Transforming Humancapital) programme.

SATH programme will be implemented by NITI Aayog along with global consultancy McKinsey& Company and IPE Global consortium.

Q.73 With reference to ‘Transports Internationaux Routiers’ (TIR Convention) consider the givenstatements1. TIR is under the auspices of the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law2. TIR was developed aftermath of Second World War3. TIR system only covers customs transit by roadChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3


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D. All of above

Answer : B,

Solution :

News: India became the 71st signatory to TIR international transit system, designed tofacilitate the seamless movement of goods throughout the countries in Asia and Europe TheConvention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention)is a multilateral treaty that was concluded at Geneva on 14 November 1975 to simplify andharmonise the administrative formalities of international road transport. (TIR stands for"Transports InternationauxRoutiers" or "International Road Transports".) TIR transit systemwas developed soon after the Second World War in order to help revitalise the economies ofpost war Europe. The TIR Agreement was concluded in 1949 and its success led to theestablishment in 1959 of the first TIR Convention. The 1975 convention replaced the TIRConvention of 1959, which itself replaced the 1949 TIR Agreement between a number ofEuropean countries. The conventions were adopted under the auspices of the United NationsEconomic Commission for Europe (UNECE). As of January 2018, there are 73 parties to theConvention, including 72 states and the European Union. The TIR Convention establishes aninternational customs transit system with maximum facility to move goods: in sealed vehiclesor containers; from a customs office of departure in one country to a customs office ofdestination in another country; without requiring extensive and time-consuming border checksat intermediate borders; while, at the same time, providing customs authorities with therequired security and guarantees. The TIR system not only covers customs transit by road buta combination is possible with other modes of transport (e.g., rail, inland waterway, and evenmaritime transport), as long as at least one part of the total transport is made by road.India’sdecision to implement the TIR system will have far reaching benefits for trade and will savesignificant time and money by streamlining procedures at borders, reducing administrationand cutting border waiting times. The TIR Convention will also facilitate India’s currentnational and multilateral connectivity-related initiatives to improve cross border roadtransport, facilitating overland trade integration with both eastern and western neighbours. Itwill also help India in implementing the World Trade Organization’s Trade FacilitationAgreement.

Q.74 With reference to Municipal Bonds consider the given statements1. They are permitted for public offering by SEBI2. Pune Municipal Corporation was the first ULB to issue Municipal Bond in IndiaChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. All of above

Answer : B,


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Solution :

Municipal bonds are debt instruments—a promise to repay a fixed principal amount withinterest periodically, which can be paid at fixed intervals or at the end of the tenure, with theprincipal. Under the Sebi (Issue and listing of Debt Securities by Municipalities) Regulations,2015 (ILDM), a municipality or a Corporate Municipal Entity (CME) making public issue ofdebt securities should not have negative net worth in any of three immediately precedingfinancial years. Besides, Sebi said that municipality should not have defaulted in repayment ofdebt securities or loans obtained from banks or financial institutions during the last 365 days.The new rules that will allow these instruments to be offered to the public, listed and tradedon stock exchanges will hopefully rekindle the appetite for them. Municipal bonds are there inIndia from 1997 onwards. Bangalore Municipal Corporation was the first ULB to issueMunicipal Bond in India in 1997. Municipal bonds in India enjoy tax-free status if they conformto certain rules and their interest rates will be market-linked. Their tradability means you neednot have to hold them till maturity.

Q.75 Consider the below given statements1. A person can apply for Aadhar who has been residing in India for more than 182 days.2. Aadhar card is considered as a proof of citizenship.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. All of above

Answer : A,

Solution :

Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique identity number issued to all Indian residents based on theirbiometric and demographic data. The data is collected by the Unique Identification Authorityof India (UIDAI), a statutory authority established in January 2009 by the Government of India,under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, following theprovisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits andservices) Act, 2016. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 states, "Every resident shall be entitled to obtainan aadhaar number by submitting his demographic information and biometric information byundergoing the process of enrolment." The Act further defines residency as, "An individualwho has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to 182 days or more in the 12months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment." This means that it doesnot matter whether you are an NRI or foreign national, if you have stayed in India for morethan 182 days, you will be eligible to apply for Aadhaar The Aadhaar Act has clarified thateven if you're holding an Aadhaar or applied for one it does not mean that you have receivedIndian citizenship.


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Q.76 Which among the following British India Acts ended the system of double government byabolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors?1. Charter Act of 18532. Government of India Act of 18583. Indian Councils Act of 18614. Indian Councils Act of 1892Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. All of above

Answer : B,

Solution :

Government of India Act of 1858 - The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India,abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories andrevenues to the British Crown. It also ended the system of double government by abolishingthe Board of Control and Court of Directors

Q.77 With reference to Constitution of India consider the given statements1. Territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by Constitution2. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth but not on the ground of residence.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. All of above

Answer : C,

Solution :

Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries ornames of the existing states without the consent of concerned state legislature or unionterritory. In other words, Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will.Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by theConstitution.

Q.78 According to Citizenship Act the power to grant Indian citizenship lie with1. Ministry of Home Affairs


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2. Cabinet Secretariat3. President4. Prime Minister’s OfficeChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. All of above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The power to grant citizenship lies only with the Home Ministry under the Citizenship Act.

Q.79 Consider the below given statements1. In India Lord Warren Hastings is known as the ‘Father of Civil Service’2. Open Competition System as a basis of selection and recruitment of civil servants for theCompany was introduced by Charter Act of 1833.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D,

Solution :

The efforts of Lord Warren Hastings and Lord Cornwallis led to the rise of civil service.Hastings laid the foundations of civil service and Cornwallis reformed, modernised andrationalised it. Hence, he (Cornwallis) came to be known as the ‘Father of Civil Service’ inIndia. The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition as thebasis of selection of civil servants of the Company, and stated that the Indians should not bedebarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, thisprovision of the Act was negated due to the opposition of the Court of Directors which wantedto continue the patronage system. The Charter Act of 1853 abolished the patronage systemand introduced an open Competition system as a basis of selection and recruitment of civilservants of the Company.

Q.80 With reference to Preamble of India consider the given statements1. The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces social, economic and political justice.2. The ideal of justice – social, economic and political – in our Preamble has been taken


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from the American Revolution.3. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken from theFrench Revolution.Choose the correct optionA. Both 1 and 2B. Both 1 and 3C. Both 2 and 3D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces all the three – social, economic and politicaljustice. The ideal of justice—social, economic and political— in our Preamble has been takenfrom the Russian Revolution (1917). The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in ourPreamble have been taken from the French Revolution.

Q.81 The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have beenincorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as1. Fundamental Rights2. Extent of executive power of State3. Directive Principles of State Policy4. Conduct of business of the Government of IndiaChoose the correct optionA. Only1B. Only2C. Only3D. Only4

Answer : C,

Solution :

Instruments of instructions were issued by British Government under the 1935 Act under theDraft Constitution. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘theDirective Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under theGovernment of India Act of 1935. What is called Directive Principles is merely another namefor the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to thelegislature and the executive’.


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Q.82 With reference to Hard X-ray Modulation Telescope (HXMT) consider the given statements1. It is a European Space Agency (ESA) mission in cooperation with the Russian SpaceAgency and NASA2. It was launched to observe black holes, neutron stars, active galactic nuclei and otherphenomena based on their X-ray and gamma-ray emissionsChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 and 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Hard X-ray Modulation Telescope (HXMT), named "Insight", is China’s first X-rayastronomy satellite. There are three main payloads onboard Insight-HXMT, the high energy X-ray telescope (20-250 keV, 5100 cm2), the medium energy X-ray telescope (5-30 keV, 952cm2), and the low energy X-ray telescope (1-15 keV, 384 cm2). The main scientific objectivesof Insight-HXMT are: to scan the Galactic Plane to find new transient sources and to monitorthe known variable sources to observe X-ray binaries to study the dynamics and emissionmechanism in strong gravitational or magnetic fields to find and study gamma-ray bursts withits anti-coincidence CsI detectors. It was launched to observe black holes, neutron stars, activegalactic nuclei and other phenomena based on their X-ray and gamma-ray emissions.ASTROSAT

Q.83 With reference to Ryotwari System consider the given statements1. In 1820, Governor of Madras Lord William Bentinck instituted this system of landrevenue2. Madras, Bombay, Assam and Coorg provinces are areas in which it was practiced.3. Tax from the peasants was directly collected by the governmentChoose the correct optionA. Only 1 and 3B. Only 2 and 3C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 and 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

Ryotwari System This system of land revenue was instituted in the late 18th century by SirThomas Munro, Governor of Madras in 1820. This was practiced in the Madras and Bombayareas, as well as Assam and Coorg provinces. In this system, the peasants or cultivators were


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regarded as the owners of the land. They had ownership rights, could sell, mortgage or gift theland. The taxes were directly collected by the government from the peasants. The rates were50% in dry land and 60% in wet land. The rates were high and unlike in the PermanentSystem, they were open to being increased. If they failed to pay the taxes, they were evictedby the government. Ryot means peasant cultivators.

Q.84 From the below given list identify items that took place under the Governor-Generalship ofDalhousie?1. Doctrine of Lapse2. Charles Wood Dispatch3. Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852)4. Treaty of LahoreChoose the correct optionA. 1,2 and 3B. 1,2 and 4C. 2,3 and 4D. 1,3 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

James Andrew Broun-Ramsay, 1st Marquess of Dalhousie (22 April 1812 – 19 December 1860),styled Lord Ramsay until 1838 and known as The Earl of Dalhousie between 1838 and 1849,was a Scottish statesman, and a colonial administrator in British India. He served as Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.

Notable events

Doctrine of Lapse

Charles Wood Dispatch

Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852)

First Railway line connecting Bombay and Thane

First telegraph Line was laid between Diamond Harbor to Calcutta.

Post Office Act, 1854

Established Public Works Department

Engineering College was established at Roorkee.


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Treaty of Lahore took place under the Governor-General ship of Henry Hardinge.

Q.85 With reference to Raja Rammohan Roy consider the given statement1. Raja Rammohan Roy established a Vedanta College where only Western social andphysical science courses were offered.2. Raja Rammohan Roy came out with one of the most important journal named asSamvadKaumudi3. Raja Rammohan Roy took a keen interest in international events and always supportedthe cause of liberty and nationalism.4. Raja Rammohan Roy argued that ancient Hindu texts, the Vedas and the Upanishadsupheld the doctrine of polytheism.Choose the correct optionA. Only 2 and 3B. 1,2 and 4C. 2,3 and 4D. 1,3 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

Rammohan Roy was one of the earliest propagators of modern Western education. He lookedupon it as a major instrument for the spread of modern ideas in the country. He wasassociated with the foundation the Hindu College in Calcutta (which later came to be known asthe Presidency College). He also maintained at his own cost an English school in Calcutta. Inaddition, he established a Vedanta College where both Indian learning and Western social andphysical science courses were offered. Rammohan Roy was a pioneer of Indian journalism. Hehimself published journals in Bengali, Persian, Hindi and English to educate the public onvarious current issues. SamvadKaumudi was the most important journal brought out by him.Rammohan Roy was a firm believer in internationalism. He held that the suffering andhappiness of one nation should affect the rest of the world. He took a keen interest ininternational events and always supported the cause of liberty and nationalism. He celebratedthe success of the revolution in Spain in 1823 by hosting a public dinner. Rammohan Roystruggled persistently against social evils. He argued that ancient Hindu texts the Vedas andthe Upanishads upheld the doctrine of monotheism. To prove his point, he translated theVedas and five Upanishads into Bengali.

Q.86 From the below given list identify the main reason for the Kol Uprising of 1831?1. It was an uprising against the British for grabbing of Tribal lands.2. It was an uprising against the Marwari money lenders3. It was an uprising against the transfer of tribal lands to outsiders.4. None of the aboveChoose the correct option


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A. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. Only 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

The tribal inhabitants of Chota Nagpur comprised Kols, Bhils, Hoes, Mundas and Oraons. Theyled an independent life. Kol Uprising of 1831 was a reaction to the land diversion to theoutsiders especially the Sikhs and the Muslims. The insurgents adopted most cruel means andspared no one. They torched houses and killed the enemies. Only carpenters and blacksmithswere spared since they made weapons and other useful goods for them. After two years ofintense resistance they lost to modern weapons of the British. Thousands of tribal men, womenand children were killed and the rebellion was suppressed.

Q.87 From the below given list identify the limitations of Social Reform Movement1. Narrow Social Base2. Movement did not reach rural India3. Casteism remained strong4. Social HarmonyChoose the correct optionA. 1,2 and 3B. 1,3 and 4C. 2,3 and 4D. 1,3 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

Limitations of the Social Reform Movement Narrow Social Base Reform in practice in any caseaffected a very small minority. Only the educated and urban middle class was involved in thesocial reform movement, while the needs of vast majority of peasants and the urban poor wereignored. Movement did not reach rural India Given the situation of widespread illiteracy in therural areas and because of the absence of modern and diversified communications network,they were doomed to have a very limited audience, mainly urban-based. Thus, even in terms ofits practical appeal the movement remained urban, besides its other limitations. Casteismremained strong Caste distinctions remained strong and the religious and social practices didnot die away. Caste and customs proved to be hard to eradicate from Indian consciousness.The tendency of the reformers to appeal to the greatness of the past and to rely on scripturalauthority led to compartmentalizing religions as also alienating high caste Hindus from lowercaste Hindus. Communal Consciousness Overemphasis on religious, philosophical aspects of


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culture while underemphasizing secular aspects led to the Hindus praising ancient IndianHistory and Muslims confining to the medieval history. This created a notion of two separatesegments of people and increased communal consciousness.

Q.88 Paika Revolt is believed to be the first war of Independence by many historians. With referenceto the Paika Revolt consider the given statements1. Paikas was led by BakshiJagbandhu projecting Lord Jagannath as the symbol of Unity.2. Paikas were the poor peasants of Odisha.3. Paikas was an armed rebellion targeted against the money lenders and Zamindarsinstead of East India Company.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. 2 and 3C. Only 2D. 1,2 and 3

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Paik Rebellion, also called the PaikaBidroha, was an armed rebellion against the BritishEast India Company's rule in Odisha in 1817. The Paikas rose in rebellion under their leaderBakshiJagabandhu and, projecting Jagannath as the symbol of Odia unity, the rebellion quicklyspread across most of Odisha before being ruthlessly put down by the company's forces. ThePaikas were the traditional militia of Odisha. They served as warriors and were charged withpolicing functions during peacetime. The Paikas were organised into three ranks distinguishedby their occupation and the weapons they wielded. These were the Paharis, the bearers ofshields and the khanda sword, the Banuas who led distant expeditions and used matchlocksand the Dhenkiyas - archers who also performed different duties in Odisha armies. With theconquest of Odisha by the East India Company in 1803 and the dethronement of the Raja ofKhurda began the fall of the power and prestige of the Paikas.

Q.89 Vellore Mutiny is the first instance of a large scale sepoy mutiny against the British East IndiaCompany. With reference to Vellore Mutiny consider given statement1. It was instigated by the sons of Tipu Sultan.2. The immediate cause of the mutiny was forced conversion of sepoys to Christianity.3. It occurred in the year 1706.Choose the incorrect statement using the below given codesA. Only 1B. 2 and 3C. Only 2D. 1,2 and 3


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Answer : B,

Solution :

The Vellore mutiny on 10 July 1806 was the first instance of a large-scale and violent mutinyby Indian sepoys against the East India Company, predating the Indian Rebellion of 1857 byhalf a century. The revolt, which took place in the South Indian city of Vellore, was brief,lasting only one full day, but brutal as mutineers seized the Vellore Fort and killed or wounded200 British troops. The mutiny was subdued by cavalry and artillery from Arcot. Summaryexecutions of about 100 mutineers took place during the suppression of the outbreak, followedby the formal court-martial of smaller numbers. The immediate causes of the mutiny revolvedmainly around resentment felt towards changes in the sepoy dress code, introduced inNovember 1805. Hindus were prohibited 12 from wearing religious marks on their foreheadsand Muslims were required to shave their beards and trim their moustaches. These changes,intended to improve the "Ansdierly appearance" of the men, created strong resentment amongthe Indian Ansdiers. In addition to the military grievances listed above, the rebellion was alsoinstigated by the sons of the defeated Tipu Sultan, confined at Vellore since 1799. Tipu's wivesand sons, together with numerous retainers, were pensioners of the East India Company andlived in a palace within the large complex comprising the Vellore Fort. One of Tipu Sultan'sdaughters was to be married on 9 July 1806, and the plotters of the uprising gathered at thefort under the pretext of attending the wedding. The objectives of the civilian conspiratorsremain obscure but by seizing and holding the fort they may have hoped to encourage ageneral rising through the territory of the former Mysore Sultanate. However, Tippu's sonswere reluctant to take charge after the mutiny arose.

Q.90 With reference to Dharma Sabha consider given statement1. Debendranath Tagore formed it in Bengal2. It was formed to counter the reform movements led by reformers like Raja RammohunRoy and Derozio.3. To defend the Hindu way of life/culture it was morphed into a society.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. 2 and 3C. Only 2D. 1,2 and 3

Answer : B,

Solution :

Dharma Sabha was formed in 1830 in Calcutta by Raja Radhakant Deb. The organization wasestablished mainly to counter the ongoing social reform movements led by protagonists suchas Raja Ram Mohun Roy and Henry Derozio. More specifically, the impetus of forming theorganization came from a new law enacted by the colonial Government which banned the


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practice of sati in the country; the focus of the new association was to repel the law which wasseen as an intrusion by the Government into the religious affairs of the indigenous people bysome sections of the Hindu community.

Q.91 With reference to Ring Fence, a British policy to protect the interest of its administrationconsider below given statement1. British army used to mark its territories with a barbed fence which made it difficult foran external army to attack.2. British army defended the neighbour’s frontier to protect its own by making a bufferzone.3. Policy of Subsidiary Alliance was developed as an extension of the policy of Ring Fence.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. 2 and 3C. Only 2D. 1,2 and 3

Answer : B,

Solution :

This policy was reflected in Warren Hastings’ wars against the Marathas and Mysore, andaimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. The main threat was fromthe Marathas and Afghan invaders (the Company undertook to organiseAwadh’sdefence tosafeguard Bengal’s security. Wellesley’s policy of subsidiary alliance was an extension of ringfence—which sought to reduce states to a position of dependence on British Government inIndia. Major powers such as Hyderabad, Awadh and the Marathas accepted subsidiaryalliance. Thus, British supremacy was established.

Q.92 Which of the following were annexed by the British by the policy of ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?1. Nagpur2. Jhansi3. Udaipur4. AwadhChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 1.2 and 3C. 2 and 3D. 2,3 and 4

Answer : B,

Solution :


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Under this doctrine the British arrogated to themselves the right to veto the succession of anadopted heir, and instead, to annex the territory concerned, although the adopted successorand his heirs were usually allowed to keep their titles and a substantial annual allowance.

States annexed under this doctrine include:

Satara (annexed 1848)

Jaitpur (annexed 1849)

Sambalpur (annexed 1850)

Baghat (annexed 1850)

Udaipur (annexed 1852)

Jhansi (annexed 1853)

Nagpur (annexed 1854)

Karauli (annexed 1855)

Q.93 Consider the given statement1. ‘The Bombay Gazette’ is India’s first major newspaper2. The first newspaper was started by James Augustus Hickey in India.3. The first newspaper was started in English and vernacular.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. All of above

Answer : B,

Solution :

Bengal Gazette (Not Bombay) was an English newspaper published from Kolkata (thenCalcutta), India. It was the first major newspaper in India, started in 1780. It was published fortwo years. It was founded by James Augustus Hickey. Hicky's Bengal Gazette or the CalcuttaGeneral Advertiser was the first English-language newspaper, and indeed the first printednewspaper, to be published in the Indian sub-continent.

Q.94 With reference to the Battle of Buxar consider given statement1. British defeated the combined armies of Mughal emperor Shah Alam II, Nawab of Bengal


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SirajudDaulah and Nawab of AwadhShujaudDaulah.2. British annexed the Awadh state and executed the Nawab.3. British got the Diwani rights of Bengal after this battle.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Only 3D. All of above

Answer : C,

Solution :

Despite Mir Jafar’s gifts and rewards, British were not satisfied with him and replaced him byMir Qasim. Mir Qasim was an able administrator and tried to free himself from the clutches ofthe Englishmen. This behavior was disliked by the British and the conflict led to three battles.Mir Qasim was defeated and he fled to Awadh to take help of Nawab of Awadh, ShujaudDaula.Nawab of Bengal and Nawab of Awadh got into an alliance with the Mughal emperor ShahAlam II, who despite the deteriorating Mughal empire was perceived as the central authorityof India. These combined forces met with British force at Buxar. Result: As expected, thecombined army of the three was no match for the disciplined English army whichcomprehensively won. Outcome: It was a morale booster for British and it established Britishas the super power. British got the Diwani of Bengal from the Mughal emperor. i.e. now theygot the right of administration and taxation. This battle practically started the British rule inIndia.

Q.95 With reference to Young Bengal group of students consider given statements1. They posed an intellectual challenge to the religious and social orthodoxy of Hinduism.2. They had complete faith in everything British and Western learning which alienatedthem from the masses.3. They were influenced by Henry Vivian Derozio and were responsible for theestablishment of the Society for Translating European Sciences.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1 and 2B. Only 2 and 3C. Only 1 and 3D. All of above

Answer : A,

Solution :

Young Bengal, a controversial group of students, influenced by a Eurasian teacher of HinduCollege in Calcutta (Henry Vivian Derozio), were responsible for the establishment of Society


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for Acquisition of General Knowledge.

This group became infamous for their social rebellion. Their rebellion extended to the religioussphere and posed an intellectual challenge to the religious and social orthodoxy of Hinduism.

Their very radicalism and complete faith in everything British and Western learning alienatedthem from the masses.

Q.96 With reference to inflation identify measure to control it.1. Enforce the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 & the Prevention of Black-marketing andMaintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980.2. Price Stabilization Fund (PSF)3. Higher Minimum Support Price (MSP)Choose the correct optionA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Central Government monitors the price situation on a regular basis as controlling inflation is apriority area. It has taken a number of measures to control inflation especially food inflationwhich, inter alia, include the following:

Advisories are being issued, as and when required, to State Governments to take strict actionagainst hoarding & black marketing and effectively enforce the Essential Commodities Act,1955 & the Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of EssentialCommodities Act, 1980 for commodities in short supply.

Higher MSP has been announced so as to incentivize production and thereby enhanceavailability of food items which may help moderate prices.

A scheme titled Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) is being implemented to control price volatilityof agricultural commodities like pulses, onions, etc.

Government approved enhancement in buffer stock of pulses from 1.5 lakh MT to 20 Lakh MTto enable effective market intervention for moderation of retail prices. Accordingly, a dynamicbuffer stock of pulses of up to 20 lakh tonnes has been built under the Price Stabilization Fund(PSF) Scheme through both domestic procurement as well as imports. Of this, 3.26 lakh MThas been released for market intervention and buffer management.


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Q.97 From the below given statements identify items that defines inflationary gapA. When the potential GDP is higher than the real GDP, the gap is referred to as a

inflationary gap.B. Inflationary gap is the difference between deflation and inflationC. The real GDP exceeding the potential GDP, resulting in an inflationary gap.D. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

An inflationary gap is a macroeconomic concept that describes the difference between thecurrent level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the anticipated GDP that would beexperienced if an economy is at full employment, also referred to as the potential GDP. For thegap to be considered inflationary, the current real GDP must be the higher of the two metrics.The inflationary gap exists when the demand for goods and services exceeds production due tofactors such as higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities or increasedgovernment expenditure. This can lead to the real GDP exceeding the potential GDP, resultingin an inflationary gap. The inflationary gap is so named because the relative increase in realGDP causes an economy to increase its consumption, which causes prices to rise in the longrun.

Q.98 Consider the following statements about new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) keeping inmind the recent change in its base year from 2004-05 to 2011-121. The new series of WPI aims to remove the impact of fiscal policy2. To capture the rate of inflation in food items a new “WPI Food Index” will be compiled3. Item basket is revised by excluding old items and adding new ones.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. 1 and 2 onlyC. Only 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Government periodically reviews and revises the base year of the macroeconomicindicators as a regular exercise to capture structural changes in the economy and improve thequality, coverage and representativeness of the indices. In this direction, the base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 by the Office of Economic Advisor (OEA),Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry to align itwith the base year of other macroeconomic indicators like the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)and Index of Industrial Production (IIP).


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· Updated item basket and weighting structure conforming to the structure of economy in2011-12.

· Increase in number of items from 676 to 697. In all 199 new items have been added and 146old items have been dropped.

· The new series is more representative with increase in number of quotations from 5482 to8331, an increase by 2849 quotations (52%).

Q.99 With reference to Cold Weather Season consider the following statements1. Northeast trade winds prevail over the country during winter2. Clear sky, low temperatures and low humidityChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

The cold weather season begins from mid-November in northern India and stays tillFebruary.December and January are the coldest months in the northern part of India. Thetemperaturedecreases from south to the north. Days are warm, and nights are cold. Frostis common in thenorth and the higher slopes of the Himalayas experience snowfall.

During this season, the northeast trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from land tosea and hence, for most part of the country, it is a dry season. Some amount ofrainfall occurson the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as, here they blow from sea toland. (Innorthwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Seacause rainfallin Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh.)

In the northern part of the country, a feeble high-pressure region develops, with light windsmoving outwards from this area. Influenced by the relief, these winds blow through the Gangavalley from the west and the northwest. The weather is normally marked by clear sky,lowtemperatures and low humidity.

Q.100From the below given items identify implication/s of the shift of monsoon trough closer toHimalayas1. Longer dry spell in plains area2. Drought in plains area3. Mountainous catchment areas of the Himalayan rivers witnesses widespread rainChoose the correct option


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A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1 onlyD. All the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Unique phenomenon associated with the monsoon is its tendency to have ‘breaks’ inrainfall. Thus, it has wet and dry spells. In other words, the monsoon rains take place only fora few days at a time. They are interspersed with rainless intervals. These breaks in monsoonare related to the movement of the monsoon trough. For various reasons, thetrough and itsaxis keep on moving northward or southward, which determines the spatial distribution ofrainfall. When the axis of the monsoon trough lies over the plains, rainfall is good in theseparts. On the other hand, whenever the axis shifts closer to the Himalayas there are longer dryspells in the plains, and widespread rain occur in the mountainous

catchment areas of the Himalayan rivers. These heavy rains bring in their wake, devastatingfloods causing damage to life and property in the plains.

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