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Study IQ www.studyiq.com, [email protected] Page - 1/48 Test Name : Test 2 - Indian Polity and Governance Total Questions : 100 Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00 Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins Instruction : Please read the instructions carefully The total duration of examination is 120 minutes. 1. Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer. 2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will 3. display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination. The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or 4. English) A test can be given only once 5. In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider 6. the best. All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question 7. You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not 8. possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam. Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours 9. and you will get your score based on the responses marked till then There are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks 10. assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each 11. question using one of the following symbols: You have not visited the question yet. You have not answered the question. You have answered the question. You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review. You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

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Test Name : Test 2 - Indian Polity and Governance Total Questions : 100Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins

Instruction :Please read the instructions carefully

The total duration of examination is 120 minutes.1.Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer.2.The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will3.display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timerreaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit yourexamination.The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or4.English)A test can be given only once5.In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider6.the best.All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question7.You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not8.possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam.Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours9.and you will get your score based on the responses marked till thenThere are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks10.assigned to that question will be deducted as penaltyThe Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each11.question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

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Q.1 Consider the following about Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Odisha1. It was famous for its non-violent means and the kind of success it had achieved2. Walter Ewer Commission recommendations were one of the contributors to the rebellion3. Buxi Jagabandhu was the leader of the movementA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

When the British started tinkering with the revenue system in 1803, the farming community ofOdisha rose in rebellion. At that critical juncture, Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar — the militarychief of the King of Khurda — led his motley army of Paikas forcing the British East IndiaCompany forces to retreat. The rebellion came to be known as Paika Bidroh (Paika rebellion).

After the defeat of the King of Khurda, the British were not comfortable with these aggressive,warlike new subjects and set up a commission under Walter Ewer to look into the issue.

The Company struggled initially but they managed to put down the rebellion by mid-1817. Thisis the 200th year of the rebellion.

Q.2 Consider the following about Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana1. The scheme is for senior citizens only2. It can be purchased from all major insurance providers approved by RBI3. Any shortfall between the interest guaranteed and interest earned will be subsidized bythe Government of IndiaA. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1 and 3 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

PMVVY is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the seniorcitizens available from 4th May, 2017 to 3rd May, 2018; The Scheme can be purchased offlineas well as online through Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Following are the major benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):§ Scheme provides an assured return of 8% p.a. payable monthly (equivalent to 8.30% p.a.

effective) for 10 years.

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§ Pension is payable at the end of each period, during the policy term of 10 years, as perthe frequency of monthly/ quarterly/ half-yearly/ yearly as chosen by the pensioner atthe time of purchase.

§ The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST.§ On survival of the pensioner to the end of the policy term of 10 years, Purchase price

along with final pension installment shall be payable.§ Loan upto 75% of Purchase Price shall be allowed after 3 policy years (to meet the

liquidity needs). Loan interest shall be recovered from the pension installments and loanto be recovered from claim proceeds.

§ The scheme also allows for premature exit for the treatment of any critical/ terminalillness of self or spouse. On such premature exit, 98% of the Purchase Price shall berefunded.

§ On death of the pensioner during the policy term of 10 years, the Purchase Price shall bepaid to the beneficiary.

§ The ceiling of maximum pension is for a family as a whole, the family will comprise ofpensioner, his/her spouse and dependents.

§ The shortfall owing to the difference between the interest guaranteed and the actualinterest earned and the expenses relating to administration shall be subsidized by theGovernment of India and reimbursed to the Corporation.

Q.3 Consider the following about Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana (AGEY)1. It is a sub-scheme under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural LivelihoodsMission (DAY-NRLM)2. It is implemented across all States and Union Territories except Delhi and ChandigarhA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

The main objectives of AGEY are to provide an alternative source of livelihoods to members ofSelf Help Groups (SHGs) under DAY-NRLM by facilitating them to operate public transportservices in backward rural areas. This will provide safe, affordable and community monitoredrural transport services like e-rickshaws, 3 and 4 wheeler motorised transport vehicles toconnect remote villages with key services and amenities including access to markets, educationand health for the overall economic development of the area.

The sub-scheme will be implemented in 250 blocks in the country on a pilot basis for a period of3 years from 2017-18 to 2019-20. The States have been informed about the number of blocksallocated to them to take up this sub-scheme in the pilot phases. One of the options proposedto be given under the sub-scheme is that the Community Based Organisation (CBO) will provideinterest free loan from its own corpus to Self Help Group member for purchase of the vehicle.

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The Government is implementing DAY-NRLM across the country in all States and UnionTerritories (except Delhi and Chandigarh).

Q.4 Recently the Cabinet had approved IRDAI’s admission to International Association ofInsurance Supervisors. Consider the following statements in this light1. It formalizes supervision of insurance companies in matters of cross-border transactionsand activities2. It would help us track terrorist financing betterA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Cabinet has given its ex-post facto approval for IRDAI’s admission as a signatory to InternationalAssociation of Insurance Supervisors.

The MMoU (Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding) is a global framework for cooperationand information exchange between insurance supervisors.

Through membership in the MMoU, jurisdictions are able to exchange relevant information withand provide assistance to other member jurisdictions, thereby promoting the financial stabilityof cross-border insurance operations for the benefit and protection of consumers.

It provides for supervision of other regulated entities such as insurance intermediaries underAnti Money Laundering, (AML) and Combating the Finance of Terrorism (CFT).

Q.5 When is National Deworming Day observed in India?A. February 10B. March 10C. February 25D. April 5

Answer : A,

Solution :

The National Deworming Day is observed on February 10 by the Ministry of Health and FamilyWelfare and its main objective is to deworm children between the ages of (1-19) at schools andanganwadi centres. This year for the first time, the Ministry has decided to give the dewormingtablets to the private schools children also. According to WHO, Soil-Transmitted Helminths (STH)or parasitic worms are among the most common infections worldwide. It lives in humanintestines and consume nutrients meant for the human body. They produce thousands of eggs

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each day, which are passed in faeces and spread to others in areas used for public toilet. Indiahas the highest burden of Soil-Transmitted Helminths (STH) in the world, with 220 millionchildren aged 1-14 estimated to be at risk of worm infections. The drug given is Albendazole. Itis very safe and has very few side effects and it occurs with mild side effects like nausea anddiarrhea and pass quickly.

Q.6 Consider the following about Integrated Monitoring and Advisory Council1. It is constituted under the Ministry of Finance2. It will help India fight the Balance of Payment issuesA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D,

Solution :

It is constituted with members across various ministries. It is aimed at achieving a target of 10% reduction in import dependency in oil and gas by 2021-22 under an institutional mechanism.IMAC was envisaged to facilitate better coordination and comprehensive strategy for all energyresources by focusing on supply and demand side management. IMAC is consisted of Secretary,Petroleum & Natural Gas and other Senior Officers from various Ministries such as Ministry ofNew and Renewable Energy, Urban Development, Road and Transport, Agriculture,Power/Bureau of Energy Efficiency, Rural Development, Finance, Petroleum Planning AnalysisCell and so on.

Q.7 Mekkedatu dam that has been in the news in recent times is built / going to be built onwhich river?A. KrishnaB. GodavariC. CauveryD. Penna

Answer : C,

Solution :

Karnataka has sought the Central Water Commission’s (CWC) permission to start work on abalancing reservoir across the Cauvery at Mekedatu at a cost of Rs. 5,912 crore. This is aproject that has been opposed by Tamil Nadu on the grounds that it violates the Cauverytribunal order. With this, the State has set the ball rolling on its proposal on the multi-purposeMekedatu project. According to sources in the State Water Resources Department, acommunication was sent to the CWC last week. It is learnt that the Detailed Project Report(DPR) was submitted to the chief engineer of CWC on June 7.

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Q.8 The term ‘anti-profiteering’ seen in the news in recent times is related to?A. International TradeB. Goods and Services TaxC. WTO SanctionsD. US Government Sanctions on N.Korea

Answer : B,

Solution :

The GST Council has formed a Selection Committee under the Chairmanship of CabinetSecretary to identify and recommend eligible persons for appointment as the Chairman andMembers of the National Anti-profiteering Authority under GST. The National Anti-profiteeringAuthority is tasked with ensuring the full benefits of a reduction in tax on supply of goods orservices flow to the consumers.

When constituted by the GST Council, the National Anti-profiteering Authority shall beresponsible for applying anti-profiteering measures in the event of a reduction in rate of GST onsupply of goods or services or, if the benefit of input tax credit is not passed on to the recipientsby way of commensurate reduction in prices. The National Anti-profiteering Authority shall beheaded by a senior officer of the level of a Secretary to the Government of India and shall havefour technical members from the Centre and/or the States.

Q.9 Nai Roshni Scheme is related to which of the followingA. Solar Lamps in Tribal AreasB. Free Electricity to people living in Schedule V areasC. Leadership Development of Minority WomenD. Educating girl children in Tribal Areas

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Ministry of Minority Affairs has started implementation of a scheme “Nai Roshni” forLeadership Development of Minority Women from 2012-13. The scheme aims to empower andinstil confidence among minority women by providing knowledge, tools and techniques forinteracting with Government systems, Banks and other institutions at all levels. The scheme isimplemented through Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs).

NITI Aayog had conducted an evaluation study on ‘Nai Roshni’- the scheme for LeadershipDevelopment of Minority Women in 2015-16.

Q.10 ‘Hambantota’ that has been in news recently refers to?A. It is a virus stain that affects edible fishB. It is a port in Sri Lanka

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C. It is an ethical hacking group that offer free services to governmentsD. It is a malware program that would corrupt user’s security files

Answer : B,

Solution :

Sri Lanka’s Cabinet on Tuesday cleared a revised deal for the Chinese-built port in Hambantota,the government said. The modified agreement, the government added, was more profitable toSri Lanka and also addressed security concerns raised by other countries. Speaking to reportershere, Ports Minister Mahinda Samarasinghe said the Cabinet gave final approval to sell 70%stake in the southern port to the state-run China Merchants Port Holdings for $1.12 billion.“Some [diplomatic] missions here were worried that the port would be used as a military navalbase. As per the revised agreement Sri Lanka will manage the port security,” he said. While theChinese would manage port operations, “no naval ship, including Chinese ones, can call atHambantota without our permission”, Mr. Samarasinghe said.

Q.11 The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) had recently supported the struggle of thepeople of X for Human Rights and Right to Self Determination. What is X?A. SyriaB. LebanonC. Jammu and KashmirD. Yemen

Answer : C,

Solution :

India notes with "utmost regret" that the OIC, during its 44th Session of the Council of ForeignMinisters in Abidjan in Cote d'Ivoire on July 10-11, again adopted certain resolutions whichcontain "factually incorrect and misleading references" to matters internal to India, includingthe Indian state of J-K, which is the country's integral part, it said. At the OIC Contact Group onJ&K meet, its Secretary General Yousef A Al-Othaimeen highlighted the OIC's activities indealing with the question of Jammu and Kashmir.He also re-affirmed "the principled position ofthe OIC in fully supporting the people of J-K in their struggle to achieve their legitimate rights, inparticular the right to self-determination and human rights".

Q.12 Consider the following about Shachi and Shruti, Naval Offshore Patrol Vessels launchedrecently1. They are built by private sector players2. They would increase the ocean surveillance and patrolling capabilities of the Indian NavyA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer : C,

Solution :

Reliance Defence and Engineering Limited (RDEL) today launched the first two Naval OffshorePatrol Vessels (NOPVs) at their shipyard in Pipavav, Gujarat. The ships are part of a five shipproject being constructed for the Indian Navy. The primary role of NOPVs is to undertakesurveillance of the country’s vast Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) besides operational tasks suchas anti-piracy patrols, fleet support operations, maritime security of offshore assets, coastalsecurity operations, and protection of shipping lanes. The NOPVs would increase the oceansurveillance and patrolling capabilities of the Indian Navy.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=168972

Q.13 Consider the following about ‘SHe-box’1. It is an online platform to enable women employees of the Central government to filecomplaints related to sexual harassment at the workplace.2. It seeks to ensure “effective implementation” of the Sexual Harassment of Women atWorkplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

‘SHe-box’ (sexual harassment electronic box) — hosted on the website of the Women and ChildDevelopment Ministry.

The platform will cater to Central government employees in the beginning and thereafter, itsambit will be widened to include the private sector as well.

Once a complaint is submitted to the ‘SHe-Box’, it will be directly sent to the internal complaintscommittee (ICC) of the ministry/department/PSU/autonomous body etc concerned, havingjurisdiction to inquire into the matter.

The ICC will take action as prescribed under the Act and update the status of the complaint. Theportal is also an effort to provide “speedier remedy” to women facing sexual harassment at theworkplace, as envisaged under the sexual harassment Act, a senior official of the ministry said.

Q.14 The term ‘Aarambh’ has been seen in the news recently. What does it mean?A. A scheme that prioritizes vernacular primary education to childrenB. A mobile app that deals with primary health care services available to citizensC. A mobile app for maintenance of roads

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D. A mobile app to promote startups in tribal areas

Answer : C,

Solution :

This Mobile Phone App aims at use of GIS based mapping for making road inventories, conditionsurveys, and producing cost estimates and other relevant data for preparation and monitoringof annual road maintenance plans. Its usage would greatly enhance the service delivery of thestate level institutions in planning and implementing performance based rural roadsmaintenance contracts. The newly launched mobile application would simplify the maintenancemanagement of rural roads.

Q.15 Consider the following about Electoral Bonds1. They are interest bearing debt instruments2. They help the donor conceal his identity while ensuring the money is accountedA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

As per the electoral bond mechanism announced in the Budget, the proposed bonds willresemble a promissory note and not an interest-paying debt instrument. They will be sold byauthorized banks and can be deposited in notified accounts of political parties within theduration of their validity.

The bonds will not carry the name of the donor and routing of the money through banks willensure that only tax paid money comes into the political system.

Q.16 Consider the following statements as means to reduce proliferation of money in elections.Which of them are1. To make bribery a cognizable offence.2. Criminalize the offence of 'paid news'3. Cancel polls on grounds of large-scale briberyA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

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Nasim Zaidi (CEC – Interview)http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/electoral-bonds-will-rob-poll-funding-of-transparency-fears-cec/articleshow/59406789.cms

What stringent measures do you seek against abuse of money?

EC wants to build a strong anti-corruption plank and there are three key reforms required. Oneis to make bribery a cognisable offence. Second, we want offence of 'paid news' criminalisedwith punishment for two years. The third reform we seek is to countermand polls on grounds oflarge-scale bribery.

Q.17 What is the phrase ‘Arm’s Length Price’ related to?A. Pricing of economic transactions between unconnected partiesB. Price of a product before and after the imposition of GSTC. Price of debt instruments in London Stock ExchangeD. Price of agricultural products excluding subsidies

Answer : A,

Solution :

A transaction in which the buyers and sellers of a product act independently and have norelationship to each other. The concept of an arm's length transaction is to ensure that bothparties in the deal are acting in their own self-interest and are not subject to any pressure orduress from the other party.

It is used specifically in contract law to arrange an agreement that will stand up to legalscrutiny, even though the parties may have shared interests (e.g. employer–employee) or aretoo closely related to be seen as completely independent (e.g., the parties have familial ties). Itis also one of the key elements in international taxation as it allows to an adequate allocation ofprofit taxation rights among countries that conclude double tax conventions, through transferpricing, among each other. Transfer pricing and the arm's length principle was one of the focalpoints of the Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) project developed by the OECD andendorsed by the G20.

Q.18 Consider the following about World Petroleum Congress1. It is called the Olympics of Petroleum2. It is organized every five yearsA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

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Solution :

The 22nd World Petroleum Congress, the largest gathering for the oil and gas industry inIstanbul with a view to addressing the challenges facing the sector.The tri-annual WPC Conference is widely recognized as the `Olympics` of the oil and gasindustry. It attracts Ministers, CEOs of Oil and Gas MNCs, experts and academics from thehydrocarbon sectors and provides an ideal forum to showcase potential of India’s hydrocarbonsector, highlight the recent policy reforms to international investors and interact with policymakers, technologists, scientists, planners and management experts, entrepreneurs, serviceproviders and vendors in order to attract foreign investments into India’s growing oil and gassector.

Q.19 What are the organizations involved in ‘JIGYASA’1. Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan2. Navodaya Vidyalaya3. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research4. ISROA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1,2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

Jigyasa, a student- scientist connect programme was officially launched in the national capitaltoday. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with KendriyaVidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme. The focus is on connecting schoolstudents and scientists so as to extend student’s classroom learning with that of a very wellplanned research laboratory based learning. 1151 Kendriya Vidyalayas connect with 38 CSIRLaboratories targeting one lakh students and nearly 1000 teachers annually. “JIGYASA” is oneof the major initiative taken up by CSIR at national level, during its Platinum JubileeCelebration Year. CSIR is widening and deepening its Scientific Social Responsibility furtherwith the programme.

Q.20 Recently Sri Lanka banned ‘Botton-Trawling’. What is it?A. It is a technique used to escape marine patrollingB. It is a technique used by huge ships to anchor themselves safelyC. It is a technique that helps ships sail through sea stormsD. It is a fishing technique that uses heavy nets

Answer : D,

Solution :

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Bottom trawling is an industrial fishing method where a large net with heavy weights is draggedacross the seafloor, scooping up everything in its path – from the targeted fish to theincidentally caught centuries-old corals. Bottom trawls are used in catching marine life that liveon the seafloor, such as shrimp, cod, sole and flounder. Bottom trawling is unselective andseverely damaging to seafloor ecosystems. The net indiscriminately catches every life andobject it encounters. Thus, many creatures end up mistakenly caught and thrown overboarddead or dying, including endangered fish and even vulnerable deep-sea corals which can live forseveral hundred years. This collateral damage, called bycatch, can amount to 90% of a trawl’stotal catch. In addition, the weight and width of a bottom trawl can destroy large areas ofseafloor habitats that give marine species food and shelter. Such habitat destructions can leavethe marine ecosystem permanently damaged.

Q.21 Consider the following about having a State Flag1. It is prohibited under the Constitution2. In S.R. Bommai v/s Union of India (Supreme Court 1994) case, the Supreme Court hadrestated this constitutional provisionA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D,

Solution :

When asked about the Constitutional and legal position of the State having its own flag, formerAdvocate-General of Karnataka Ravivarma Kumar cited S.R. Bommai v/s Union of India(Supreme Court 1994) case. “In Bommai’s case, the Supreme Court has declared thatfederalism is a basic feature of the Constitution and States are supreme in their sphere. Thisbeing the Constitutional position, there is no prohibition in the Constitution for the State to haveits own flag. However, the manner in which the State flag is hoisted should not dishonour thenational flag. It has to be always below the national flag. The national flag code specificallyauthorises use of other flags subject to the regulation by the court. So State flag is notunauthorised,” he said.

Q.22 Consider the following about Indian Railways Organization for Alternate Fuel (IROAF)1. It is constituted under Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas2. It promotes the use of eco-friendly fuelsA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

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Solution :

IROAF is a unique organization in the Government space which was established by Ministry ofRailways to explore new environment friendly fuels/ renewable energy and eco- friendlytechnologies like substitution of diesel with CNG/LNG in train sets, replacing acetylene/LPG byCNG/LNG for metal cutting in Railway Workshops, proliferating and promoting use of Bio-Dieselin Railway Locomotives, roof top solar generation systems in Railway Workshops, use of solarenergy on roof top of passenger and freight trains, setting up of waste to energy plants forconverting Bio-Waste into Bio gas/electrical energy, Hydrogen based fuel cell technologies, Geo-Thermal Technologies and converting waste/bio mass to fuel. The organization is a premiersingle window agency of Indian Railways to work as a knowledge base and explore and proveout new fuels and technologies for Indian Railways with a view to being down Indian Railwaysfuel bill and at the same time achieve a shift towards greener fuels / renewable energy sourcesfor a sustainable future.

Q.23 Recently IROAF won the Golden Peacock Awards. What are these awards given for?A. Environment friendly initiativesB. Corporate Social ResponsibilityC. Corporate ExcellenceD. Corruption-Free Administration

Answer : C,

Solution :

Golden Peacock Awards, instituted by the Institute Of Directors (IOD), India in 1991, are nowregarded as a benchmark of Corporate Excellence worldwide. Golden Peacock awards havebecome a hallmark of excellence, both locally & globally. Based on internationally recognisedcriteria, the credibility of these awards lies in the transparency depth & impartiality of theassessment process.

Q.24 What is Aaykar Setu?A. It is a method to file returns under the GST regimeB. It is a department under the Central Board of Excise and CustomsC. It is an app that helps entities pay taxes and apply for PAND. It is an app to inform about illegal transactions or black money

Answer : C,

Solution :

A new desktop service and a corresponding Android-based application ‘Aaykar Setu’ that willallow entities track TDS, pay taxes and apply for permanent account number (PAN). It will alsohelp people link their 12-digit Aadhaar with PAN card. This app is in the series of actions takenby the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to provide better taxpayer services and reduce

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grievances. It is also a step by the Income Tax department to directly communicate with thetaxpayers on multiple informative and useful tax services aimed at providing tax information attheir fingertips.

Q.25 ‘Sarvatra Sarvottam Suraksha’ is the by-line of which Indian agency?A. Indian ArmyB. Indian AirforceC. National Security GuardD. Intelligence Bureau

Answer : C,

Solution :

The National Security Guard (NSG) was set up in 1984 as a Federal Contingency DeploymentForce to tackle all facets of terrorism in the country. Thus the primary role of this Force is tocombat terrorism in whatever form it may assume in areas where activity of terrorists assumesserious proportions, and the State Police and other Central Police Forces cannot cope up withthe situation. The NSG is a Force specially equipped and trained to deal with specific situationsand is therefore, to be used only in exceptional situations. The Force is not designed toundertake the functions of the State Police Forces or other Para Military Forces of the Union ofIndia.

The NSG was modelled on the pattern of the SAS of the UK and GSG-9 of Germany. It is a task-oriented Force and has two complementary elements in the form of the Special Action Group(SAG) comprising Army personnel and the Special Ranger Groups (SRG), comprising personneldrawn from the Central Para Military Forces / State Police Force. All the personnel are ondeputation. It is headed by a DG drawn from the Indian Police Service.

Q.26 Recently foundation stone for a cereal-based Mega Food Park in Kapurthala, Punjab was laid.What is the cereal crop in question?A. RiceB. WheatC. MaizeD. Jowar

Answer : C,

Solution :

Maize is an amazing cereal and is an alternate to Jhona (paddy) and Kanak (wheat). Maize isrich in protein, provides nutritional requirements that India needs and Maize consumes muchlesser water and could contain the problem of further water depletion.

Maize Based Mega Food Park is the first major and serious step in the history of India for

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containing the desertification problem of Punjab and would make farmers turn to maizecultivation which need less water for more production. Maize is being used by differentindustries for seed, starch, brewery, food additives, sweeteners etc and it is also a basic rawmaterial to thousands of industrial products like oil, proteins, pharmaceutical, cosmetics,beverages, film, textile, gum, value added foods, paper industries, bio-ethanol etc.

Q.27 Consider the following about Garib Nawaz Skill Development Centres1. It will be established in 100 districts of the country2. It will ensure employment oriented skill development of youth belonging to Minoritycommunities.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Garib Nawaz Skill Development Centres will be established in 100 districts of the country whichwill effectively ensure employment oriented skill development of youth belonging to Minoritycommunities.In next six months, Garib Nawaz Skill Development Centres, providing job oriented skill trainingin various fields, will be established in Hyderabad, Noida, Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Aurangabad,Bhopal, Indore, Allahabad, Mysore, Chennai, Goa, Gauhati, Kolakata, Patna, Kishanganj,Dehradun, Shahjahanpur, Rampur, Ranchi, Giridih, Mewat, Tijara, Panipat, Delhi, UddhamsinghNagar, Amritsar, Chandigarh, Mumbai etc.

Q.28 Consider the following about Nai Udaan Scheme1. It is brought out by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship2. It provides low interest loans to skilled artisans across the countryA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D,

Solution :

Government of India, Ministry of Minority Affairs is implementing the scheme Nai Udaan-Scheme for Support to Minority Students for preparation of Main Examination, who clear Prelimsconducted by Union Public Service Commission, Staff Selection Commission, State PublicService Commissions etc. The objective of the Scheme is to provide financial support to theminority candidates clearing prelims conducted by Union Public Service Commission, Staff

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Selection Commission and State Public Service Commissions to adequately equip them tocompete for appointment to Civil Services in the Union and the State Governments and toincrease the representation of the minority in the Civil Services.

Q.29 Consider the following about Thalassemia1. It is a contagious disease that affects the blood2. It is caused by protozoaA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D,

Solution :

Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder in which the body makes an abnormal form ofhemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the protein molecule in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

The disorder results in excessive destruction of red blood cells, which leads to anemia. Anemiais a condition in which your body doesn’t have enough normal, healthy red blood cells.

Thalassemia is inherited, meaning that at least one of your parents must be a carrier of thedisease. It’s caused by either a genetic mutation or a deletion of certain key gene fragments.

Do read this article:http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/policy-boosts-care-for-blood-disorders/article19365746.ece

Q.30 Which of the following have been Codex standards under the Codex Alimentarius Commissionrecently1. Pepper2. Cumin3. ThymeA. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

In a major recognition of India’s efforts to benchmark global spices trade, the CodexAlimentarius Commission (CAC) has adopted three Codex standards for black, white and greenpepper, cumin and thyme, paving the way for universal agreement on identifying quality spices

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in various countries.

The Codex Alimentarius, or "Food Code" is a collection of standards, guidelines and codes ofpractice adopted by the Codex Alimentarius Commission. The Commission, also known as CAC,is the central part of the Joint FAO/WHO Food Standards Programme and was established byFAO and WHO to protect consumer health and promote fair practices in food trade. It held itsfirst meeting in 1963. Codex standards ensure that food is safe and can be traded.

The 188 Codex members have negotiated science based recommendations in all areas relatedto food safety and quality: food hygiene; maximum limits for food additives; residues ofpesticides and veterinary drugs; and maximum limits and codes for the prevention of chemicaland microbiological contamination. Codex food safety texts are a reference in WTO tradedisputes.

Q.31 What is a Pod Taxi?A. Cars used to transport passengers inside an airportB. Chauffer Taxis that run on HydrogenC. Automated vehicles that carry a small number of passengersD. Push carts that are deployed in a cruise ship

Answer : C,

Solution :

Small automated vehicles/podcars/cable cars which carry a small number of passengers. Theropeway-like system runs on electricity and driverless pods and comes down at designatedstations, thus removing the traffic burden from crowded roads. The Urban Development Ministryhas claimed that since the pod taxi is part of the mass rapid transit system, it cannot beexecuted without the ministry’s clearances. But because the city falls under NH-8, the ministryhas said it is the NHAI's responsibility.

http://www.moneycontrol.com/news/india/six-tech-savvy-public-transport-modes-could-soon-be-a-reality-in-india-2337627.html

Q.32 Right to vote is aA. Constitutional RightB. Legal RightC. Statutory RightD. Natural Right

Answer : A,

Solution :

The honorable Supreme Court of India in Rajabala and Others vs State of Haryana 2015 hasclearly stated that Right to Vote and Contest is a Constitutional Right guaranteed to Indian

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citizens.

https://indiankanoon.org/doc/181312133/

Q.33 Genexpert Test refers toA. It is a test to check determine the parents of a babyB. It is a test to diagnose TBC. It is a test to diagnose soil transmitted helminthiasisD. None of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Genexpert test is a new molecular test for TB which diagnoses TB by detecting thepresence of TB bacteria, as well as testing for resistance to the drug Rifampicin.Someorganisations have claimed that the Genexpert test is going to revolutionize the diagnosis andcare of people with TB. The test is a molecular test which detects the DNA in TB bacteria. It usesa sputum sample and can give a result in less than 2 hours. It can also detect the geneticmutations associated with resistance to the drug Rifampicin.

Q.34 Which of the following is the correct definition of a referendum?A. A general vote by the electorate on a single political question which has been referred to

them for a direct decision.B. The direct vote of all the members of an electorate on an important public question such

as a change in the constitution.C. The right of citizens outside the legislature to originate legislation.D. The removal of an elected government official from office by a petition followed by

voting.

Answer : A,

Solution :

A referendum is a direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to vote on a particularproposal. This may result in the adoption of a new law.

Some definitions of 'plebiscite' suggest that it is a type of vote to change the constitution orgovernment of a country (option b).

The method under option c is known as “Initiative”.

Option d is the explanation for “Recall”.

All of the above are tools of direct democracy which is a form of democracy in which peopledecide (e.g. vote on, form consensus on) policy initiatives directly. This differs from the majority

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of modern democracies, which are representative democracies.

Q.35 Identify the statement that is incorrect about democracy.A. In a democracy, only leaders elected by people should rule the country.B. In a democracy, people have the freedom to express views, freedom to organize and

freedom to protest.C. In a democracy, there will be no public post based on heredity.D. In a democracy, fundamental rights are always guaranteed to all the citizens.

Answer : D,

Solution :

option a and b are the basic features of a democracy. Option c is also true because even thoughin democracies like that of UK (which is a constitutional monarchy), we find the queen and king,it is not a public post but only a nominal post.

Option d is wrong because guaranteeing of fundamental rights is not a mandatory feature in ademocracy though it is present in the case of India.

Q.36 Consider the following statements about the spread of democracy:1. Every inhabited continent now has at least one country with a democratic form ofgovernment.2. Sri Lanka granted universal adult franchise to its citizens 19 years before India.3. The disintegration of Soviet Union accelerated the spread of democracy.4. The undemocratic character of United Nations lies in the fact that the real power iswielded only by the five permanent members.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3D. All are correct

Answer : D,

Solution :

More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances towardsdemocracy since 1980.

Sri Lanka granted it in 1931 whereas India, only after it became a republic in 1950.

Poland and several other countries became free from the control of the Soviet Union during1989-90. They chose to become democracies.

Q.37 Match the following: 1. Coup a. An alliance of people, associations, parties or nations.

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2. Coalition b. A condition under which the freedom of expression is taken away. 3. Censorship c. The sudden overthrow of a government illegally. 4. Colony d. Territory under the immediate political control of another state.A. 1a, 2b, 3c, 4dB. 1c, 2a, 3b, 4dC. 1c, 2a, 3d, 4bD. 1d, 2b, 3c, 4a

Answer : B,

Solution :

Some other important terms:

Martial law: A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of thenormal administration of justice.

Trade Union: An association of workers for the purpose of maintaining or improving theconditions of their employment.

Veto: The right of a person, party or nation to stop a certain decision or law.

Q.38 Which of the following is not a feature of democracy?A. Free and fair electoral competitionB. One person, one voteC. Rule of lawD. Martial Law

Answer : D,

Solution :

Martial law is a system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of thenormal administration of justice. Hence this is counterproductive to the purpose of democracy.

Q.39 Match each of these events with the relevant feature of democracy:1. King of Bhutan has declared that a. Rule of Lawin future he will be guided bythe advice given to him by electedrepresentatives.2. The king of Nepal imposed a ban b. Free and fair electionson political gatherings demonstrationsand rallies.3. The Indian Supreme Court held that c. Respect for Rightsthe dissolution of Bihar assemblywas unconstitutional.

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4. Political parties in Bangladesh have d. Major decisions byagreed that a neutral government should elected leadersrule the country at the time of elections.A. 1c, 2a, 3b, 4dB. 1d, 2c, 3a, 4bC. 1c, 2b, 3d, 4aD. 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c

Answer : B,

Solution :

The first event is the perfect example of elected leaders/representatives taking major decisions.

The second event is an issue of breach of rights of the citizens to peacefully gather and holddemonstrations.

The third event is a clear indication of the exercise of rule of law by the Supreme Court

The fourth event shows solidarity and commitment in ensuring free and fair elections in thecountry.

Q.40 Which of the following is not an argument against democracy?A. Leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability.B. Democracy is all about political competition and power play. There is no scope for

morality.C. Elected leaders do not know the best interest of the people. It leads to bad decisions.D. Democracy will ultimately lead to misuse of power by a single, all powerful leader.

Answer : D,

Solution :

option D is an argument against dictatorship, not democracy. Other arguments againstdemocracy are:

· So many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it leads to delays.· Democracy leads to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.· Ordinary people don’t know what is good for them; they should not decide anything.

Q.41 Select the options that define the importance of democracy the most:1. A democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable formof government.2. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making.3. Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.4. Democracy is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct itsown mistakes.

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A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All are correct

Answer : D,

Solution :

Democracy cannot get us everything and is not the solution to all problems. But it is clearlybetter than any other alternative that we know. It offers better chances of a good decision, it islikely to respect people’s own wishes and allows different kinds of people to live together. Evenwhen it fails to do some of these things, it allows a way of correcting its mistakes and offersmore dignity to all citizens. That is why democracy is considered the best form of government.

Q.42 Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would youidentify a democracy?A. Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to

vote.B. Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years.C. Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections.D. Country D: There is no independent election commission. Which of these countries could

be a democracy?

Answer : B,

Solution :

Though it’s not ideal in a democracy to have the same party winning elections all the time, it isnot illegal or impossible for one party to win elections in a free and fair manner. Moreover, allother options are certainly wrong which leaves only “b” for consideration.

Q.43 Which of these is not a good argument in favor of democracy?A. People feel free and equal in a democracy.B. Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.C. Democratic government is more accountable to the people.D. Democracies are more prosperous than others.

Answer : D,

Solution :

option d is clearly the wrong argument to support democracy because the success of a form ofgovernment should not be measured in terms of its financial prosperity.

Q.44 Which of the following is not a valid reason for the necessity of a constitution?

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A. It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind ofpeople to live together.

B. It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take whichdecisions.

C. It resolves future conflicts by deciding everything a country would need, in the verybeginning.

D. It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of thecitizens are.

Answer : C,

Solution :

Though the constitution is instrumental in the resolution of various conflicts between thegovernment’s organs, it does not decide on the problems of the future and will instead makeprovisions to allow an organ of the government to make those decisions in line with the will ofpeople.

Q.45 Which of the following statements are not true?A. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a

territory.B. All countries that have constitutions are not necessarily democratic. But all countries that

are democratic will have constitutions.C. In 1931, the resolution at the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on

how independent India’s constitution should look like.D. The Constitution does not reflect the views of its members alone. It expresses a broad

consensus of its time.

Answer : C,

Solution :

As far back as in 1928, Motilal Nehru and eight other Congress leaders drafted a constitution forIndia. In 1931, the resolution at the Karachi session (not Lahore) of the Indian National Congressdwelt on how independent India’s constitution should look like.

Q.46 Consider the following statements about the constituent assembly:1. The constituent assembly was chosen directly by the people of India2. The Assembly represented members from different language groups, castes, classes,religions and occupations.A. Only statement 1 is correctB. Only statement 2 is correctC. Both the statements are correctD. Both the statements are wrong

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Answer : B,

Solution :

The Constituent Assembly represented the people of India. There was no universal adultfranchise at that time. So the Constituent Assembly could not have been chosen directly by allthe people of India. It was elected mainly by the members of the existing ProvincialLegislatures.

Q.47 “Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shallredeem our pledge, not wholly or in full measure, but very substantially. At the stroke of themidnight hour, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom.” Who said theabove famous quote?A. Dr. B.R. AmbedkarB. Pandit Jawaharlal NehruC. Mahatma GandhiD. Bhagat Singh

Answer : B,

Solution :

This above extract is a part of the speech made by our first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru onIndependence Day.

Q.48 Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:a. Motilal Nehru i. President of the Constituent Assemblyb. B.R. Ambedkar ii. Member of the Constituent Assemblyc. Rajendra Prasad iii. Chairman of the Drafting Committeed. Sarojini Naidu iv. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928Options:A. a1, b2, c3, d4B. a2, b3, c1, d4C. a4, b3, c1, d2D. a4, b1, c3, d2

Answer : C,

Solution :

none

Q.49 In an election the voters can chooseA. Who will make laws for them.B. Who will form the government and take major decisions.

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C. The party whose policies will guide the government and law making.D. The form of government they would want. Which of the following option is the wrong

answer?

Answer : D,

Solution :

Voters in an election can only choose the candidates who they would want to see in power andthe parties of the respective candidates, but the form of government (parliamentary democracyin the case of India) will remain the same as it is defined in the constitution.

Q.50 Election held for a constituency to fill the vacancy caused by death or resignation of amember is called:A. General electionB. By-electionC. Ad-hoc electionD. Council election

Answer : B,

Solution :

Elections held in all constituencies at the same time either on the same day or within a fewdays is called a general election. Sometimes election is held only for one constituency to fill thevacancy caused by death or resignation of a member. This is called a by-election. There is nosuch thing as an Ad-hoc election and council election are held at the state level for Panchayatand Municipal councils.

Q.51 Consider the following with respect to electoral constituencies:1. The boundary of a Lok Sabha constituency is the same as the district boundary of thatconstituency2. In a SC reserved constituency only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Castes canstand for election.Choose the correct option:A. Only statement 1 is correctB. Only statement 2 is correctC. Both the statements are correctD. Both the statements are wrong

Answer : B,

Solution :

Because the Delimitation commission has to divide the constituencies to Lok Sabha based ontheir caste population, the same parameters that apply to the boundary of district cannot be

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applied to a constituency. Hence their boundaries are different. Some constituencies arereserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes [SC] and Scheduled Tribes [ST]. In a SCreserved constituency only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Castes can stand forelection. Similarly only those belonging to the Scheduled Tribes can contest an election from aconstituency reserved for ST. Currently, in the Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for theScheduled Castes and 47 for the Scheduled Tribes.

Q.52 Which of the following about the election commission is false?A. Election Commission (EC) enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary

enjoys.B. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India.C. Once appointed, the Chief Election Commissioner is answerable only to the President,

and not the government.D. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is

virtually impossible for it to remove the CEC.

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Chief Election Commissioner is answerable neither to the President nor the government.

Q.53 Choose the correct answer from the following statements:1. Over the last fifty years, the turnout in Europe and North America has increased. In Indiathe turnout has actually gone down.2. In India the poor, illiterate and underprivileged people vote in larger proportion ascompared to the rich and privileged sections.3. Common people in India attach a lot of importance to elections. They feel that throughelections they can bring pressure on political parties.4. The interest of voters in election related activities has been decreasing over the years.Options:A. Only 2 and 3 are correctB. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correctC. Only 4 is correctD. All are correct

Answer : A,

Solution :

Turnout indicates the per cent of eligible voters who actually cast their vote. Over the last fiftyyears, the turnout in Europe and North America has declined. In India the turnout has eitherremained stable or actually gone up.

The interest of voters in election related activities has been increasing over the years. During

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the 2004 elections, more than one-third voters took part in a campaign-related activities. Morethan half of the people identified themselves as being close to one or the other political party.

Q.54 Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?A. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.B. People select the representative of their choice in an election.C. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary.D. People can indicate which policies they prefer.

Answer : C,

Solution :

There are no direct elections to select members of the judiciary, hence its performance cannotbe evaluated through elections.

Q.55 Which of the following with respect to the Indian form of government is not true?A. Prime Minister is the head of the government and actually exercises all governmental

powers. He takes most of the decisions in the Cabinet meetings.B. Parliament consists of two Houses only, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.C. The Prime Minister must have the support of all the Lok Sabha members.D. Both b and c are wrong

Answer : D,

Solution :

Parliament consists of the President and two Houses, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The PrimeMinister must have the support of a majority (not all) of Lok Sabha members.

Q.56 Consider the following with respect to the Parliament of India:1. Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the Houses.2. Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters.A. Only statement 1 is correctB. Only statement 2 is correctC. Both the statements are correctD. Both the statements are wrong

Answer : C,

Solution :

Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the Houses. But if there is a difference betweenthe two Houses, the final decision is taken in a joint session in which members of both theHouses sit together. Because of the larger number of members, the view of the Lok Sabha islikely to prevail in such a meeting.

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Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, theRajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by 14 days or suggest changesin it. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these changes.

Q.57 Statement 1: parliamentary democracy in most countries is often known as the Cabinet formof government.Statement 2: Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything,the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings.Choose the correct answer:A. Both the statements are true and statement 2 is the reason for statement 1B. Both the statements are true but statement 2 is not the reason for statement1C. Statement 1 is true but 2 is falseD. Statement 2 is true but 1 is false

Answer : A,

Solution :

Cabinet is thus the inner ring of the Council of Ministers. It comprises about 20 ministers. TheCabinet works as a team. The ministers may have different views and opinions, but everyonehas to own up to every decision of the Cabinet.

Q.58 Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?A. The Supreme CourtB. The PresidentC. The Prime MinisterD. The Parliament

Answer : D,

Solution :

Parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country. This task of law making orlegislation is so crucial that these assemblies are called legislatures. Parliaments all over theworld can make new laws, change existing laws, or abolish existing laws and make new ones intheir place.

Q.59 When any of our fundamental rights are violated we can seek remedy throughA. PoliceB. The supreme court onlyC. National Human Rights CommissionD. The Supreme and High Courts

Answer : D,

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Solution :

The fundamental rights in the Constitution are important because they are enforceable. Wehave a right to seek the enforcement of the rights. This is called the Right to ConstitutionalRemedies.

This itself is a Fundamental Right. This right makes other rights effective. It is possible thatsometimes our rights may be violated by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government.When any of our rights are violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a FundamentalRight we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state.

Q.60 Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?A. Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farmsB. Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schoolsC. Men and women government employees get the same salaryD. Parents’ property is inherited by their children

Answer : D,

Solution :

option d is wrong because inheritance does not come under the chapter of fundamental rightsin the constitution. Option a refers to the rights of citizens to migrate to any part of the territoryin search of work. Option b is the rights of minorities to set up educational institutions andoption c deals with equality in matters of public employment.

Q.61 Arrange the following rivers from south to north taking the points where they meet the oceanas reference:1. Sabarmati2. Mahi3. Narmada4. TapiA. 4321B. 2314C. 3142D. 4231

Answer : A,

Solution :

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Q.62 Arrange the following hills from north to south1. Balaghat2. Satpura3. Aravalli4. VindhyaA. 1234B. 4321C. 3421D. 3142

Answer : C,

Solution :

Q.63 Arrange the following places from east to west1. Kathiawar Peninsula2. Chota Nagpur Plateau3. Baghelkhand4. Malwa PlateauA. 3214

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B. 3241C. 2314D. 2341

Answer : D,

Solution :

Q.64 Which among the following has the largest river basin:A. NarmadaB. GodavariC. TapiD. Mahi

Answer : B,

Solution :

Q.65 Which of the following states have the largest oilseeds production in India?A. GujaratB. MaharashtraC. Madhya PradeshD. Kerala

Answer : A,

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Solution :

India’s largest oilseed producing state is Gujarat, thanks to its position as top groundnutproducing state of India. Rajasthan is India’s top Rapeseed & Mustard producing state, followedby Madhya Pradesh and Haryana. Almost half (48.12%) of Rapeseed and Mustard is producedby only Rajasthan.

India’s top Soyabean producing state is Madhya Pradesh with a share of 44% in India’s totalproduction of this protein rich crop. Among other oil crops, Karnataka is largest producer ofSunflower.

Q.66 The tropic of cancer, which divides India into half and passes through 8 states, does not passthrough which of the below states?A. RajasthanB. JharkhandC. TripuraD. Uttar Pradesh

Answer : D,

Solution :

Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states:

Gujarat,

Rajasthan,

Madya Pradesh,

Chhattisgarh,

Jharkhand,

West Bengal,

Tripura,

Mizoram.

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Q.67 Identify the correct statement(s):1. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a panchayat2. It consists of only 3 villages3. Anyone who is 18 or more has a right to vote and is member of gram sabhaA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by the Panchayat.Anyone living in the area, who is an adult, that is 18 years old or more, is a member of GramSabha. The Gram Sabha members also elect the representatives to the Gram Panchayat.

Q.68 What is Nirmal Gram Puraskar?A. It is a collection of village recordsB. It is an award for successful execution of projectsC. It is an award for full sanitation coverageD. It is given to the cleanest village which inspires other people to use toilets

Answer : C,

Solution :

The “Nirmal Gram Puraskar” “Clean Village Award” was started in 2005 under Total Sanitation

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Campaign (TSC) to honor, felicitate and encourage those Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)which have achieved full sanitation coverage in their area of operation and become OpenDefecation Free and clean villages, for making TSC into a mass movement. A “Nirmal Gram” isan “Open Defecation Free” village where all houses, Schools and Anganwadis having sanitarytoilets and awareness amongst community on the importance of maintaining personal andcommunity hygiene and clean environment. As per the available information, Sikkim has beenthe first Nirmal State in the country having achieved full sanitation coverage.

Q.69 ‘Bhoorsingh’ has been in the news recently. Who is he?A. A deer who has been chosen as the official mascot of Kanha Tiger ReserveB. India’s first wrestling champion at the OlympicsC. India’s first detective novel’s protagonistD. Non of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

Kanha tiger reserve becomes first in India get official mascot: Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’. TheKanha tiger reserve, spread over Mandla and Balaghat districts, is the only place in the worldwhere the species exists.According to the reserve’s field director Sanjay Shukla, Kanha hopes tocreate a better connect with its visitors, especially the younger generation, with theintroduction of the mascot.“We wanted to create a unique identity for Kanha, which not onlymakes it look distinct but also helps spread awareness and allows the younger generation toconnect with all wildlife,” he said. Shukla said he came up with the idea when he met Nagpur’saward-winning cartoonist Rohan Chakravarty, who makes cartoons and illustrations on wildlife.

Q.70 Identify the incorrect statement about Secretary1. The secretary of the gram panchayat and the secretary of the gram sabha are different2. He is an elected person from the gram sabha3. He is sometimes appointed by the government in case of lack of consensus4. He is responsible for calling the meeting of the gram sabha and gram panchayat andkeeping a record of the proceedingsA. 1 and 2B. 1 2 and 3C. 2 onlyD. 4 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

The secretary of the gram panchayat and the secretary of the gram sabha are the same. He isnot an elected representative. He is appointed by the state government not in case of lack ofconsensus but for calling meetings of the gram sabha and the gram panchayat and keeping a

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record of the proceedings.

Q.71 Which among these is not the work of gram panchayat1. The construction and maintenance of water sources, roads, drainage, school and othercommon property resources2. Levying and collecting local taxes3. Executing government schemes related to generating employment in the village4. Sale of cattle and other domestic animals in a common agricultural marketA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 2 and 3D. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

The work of a gram panchayat includes· The construction and maintenance of water sources, roads, drainage, school and

other common property resources· Levying and collecting local taxes· Executing government schemes related to generating employment in the village· It has nothing to do with sale of cattle or an agricultural market.

Q.72 Which are the sources of funds for the Panchayat1. Collection of taxes on houses, market places, etc2. Government scheme funds received through various departments of the government-through the Janpad and Zila Panchayats3. Donations for community works etc4. 1 % off the income of top 20 wealthiest men according to income tax recordsA. 1 2 and 3B. All of the aboveC. 1 onlyD. None of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

There is no wealth tax or taxing of 1 % income of top 20 wealthy men. It depends on collectionof taxes, government scheme funds, and donations for community works.

Q.73 To whom are the Panchs and the Gram Panchayat answerable toA. District CollectorB. Gram Sabha

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C. Local PoliceD. Gram Panchayat Secretary

Answer : B,

Solution :

Gram Sabha consists of every adult member of village (generally, the population of villageshould be more than 1500), while Gram Panchayat is the executive five members elected bymembers of Gram Sabha to work for the village development. It is a classic example ofexecutive being responsible to legislative.

Q.74 Which institution regulates distribution of money among all the Gram PanchayatsA. District Collector’s OfficeB. State governmentC. Zila ParishadD. Panchayat Samiti

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Zila Panchayat or District Council or Zilla Parishad or District Panchayat, is the third tier ofthe Panchayati Raj system. Zila Parishad is an elected body. Block Pramukh (president) ofPanchayat Samiti (Block) are also represented in Zila Parishad. The members of the StateLegislature and the members of the Parliament of India are members of the Zila Parishad. Itregulates distribution of money to all gram panchayats.

Q.75 Which of the following offices are elected?1. Ward Councillors2. Commissioner3. Councillor’s committees4. Administrative aides of CommissionerA. 1and 2B. 1 and 3C. 1 2 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

The councillors you elect form a municipal council. This is the body that makes the by-laws anddecisions for local government and oversees the executive and administration. A municipalcouncil has a number of different responsibilities. These include making the laws and policies,providing financial oversight, planning the budget, and hiring the municipal manager. It is also

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responsible for ensuring that the municipal administration fulfils its duties to the community.Each municipal council will appoint standing committees elected from among its members.Usually these include a finance committee; service committees such as water, sanitation,electricity; human resources; and development committees

Q.76 In this method of farming the land on a hill slope is made into flat plots and carved out insteps. The sides of each plot are raised in order to retain water. This allows water to stand inthe field, which is best for rice cultivation. The method described here isA. Contour farmingB. Terrace FarmingC. Ley FarmingD. Plantation Farming

Answer : B,

Solution :

In agriculture, a terrace is a piece of sloped plane that has been cut into a series of successivelyreceding flat surfaces or platforms, which resemble steps, for the purposes of more effectivefarming . This type of landscaping, therefore, is called terracing. Graduated terrace steps arecommonly used to farm on hilly or mountainous terrain. Terraced fields decrease both erosionand surface runoff, and may be used to support growing crops that require irrigation, such asrice. The Rice Terraces of the Philippine Cordilleras have been designated as a UNESCO WorldHeritage Site because of the significance of this technique

Q.77 What is the basic unit of the public health service run by the government?A. Midwife and paramedicB. Village nurse and village health workerC. Primary Health CentreD. District Hospital

Answer : C,

Solution :

District Hospitals or General Hospitals: Controlled by the respective state governments andserving the respective districts (administrative divisions in India).

· Taluk hospitals: Taluk level hospitals controlled by the respective state governmentsand serving the respective taluks (administrative divisions in India, and smaller thandistricts).

· Rural hospitals and Block Primary Health Centres - generally one or sometimes two ineach Community Development Block, in such states where these are functioning asadministrative sub-districts like Taluks.

· Community Health Centre CHCs: Community Health Centres are available is basichealth unit in the urban areas.

· Primary Health Centres: The basic units with the most basic facilities, and especially

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serving rural India, generally at the level of a panchayat.[2]· Sub-centers - The most basic units of health in villages; first point of contact between

villagers and public health care system in India, consisting of village nurse and villagehealth worker.

Q.78 The government should ensure the welfare of the people and provide health care facilities toall. This is aA. Fundamental RightB. Fundamental DutyC. Directive Principles of State PolicyD. Primary duty of the Government

Answer : D,

Solution :

It is the civic duty of the government towards its citizens, but not a fundamental right or duty ordirective principles of state policy.

Q.79 Vesting power in the hands of Members of the Legislative Assembly is supposed to grantpower toA. MLAsB. Ruling PartyC. PeopleD. Democracy

Answer : C,

Solution :

A Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) is a representative elected by the voters of anelectoral district (constituency) to the Legislature of a State in the Indian system of government.Each state has between seven and nine MLAs for every Member of Parliament (MP) that it has inthe Lok Sabha.

Q.80 Who set up a Mission in Khedgaon near Pune in 1898 where widows and poor women wereencouraged to become literate and independent. They were also taught a variety of skills suchas carpentry and running a printing pressA. Pandita RamabhaiB. Sarojini NaiduC. Pandita SitabhaiD. Lakshmi Nehru

Answer : A,

Solution :

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Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati (23 April 1858 – 5 April 1922) was an Indian social reformer, achampion for the emancipation of women, and a pioneer in education. She was accorded thetitles of Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and Sarasvati as a scholar after being examined by facultyof the University of Calcutta.

Pandita Ramabai was a social worker, scholar and a champion of women's rights, freedom andeducation. Pandita Ramabai participated in the freedom movement and was one of the 10women delegates of the Congress session of 1889

Q.81 Which literary work written in 1905 has a feminist Utopia called Lady land and who is itsauthorA. Sultana’s Dream by Rokeya Sakhawat HossainB. Alo o Chaya by Kamini RoyC. Lihaaf by Ishmat ChugtaiD. An Ode to Waris Shah by Amrita Pritam

Answer : A,

Solution :

Sultana's Dream is a 1905 feminist utopian story written by Rokeya Sakhawat Hussain, aMuslim feminist, writer and social reformer from Bengal. It was published in the same year inMadras based English periodical The Indian Ladies Magazine. The word sultana here means afemale sultan, a Muslim ruler.

It depicts a feminist utopia (called Ladyland) in which women run everything and men aresecluded, in a mirror-image of the traditional practice of purdah. The women are aided byscience fiction-esque "electrical" technology which enables labor less farming and flying cars;the women scientists have discovered how to trap solar power and control the weather. Thisresults in "a sort of gender-based Planet of the Apes where the roles are reversed and the menare locked away in a technologically advanced future

Q.82 Where does Tawa river originateA. Mahadeo HillsB. Satpura ForestC. Near NarmadaD. Hoshangabad

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Tawa is the Narmada's longest tributary, at 172 km. It rises in the Satpura Range of Betuland flowing north and west, joins the Narmada at the village of Bandra Bhan in HoshangabadDistrict

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Q.83 What is the purpose of a constitution?1. It lays out certain ideals that forms the basis of the kind of country that citizens aspire tolive in2. It tells the fundamental nature of our society i.e a country’s political system3. It helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons can agree as a basis forgovernance4. It shows agreement on ideals and principles that determine governanceA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

A constitution is the basic law on which all other laws are based.

Every permanent organization of individuals, whether public or private, must have basic rules orlaws for its establishment and for the conduct of its activities. Our entire national, state, andlocal governmental system rests on constitutions.

In a democracy, the construction of a constitution is a function of the people because thepeople exercise the sovereignty and, as a result, decide what rules and principles they wantgovernment to follow. A portion of this constituent power is delegated by the people to thelegislature by allowing it to participate in the process of amending the constitution.

Q.84 Which of these is not a key feature of the Indian constitution?A. FederalismB. Parliamentary form of governmentC. Transferability of powersD. Secularism

Answer : C,

Solution :

All three organs, legislative, executive and judiciary, all three organs act as a check and balanceto each other and work in coordination and cooperation to make our parliamentary system ofgovernance work. India being an extremely large and diverse country needs a system like thiswhere all organs are responsible to each other as well as coordinated to each other, otherwisemaking governance possible becomes a very rigid and difficult task.

It is important to note that the separation of powers is still an important guiding principle of theconstitution. Most noteworthy is our judicial system which is completely independant from theexecutive and the legislature. According to Article ? the High Courts and Supreme Courts have

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the power of judicial review which empowers them to declare any law passed by the parliamentunconstitutional if it so decides. As in regard to the judges, they are extremely well protected bythe Constituition, their conduct is not open to discussion in the Parliament and theirappointment can only be made by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of Indiaand the judges of the Supreme court.

Q.85 Which section of Indian constitution is referred to as its ‘conscience’?A. Fundamental RightsB. Fundamental DutiesC. Directive Principles of State PolicyD. The Preamble

Answer : A,

Solution :

The section on Fundamental Rights has often been referred to as the ‘conscience’ of the IndianConstitution. Fundamental Rights, protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise ofpower by the State. The Constitution, thus, guarantees the rights of individuals against theState as well as against other individuals. The Constitution, also guarantees the rights ofminorities against the majority.

Q.86 Which of these is not an objective of the secular Indian statea. That one religious community does not dominate another;b. That some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community;c. That the State does not enforce any particular religiond. That the state may propound its way of life and teach these values to its citizensA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Indian Constitution mandates that the Indian State be secular. According to theConstitution, only a secular State can realise its objectives to ensure the following:

· That one religious community does not dominate another;· That some members do not dominate other members of the same religious

community;· That the State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious

freedom of individuals.It is not a way to teach citizens values.

Q.87 What is the strategy of non-interference in the context of Indian secularism

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1. This means that in order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere withreligious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular religious communities2. This means that in order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere withreligious practices, the state does not make any exceptions for particular religious communities.3. This means that in order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere withreligious practices, the state encourages them to follow modern liberal and progressive idealsA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1 and 3

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Indian State works in various ways to prevent the above domination. First, it uses astrategy of distancing itself from religion. The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group andnor does it support any one religion. In India, government spaces like law courts, police stations,government schools and offices are not supposed to display or promote any one religion.

The second way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the above domination is through astrategy of noninterference. This means that in order to respect the sentiments of all religionsand not interfere with religious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particularreligious communities.

Q.88 Which is the incorrect statement about Indian Secularism?1. Strategy of intervention2. In Indian secularism, though the State is not strictly separate from religion it does maintaina principled distance vis-à-vis religion.3. This means that any interference in religion by the State has to be based on the ideals laidout in the ConstitutionA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. None of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Indian Secularism prevents the domination through a strategy of intervention. This means thatin order to prevent the religion-based exclusion & discrimination of ‘lower castes’, the IndianConstitution bans untouchability.The intervention of the State can also be in the form ofsupport. Ex – The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to set up theirown schools & colleges & also gives them financial aid on a non-preferential basis.

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Q.89 Which of the following constitutes the Parliament of India1. The President2. The Rajya Sabha3. The Lok SabhaA. 1B. 2C. 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India. The Parliamentis composed of the President of India and the houses. It is bicameral with two houses: the RajyaSabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The President in his role ashead of legislature has full powers to summon and prorogue either house of Parliament or todissolve Lok Sabha. The president can exercise these powers only upon the advice of the PrimeMinister and his Union Council of Ministers.

Those elected or nominated (by the President) to either house of Parliament are referred to asmembers of parliament (MP). The Members of Parliament, Lok Sabha are directly elected by theIndian public voting in Single-member districts and the Members of Parliament, Rajya Sabha areelected by the members of all of the State Legislative Assembly by proportional representation.

Q.90 The Parliament while in session begins with theA. Question HourB. Zero HourC. Presidential speechD. Calling of Motion

Answer : A,

Solution :

Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting session of India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions thatMembers of Parliament raise about any aspect of administrative activity. The concernedMinister is obliged to answer to the Parliament, either orally or in writing, depending on the typeof question raised.

Q.91 Consider the following statements about Rowlatt Act1. Rowlatt Act which allowed the British government to imprison people without due trial.Indian nationalists including MahatmaGandhi were vehement in their opposition to the Rowlattbills.2. The Rowlatt Act came into effect on 10 March 1919.

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3. In this regard Dr Satyapal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested.4. To protest these arrests, a public meeting was held on 13 April at Jallianwala Bagh inAmritsar.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, was alegislative act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on March 18, 1919, indefinitelyextending the emergency measures of preventive indefinite detention, incarceration withouttrial and judicial review enacted in the Defence of India Act 1915 during the First World War. Itwas enacted in light of a perceived threat from revolutionary nationalist organisations of re-engaging in similar conspiracies as during the war which the Government felt the lapse of theDIRA regulations would enable. Passed on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Committee andnamed after its president, British judge Sir Sidney Rowlatt, this act effectively authorized thegovernment to imprison any person suspected of terrorism living in the Raj for up to two yearswithout a trial, and gave the imperial authorities power to deal with all revolutionary activities

Q.92 Which of these is not the function of Judiciary?A. Dispute ResolutionB. Judicial ReviewC. Civil security and safetyD. Upholding the law and enforcing fundamental rights

Answer : C,

Solution :

While security and safety does come under upholding the law, it is primarily the function of thepolice.

Q.93 Why is separation of powers important?1. It minimizes political interference2. It increases efficiency3. It discourages corruption4. It eliminates arbitrarinessA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 4 only

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Answer : A,

Solution :

The three branches of government should “check and balance" on each other. It would allowone branch to limit another and to prevent one from becoming supreme, but one branch mustnot exercise the whole power of another, nor obtain control over another branch, for examplethe executive should not be able to vote legislative and decide when a new legislation shouldbe elected. This is possible only with the separation of powers.

Q.94 The structure of the courts from the lower to the highest level is such that it resembles aA. SquareB. PyramidC. CircleD. Vertical line

Answer : B,

Solution :

There are three different levels of courts in our country. There are several courts at the lowerlevel while there is only one at the apex level. The courts that most people interact with arewhat are called subordinate or district courts. These are usually at the district or Tehsil level orin towns and they hear many kinds of cases. Each state is divided into districts that arepresided over by a District Judge. Each state has a High Court which is the highest court of thatstate. At the top is the Supreme Court that is located in New Delhi and is presided over by theChief Justice of India. The decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding on all other courtsin India.

Q.95 Which of these is a fundamental rightA. Right to privacyB. Right to propertyC. Right to LivelihoodD. Right to die

Answer : C,

Solution :

The right to life includes the right to livelihood. The sweep of the right conferred by Article 21 iswide and far reaching. It does not mean merely that life cannot be extinguished or taken awayas, for example, by the imposition and execution of the death sentence, except according toprocedure established by law. That is but one aspect of the right to life. An equally importantfacet of that right is the right to livelihood because, no person can live without the means ofliving, that is, the means of livelihood

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Q.96 Article 22 of the Constitution and criminal law guarantee to every arrested person thefollowing Fundamental Rights:1. The Right to be informed at the time of arrest of the offence for which the person is beingarrested.2. The Right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.3. The Right not to be ill treated or tortured during arrest or in custody.4. Confessions made in police custody cannot be used as evidence against the accused.A. 1 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. None of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

In addition to these, a boy under 15 years of age and women cannot be called to the policestation only for questioning.

Q.97 Choose the correct order of investigation into a crime1. Information about offence è Filing of FIR è Conduct of investigation2. Filing of FIR è Collecting information è Conduct of investigation3. Filing of FIR è Conduct of investigation è Collecting informationA. 1B. 2C. 3D. It is discretionary

Answer : A,

Solution :

It is with the registration of an FIR that the police can begin their investigations into a crime.The law states that it is compulsory for an officer in charge of a police station to register an FIRwhenever a person gives information about a cognizable offence. This information can be givento the police either orally or in writing. The FIR usually mentions the date, time and place of theoffence, details the basic facts of the offence, including a description of the events. If known,the identity of the accused persons and witnesses is also mentioned. The FIR also states thename and address of the complainant. There is a prescribed form in which the police registersan FIR and it is signed by the complainant. The complainant also has a legal right to get a freecopy of the FIR from the police.

Q.98 What is the role of the Public Prosecutor1. In court, it is the Public Prosecutor who represents the interests of the State.2. The role of the Prosecutor begins once the police has conducted the investigation and

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filed the charge sheet in the court.3. He/she has a role to play in the investigation.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. All of the aboveD. 1 and 2 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

He does not have a role to play in the investigation. Further the Prosecutor must conduct theprosecution on behalf of the State. As an officer of the court, it is his/her duty to act impartiallyand present the full and material facts, witnesses and evidence before the court to enable thecourt to decide the case.

Q.99 What do you mean by ghettoization of a community1. It is the forced marginalization of a community2. It causes people of the same community to populate an area3. It is often the site of tension and conflict in a community.A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. All of the aboveD. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

This is often discussed in the context of Muslims in India. A ghetto is an area or locality that ispopulated largely by members of a particular community. Ghettoisation refers to the processthat leads to such a situation. This may occur due to various social, cultural and economicreasons. Fear or hostility may also compel a community to group together as they feel moresecure living amongst their own. Often a ‘ghettoised’ community has few options of moving out,which may lead to them becoming alienated from the rest of the society.

Q.100Consider the following statements:1. Rivers Ganga and Yamuna would be legally treated as “living people,” and as such, wouldenjoy “all corresponding rights, duties and liabilities of a living person.”2. A river in New Zealand, the Whanganui, was granted legal rights as a human being forthe first time in the world.3. It was a culmination of over a decade-long effort by the local Maori tribeA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 only

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D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The difference between the two judgments pertains to the custodians appointed to act onbehalf of the rivers. New Zealand has appointed two guardians — one from the crown and onefrom the Whanganui iwi tribe itself. In India, the three custodians are solely governmentauthorities: the chief secretary of the state of Uttarakhand, the advocate general of the state ofUttarakhand and the director of the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).

These three, the bench noted, will serve as “the human face to protect, conserve and preservethe rivers and their tributaries” and the advocate general will represent all legal proceedings toprotect the interest of the rivers.

Simply put, the conceptual and practical implication of the judgment is that it makes it easierfor the three chosen authorities to take action against those who pollute the river.