sub: long term qp date: 03-01-2021 max.marks : 720
TRANSCRIPT
Sub: LONG TERM_QP Date: 03-01-2021
Max.Marks : 720 Duration : 3Hrs
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##PHYSICS##
=====
1. Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal
attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the system will
be
A) v B) 2v C) Zero D) 1.5 v
2. The figure shows the positions and velocities of two particles. If the particles move under the mutual
attraction of each other, then the position of centre of mass at t = 1 s is
A) x = 5 m B) x = 6 m C) x = 3 m D) x = 2 m
3. If the linear density of the rod of the rod of length L varies as A Bx = + , then its centre of mass is
given by
A) ( )
( )CM
L 2A BLX
3 3A 2BL
+=
+ B)
( )
( )CM
L 3A 2BLX
3 2A BL
+=
+
C) ( )
CM
L 3A 2BLX
3
+= D)
( )CM
L 2A 3BLX
3
+=
4. Two particles of equal masses have velocities iˆv 2i m/s= and 2
ˆv 2 jm/s= . The first particle has
an acceleration ( ) 2i
ˆ ˆa 3i 3j m/s= + , while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The centre
of mass of the two particles moves in a
A) Circle B) Parabola C) Straight line D) Ellipse
5. Centre of mass of three particles of masses 1kg, 2kg and 3kg lies at the point (1, 2, 3) and centre of
mass of another system of particles 3kg and 2kg lies at a point ( -1, 3, - 2). Where should we put a
particle of mass 5kg so that the centre of mass of entire system lies at centre of mass of 1st system?
A) (0, 0, 0) B) (1, 3, 2) C) ( - 1, 2, 3) D) (3, 1, 8)
6. The distance of the centre of mass of the T – shaped plate from O is
A) 7 m B) 2.7 m C) 4m D) 1 m
7. Four bodies of masses 2, 3, 5 and 8kg are placed at the four corners of a square of side 2m. The position
of CM will be
A) 8 13
,9 5
B) 7 11
,9 9
C) 11 13
,9 9
D) 11 8
,9 9
8. Two heavenly bodies of mass m and 2m moves towards each other under mutual force of attraction.
Then acceleration of centre of mass of the system having both bodies is
A) greater than acceleration of heavier body but smaller than acceleration of lighter body
B) greater than acceleration of lighter body but smaller than acceleration of heavier body
C) greater than acceleration of both the bodies
D) always zero
9. Two particles P and Q initially at rest, move towards each other under a mutual force of attraction. At
the instant when the speed of P is v and speed of Q is 2v, the speed of the centre of mass of the system
is
A) 3 v B) 1. 5 v C) v D) zero
10. A circular ring of mass 6kg and radius a is placed such that its centre lies at the origin. Two particles of
masses 2kg each are placed at the intersecting points of the circle with the x-axis and +ve y – axis. Then
the angle made by the position vector of centre of mass of entire system with x-axis is
A) 450 B) 600 C) 1 4tan
5
−
D) 300
11. Two block of masses 5kg and 2kg are placed on a frictionless surface and connected by a spring. An
external kick gives a velocity of 14 m/s to heavier block in the direction of higher one. The velocity
gained by the centre of mass is
A) 14 ms−1 B) 7 ms−1 C) 12 ms−1 D) 10 ms−1
12. Two bodies of masses 2kg and 4kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s towards each other
due to mutual gravitational attraction. What is the velocity of their centre of mass?
A) 5.3 ms−1 B) 6.4 ms−1 C) zero D) 8.1 m/s
13. A boy of mass m is standing on a block of mass M kept on a rough surface. When the boy walks from
left to right on the block, the centre of mass (boy + block) of system
A) remains stationary
B) shifts towards left
C) shifts towards right
D) shifts towards right if M > m and towards left if M < m
14. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three masses two of which of mass M
4 each are thrown off in
perpendicular with velocity of 3 m/s and 4 m/s respectively. The third piece will be thrown off with a
velocity of
A) 3.0 m/s B) 2.5 m/s C) 2.0 m/s D) 1.5 m/s
15. A body of mass ‘a’ moving with a velocity ‘b’ strikes of a body of mass ‘c’ and gets embedded into it.
The velocity of the system after collision is
A) a c
ab
+ B)
ac
a b+ C)
a
b c+ D)
a
a b+
16. A rod is of length 3m and its mass per unit length is directly proportional to the distance x from its one
end. The centre of gravity of the rod from that end will be at
A) 1.5 m B) 2.0 m C) 2.5 m D) 3.0 m
17. If the force on a rocket which is moving with a velocity of 300 m/s is 210 N. Then the rate of combustion
of the fuel will be
A) 10.7 kg / s B) 0.07 kg / s C) 1.7 kg / s D) 0.7 kg / s
18. An object of mass 3M at rest splits into three equal fragments. Two fragments have velocities v i
and
- v j
. The velocity of third fragment will be
A) v j i −
B) v i j
−
C) v i j
+
D)
v i j
2
−
19. An electron and proton move towards each other with velocities v1 and v2 respectively. The velocity
of their centre of mass is
A) zero B) v1 C) v2 D) 1 2v v
2
+
20. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18kg and 12kg. The velocity of 18 kg
mass is 6 m/s. the kinetic energy of the other mass is
A) 524 J B) 256 J C) 486 J D) 324 J
21. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2. If the particle of ma ss m1 is pushed
towards the mass centre of particles through a distance d, by what distance would the particles of
mass m2 move so as to keep the mass centre of particles at the original position.
A) d B) 2
1
m
m C) 1
1 2
md
m m+ D) 1
2
md
m
22. If the external forces acting on a system have zero resultant. They centre of mass
A) may move B) may accelerate C) must not move D) none of these
23. Three particles each of mass m, are placed at the corners of n equilateral triangle of side a, as shown.
The position vector of the centre of mass is
A)ˆa j
i2 3
+
B) ( )a ˆ ˆ3i j2
+ C) ( )a ˆ ˆ3i 3 j2
+ D) ˆa jˆ3i
2 3
+
24. A balloon has 8 gram of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air escapes at a uniform rate of 7cm/s.
If the balloon shrinks in 5.65. then the average force acting on the balloon is
A) 410 N− B) 210− dyne C) 610 N− D) 56 dyne
25. If M is mass of rocked, r is rate of ejection of gases and u is velocity of gases with respect to rocked
then acceleration of the rocket dv
dt after time t is equal to
A)ru
M rt− B)
M rt
ru
− C)
ru
M rt+ D)
ru
M
26. A 3kg body has a velocity of i 6 j +
ms−1 and a 2kg body has a velocity of 2 i j
−
ms−1 then velocity of
centre of mass is
A) 13.2 i 1.4 j ms
− −
B) 12.3 i 4.1 j ms
−
−
C) 11.4 i 3.2 j ms
− −
D) 14.1i 2.3 j ms
−
−
27. Distance between earth and moon is 3.8 105 km and the mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the
moon. Then
A) CM of earth moon system lies between the outer surfaces of moon system lies within the earth.
B) CM of earth moon system lies within the earth
C) CM of earth moon system lies within moon
D) CM of earth moon system lies outside the earth.
28. A ball at rest on a horizontal surface enjoys
A) stable equilibrium B) unstable equilibrium
C) neutral equilibrium D) non equilibrium
29. A running man has half the kinetic energy of that of a boy of half of his man. The man speeds up by 1
m/s so as to have same kinetic energy as that of the boy, the original speed of the man is
A) ( )2 1− m/s B) 2 m/s C) 1
2 1− m/s D)
1
2 m/s
30. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity ‘u’ hits another stationary sphere of the same
mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then the ratio of the velocity of two spheres after collision
will be
A) 1 e
1 e
−
+ B)
1 e
1 e
+
− C)
e 1
e 1
+
− D)
e 1
e 1
−
+
31. A space craft of mass M is moving with velocity ‘v’ and suddenly explodes into two pieces. A part of it
of mass m becomes at rest, then the velocity of after part will be
A) Mv
M m− B)
Mv
M m+ C)
mv
M m− D)
( )M m v
m
+
32. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If e is the coefficient of
restitution, the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is
A) 2
2
1 eh
1 e
+
− B)
2
2
1 eh
1 e
−
+ C)
2
2
h 1 e
2 1 e
−
+ D)
2
2
h 1 e
2 1 e
+
−
33. Two particles having position vectors 1 2r 3 i 5 j m and r 5 i 3 j m
= + = − −
are moving with velocities
1 2v 4 i 3 j m / s andv 4 i 7 j m / s
= + = +
. If they collide after 2 seconds, the value of is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
34. A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the rifle recoils freely, then the kinetic energy of the rifle is
A) less than that of the bullet B) more than that of the bullet
C) same as that of the bullet D) equal or less than that of the bullet
35. In the elastic collision of objects
A) only momentum remains constant B) only K.E. remains constant
C) both remains constant D) none of these
36. A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass, then the two pieces will
A) be at rest
B) move in different velocities in different directions
C) move with same velocity in opposite directions
D) move with same velocity is same direction
37. The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision is
A) 1 B) 0 C) D) - 1
38. Two balls of mass 1m and
2m where 2m = 0.5
1m , undergo head on collision as show in figure. If 3 1v 0.5v=
value of 4v is
A) 4 1 2v v v= + B)
4 1 2v v 2v= + C) 4 1 2v 2v v= + D)
4 1 2v 2v 3v= +
39. Choose the false statement
A) In a perfect elastic collision, the relative velocity of approach is equal to the relative velocity of separation
B) In an inelastic collision the relative velocity of approach is less than the relative velocity of separation.
C) In an inelastic collision, the relative velocity of separation is less than the relative velocity of approach
D) In perfect inelastic collision relative velocity of separation is zero.
40. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic collision is
A) 1 B) 0 C) – 1 D) infinity
41. Two small particles of equal masses start moving in opposite directionis from a point A in a horizontal circular
orbit. Their tangential velocities are v and 2v respectively, as shown in the figure. Between collisions, the
particles move with constant speeds. After making how many elastic collisions, other than that at A, these two
particles will again reach the point A?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1
42. A particle of mass m travelling with velocity v and kinetic energy E collies elastically to another particle of mass
nm, at res. What is the fraction of total energy retained by the particle of mass m?
A)
2n 1
n
+
B)
2n 1
n 1
+
− C)
2n 1
n 1
−
+ D) none of these
43. A mass 1m moves with a great velocity. It strikes another mass 2m at rest in a head on collision and comes
back along its path with a low speed after collision. Then
A) 1 2m m B) 1 2m m=
C) 1 2m m D) there is relation between 1 2m & m
44. A ball of 0.5kg collided with wall at 300 and bounced back elastically. The speed of ball was 12m/s. The contract
remained for 1 sec. What is the force applied by wall on ball
A) 12 3N B) 6 3N C) 3 3N D) 3N
45. A body dropped freely from a height h on to a horizntal plane, bounces up and down and finally comes to rest.
The coefficient of restitutionise. The ratio of velocities at the beginning and after two rebounds is
A) 1 : e B) e : 1 C) 1 : e3 D) e2 : 1
##CHEMISTRY##
=====
46. For which reaction is p CK K =
A) ( ) ( ) ( )22NOCl g 2NO g C g+ B) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 3N g 3H g 2NH g+
C) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2H g C g 2HC g+ D) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 32SO g O g 2SO g+
=====
47. Which oxide of Nitrogen is most stable
A) ( ) ( ) ( ) 16 –1
2 2 22NO g N g 2O g K 6.7 10 mol L+ =
B) ( ) ( ) ( ) 30
2 2 22NO g N g O g K 2.2 10+ =
C) ( ) ( ) ( ) 34 5 –5
2 5 2 22N O g 2N g 5O g K 1.2 10 mol L + =
D) ( ) ( ) ( ) 33 –1
2 2 22N O g 2N g O g K 3.5 10 mol L+ =
=====
48. For a reaction 2 2 3N 3H 2NH+ the value CK does not depend upon
a) Initial concentration of the reactants b) Pressure
c) Temperature d) Catalyst
A) Only c B) a, b, c C) a, b, d D) a, b, c, d
=====
49. 4mol of 5PC are heated at constant temperature in closed container. If degree of
dissociation for 5PC is 0.5 then calculate total number of moles at equilibrium
A) 4.5 B) 6 C) 3 D) 4
=====
50. 4 moles of A are mixed with 4 moles of B, when 2 mole of C are formed at equilibrium,
according to the reaction, A B C D+ + . The equilibrium constant is
A) 4 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4
=====
51. The effect of adding krypton (Kr) gas on position of equilibrium keeping the volume of the
system constant is
A) If n 0 = , backward reaction is favoured
B) If n ve = + , forward reaction is favoured
C) If n ve = − , forward reaction is favoured
D) No effect whatever be the value of n
=====
52. The oxidation of 2SO by 2O to 3SO is exothermic reaction. The yield of 2SO will be minimum
if
A) Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
B) Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
C) Both temperature and pressure are increased
D4) Both temperature and pressure are decreased
=====
53. Does Le chatelier’s principle predict a change of equilibrium concentration for the following
reaction if the gas mixture is compressed ( ) ( )2 4 2N O g 2NO g
A) Yes, backward reaction is favoured B) Yes forward reaction is favoured
C) No change D) No information
=====
54. Vapour density of 5PC is 104.25 at T C . Then degree of dissociation of 5PC is. Mw =
208.5)
A) 20% B) 0% C) 30% D) 15%
=====
55. p
c
Klog log RT 0
K+ = is a relationship for the reaction
A) 5 3 2PCl PCl Cl+ B) 2 2 32SO O 2SO+
C) 2 2H I 2HI+ D) 2 2 3N 3H 2NH+
=====
56. In the above question, varies with D
d according to
A)
B)
C)
D)
=====
57. What is the minimum mass of ( )3CaCO s , below which it decomposes completely, required
to establish equilibrium in a 6.50 litre container for the reaction
( ) ( ) ( )3 2 cCaCO s CaO s CO g ; K 0.05+ = mole/litre
A) 32.5 g B) 24.6 g C) 40.9 g D) 8.0 gm
=====
58. For the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )2 2H g +I g 2HI g
cK 66.9= at 350 °C and cK 50.0= at 448 °C. The reaction has
A) H ve = + B) H ve = −
C) H zero = 4) H sign cannot be determined
=====
59. The gas 2A in the left flask allowed to react with gas 2B present in right flask as
( ) ( ) ( )2 2 cA g B g 2AB g ; K 4+ = at 27 °C
What is the concentration of AB when equilibrium is established?
A) 1.33 M B) 2.66 M C) 0.66 M D) 0.33 M
=====
60. A 10 litre box contains 3 2O and O at equilibrium at 2000 K. 14pK 4 10= atm for
( ) ( )3 22O g 3O g . Assume that
2 3O OP P and if total pressure is 8 atm, then partial
pressure of 3O will be
A) –58 10 atm B) –711.3 10 atm C) –69.71 10 atm D) –29.71 10 atm
=====
61. At 727 °C and 1.23 atm of total equilibrium pressure, 3SO is partially dissociated into
2 2SO and O according to ( ) ( ) ( )3 2 2SO g SO g 1/2O g+ . The density of equilibrium
mixture is 0.9 gm/litre. The degree of dissociation is
A) 1/3 B) 2/3 C) l/4 D) 1/5
=====
62. If for ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 2 p2A B g 2A g B g , K+ = TOTAL PRESSURE at equilibrium) and starting
the dissociation from 4 mol of 2A B then
A) Degree of dissociation of 2A B will be 2/3).
B) Total number of moles at equilibrium will be 14/3).
C) At equilibrium the number of moles of 2A B are not equal to the no. of moles of 2B
D) At equilibrium the number of moles of 2A B are equal to the no. of moles of 2A
=====
63. Match( list –I equilibrium) with (List –II conditions for reaction) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists
List–I
(Equilibrium)
List–II
(Conditions)
P. ( ) ( ) ( )2 2A g +B g 2AB g
Endothermic
1. High temperature
Q. ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 32AB g +B g 2AB g
Exothermic
2. Low temperature
R. ( ) ( ) ( )3 2 22AB g A g +3B g
Endothermic
3. High pressure
4. Low pressure
5. Independent of pressure CODE : P Q R P Q R A) 1 & 3 2 & 3 2 & 4 B) 2 &3 1 & 4 1 & 3
C) 1 & 5 2 & 3 1 & 4 D) 2 & 4 1 & 5 1 & 3
=====
64. Match List-I (hypothetical reactions) with List-II ratio p
C
K
K for the given reaction) and select
the correct answer using the code given below the lists
a) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 3A g 3B g 2AB g+ i) ( )–2
RT
b) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2A g B g 2AB g+ ii) ( )0
RT
c) ( ) ( ) ( )2 3A s 1.5 B g AB g+ iii) ( )1
2RT
d) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2AB g AB g 0.5B g+ iv) ( )1
2RT−
Codes
a b c d a b c d
A) i) ii) iii) iv) B) i) i) iv) iii)
C) i) iv) iii) ii) D) i) ii) iv) iii)
=====
65. Effect of temperature on equilibrium constant is given by 2
2 1
1
H 1 1
2.303Rlog K – log K
T T
−−
=
Then for an endothermic reaction the false statement is
A) 2 1
1 1
T T
− =
positive B) 2 1log K log K C) H =positive D) 2 1K K
=====
66. In the reaction 5 3 2PC PC C + , the partial pressure of 3PC , 2C and 5PC are 0.3 ,
0.2 and 0.6 atm respectively. If partial pressure of 3PC and 2C was increased twice, what
will be the partial pressure of 5PC is in atm
A) 0.3 B) 1.2 C) 2.4 D) 0.15
=====
67. For which of the following reaction the degree of dissociation (1) and equilbrium constant
Kp) are related as 2
p 2
4 P
(1K
)=
−
A) ( ) ( )2 4 2N O g 2NO g B) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2H g I g 2HI g+
C) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 3N g 3H g 2NH g+ D) ( ) ( ) ( )3 2 5PC g C g PC g+
=====
68. If A B ( )CK 3 ,= B C ( )CK 5 ,= C D ( )CK 2=
The value of equilibrium constant for the above reaction are given, the value of equilibrium
constant for D A will be
A) 15 B) 0.3 C) 30 D) 0.03
=====
69. The equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction at given temperature
A) Depends on initial concentration of the reactants
B) Depends on the concentration of the products at equilibrium
C) Does not depend on the initial concentrations
D) It is not characteristic of the reaction
=====
70. If 8 g mole of 5PC heated in a closed vessel of 10 L capacity and 25% of its dissociates into
3PC and 2C at the equilibrium then value of pK will be equal to
A) P
30 B)
P
15 C)
2P
3 D)
3P
2
=====
71. In the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )2A g B g C g 362 kcal+ + . Which combination of pressure and
temperature gives the highest yield of C at equilibrium
A) 1000 atm and 500ºC B) 500 atm and 500ºC
C) 1000 atm and 50ºC D) 500 atm and 100 ºC
=====
72. aA bB CC, H –x kcal+ = If high pressure and low temperature are the favourable
condition for the formation of the product in above reaction, hence
A) a b c + B) a b c + C) a b c= + D) None of these
=====
73. Following equilbrium is present in a closed container at the temperature of 25ºC
( ) ( ) ( )2 2 2 2g g g
SO C SO C+ When 2C is added to the equilibrium mixture the following
statement will be correct for the system
a) Concentrations of 2SO , 2C and 2 2SO C change
b) 2C is formed in more amount
c) Concentration of 2SO decreases and that of 2 2SO C increases
A) a, c B) a, b C) b, c D) a, b, c
=====
74. When sulphur (in the form of S8) is heated at temperature T, at equilibrium, the pressure of
S8 falls by 30% from 1.0 atm, because S8(g) is partially converted into S2(g). Calculate Kp
for the reaction.
A) 2.96 B) 6.14 C) 204.8 D) None of these
=====
75. 2 2 3N (g) 3H (g) 2NH (g)+
For the reaction initially the mole ratio was 1 : 3 of N2 : H
2. At equilibrium 50% of each has
reacted. If the equilibrium pressure is P, the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium is:
A) P
3 B)
P
4 C)
P
6 D)
P
8
=====
76. The vapour density of undecomposed 2 4N O is 46, when heated, the vapour density
decreases to 24.5 due to its dissociation into 2NO . The percentage dissociation of 2 4N O at
the final temperature is:
A) 87 B) 60 C) 40 D) 70
=====
77. The role of catalyst in a chemical reaction is
A) To help attain equilibrium in a shorter time
B) To lower the activation energy
C) To shift the equilibrium in such a way as to increases the concentration of the product
D) Both A and B
=====
78. Which of the following mixture will be a buffer solution when dissolved in 500.00 mL of water
?
A) 0.200 mol of aniline and 0.200 mol of HCl
B) 0.200 mol of aniline and 0.400 mol of NaOH
C) 0.200 mol of NaCl and 0.100 mol of HCl
D) 0.200 mol of aniline and 0.100 mol of HCl
=====
79. pH of 0.01 M (NH4)2SO4 and 0.02 M NH4OH buffer (pKa of NH4+ = 9.26) is
A) 4.74 + log2 B) 4.74 - log 2 C) 4.74 + log 1 D) 9.26 + log 1
=====
80. The solubility products of Al(OH)3 and Zn(OH)2 are 8.5 ×10-23 and 1.8 × 10-14
respectively. If NH4OH is added to a solution containing Al3+ and Zn2+ ions, then substance
precipitated first is:
A) Al(OH)3 B) Zn(OH)2 C) Both together D) None at all.
=====
81. The solubility of M(OH)3 is x mol L-1. Its Ksp would be
A) 9 x3 B) 3 x4 C) 27 x4 D) 9 x4
=====
82. An acetic acid and sodium acetate buffer has pH = 5.36, the ratio of concentration of
[-OAc]/[HOAc] is (pKa of acetic acid = 4.76)
A) 6 : 1 B)4 : 3 C) 1 : 1 D) 4 : 1
=====
83. Let the solubilities of AgCl in H2O, 0.01 M CaCl2; 0.01 M NaCl and 0.05M AgNO3 be S1, S2,
S3, S4 respectively. What is the correct relationship between these quantities.
A) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 B) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4
C) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4 D) S4 > S2 > S3 > S1
===== 84. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl
(Ksp = 1.8 × 10-10) will occur only with
A) 10-4 M [Ag+] and 10-4M[HCl] B) 10-3 M[Ag+] and 10-3 M [Cl-]
C) 10-6M [Ag+] and 10-6 M [Cl -] D) 10-2 M [Ag+] and 10-2M [Cl-].
=====
85. A solution contains 0.1 M H2S and 0.3 M HCl. Calculate the conc. of S2- and HS- ions in
solution. Given 1aK and
2aK for H2S are 10-7 and 1.3 × 10-13 respectively.
A) − 191.44 10− 7,3.3 10 B) − 201.44 10
− 8,3.3 10
C) − 221.44 10− 3,3.3 10 D) − 181.44 10
− 5,3.3 10
=====
86. Given the solubility product of Pb3(PO4)2 is 1.5 x 10-32. Determine the solubility in gms/litre.
A) − 31.37 10 g / lit B) − 21.37 10 g / lit C) − 41.37 10 g / lit D) − 11.37 10 g / lit
=====
87. A buffer of pH 9.26 is made by dissolving x moles of ammonium sulphate and 0.1 mole of
ammonia into 100 mL solution. If pKb of ammonia is 4.74, calculate value of x.
A) 1.05 B) 0.05 C) 0.25 D) 1.25
=====
88. An aqueous solution of metal bromide MBr2 (0.05M) in saturated with H2S. The minimum pH
at which MS will ppt. will be
Ksp =(MS) = 6 ×10-21
Concentration of standard H2S = .1
Ka1(H2S) = 1 ×10-7
Ka2(H2S) = 1.3 × 10-13
A) 0.96 B) 0.096 C) 1.96 D) 2.96
=====
89. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.2 M solution of will be. [Given bK for 4NH OH is –51.8 10 ].
A) 3.977 B) 4.977 C) 2.977 D) 5.977
=====
90. The solubility of Mg(OH)2 in pure water is 9.57 × 10-3 g L-1, its solubility (in g L-1) in 0.02 M
Mg(NO3)2 will be
A) − 48.7 10 B) − 38.7 10 C) − 28.7 10 D) − 58.7 10
=====
##BOTANY##
=====
91. Dioecious thalli are found in
A) Marchantia B) Riccia C) Funaria D) Sphagnum
92. It is used as packing material for transshipment of living material
A) Marchantia B) Funaria C) Polytrichum D) Sphagnum
93. They form dense mats on the soil and prevent soil erosion
A) Mosses B) Ferns C) Cycads D) Liverworts
94. First terrestrial plants possessing vascular tissues are
A) Bryophytes B) Pteridophytes C) Gymnosperms D) Angiosperms
95. The sporophylls form distinct cones or strobili in
A) Selaginella B) Equisetum C) Dryopteris D) Both 1 and 2
96. The thalloid gametophyte of pteridophytes is commonly known as
A) Protonema B) Prothallus C) Frond D) Indusium
97. Gametophytes show protonemal and leafy stages
A) Ferns B) Liverworts C) Mosses D) Horsetails
98. Gametophyte plants of this group act as soil binders
A) Algae B) Pteridophytes C) Fungi D) Bryophytes
99. Rhizoids of bryophytes are
A) Unicellular B) Multiseriate C) Unicellular or multicellular D) multicellular
100. A fern differs from a moss in possessing
A) Swimming/ flagellate antherozoids B) Flask – shaped archegonia
C) Independent sporophyte D) Independent gametophyte
101. Pteridophytes are I. Archegonaites II.Embryophytes III. Atracheophytes
A) III only B) I & II C) II & III D) I,II and III
102. Fern’s prothallus normally is
A) Haploid B) Diploid C) Triploid D) Tetraploid
103. Identify the mismatch
A) Liver worts – Marchantia B) Horn worts – Anthoceros
C) Mosses -Salvinia D) Bryopsida - Polytrichum
104. Choose the incorrect statements.
A) Microphyllous leaves are in selaginella
B) Sporangia may be compactly arranged into structures called strobili.
C) The pteridophytes include horse tails and fern.
D) Rhizome is present in Equisetum.
105. Choose the incorrect statement for bryophyte
A) The main plant body is haploid
B) Zygote produces embryo which changes into sporophyte
C) They depend on water for sexual reproduction
D) They are of great economic importance
106. Examine the figures given below and select the option in which all the four items are identified
correctly
I) II) III) IV)
A) Antheridio phore Gemma cup Gametophyte Sphagnum
B) Archegonio- phore Gemma cup Gametophyte Sphagnum
C) Archegonia Gemmae Sporophyte Polytricum
D) Sphagnum Archegonia Sporophyte Antheridia
107. Sex organs in bryophytes are
A) Unicellular and Jacketed B) Unicellular and non-jacketed
C) Multicellular and jacketed D) Multicellular and non-jacketed
108. Choose the correct statement for bryophytes
A) Their sporophytic generation is smaller than game- tophytic and is generally parasite
B) Meiosis takes place in reproductive organs and results in the formation of gametes
C) Their roots function for both conduction and support
D) Their gametophytic generation is the dominant phase which produces spores and each spore gives
rise to a new gametophytic plant
109. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of bryophytes?
A) Dominant gametophytic generation B) Filamentous rhizoids
C) Amphibious habitat D) Vascular tissues
110. If the number of chromosomes in the foot of a fern embryo is 8, what should be the number in its
spores?
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 23
111. In Selaginella, close approach to seed habit is present because
A) Female gametophyte is retained within megaspo- rangium
B) Precocious development of gametophyte
C) Seed germination is in situ
D) Both (2) and (3)
112. The gametophyte of pteridophyte grows in damp, moist and shady places because
A) They are limited and restricted to a narrow geographical region
B) They need water for fertilisation of gametes formed on the gametophyte
C) Water is required for gametogenesis
D) Egg cell swims in water to reach to the antheridia
113. Sex organs in pteridophytes are formed on the
A) Multicellutar well-developed sporophyte
B) Unicellular main gametophyte of the plant
C) photosynthetic, free living gametophyte
D) Gametophyte which is nutritionally dependent on sporophyte
114. Plant body in pteridophyte is
A) Sporophyte (2n) having no root, stem and leaf
B) Gametophyte (n) having root, stem and leaf
C) Gametophyte having no root, stem and leaf
D) Sporophyte (2n) having true root, stem and leaf
115. Life cycle in ferns is
A) Haplobiontic B) Haplontic C) Haplo-Diplontic D) Diplontic
116. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are the characteristics of
A) Some bryophytes B) Pteridophytes C) All bryophytes D) Gymnosperms
117. Which one of the following is not common between funaria and selaginella?
A) Archegonium B) Embryo C) Flagellate sperms D) Roots
118. True heteromorphic alternation of generations is found in
A) Spirogyra B) Ulothrix C) Selaginella D) All of these
119. Which one is the most advanced from evolutionary view point?
A) Selaginella B) Funaria C) Chlamydomonas D) Pinus
120. Which one has the largest gametpophyte?
A) Cycas B) Angiosperm C) Selaginella D) Funaria
121. Which one of the following statements about Cycas is incorrect?
A) It has circinate vernation B) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessel
C) Its roots contain some blue- green algae. D) It does not have a well organized female flower.
122. Most primitive vascular plants?
A) Mosses B) Cycads C) Kelps D) Ferns
123. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of
A) Riccia B) Funaria C) Anthoceros D) Spirogya
124. Pick the mismatched pair.
A) Cycas-Dioecious B) Equisetum-Homosporous
C) Salvinia – Heterosporous D) Pinus- Dioecious
125. Conifers can tolerate extreme environments because of
A) Broad hardy leaves B) Thick cuticle C) Superficial stomata D) All of these
126. Plants that possess spores and embryo but lack vascular tissues and seeds?
A) Rhodophyta B) Bryophyta C) Pteridophyta D) Phaeophyta
127. Which of the following remained unchanged for last many million years?
A) Pinus B) Rice C) Acacia D) Ginkgo
128. A gymnosperm leaf carries 16 chromosomes. Number of chromosomes in its endosperm shall be
A) 16 B) 24 C) 12 D) 8
129. The most advanced order in gymnosperms
A) Cycadales B) Coniferales C) Gnetales D) Sapindales
130. In pinus male and female cones occur
A) On the same branch B) On different branches of the same plant
C) On different plants D) On the trunk
131. Endosperm in gymnosperm is formed
A) At the time of fertilization B) Before fertilization
C) After fertilization D) Along with the development of embryo
132. Winged pollen grains are found in
A) Cycas B) Mango C) Pinus D) Dryopteris
133. Which is haploid in gymnosperms?
A) Pollen grain, megaspore and root B) megaspore mother cell, root and leaf
C) Endosperm, pollen grain and megaspore D) Pollen grain, megaspore and Nucellus
134. Red wood tree is
A) Cedrus B) Pinus C) Dalbergia D) Sequoia
135. In gymnosperms pollination is exclusively by
A) Animals B) Wind C) Water D) Insects
##ZOOLOGY##
=====
136. In a villus, some of the glycerol and fatty acid sare combined to form fats, coated with proteins and
then transported as chylomucrons to the:
A) Lacteals B) Capillaries
C) Lumen of the small intestine D) Lumen of the large intestine
=====
137. Which one of the following statements in true regarding digestion and absorption of food in human?
A) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
B) Oxyntix cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
C) Dipeprides are products of action of trypsinon proteins, peprons and proteoses
D) Bile contains important enzymes
=====
138. Features of human teeth are
A) Thecodont, homodont, diphyodont B) Thecodon, heterodont, diphyodont
C) Thecodont, heterodont, monophyont D) Thecodon, heterodont, diphyodont
=====
139. Which type of glands are found in submucosa of duodenum?
A) Intestinal gland B) Mucus gland C) Brunner's gland D) Gastric gland
=====
140. Dental formula of human adult is 2123
2123which respectively represent
2
2
1
1
2
2
3
3
A) Incisors Canines Premolars Molars B) Incisors Molars Premolars
C) Incisors Molars Canines Premolars D) Incisors Premolars Canines
=====
141. Gastric glands of stomach secrete proteolytic enzymes. These enzymes and their secretory cells are:
A) Pepsin and oxyntic cells B) Pepsin and chief cells
C) Trypsin and chief cells D) Trypsin and parietal cells
=====
142. Select the incorrect?
A) TrypsinPeptones Proteoses⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B) glycos idaseGlycogen Maltose&Isomaltose⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
C) NucleotidaseNuclicacid Nucleotides⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ D) LipasesTristearin distearides&stearicacis⎯⎯⎯⎯→
=====
143. Which of the following statement is not correct about submucosal layer of alimentary canal?
A) It is made up of loose areolar connective tissue
B) It contains myenteric plexus of nerve net.
C) It is richly supplied with blood capillaries and lymph capillaries
D) Both (1) & (3)
=====
144. The structural and functional unit of liver is:
A) Hepatic lobe B) Acini C) Hepatic lobule D) Glisson's capsule
=====
145. Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through intestinal mucosain to
the:
A) Blood B) Lymph C) 1 and 2 both D) None of above
=====
146. The upper surface of tongue has small projection called papilla. Which of the following papilla
beartaste buds:
A) Fungiform B) Foleate C) Filliform D) Both 2 and 3
=====
147. In duodenum, glands are also present in submucosa that are:
A) Paneth cells B) Lacrymal gland C) Bruner's gland D) Gastric gland
=====
148. Read the following statements (A to D)
1) Principal organ of digestion and absorption of nutrients is small intestine
2) Absorption of water, some minerals and drugs takes place in large intestine
3) Absorption of water, simple sugars, small fatty acids and alcohol takes place in stomach
4) Certain drugs come in contact with the mucosa of oral cavity are absorbed into blood capillaries
How many statements are correct?
A) One B) Two C) Three D) four
=====
149. Which of the following is the correct sequence of digestion and absorption of fats
A) Fats bile salts Emulsified fat bile salts fatty acid and glycerol bile pigments Chylo micron micelle
Lymph capllaries
B) Fats bile pigments Emulsified fat bile salts fatty acid and glycerol bile salts micelle Chylo micron
Blood capllaries
C) Fats bile pigments Emulsified fat Lipase fatty acid and glycerolbile pigments micelle Chylo micron
Blood capillaries
D) Fats bile salts Emulsified fat Lipase fatty acid and glycerol bile salts micelle Chylo micron Lymph
capillaries
=====
150. Select the dentition of human adult
A) Thecodont, Homodont, Diphyodont B) Heterodont, Thecodont, Monophyodont
C) Diphyodont, Thecodont, Heterodont D) Heterodont, Acrodont, Diphyodont
=====
151. Secret in hormone is secreted by ______and stimulates______.
A) Duodenum, pancreas B) Duodenum, spleen
C) Stomach, gastric glands D) Thyroid-thyroid
=====
152. Match the columns
Part of Gut Shape Comment
A Stomach 1 J shaped a Opens in phyrynx
B Oesophagus 2 Long tubular b Acidic medium
C Duodenum 3 U shaped c Vestigeal
D Appendix 4 Finger like tubular d Brunner’s gland
A) A 1,a B 2,b C 3,d D 4,c= = = = B) A 1,b B 2,a C 3,d D 4,c= = = =
C) A 3,b B 1,a C 4,d D 2,c= = = = D) A 1,b B 2,a C 3,c D 4,d= = = =
=====
153. Which of the following is correct?
A) Starch Amylase disaccharides
B) Fats Bile Diglycerides
C) Nucleic acid Nuclease Nucleotide Nucleosidase nucleoside
D) Sucrose Sucrase Glucose + Galactose
=====
154. In addition to neural control, hormones also influence the:
A) Gastric secretions
B) Intestinal secretions
C) Muscular activities of different parts of alimentary canal
D) All of the above
=====
155. Sucrose and maltose on hydrolysis which of the following will give respectively?
A) Glucose-fructose and fructose galactose B) Glucose-fructose and glucose-glucose
C) Galactose-glucose and fructose-fructose D) Glucose-glucose and glucose-fructose
=====
156. Which one of the following options gives correct categorisation of three kind of digestive juices with
their content and pH, at which they work?
A) Pepsin pH 7.8= Trypsin pH 1.8= Nucleases pH 2 3= −
B) Trypsin pH 7.8= Pepsin pH 1.8= Nucleases pH 1.8=
C) Pepsin pH 1.8= Trypsin pH 7.8= Enterokinase pH 7.8=
D) Pepsin pH 1.8= Trypsin pH 2 3= − Sucrase pH 1.8=
=====
157. Imagine that you are a doctor and you observed that a patient is suffered by "SORE THROAT"
condition and he does not properly swallow the food. You told him that certain type of tonsils are
infected and now required tonsillectomy. Which types of tonsils are surgically removed during above
condition? (More information)
A) Lingual tonsils B) Nasopharyngeal tonsil
C) Palatine tonsils D) Tubal tonsils
=====
158. The absorption of vitamin B12 and bile salt occurs in
A) Liver B) Jejunum C) Ileum D) Stomach
=====
159. Maximum digestion of food occurs in A and maximum absorption occurs in B the part of intestine
A) Ileum, Jejunum B) Jejunum, Duodenum
C) Duodenum, Jejunum D) Ileum, Duodenum
=====
160. Read the following statements and answer as asked next to them?
a) Digestion of protein is accomplished in ileum
b) Enterokinase is a intestinal enzyme
c) Haustra are enlarged rectal veins
d) For its activity carboxy peptidase requires zinc
e) Spicy food may cause indigetion
How many of the above statements are correct?
A) Four B) One C) Two D) Three
=====
161. Which of the following is most appropriate with respect to secretion of gastric glands in adults:
A) Mucus, Bicarbonates B) Mucus, Renin, HCl, Bicarbonates
C) Mucus, Lipase, HCl, Bicarbonates D) Lipase, Renin, HCI, Pepsin
=====
162. Bile can be prevented to release into the duodenumby:
A) Pyloric valve B) Sphincter of oddi C) Cardiac sphincter D) Sphincter of Boyden
=====
163. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gutepithelium become partially nonfunctional, whatis
likely to happen?
A) The PH of stomach will fall abruptly
B) Steapsin will be more effective
C) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
D) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
=====
164. Lacteals take part-
A) Digestion of milk B) Absorption of fat
C) Digestion of lactic acid D) None of the above
=====
165. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the
enzyme acing upon it and the end product?
A) LipaseSmallintestine :Proteins Aminoacids⎯⎯⎯⎯→
B) LipaseStomach:Fats micelles⎯⎯⎯⎯→
C) TrypsinDuodenum:Triglycerides Monoglycerides⎯⎯⎯⎯→
D) AmylaseSmalli intestine :Sterch Disaccharide(Maltose)⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
=====
166. Gastric juice of infants contains:
A) Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase B) Pepsinogen, lipa s e, rennin
C) Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen D) Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
=====
167. Jaundice is a disorder of:
A) Skin and eyes B) Digestive system C) Circulatory system D) Excretory system
=====
168. Castle's intrinsic factor is connected with internal absorption of
A) Pyridoxine B) Riboflavin C) Tinamme D) Co am1
=====
169. Find out the correctly matched pair:
A) Pepsinogen – Zymogen cells B) HCl – Goblet cells
C) Mucous – Oxyntic cells D) Pancreatic juice – Salivary glands
=====
170. Maximum digestion of food occurs in A and maximum absorption occurs in B part of intestine
A) Ileum, Jejunum B) Jejunum, Duodenum
C) Duodenum, Jejunum D) Ileum, Duodenum
=====
171. Dental formula of human adult is 2123
2123 which respectively represent
2
2
1
1
2
2
3
3
A) Incisors Canines Premolars Molars
B) Incisors Molars Premolars Canines
C) Incisors Molars Canines Premolars
D) Incisors Premolars Canines Molars
=====
172. Which of the following hormone he, ps in secretion of HCl from stomach?
A) Renin and CCK B) Gastrin C) Secretin and CCK D) Somatomedin
=====
173. Glisson's capsule is associated with:
A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Lungs D) Kidney
=====
174. “Enterokinase” is secreted by:
A) Intestinal mucosa B) Gastric gland in stomach
C) Pancreas D) Liver
=====
175. A young person is suffering from tongue cancer: During the treatment his tongue is completely
removed, then which of the following situation will describe the person that he will not be able to-
(more information)
A) Taste sweet & salty.
B) Not able to taste sweet, but able to taste salty.
C) Perceive the odour of rose but not able to taste sweet and salt.
D) Taste sweet and salty, but not perceive to the odour of rose.
=====
176. Deficinency of Protein leads to:
A) Ricktes B) Scurvy C) Kwashiorker D) Carotenemia
=====
177. Mark the right statement among the following:
A) Trypsinogen is an amylase
B) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
C) Enterokinase is secreted by intestinal mucosa
D) Bile contains trypsin
=====
178. Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions, choose one which is not correct:
A) Matabolism of carbohydrate B) Digestion of fat
C) Formation of bile D) Secreation of hormone called gastrin
=====
179. The enzyme trypsin hydrolyses
A) Proteins to peptides B) Digestive system
C) Gluculatory system D) Polysaccharides to monosaccharides
=====
180. Which if the following sequence is correct?
A) Descending part of colon → Rectum → Anus
B) Stomach → Jejunum → Duodenum
C) Ileum → Colon → Caecum
D) Colon → Anus → Rectum
=====
KEY
PHYSICS
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.A 8.D 9.D 10.A
11.D 12.C 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.A 20.C
21.D 22.A 23.A 24.A 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.C 29.C 30.A
31.A 32.A 33.D 34.A 35.C 36.C 37.A 38.A 39.B 40.A
41.C 42.C 43.C 44.B 45.D
CHEMISTRY
46.C 47.A 48.C 49.B 50.B 51.D 52.B 53.A 54.B 55.B
56.B 57.A 58.B 59.C 60.B 61.B 62.A 63.C 64.D 65.A
66.C 67.A 68.D 69.C 70.B 71.C 72.A 73.A 74.A 75.A
76.A 77.D 78.D 79.D 80.D 81.B 82.A 83.A 84.A 85.D
86.B 87.A 88.C 89.A 90.C
BOTANY
91.A 92.D 93.A 94.B 95.D 96.B 97.C 98.D 99.C 100.C
101.B 102.A 103.C 104.B 105.D 106.B 107.C 108.A 109.D 110.A
111.A 112.B 113.C 114.D 115.C 116.A 117.D 118.C 119.D 120.D
121.B 122.D 123.B 124.D 125.B 126.B 127.D 128.D 129.C 130.B
131.B 132.C 133.C 134.D 135.B
ZOOLOGY
136.A 137.C 138.B 139.B 140.A 141.B 142.C 143.B 144.C 145.C
146.A 147.C 148.C 149.D 150.C 151.A 152.B 153.A 154.D 155.B
156.C 157.C 158.C 159.C 160.A 161.C 162.B 163.C 164.B 165.D
166.B 167.B 168.D 169.A 170.C 171.A 172.B 173.A 174.A 175.C
176.C 177.C 178.D 179.A 180.A