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TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1 MODEL TEST-4 Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C, D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer sheet. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO  

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Page 1: TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1 MODEL …neoias-838f.kxcdn.com/images/pdf/prelims-test/MT-4.pdf ·  · 2017-04-26test booklet general studies paper-1 model test-4 time allowed:

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1

MODEL TEST-4

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C, D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the

Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question

which has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO  

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1. Consider the following statements: 1. Basel Convention is for the control of Trans-

Boundary Movement of radioactive wastes and their disposal.

2. United Nations Frame Work Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty to stabilize greenhouse gas concentration in the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Department of Economic Affairs (DEA)? (a) DEA prepares the Union Budget (b) DEA formulates and monitors economic

policies at the macro level (c) DEA prepares the Railway Budget (d) DEA formulates ways and means to raise

internal resources

3. Provisions of the Mountbatten Plan included 1. appointment of a boundary commission to

demarcate the boundary line of Punjab and Bengal.

2. the establishment of an advisory war council. 3. setting up an Indian Union with provincial

diarchy. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) None of the above

4. In the context of genetic disorders, consider the following: A man suffers from colour blindness while his wife does not suffers from it. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probably correct? (a) Both children suffer from colour blindness (b) Daughter suffers from colour blindness while

son does not suffer from it (c) Both children do not suffer from colour

blindness (d) Son suffers from colour blindness while

daughter does not suffer from it

5. Which one of the following is added in the national income while calculating personal income? (a) Transfer payment to individuals (b) Social security contributions (c) Corporate taxes (d) Undistributed profiles

6. The Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries is one of the Departments under the Ministry of Agriculture. The Department is responsible for matters relating to:

1. livestock production, prevention, protection and improvement of stocks

2. Delhi Milk Scheme 3. National Fisheries Development Board Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Which type of memory circuitry holds the computer’s start-up routine? (a) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (b) RAM (Random Access Memory) (c) ROM (Read Only Memory) (d) Cache Memory

8. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices? 1. Meditation and control of breath. 2. Fasting, Charity and Suppression of

passions by ascetic practices. 3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of

ecstasy in their audience. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Consider the following statements regarding Global Tiger Forum (GTF): 1. It is the only inter-governmental and

international organization functioning exclusively for the conservation of tigers in the wild.

2. The GTF is committed to work through mandate ratified by the Tiger Range Countries to ensure the implementation of the Global Tiger Recovery Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following: 1. Public expenditure 2. Public revenue 3. Open Market Operations 4. Cash Reserve Ratio

Which of the above is/are component/components of Fiscal Policy? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

11. Consider the following statements regarding National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): 1. NTCA is a statutory body under Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change. 2. NTCA is constituted under Wild Life

(Protection) Act, 1972.

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3. NTCA is chaired by the Minister of Environment and Forest.

4. NTCA does not intervene in the Project Tiger. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. With reference to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, consider the following statements: 1. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs renders

secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.

2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs keeps a watch over the progress of Bills from the stage of approval by the Cabinet till the Bill is passed by both Houses of the Parliament.

3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members on various Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions set up by the Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following sectors: 1. Petroleum products 2. Agriculture and allied products 3. Gems and Jewellery 4. Chemicals and related products Arrange them in decreasing order based on their respective share in India’s export basket in the year 2015-16. (a) 2-3-4-1 (b) 4-3-1-2 (c) 2-4-3-1 (d) 1-3-4-2

14. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The Centre constituted three new High Courts

in the northeast in 2013 (b) High Court exercises original, appellate,

advisory and writ jurisdiction (c) The High Court can exercise writ jurisdiction

only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights

(d) No Union Territory has a High Court of its own

15. Which one of the following type of forest has the largest number of domesticated animals? (a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest (b) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest (c) Tropical Deciduous Forest (d) Sub-tropical Forest

16. Mahatma Gandhi first used his method of hunger-strike to achieve a desired goal at (a) Cape Town in South Africa in the year 1906 (b) Natal in South Africa in the year 1906 (c) Champaran in the year 1917 (d) Ahmedabad in the year 1918

17. With reference to Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) is a Central

Sector Scheme to support market interventions for price control of perishable agri-horticultural commodities.

2. Government has approved creation of buffer stock of pulses through procurement at Minimum Support Price and at market price through Price Stabilisation Fund.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Which of the following was/were not part/parts of the RIN Mutiny? 1. Rani of Jhansi regiment of INA 2. HMIS Talwar 3. Hunger strike by naval ratings 4. Cripps proposals Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 4 only

19. Consider the following actions which the

government can take: 1. Revaluing the domestic currency 2. Increasing the export subsidy 3. Reduction in import duty Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the Current Account Deficit? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

20. Consider the following statements regarding Zoological survey of India: 1. Its objectives are exploration, survey,

inventorying and monitoring of faunal diversity in various States, ecosystem and protected areas of India.

2. It periodically reviews the Status of threatened and endemic species.

3. It is preparing the Red Data Book of Fauna of India and Fauna of States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Which of the following is/are Green House gases? 1. Carbon dioxide (CO2) 2. Methane (CH4) 3. Nitrous oxide (N2O) 4. Chlorofluorocarbons Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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22. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Withdrawal from the Public Account of India requires the approval of the Parliament

(b) Consolidated Fund of India contains all revenues received by the Government by way of direct taxes, indirect taxes, money borrowed and receipts from loans given by the Government

(c) All Government expenditure is made from the Public Account of India

(d) Expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India requires prior approval from the Parliament

23. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Controlling the inflation in India is the

responsibility of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. Increased money circulation helps in

controlling the inflation. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2

24. Which one of the following regions of India has combination of Subtropical vegetation, tropical moist deciduous vegetation, Himalayan moist temperate vegetation and alpine vegetation? (a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand

25. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a

member of any of the Departmentally related Standing Committees.

(b) The term of the members of the Departmentally related Standing Committee is five years

(c) The Departmentally related Standing Committee considers matters of day-to-day administration of the concerned Ministries/Departments

(d) The Departmentally related Standing Committee consists of members from Lok Sabha only

26. Who of the following was elected as the President of All-India Khilafat Conference met at Delhi in 1919? (a) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel (d) Shaukat Ali

27. With reference to plant sterols, consider the

following statements: 1. Plant sterols help lower low-density

lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, commonly

referred to as bad cholesterol, because their chemical structure is very similar to that of LDL cholesterol.

2. Calciferols (referred to as plant sterol and stanol esters) are a group of naturally occurring compounds found in plant cell membranes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Consider the following:

1. Body fluid 2. Contaminated food and water 3. Tattooing 4. The placenta Hepatitis B is transmitted through which of the above means? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

29. Which one of the following prominently rose in revolt against the British in 1857? (a) Khudai Khidmatgar Army (b) Madras Regiment (c) Bengal Army (d) Awadh Regiment

30. In the TAPI pipeline, an initiative of four

countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Tajikistan 2. Iran 3. Turkmenistan 4. Turkey 5. Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 3 and 5 only

31. Methane concentration is increasing in the atmosphere. Its main sources are: 1. Combustion of Fossil fuel. 2. Decomposition of organic materials

associated with wetlands. 3. From the rice paddies. 4. From the livestock manure. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Consider the following statements: 1. National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries

are setup with the legal framework of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. Tiger Reserves are setup under Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statements regarding Attorney-General for India:

1. The Attorney-General for India shall be appointed by the President and shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a Judge of the Supreme Court.

3. He is neither a whole-time counsel for the Government nor a Government servant.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Consider the following States: 1. Assam 2. West Bengal 3. Karnataka In which of the above States do Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest occur? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

35. Which one of the following is not correct in the context of balance of payments of India during 2015-2016? (a) India’s imports were less than its exports (b) Trade balance was negative (c) Net invisibles were positive (d) Capital account balance was positive

36. The Rowlatt Act was passed to (a) bring about agrarian reforms (b) curtail the nationalist and revolutionary

activities (c) have a favourable balance of trade (d) put Second World war criminals on trial

37. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to (a) treaties and agreements signed by the

Government of India (b) disputes between the Government of India

and one or more States (c) disputes regarding implementation of the

Directive Principles of State Policy (d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is

violative of the Constitution

38. Masala bonds are (a) Rupee denominated bonds issued to

domestic buyers (b) Rupee denominated bonds issued to overseas

buyers (c) Dollar denominated bonds issued to domestic

buyers (d) Dollar denominated bonds issued to overseas

buyers

39. Gandhiji went to Champaran in order to (a) launch a Satyagraha movement

(b) launch a Non-cooperation Movement (c) enquire into the grievances of the indigo

cultivators (d) fight against the Zamindars and money

lenders

40. Consider the following: 1. Himalayas are steep in southern side. 2. In the northern side, Himalayas have gentle

slope. 3. More accumulation of snow takes place in

the southern side of Himalayas in comparison to the northern side.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above

41. Which of the Ramsar sites given below is the breeding ground of the Black necked crane in India? (a) TsoMoriri Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (c) Chilika Lake (d) Sambhar Lake

42. Consider the following statements:

1. The Amur Falcon is protected under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. Peacock and Indian Elephant are protected under Schedule I of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of

India holds office during the pleasure of the President of India

(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is ineligible for any other office under the Government of India or any State Government after he has ceased to hold his office

(c) The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are determined by the Ministry of Finance

(d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

44. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin? (a) Reunion Island (b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (c) Lakshadweep Islands (d) Maldives

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45. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliamentary Committees of the Lok

Sabha are constituted by the Speaker and function under his control and direction.

2. A Money Bill can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

3. The President has power to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Consider the following statements: 1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Atmiya

Sabha in 1875. 2. The Arya samaj repudiated the teachings of

the vedas. 3. Dayanand Saraswati started DAV schools to

promote modern education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above

47. Which of the following is/are example(s) of 'Near Money ’? 1. Treasury Bill 2. Savings accounts and small time deposits 3. Retail money market mutual funds Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

48. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change? (a) Atmospheric disturbance (b) Change in marine water density (c) Melting of icebergs (d) Melting of ice sheets

49. Consider the following pairs:

Tiger reserves State 1. Satpura : Madhya Pradesh 2. Bandipur : Karnataka 3. Indravati : Chattisgarh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Which one of the following was not a result of British Colonial rule in India? (a) Ruin of Indian agriculture (b) Ruin of Indian industries (c) Ruin of Indian trade (d) Ruin of Indian feudalism

51. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 32 of the Constitution guarantees to all

individuals the right to move the Supreme

Court for the enforcement of rights conferred under Part III.

2. Article 18(1) of the Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, residence, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Which one of the following Commission/Committees was appointed by the British Government to investigate into the massacre in Jalianwalla Bagh? (a) Welby Commission (b) Hunter Committee (c) Simon Commission (d) Butler Committee

53. Consider the following statements regarding

Phytoplankton: 1. They are the First Trophic level component

of aquatic food chain. 2. They are responsible for most of the

transfer of carbon in the carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to the ocean.

3. It is known as the biological carbon pump. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following pairs: Change Type of Change

1. Iron Rusting : Physical Change 2. Boiling Water : Chemical Change 3. Milk Souring : Physical Change 4. Dissolving Sugar In

Water : Physical Change 5. Burning Of Paper : Chemical Change Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

55. Which of the following statements regarding to the ‘Make in India’ initiative of the Government of India is/are not correct? 1. The initiative aims at promoting India as

an important investment destination and a global hub for manufacturing.

2. The programme is being implemented by the Ministry of Finance.

3. It targets manufacturing sector only and promoting entrepreneurship is not an objective of Make in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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56. Which of the following pairs of properties of typical air masses is correct?

Air Mass Source Region (a) Maritime Equatorial :Warm oceans in

equatorial zone (b) Maritime Polar :Warm oceans in

tropical zone (c) Continental Tropical :Less warm oceans

in tropical zone (d) Continental Polar :Moist oceans in the

polar zone

57. Consider the following statements: 1. Autotrophs are the organisms which can

prepare their own food from simple inorganic substances.

2. Heterotrophs are the organisms which depends dead bodies of plants and animals for their food and they decompose that dead bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Consider the following statements: 1. Courts have no jurisdiction to examine the

validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats made with regard to election of Municipalities.

2. Metropolitan Planning Committee prepares draft development plan for metropolitan area.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

59. Which one of the following was a reason for the failure of talks held at the Simla Conference in 1945? (a) The Congress boycotted it (b) The Viceroy was indifferent to demands of

Congress (c) The Dominion status suggested by the Viceroy

was not acceptable to Hindu Mahasabha (d) Jinnah insisted that all Muslim members of

the Executive Council must be nominated by Muslim League

60. A notification was released by the Ministry of

Environment and Forests in 2011 as per Section 22 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, which specifies that the certain animals shall not be exhibited or trained as performing animals. The notification includes which of the following animals? 1. Monkeys 2. Tigers 3. Elephants 4. Lions 5. Bulls

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

61. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Invest India’: 1. Invest India is the official Investment

Promotion and Facilitation Agency of the Government of India mandated to facilitate investments into India.

2. Invest India is promoted by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Under which of the following condition(s) the occluded fronts are created? 1. When the front remains stationary. 2. When cold air mass moves to warm air

mass. 3. When warm air mass moves to cold air

mass. 4. When an air mass is fully lifted above the

land surface. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only

63. Consider the following statements: 1. Food chains is the sequence of who eats

whom in a biological community (ecosystem) to obtain nutrition.

2. If the links in the chains that make up the web of life are disrupted due to human activities that may lead to the loss or extinction of some species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. Consider the following statements: 1. President’s rule is imposed when the

Government of the State cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

2. The President may assume to himself the powers exercised by a High Court when a Proclamation is in operation.

3. Every Proclamation shall be laid before each House of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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65. Consider the following statements: 1. Annie Besant worked together with the

Congress and the Muslim League during the Home Rule Movement.

2. Annie Besant felt that this was necessary to get the support of the masses for the Home Rule Movement

Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Which one of the following is not a part of service

sector in India? (a) Transport (b) Construction (c) Hotels and restaurants (d) Insurance

67. Which of the following statements is/are correct

regarding Urea, an extensively used fertiliser? 1. Government sets a controlled Maximum

Retail Price (MRP) at which urea must be sold to farmers.

2. Importers of urea are not supported by any subsidy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. In the Earth’s atmosphere, which of the following

have the property of absorbing the heat and contribute to the warming of atmosphere? 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Oxygen 3. Soot 4. Water vapour Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. Consider the following statements regarding ecological succession: 1. Ecological succession is the gradual and

progressive replacement of one community by another.

2. Primary succession begins in a bare surface with no life present before.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements: 1. The Directive Principles are in the nature of

instruments of instruction to the government of the day to do certain things and to achieve certain goals by their actions.

2. Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts.

3. The purpose of Directive Principles is to promote welfare of the backward sections of the society.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

71. In addition to Macaulay’s Minutes on

Education, another landmark Draft is also attributed to him. Identify the Draft from the following: (a) Draft to Indian Penal Code (b) Draft of Indian Forest Policy (c) Draft of the Zamindari Abolition Act (d) Draft of the Maritime Trade Policy

72. The statement “the study, development,

implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer hardware” refers to (a) Information Technology (IT) (b) Information and Collaborative Technology

(ICT) (c) Information and Data Technology (IDT) (d) Artificial Intelligence (AI)

73. Which of the following is/are the

characteristic/characteristics of Tropical Evergreen Rain Forest? 1. These forests are found in warm and

humid areas. 2. The soil of these forests are poor in

nutrients due to heavy leaching. 3. The rainforest trees have very shallow

roots and they have buttressed trunks. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined (a) predominantly by market mechanism (b) by the Central Bank (c) as a weighted index of a group of

currencies (d) by the World Trade organisation

75. Consider the following statements regarding Ecotone: 1. The tendency for increased biodiversity

within the ecotone is referred to as the edge effect.

2. An ecotone may be created by natural or man-made factors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) caters to the preservation of human rights of various strata of society. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding NHRC? 1. The NHRC is a statutory body established

according to the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

2. The Chairperson of NHRC must be a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

3. The Commission shall inquire into complaints either suo motu or on a petition presented to it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

77. Consider the following statements:

1. In north-western India, the Civil Disobedience Movement took a mass character under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

2. The Nehru Report (1928) had argued that the ‘next immediate step’ for India must be Poorna Swaraj.

Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Rosetta is (a) India’s first multi-wavelength astronomy

mission into space (b) the world’s first mission designed to orbit and

land on a comet (c) the world’s first mission designed to orbit and

land on an asteroid (d) a space exploration vehicle (rover) designed to

move across the surface of the Mars

79. Consider the following statements: 1. Species diversity refers to the variety and

number of different species in a given time and area.

2. Species richness refers to the number of species in an area or community.

3. Species richness in general tends to increase with the size of the area or from higher to lower latitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

80. Which one of the following is the major source of Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) for the Government of India? (a) Income tax (b) Corporation tax

(c) Customs duty (d) Service tax

81. An objective of the National Food Security

Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops? (a) Rice and wheat only (b) Rice, wheat and pulses only (c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only (d) Rice ,wheat, pulses and coarse cereals only 82. With reference to Trademark, which of the

following statements is/are correct? 1. A trademark is a sign capable of

distinguishing the goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises.

2. The European Union recently made its trademark law more stringent by introducing enforcement measures on services in transit within its territories.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Which of the following can be threats to the

biodiversity of the geographical area? 1. Extraction of resources from the

environment. 2. Introduction of exotic flora and fauna into

new habitats. 3. Climate change. 4. Water pollution. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

84. Consider the following statements: 1. Part IX of the Constitution envisages a

three-tier system of Panchayats. 2. Every Panchayat shall continue for five

years from the date of its first meeting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

85. Which one of the following statements is not

correct regarding Moderates in early Indian National Congress? (a) Their ideological inspiration was Indian

history and cultural heritage (b) Social base of moderates was zamindars

and upper middle classes in towns (c) They believed that the movement should

be limited to middle class intelligentsia as

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mass not yet ready for participation in political work

(d) They insisted on the use of constitutional methods only

86. Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive Zone: 1. These are the land falling inside the

protected areas which act as the shock absorber to ecological damages.

2. These are declared to prevent ecological damage caused due to developmental activities around the protected areas.

3. Eco-sensitive Zones are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

87. A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means 1. a rise in prices of shares of all companies

registered with Bombay Stock Exchange. 2. an overall rise in prices of share of group of

fifty companies across key sectors registered with Bombay Stock Exchange.

3. an overall rise in prices of share of a group of companies across key sectors registered with Bombay Stock Exchange.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Which one of the following is not a policy of reform initiated under Warren Hastings (a) end of dual system (b) permanent settlement of land revenue (c) attempt to codify Muslim and Hindu laws (d) setting up Diwani Adalat and Faujdari Adalat

89. Consider the following pairs: Species Region 1. Red Panda : Arunachal Pradesh 2. Gharial : Chambal River 3. Saltwater crocodile : Bhitakanika mangroves Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

90. Which of the following factors led to a decline in inflation rate in India during 2014-15? 1. Persistent decline in crude oil prices. 2. Decline in the prices of pulses. 3. Tight monetary policy pursued by the Reserve

Bank of India. Select the correct answer using the code given

below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Consider the following statements regarding

World Food Prize: 1. The World Food Prize was established by

American Nobel laureate Norman Borlaug. 2. Indian-born plant scientist Sanjaya Rajaram

won the World Food Prize in 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given

below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. Consider the following statements regarding India’s new Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) released in 2015: 1. The six different schemes of the earlier

FTP merged in to a single scheme, namely, the Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS).

2. The Service Export from India Scheme (SEIS) has been replaced with the Served from India Scheme (SFIS) in the new FTP.

3. The new FTP is for a period of ten years, from 2015 to 2025.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

93. Consider the following statements regarding salt industry in India: 1. India is the largest salt producing country

in the World followed by China and USA. 2. Gujarat is the leading producer of salt

among Indian States followed by Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan.

3. Salt Industry is labour intensive in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Which of the following are the ex-officio

members of Bank Board Bureau (BBB)? 1. Secretary, Financial services 2. Secretary, Public Enterprises 3. Deputy Governor, RBI Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

95. With reference to ‘stem cells’, which of the

following statements is/are correct? 1. Stem cells can be used in therapeutic

cloning. 2. Stem cells can be used in reproductive

cloning. 3. Stem cells can be used for treating

diseases.

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4. Stem cells can be derived from blastocyst only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only

96. Consider the following pairs: Climatic type Feature

1. The equatorial climate : concentrated precipitation

2. Monsoon climate : double rainfall peaks

3. Sudan climate : alternate wet Summers with dry winters

Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Which of the following constitute Foreign

Exchange Reserves of India? 1. Foreign Currency Assets 2. Gold stock of RBI 3. SDR holdings of the Government 4. NRI deposits Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

98. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to (a) renewable energy (b) medium enterprises (c) social infrastructure (d) all of the above

99. Which of the following could explain the formation of Atacama Desert? 1. Presence of Humboldt current. 2. The prevailing winds reduce relative humidity. 3. Rain-shadow effect of Andes mountains. Select the correct answer from the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

100. ‘River regime’ is (a) the pattern of flow of water in a river channel

over year (b) sinusoidal nature of river channel in its

mature stage (c) the catchment area of a river and its

tributaries (d) the length traversed by a river from its origin

to its mouth

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