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NTSE - NOVEMBER, 2017 MENTAL ABILITY AND SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST Time : 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test Language Comprehensive Test Aptitude Test Total 50 Marks 50 Marks 100 Marks 200 Marks Instructions to Candidates Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer sheet given, with a HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR sheet carefully before answering the questions^ Please write your Centre Code No. and Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even Zeros appearing in the Centre Code No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR sheet as shown in the example given in the OMR sheet. For all the subsequent purposes, your Centre Code No. and Roll No. shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card. 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part - II (Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part - III (Aptitude Test) consists of 100 questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200). 3. All questions carry one mark each. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to answer it. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part-I (Mental Ability) consists of E-225 [1] Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts. WWW.SAKSHIEDUCATION.COM

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  • gj.Vo^^sT yUohaV)Mediiun : ENGLISH NTSE(EE)

    0 2 1 S.0 7 o23,

    NTSE - NOVEMBER, 2017

    MENTAL ABILITY AND

    SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

    Time : 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test

    Language Comprehensive Test

    Aptitude Test

    Total

    50 Marks

    50 Marks

    100 Marks

    200 Marks

    Instructions to Candidates

    Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answersare to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer sheet given, with a HB pencil.Read the Instructions printed on the OMR sheet carefully before answeringthe questions^

    Please write your Centre Code No.and Roll No. very clearly (only onedigit in one block) on the OMRsheet as given in your admissioncard. Please see that no block is

    left unfilled and even Zeros

    appearing in the Centre Code No.are correctly transferred to theappropriate blocks on the OMRsheet as shown in the examplegiven in the OMR sheet. For all thesubsequent purposes, your CentreCode No. and Roll No. shall remainthe same as given on theAdmission Card.

    50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50),Part - II (Language ComprehensiveTest) consists of 50 Questions(Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part - III(Aptitude Test) consists of 100questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).

    3. All questions carry one mark each.

    Since all questions arecompulsory, do not try to readthrough the whole question paperbefore beginning to answer it.

    The Test is in THREE PARTS.

    Part-I (Mental Ability) consists of

    E-225 [1]

    Begin with the first question andkeep trying one question afteranother till you finish all three parts.W

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  • If you do not know the answer to 10.any Question, do not spend muchtime on it and pass on to the nextone. If time permits, you can comeback to the questions which youhave left in the first instance and

    try them again.

    Since the time allotted to the 11.

    question paper is very limited, youshould make the best use of it bynot spending too much time on 12.any question.

    A blank page is provided for roughwork at the end of each part. ^^3

    REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TOSHADE ANSWERS ON A

    SEPARATE OMR SHEET

    PROVIDED.

    NTSE(EE)Answer to each question is to beindicated by SHLAJIING the circlehaving the number of the correctalternative in the OMR sheet

    from among the ones given for thecorresponding question in thebooklet.

    Now turn to the next page andstart answering the questions.

    After the examination, you shouldhand over the OMR sheet to the

    Invigilator of the room.

    The candidate need not return

    this Question Paper booklet andcan take it after completion of theexamination. No candidate should

    leave the examination hall before

    the end of the examination.

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    E-225

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  • fv;.--' - •• "-"■'4-i'-' "'• V. ■ ^' NTSE(EE)

    V: i

    Max. Marks : 50

    Note : SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMRAnswer Sheet provided, from amongst the onesgiven against the corresponding questions in theQuestion Booklet. For shading the circles, use aHB pencil.

    .

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    E-225 13]

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  • (Question 1 to 5) : In the Numberseries given below, one number ismissing. Each series is followed by fivealternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).One of them is the right answer.Identify and indicate it as per the"Instructions".

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    13, 74, 290, 650,

    (1) 1248,

    (2^ 1470

    (3) 1346

    (4) 1452

    (5) 1625

    1, 11, 35, 79,

    (1) 81

    (2) 93

    or 149

    (4) 124

    (5) 136

    1, 5, 15, 34,

    (1) 50

    (2) 48

    (3) 37•

    (4) 65

    (5^ 72

    3, 13, 31, 57,

    (1) 65

    (2) 72

    (3) 88

    (4) 94

    i&f 91

    E-225

    ./

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    5. 2, 35, 104, 209,

    (1) 350

    (2) 248

    (3)' 256

    (4) 311

    413

    1

    (Questios 6 to 10) : In each of thefollowing questions, a letter series isgiven, in which some letters aremissing. The missing letters are givenin the proper sequence as one of thealternative. Find the correct

    alternative.

    A.,..BBC...AAB...CCA...BBCC

    (1) BACB

    (2) ABBA

    (3) CABA

    (4) AABC

    (5f ACBA

    v;s;-

    [W'-

    §!:

    BC....B....C....B....CCB

    (1) BBCB

    (2) CBBC

    (3f CBCB

    (4) BCBC

    (5) CCBB

    8. C....BBB....ABBBB....ABBB.

    (1) BACBB

    (2) AABCB

    (3f ABACB

    (4) ABCCB

    (5) ABBCC

    [4]rV5

    ■'Mi."

    V-•: .. • - -

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  • 9. C...BCCD...CCDB...CDBCC...BC

    iW DBCD

    (2) DBDD

    (3) BDAA

    (4) BDCD

    (5) DCBD

    10. BA....B....AAB....A....B

    (1) AABB

    (2) BABB

    (3) BAAB

    {4/f ABBA

    (5) ABAA

    Directions:

    (Questions II to 15): Questions havebecome wrong due to wrong order ofsigns. Choose the correct order of signsfrom the five alternatives given undereach question, so that the equationsbecomes right. Write it in your answersheet against the correspondingquestion number.

    11. 6 + 3 = 4 X 22

    (1)' x + =

    (2) +-X ,

    ^ =x-

    (4) +- =

    (5) '+x-

    12. 12-3 = 4x11

    (1) +- =

    (2) x+ =

    (3) " + - =(4) X ,= -

    -^- = x

    NTSE(EE)

    13. 16x4-i-3=-7

    (1)

    (2) - - =

    , (3) + = - ;" (4). +- =

    (&f -+ =

    '■ 'nAT'h.

    • .1

    14. 7-3 = 8-13

    (1) - + =^ x- =(3) - = +(4) -+=

    (5) -x =

    - V- --- '.T .

    ;4

    --•i:

    15. 15-3x4 = 9

    . (1) +x =(2) x- =(3) +- =

    , (4r - + =(5) +- =

    f.5

    Directions:

    (Questions 16 to 20) : In thesequestions, numbers are placed in thefigures on the basis of some rules. Oneplace is vacant which is indicated asFind out the correct alternatives toreplace the question mark '?'.

    16.11232 72

    15 21 1011 31 7370

    10630 74

    (1) 14

    (2) 15

    (3) 16

    (4) 17

    (5/ 18

    E-225 15]

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  • 17.

    18.

    19.

    20.

    289 685

    (1) 14

    (2^ 15

    (3) 16

    (4) 17

    (5) 18

    3536 45

    491442 6012 30

    6348 75

    ih- 12

    (2) 15

    (3) 18

    (4) 21

    (5) 24

    14

    10

    9 9 13 1111

    7

    (2) 9

    (3) 4

    (4) 5

    (5) 10

    . 13

    12 9 4 5

    (iff 5(2) 4

    (3) 10

    (4) 8

    (5) 6

    E-225

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    Directions :

    (Questions 21 to 25) : Some lettersare given in column I and some digitsare given in column II. Each digit ofcolumn II represents any letter ofcolumn I. Study the columns and writethe alternative letter after choosing thecorrect alternative against thecorresponding question.

    21.

    24.

    [6]

    Column -1 Column -

    ABLMS 24538

    QRLBA 93526

    PTQAB 52601

    LRNPQ 93716

    ATRNP 29071

    MSPTQ 84106 ̂

    QPNAR 16729

    RABLS" 29583TSLBA 80325

    PLQST 31860

    The code for M is

    (VT 0 '8

    1

    6

    4

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    (5)

    m

    -m

    .

    22. The code for N is

    (1) 9

    6

    1

    7

    2

    (2)

    (3) .

    (5)

    , iC-.w;.-.-:.U

    23. The code for A is

    (1) 95

    2

    8

    3

    (37

    (4)

    (5)

    The code for S is

    (>< 32

    50

    8

    (2)

    (3)(4)

    (5)

    -r-

    ^■ k

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  • I-ri-UK.'

    25. The code for P is

    (1) 3

    (2) 8

    (3) 0

    (4f 1(5) 6

    Directions:

    (Questions 26 to 30) : There are sixpersons in a family A, B, C, D, Eand E

    (i) C is the sister of F.

    (ii) A is the brother of the husband ofE.

    (Hi) D is the father of A and D is the

    grand father of E(iv) There are two fathers, 'three

    brothers and a mother in the

    family.

    On the basis of above details, choose thecorrect alternative.

    26. What is the relationship betweenE and E ?

    (1^ Daughter(2) Son

    (3) Husband

    (4) Grandson

    (5) Eather-in-law

    27. Who is the mother ?

    (1) E

    (2) D

    C

    (4) B

    (5) A

    28. How many male members arethere in this family ?(1) One

    (2) Two

    (3) Three

    (4^ Four(5) Five

    NTSE(EE)

    29. Who is the husband of E ?

    (1) E

    (2) D

    (3) B

    (4) C

    (5< A

    30. How many persons are there inthe category of brothers ?

    (1)

    (2)

    or(4)

    (5)

    1

    2

    4

    2

    3

    Directions :

    are(Questions 31 to 35) : Therefour terms in each question. The termright to symbol :: have somerelationship as the term of the left tosymbol :: and out of the four, one termis missing, which is among one of thegiven five alternatives. Find the correct

    alternatives.

    31. KME:LLH::RMS:

    (1) TVT

    (2) SUS

    (3) SLR

    (4) SSU

    SLU

    >1-

    32. GEH : EGG

    (1) GHE

    (2)^ HRT

    (3) HGE

    (4) HEG .

    (5) GEE

    ESS

    E-225 ['1 'JT m ?---r

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  • 33. UVST : WTUR :: : RILO

    (if PKJQ

    (2) TSUV

    (3) UVTS

    (4) TSVU

    (5) SRUT. , -

    34. Newspaper : Editor :: Film : ...?.(1) Actor

    (2) Producer

    (3^ Director

    (4) Musician

    (5) Audience

    NTSE(EE)

    35. Smoke : Pollution :: War :

    I(1) Victory

    (2^ Death

    (3) Army

    (4) Enemy

    (5) Treaty

    Directions:

    (Questions 36 to 40) : In each of the following questions, in four out of the fiyefigures of element I is related to element II in some particular way. Find out thefigure in which the element is not related to element II.

    36.

    37.

    38.

    39.

    40.

    cH]II

    lA A T(n) -

  • Directions:

    (Questions 41 to 45) : Out of the fivefigures (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) given in eachproblem, four are similar in a certainway. Choose the figure which isdifferent from the other figures.

    41.

    42.

    (1) (2) (3) (4) S^)

    s OX0 SO)

    (1) (2) (3) (4)

    43.

    V V

    44.

    45.

    (1) (2) (3) f (5)

    y r

    A □ □ o Q(2) (3) (4) (5)

    T V X 1 L(1) (2) (3) (5)

    Directions:(Questions 46 to 50) : Each of thefollowing questions consists of the fivefigures marked A, B, C, D and E calledthe problem figures followed by fivealternatives marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5called the answer figures. Select a figurewhich will continue the same seriesestablished by the five problem figures.

    NTSE(EE)46. Problem Figures

    (A) (B) (C) (D) (E;Answer Figures

    (2) (3)47. Problem Figures

    (4) (5)

    A

    (A) (B) (C)Answer Figures

    (D) (E)

    (1) (2) (3)

    48. Problem Figures

    (4)

    50.

    E-225 [9]

    T0

    □X

    o

    s0

    □X

    0s

    Xc

    oc

    X

    (A) ' (B) (C) (D) (E)Answer Figures

    _ o

    Xc

    _ A

    Xc

    _ 0

    XA

    _ 0

    c

    oc

    f(1) (2) (4) (5)

    Problem Figures• • •

    • • •

    • • •

    • • •

    • X •• • •

    • • •

    • •

    • XX• • •

    • • •

    • XX• • •

    • X•

    • XXX • •

    X•

    (A) (B)Atiswer Figures

    (C) (D) (E)

    • XXX • •

    XX

    • XXX • •

    X •

    • XXX • X

    X

    • XXX • X

    • .

    • XXX • X• X

    (1) (2) (4) (5)Problem Figures

    1—

    O

    ★'\□

    (A) (B)Answer Figures

    (C) CD) (E)

    c c c

    (1) (3) (4) (5)

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    NTSE(EE)

    PART - II

    LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST

    (Q. Nos. 51 to 100)

    Max. Marks : 50

    Note :

    (i) SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR

    Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones

    given against the corresponding questions in

    the Question Booklet. For shading the circles,

    use a HB pencil.

    (ii) Q. No. 51 to 100 of Language Comprehensive

    Test contains English Language.

    s -

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  • Direction :

    (Questions 51 to 55) : Read thefollowing passage and answer thequestions given after it.

    Nationalism, of course, is acurious phenomenon which at a certainstage in a country's history gives life,growth and unity but at the same time,it has a tendency to limit one becauseone thinks of one's country assomething different from the rest of theworld. One's perceptive changes andone is continuously thinking of one'sown struggles and virtues and failing tothe exclusion of their thoughts. Theresult is that the same nationalism,which is the symbol of growth forpeople, becomes a symbol of cessation ofthat growth in mind. Nationalism,when it becomes successful, sometimesgoes on spreading in an aggressive wayand becomes a danger internationally.Whatever line of thought you follow,you arrive at the conclusion that somekind of balance must be found.

    Otherwise something good can turninto evil. Culture, which is essentiallygood, become not only static butaggressive and something that breedsconflict and hatred, when looked atfrom a wrong point of view. How willyou find a balance, I don't know. Apartfrom the political and economicproblems of the age, perhaps, that is thegreatest problem today because behindit, there is tremendous search forsomething, which cannot be found. Weturn to economic theories because theyhave an undoubted importance. It isfolly to talk of culture or even of god,when human beings starve and die.Before one can talk about anything else,one must provide the normal essentials

    NTSE(EE)

    of life to human beings. That is. whereeconomics

    comes in. Human beings today are notin mood to tolerate this suffering andstarvation and inequality, when theysee that the burden is not equallyshared. Others profit, while they onlybear the burden.

    51. Negative national feeling canmake a nation ...

    (1) selfish

    (2) self centred

    (3) indifferent

    (4) dangerous

    52. The greatest problem in themiddle of the passage refers to thequestion

    (1) how to mitigate hardship tohuman beings.

    C2^ how to share the economic

    burden equally.

    (3) how to contain the dangersof aggressive nationalism,

    (4) how to curb international

    hatred.

    53. Aggressive nationalism ....

    (1) endagers national unity.

    (2) leads to stunted growth.

    CS) breeds threat to

    international relations.

    (4) isolates a country.

    54. 'Others' in the last sentence refers

    to ....

    (1) other neighbours

    (2) other nations

    (3^ other people(4) other communities

    , ?

    E-225 [IV

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  • 55. Suitable title for this passage is ....(1) Nationalism and national

    problems.

    (2) Nationalism is not enough.

    Nationalism breeds unity.

    (4) Nationalism, a road to worldunity.

    Direction :

    (Questions 56 to 60) : Read thefollowing passage and answer thequestions given after it.

    Nehru was a many sidedpersonality. He enjoyed reading andwriting books, as much as he enjoyedfighting political and social evils orresiding tyranny. In him, the scientistand the humanist were held in perfectbalance. While he kept looking atspecial problems from a scientificstandpoint, he never forgot that weshould nourish the total man. As a

    scientist, he refused to believe in abenevolent power interested in men'saffairs. But as a self proclaimed non-believer, he loved affirming his faith inlife and the beauty of nature. Childrenhe adored. Unlike, Wordsworth he didnot see them as trailing clouds of gloryfrom the recent sojourn in heaven. Hesaw them as a blossoms of promise andrenewal, the only hope for mankind.

    56. Nehru thought that children

    (1) were trailing clouds of glory.

    {3^ held promise for a betterfuture.

    (3) were like flowers to be loved

    and admired.

    (4) held no hope for mankind.

    NTSE(EE)

    57. Nehru enjoyed...

    reading and writing books.

    (2) fighting with benevolentpower.

    (3) respecting tyranny.

    (4) resisting believers as he is aself proclaimed non believer.

    58. Which of the statements reflects

    Nehru's point of view ?

    (1) Humanism is more

    important than science.

    (2) Science is supreme andhumanism is subordinate to

    it.

    (3) Science and humanism are

    equally important.

    f There is no ground betweenhumanism and science.

    E-225 [13]

    59. In this passage, "a benevolentpower interested in men's affairs"means ....

    (1) beauty of nature..

    {'^ a supernatural power of god.

    (3) the spirit of science.

    (4) the total man.

    60. A many sided personality means ....

    {yf a complex personality.(2) a secretive person.

    (3) a person having variedinterests.

    (4) a capable person.

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  • Direction:

    (Questions 61 to 65) : Read thefollowing passage and answer thequestions given after it.

    The casual horrors and real

    disasters are thrown on a newspaperreader without discrimination. In the

    contemporary arrangements forcirculating the news, an importantelement, evaluation is always weak andoften wanting entirely. There is nopoint anywhere along the linesomewhere someone puts his foot downfor certain and says, "This is importantand that does not amount to row of

    beans; deserves no ones attention andshould travel the wires no farther".

    The junk is dressed up to look asmeaningful as the real news.

    61. Evaluation of news would imply ...

    (1) less dependence on modernsystems of communication.

    (2) More careful analysis of eachnews story and its value,

    separating beans from junk,

    discriminating horrors fromdisasters.

    62. The writer of the above passage...

    (1) seems to be happy with thecontemporary arrangements

    for circulating news.

    (2) is shocked by the casualstories about horrors and

    disasters reported in thenewspaper.

    (3^ wants better evaluation ofnews before publication.

    (4) wants to put his foot downon news stories.

    NTSE(EE)

    63. In the above passage, the phrase"amounts to a row of beans"

    means that the news ....

    (1) is weak and often wantingentirely.

    (2) deserves no one attention.

    (3) should travel the wires.

    is junk, dressed up as realnews.

    64. Newspapers lack a sense ofdiscrimination because ....

    /'/

    (1) they do not separate the realnews from mere

    sensationalism.

    (2) they have to accept whateveris received on the wires.

    (3) limited man power makesserious evolution impossible.

    people don't see thedifference between 'junk'and 'real' news.

    65. The passage implies that....

    (1) there has to be censorship onnewspapers.

    (2) there is no point in havingcensorship.

    (3^ newspapers always dress upjunk to look real.

    (4) one has to be strict in

    selecting news items.

    E-225 II [Turn Over

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  • Direction :

    (Questions 66 to 71) : In thefollowing passage, there are somenumbered blanks. Fill in the blanks byselecting the most appropriate word foreach blank.

    Recent discoveries show that

    Indians of early days 66 to have beenhighly civilised in many ways. They hadmassive public buildings andcomfortable dwelling houses 67 mostlyby brick. They had 68 arrangements69 good sanitation and an elaboratedrainage system. They knew how towrite 70 their language which has notyet been 71 was not alphabetic butsyllabic like the Sumerian language.

    66. (1) intend

    (2) appear

    (3) behave

    decided

    67. (1) designed(2) formulated

    (3^ built

    (4) construct

    68. (1) ignored

    (2) made

    started

    (4) less

    69. (1) inspite

    (2f by(3) from

    (4) for

    70. (1) but

    (2) because

    (3) while

    since

    E-225

    NTSE(EE)

    71. (1) talked

    (2)^ written(3) deciphered

    (4^ formed

    Direction :

    (Questions 72 and 73) : Thefollowing sentences are from aparagraph. The first and the lastsentences / parts are given. Choose theorder in which the four sentences /

    parts (PQRS) should appear tocomplete the paragraph.

    72. Si: The dictionary is the best

    friend of your task.

    52-

    53- -

    84-

    S5-

    Sg : Soon you will realize that

    this is an exciting task.

    P : That may not be possiblealways.

    Q : It is wise to look it upimmediately.

    R: Then it must be firmlywritten on the memoiy andtraced at the first

    opportunity.

    S : Never allow a strange wordto pass unchallenged.

    Choose the correct sequence fromthe options given below.

    (1) PQRS

    (3< QRPS(3) SQPR

    (4) SPRQ

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  • 73. Si

    52

    5384

    S5

    Se

    P:

    Q:

    R:

    S:

    NTSE(EE)Calcutta, unlike other cities,

    kept its trams.

    : The foundation stone was

    laid in 1972.

    As a result, there washorrendous congestion.It was going to be the first insouth Asia.

    They run down the centre ofthe road.

    To ease in, the city decidedto build an undergroundrailway line.

    Choose the correct sequence fromthe given options.

    (1) PRSQ

    (2< RPSQ(3) PSQR

    (4) SQRP

    Direction :

    (Questions 74 to 77) : For each of thefollowing groups of four words, find theincorrectly spelt word.

    74. (1) Imperative

    (2) ilicit

    (3

  • 81. Anyone wishing to work as asecret agent must first undergo a

    background investigation.

    (1) tiny

    (3^ handy

    (3) stingy

    (4) stringent

    82. A : Did Priya apolo^ze after theargument ?

    B : No, but she do so soon.

    (1) had better

    (2) would rather

    (3) better had to

    (4?^ should rather

    If you refuse to work hard, yourendeayors will amount... nothing.

    for

    (2) to

    (3) with

    (4) by

    There is no reason .... oyer spilledmilk;

    (1) to cry

    (2) to save

    (3) to serve

    to boil

    83.

    84.

    85. Grain is commonly used asanimals:

    for

    (1)

    >25(3)

    (4)

    E-225

    commodity

    fodder

    implements

    fumigation

    NTSE(EE)

    Direction:

    (Questions 86 to 90) : Choose the onewhich best expresses the meaning ofthe given phrase.

    86. At close quarters

    (1) close examinations.

    (2) live near to each other.

    (3) live far to each other.

    (4^ in love.

    87. an apple of discord

    (1) cause of wealth.

    (2) cause of quarrel.

    (3) cause of happiness,

    cause of illness.

    88. At large

    famous

    (2) not famous

    (3) abscond

    (4) very far

    89. take the bull by horns

    face a difficulty or dangerconfidently.

    (2) run away from a difficulty ordanger.

    (3) face a difficulty or dangerboldly.

    (4) pull the bull's horns.

    90. buckle down

    work seriously

    (2) take it easy

    (3) drop a subject

    (4) go for a vacation.

    [17] [Turn Over

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  • Direction:

    (Questions 91 to 95): Select the wordwhich means the same as the givenwords.

    91. abandon

    (1) try

    (2) join

    keep with

    (4) forsake

    92. detest

    (1) love

    to hate intensely

    (3) neglect

    (4) to support

    93. tentative

    (1) prevalent

    portable

    (3) wry

    (4) provisional

    94. Obscure

    (1) block

    (2) vague

    obstruct

    (4) vague

    95. Sp^fic(VT proper

    (2) uncommon

    (3) noteworthy •

    (4). precise.

    E-225

    NTSE(EE)

    Direction:

    (Questions 96 to 100) : Select theword which means the opposite of thegiven word.

    96. open minded

    (1) zealous■s. ^

    (2) prejudicedC3T shrewd(4) unpretentious

    97. dependablejudgemental

    (2) patient

    (3) fickle

    (4) cautious

    98. impertinent

    (1) healthy

    {2ff respectful(3) inadequate(4) smooth

    99. extravagance(1) luxury(2) poverty

    (3) economical

    cheapness

    100. obscure

    implicit(2) obnoxious

    {3) explicit

    pedantic

  • r^- {■ ■ ■ ' fyi- r.y'.h• _ --- . '%.■■ ■■■

    .•

    ,V. t-

    Subjects, Question Sr. Nos. and Marks allotted(1) Physics 101 to 113 Questions 13 Marks

    (2 Chemistry 114 to 126 Questions 13 Marks

    (3) Biology 127 to 140 Questions 14 Marks

    (4) Mathematics 141 to 160 Questions 20 Marks

    (5) History 161 to 172 Questions 12 Marks

    (6) Geography 173 to 184 Questions 12 Marks

    (7) Political Science 185 to 192 Questions 08 Marks

    (8) Economics 193 to 200 Questions 08 Marks

    1(W

    E-225

    SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in theOMR Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given againstthe corresponding question in the Question PaperBooklet. For shading the circles, use a HB Pencil.

    N

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    PHYSICS

    101. A car starts moving along a line,first with an acceleration

    a = 5ms~^ starting from rest, thenuniformly and finally deceleratingat the same rate, comes to rest inthe total time of 25 seconds (^i),then average velocity during thetime is equal to y = 72 kmph. Howlong does the particle moveuniformly ?(1) 25 seconds f(2) 2.5 hours

    (39 1.5 hours(4) 15 seconds

    102. A uniform rod of length 'L' anddensity 'p' is being pulled along asmooth floor with horizontal

    acceleration a as shown in the

    figure. The magnitude of thestress at the transverse cross-

    section through the mid-point ofthe rod is

    (/)4

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    4 p/a

    2 p/a

    pla

    £Ha

    103. An object is placed at a distance df10 cm from the curved surface of a

    glass hemisphei'e of radius 10 cm.Find the position of the ima^from the fiat surface.

    (1) 26.67 cm |(2) 2.67 cm

    (3) 2 cm

    19.67 cm

    E-225

    104. A dynamometer D (a force meter)is attached to two masses M= 10 kgand m = 1 kg. Forces F = 2kgfand f - \ kgf are applied to . themasses. Find out in which of the

    case gives maximum reading.

    D

    (A) F is applied to M and / to m.(B) F is applied to m and F to M.

    (C) If M = m = 5 kg. (IgnoreM values in the problem).

    (D) If M is doubled to m. (Ignorem, M values in the problem).

    (-*< A(2) B

    (3) C

    (4) D

    105. A 20g bullet pierces through aplate of mass = 1 kg and then

    comes to rest inside a second plateof mass M2 = 2.98 kg as shown in

    the figure. It is found that the twoplates initially at rest and nowmove with equal velocities. Findthe percentage loss in the initialvelocity of the bullet when it isbetween Mj and M2. (Neglect anyloss of material of the plates dueto the action of bullet).

    M.

    (1) 15%

    (3) 50%

    (2) 25%

    (^ 72.5%

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  • 106. A U-tube of uniform cross-section

    (see fig) is partially filled with aliquid L. Another liquid which

    does not mix with liquid L ispoured into one side. It is foundthat the liquid levels of two sidesof the tube are the same. While

    level of liquid L has risen by 2 cm.If the specific gravity of liquid L is1.1, the specific gravity of liquid

    must be

    r™W™j

    (1) 1.1

    1.3

    (3) 1.001

    (4) 1.0

    107. The roadway bridge over a canalis in the form of an arc of a circle

    of radius 20m. What is the

    maximum speed with which a carcan cross the bridge withoutleaving the ground at the highestpoint.

    (1) 10 ms

    {2f 12 ms

    -1

    (3) 14 ms"^

    (4) 16 ms"^

    NTSE(EE)

    108. A particle of mass M and charge qmoving with velocity i; entersRegion-2 normal to the boundryas shown in the figure. Region-2has uniform magnetic field Bperpendicular to the plane of thepaper. The length of the Region-2is I. Choose the correct choice.

    Region 1 _ Region 2 _ Region 3

    X X X X

    X X X X

    X X X X

    X X X X

    s—I—^X X X X

    V

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    (1)

    ik(3)

    (4)

    The particle enters Region-3only, if its velocityV > g I B ! m.The particle enters Region-3only, if its velocityV < q I B I m.Path length of the particle inRegion-2 is maximum whenvelocity v = q IB I m.Time spend in Region-2 issame for any velocity v aslong as the particle return toRegion-1.A only true.A, C true.

    A, C, D true.

    All are true.

    109. Bfl and 120 resistors are

    connected in parallel. Thiscombination is connected to series

    with a 10 V battery and 60resistor. What is the potentialdifference between the terminals

    of the 120 resistor ?

    CD 14 V

    (2) 16 V

    (3) 10 V

    (/ 4V

    E-225 [213

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  • 110. Three rods of same dimensions

    have thermal conductivity 3K, 2K,and K. They are arranged as showin the figure below. Then thetemperature of the junction insteady state is

    3K

    100°CK

    K

    -if

    100

    3

    (3) 75

    50°C

    o°c

    200

    (2)

    (4)3

    111. A ray of light passes through 4transparent media with refractiveindex n2, n^, as shown in the

    figure. The surface of all themedias are parallel. If theemergent ray CD is parallel to theincident ray AB, we musthave ....

    (1) Til = 1X2

    (2) 712 — ̂ 3

    (3) ^3 = 714

    — riiy6-

    h-

    E-225

    ' ' y''^'

    '' ■ lil--

    .--rsr*• ■ ' .

    ■Hi - :

    NTSE(EE)112. The velocity of sound in Hydrogen

    at 0°G is 1248 m/s. What will bevelocity of sound in mixture oftwo parts by volume of Hydrogento one part of Oxygen ? (Oxygen16 is times heavier than Hydrogennearly).

    (1) 725 m/s

    653 m/s

    (3) 510 m/s

    (4) 430 m/s

    113. Calculate the equivalentresistance between a and b of thefollowing network of conductors.

    2q

    3Si

    2C2

    it) 4Q J.(2) 5n

    -j

    (3) 3n.

    (4) 2Q

    , ■ ■ >'f.

    ;-t' ■

    I-:

    •:(22]

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  • NTSE(EE)

    CHEMISTRY

    114. Some rocket engines use amixture of Hydrazine, N2H4 and

    Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 as the

    propellant. The reaction is givenby the following equation.

    N2H4f/; + 2H202r;;

    + 4H20fg;

    How much of the excess reactant,remains unchanged ? When0.750 mol of N2H4 is mixed with

    ITgofHsOs?

    (1) 16 g N2H4

    (2) 0.25 mol H2O2

    (3< 0.25 mol N2H4(4) 8.5 g H2O2

    115. Which one of the followingcombinations is false ?

    Solution type Particle size

    (1) Colloidal solution 10"^ to 10"^ cm

    (2) True solution 10"' to 10~® cm

    (3) Suspension 10~® to 10"^^ cm(4^^^1 are correct combinations.

    116. Which of the following is not anOxidation reaction ?

    Bleaching of coloured objectsusing moist Chlorine.

    (2) Rancidity of fats.

    (3) Thermite process involvingthe reaction of Iron (III)

    oxide (or) Chromium (III)

    oxide, etc., with Aluminium.

    (4) The poling process involvingthe removal of impuritiesfrom a molten metal.

    117. The gaseous hydrocarbonAcetylene, C2H2 used in welder's

    torches, releases 1300 KJ, when1 mole of C2H2 undergoes

    combustion, then which of thefollowing is not true ?

    (1) Combustion of Acetylene isan exothermic reaction.

    The balanced chemical

    reaction of combustion of

    Acetylene is :

    C2H2 + 5O2 2CO2 "t" H2O

    (3) 2 moles of water producedwhen 2 moles of Acetylenereacts.

    (4) 44 g of CO2 produced, when

    13 g of Acetylene reacts.

    118. Following are the representativewave-lengths in the Infra-red,Ultra-violet and X-ray regions ofthe electromagnetic spectrum

    1.0 X 10~® m, 1.0 X 10~® m and

    1.0 X 10"^^ m. Which of thefollowing statements is false ?

    (Vf The correspondingfrequencies of X-ray, UV andIR are in the ratio of

    10^:10^:1.

    (2) The corresponding energiesof X-ray, UV and IR are in

    the ratio of 1 :10"^ : 10"^

    (3) The corresponding velocitiesof X-ray, UV and IR are in

    the ratio of 1 : 10^ ; 10^ .

    (4) X-rays, UV and IR wavesare electromagnetic waves.These are transverse waves.

    E-225[23]

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  • 119. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M

    electrons.

    Choose the correct

    statement(s) regarding it.A. Tri valent anion of this atom

    will have 12 protons in itsnucleus.

    B. Tri valent cation of this

    atom will have six

    /^-electrons in it.C. This atom form an

    amphoteric oxide of formulaX2O3.

    D. One of its allotrope is tetraatomic (X4).

    (1) A and B

    (2) B onlym B and C

    (4) BandD '

    120. Chlorine (Cl) and Oxygen formfour different binary compounds.

    Analysis gives the followingresults :

    Compound Mass of 0 combined

    with l.Og Cl

    A 0.226 gB 0.903 gC 1.354 gD 1.579 g

    Compound A has a formula that issome multiple of CI2O, then which ofthe following is incorrectly said ?

    (1) Compound B is CI2O5 (orCI4O10, or ClgOis, and soforth).

    id) Compound C is CI2O6 (orCIO3, Or ClgOg and so forth).

    (3) Compound D is CI2O7 (or amultiple thereof).

    (4) The above' data show that

    the law of multipleproportions holds for thesecompounds.

    NTSE(EE)

    121. The reusable booster rockets of

    the U.S. space shuttle, uses amixture of Aluminium and

    Ammonium perchlorate for fuel.A possible equation for this

    reaction is ....

    SA[(s) + 3NH4C104fs^

    -^Al20g('sj + AlCl3rsi + 3N0fgj+ 6ihl2^(s)What mass of NH4Ci04

    should be used in the fuel mixture

    for every kilogram of A1 ?(1) 3 kg (2) 3.388 kg(^ 4.351 kg (4) 4 kg

    122. All of the following processesinvolve a separation of either amixture into its components, or acompound into elements. Foreach, decide whether a physicalprocess or a chemical reaction is

    required.а. Sodium metal is obtained

    from the substance Sodiumchloride.

    б. Iron filings are separatedfrom sand by using amagnet.

    c. Sugar crystals are separatedfrom sugar syrup byevaporation of water.

    d. Fine crystals of Silverchloride are separated froma suspension of the ciystalsin water.

    e. Copjier is produced whenZinc metal is placed in asolution of Copper (II)sulphate, a compound.

    i Physical processes Chemical processes^ a, 6, c d,e(2) a, d h, c, e(3) b,c,d a,e(4) e a, b, c, d

    E-225 [24]

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  • 123. What mass of Oxygen is combinedwith 9.02 g of Sulphur in(a) Sulphur dioxide, SO2 and(b) Sulphur trioxide, SO3 ?

    (1) 23.5g O in SOg and

    19.02g O in SO3.

    19.02g O in SO2 and

    23.5g O in SO3.

    9.02g O in SO2 and

    13.5g O in SO3.

    9.02g O in SO3 and

    13.5g O in SO2.

    (2rf

    (3)

    (4)

    124. On an hypothetical planet themajor solvent is liquid Ammonia,not water. Ammonia auto ionises

    much like water

    (2NH3 ̂ NH4+ + NHa")

    If instead of water, ammonia isused as a solvent, the acid baseneutralisation reaction for the

    formation of NaCl is

    - (1) NaNH4+NH2Cl-^NaCl+2NH3

    (2f NaNH2+NH4Cl^NaCl+2NH3(3) NaNH3+NH3Cl->NaCl+2NH3

    (4) NaNH4+NH4Cl->NaCl+2NH4+

    125. The purity of a substance can begauged by the following, except:

    (1) Its melting point.

    (2) Its boiling point.

    (3^ Chromatography.(4) Physical appearance.

    NTSE(EE)

    126. You are presented with threebottles A, B, C each containing adifferent liquid. Bottles arelabelled as follows :

    Bottle A : ionic compound

    -Boiling point 30°C

    Bottle B : molecular compound

    -Boiling point 29.2°C

    Bottle C : molecular compound

    -Boiling point 67.1°C

    Choose the correct statement:

    (1) The compound most likely tobe incorrectly identified isbottle A.

    (2) The substance in bottle B

    has strongest intermolecularattractions.

    (37^ The substance in bottle C ishighly volatile.

    (4) A pure aqueous solution ofcompound in bottle B is agood conductor of electricityamong the three.

    E-225 [25]

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  • NTSE(EE)

    •jr'iBIOLOGY

    127.' Minaihata disease is due to ....

    d) MICgas.(2^^ Methyl mercury(3) Lead nitrate

    (4) Cobalt chloride

    128. The region in brain portion thatcontrols hunger is

    (1) Medulla

    (2) piencephalon

    (33^Cerebrum(4) Mid brain

    129. What will happen, if the spermcontaining 'X' chromosomesfertilises the Ovum ?

    Female child born '

    Male child born . j(3) Can not guess i

    (4) None

    130. Which is not correct ?

    H/f Embryology - Aristotle.{2) Taxonomy - Carolus

    Linnaeus.

    (3) Paleontology - Leonardoda Vinci.

    (4) Cytology - RobertBrown.

    131. Permanent surgical method forbirth control in male human

    beings is

    (1) Hysterectomy(2) Dialysis

    (3) TubectomyVasectomy

    132.Pernicious anemia is caused due to

    the deficiency of....(1) Biotin

    (2) Calciferol

    izf Cyanocobalamine .(4) Ascorbic acid

    133. Match the item in Column I with

    Column II.

    Part I

    a) Ribosomes.

    b) Mitochondria

    c) Nucleus.

    d) Lysosomes.

    Part II

    i) Suicidal

    bags.ii) control

    functions of

    cell.

    Protein

    .synthesis.iv) Power

    house of

    the cell.

    0^ a - iiij b - iv, c - ii, d - i(2) a - Hi, b ' iv, c - i, d - ii(3) a - Hi, b - i, c - ii, d - iv(4) a - i, b • Hi, c - ii, d - iv

    134. The salinity of sea water is

    id 2.5%(2) 3.5%

    (3) 4.5%

    (4) 5.5%

    135, Whp discovered blood capillaries ?

    William Harvey

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    Girolamo Fabric!

    Marcello Malpighi

    Robert Brown

    E-225 [26]

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  • 136. According to Charles Eltion,which is not correct.

    (1) Carnivores at the top of theP3a-amid.

    (2) Energy trapping is high atthe top of the Pyramid.

    Producers at the top of thePyramid.

    (4) 2 and 3.

    137. World conservation strategy wasproposed by lUCN in ....

    (1) 1948

    1980

    (3) 1990

    (4) 1993

    138. Cheese the incorrect pair.

    Ovary - Estrogen

    (2) Adrenal - Adrenalin

    (3) Pituitary - Thyroxine

    (4) Testis - Testosterone

    NTSE(EE)

    139. If a rat is given a mild electricshock when it goes to a certainpart of its cage, it eventually avoidgoing there. This is because of .....

    (1) Imitation

    Conditioning

    (3) Instinct

    (4) Imprinting

    140. The tongue of a person is exposedto a high salty taste, then

    (1) The person learns to tastesalty things better.

    (2) Loves tasting salty things.

    Hates tasting salty things.

    (4) Fails to taste a less saltything just after the exposure.

    • )

    - -• Vr '

    '. • , Vv>4

    . ̂

    - -wr

    A- . . ;rt:

    m ' i . »•-

    r

    ' r

    E-225 C27]

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  • •./«1 f.'il.. NTSE(EE)

    MATHEMATICS

    141. When 31513 and 34369 are divided

    by a certain three digit number, theremainders are equal, then theremainder is

    (>^86 I(2) 97

    . (3) 374

    (4) 113

    142. The greatest number of four digitswhich when divided by 3, 5, 7, 9leaves the remainders 1, 3, 5, 7respectively, is

    (1) 9763

    (2) 9673

    (3) 9367

    9969

    143. efghisQi four digit number. Onehundredth oiefghis the mean ofe f and g h, then the four digitnumber is

    (1) 3648

    (2< 4950(3) 4590

    (4) 3468

    144. If + xy + X = 12 and

    y^ + xy + y = 18,

    then the value of a: + y is

    5 or-6

    (2) 3 or 4

    (3) 5 or 3

    (4)' 6or-3

    145. If 217a: + 131y = 913 and

    131a: + 217y = 827,

    then the value of a: + y is ..

    (1) 8

    ^ 5(3) 7

    (4) 6

    146. If a: =

    2-

    2- ■ ri2-x

    then the value of x is

    (1) 1

    (2) 3

    (3) 2

    (Af 5

    147. Xif X2i X3,.... arein A.P

    If Xj + X7 + a:io = - 6 and -

    X3+Xs + Xi2=-ll,

    then X3 + Xg + X22 = ?

    (1) -21

    (2) - 15

    -18 .

    (4) -31

    148 If nterms 237 + 11 + 15+ nterms 35

    then n value is

    (1) 17

    (2) 15

    ^18(4) 23

    E-225 [28]

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  • NTSE(EE)

    149. If the co-ordinates of the midpointsof the sides of a triangle are (1, 1),(2, -3) and (3, 4), then the centroidof the triangle is

    (1)

    (/) (3,1)

    (2)

    (4) '4

    150. If two vertices of an equilateral

    triangle be (0, 0) and (3, Vs), thenthe third vertex is

    (1) (i. aVI)

    (2) (o, 2V3)

    iZ (3,^/3)

    (4) (l.^j

    151. As shown in the given figure, AABCis divided into six smaller trianglesby lines drawn from the verticesthrough a common interior point.The areas of four of

    6 triangles are as indicated, then thearea of AABC is

    A4

  • y \

    ■ ■ "

    NTSE(EE)

    155. In an equilateral triangle ABC, theside BC is trisected at D, then 9AD^is

    i/) TAB^(2) 8BC^ "

    (3) 4AC^

    (4) IAB^

    156. In the given figure, AB is thediameter of a circle with O and AT

    is a tangent. If ZAOQ = 58°, thenthe value of ZATQ is

    0

    aQ

    A

    52°

    (3) 46°

    (2) 61°

    (4) 75°

    157. The radii of two cylinders are in theratio 2 : 3 and their heights are inthe ratio 5 : 3, then the ratio of theirvolumes is

    (1) 15 : 16

    (2) 14 : 17

    20 : 27 ■

    (4) 4:9

    •: •-I -'., v

  • >-"r-

    NTSE(EE)

    HISTORY

    161. "For this earth is not allotted toanyone nor is it presented toanyone as a gift. It is awarded byprovidence to people who in theirhearts have the courage toconquer it, the strength topreserve it and the industry to putit to the plough." Whose ideologyis this ?

    (1) Benito Mussolini

    (2) Adolf Hitler

    Ho Chi Minh

    (4^ Stalin

    162. According to the census of 1921,12 to 13 million people perished asa result of

    First World War

    (2) Epidemics

    (3) Famines

    (4) All the above.

    163. Find out the wrong statementabout Giuseppe Mazzini ?

    (1) He was a member of the

    secret society of theCarbonari.

    (2) He believed "The God had

    intended nations to be the

    natural units of mankind."

    He was the founder of youngEurope.

    (4) None of the above.

    164. Who wrote the book "The Historyof the loss of Vietnam" ?

    (1) Phan Boi Chau

    Ho Chi Minh

    (3) Huynh Phu So

    (4) Phan Chu Trinh

    165. Compulsory Elementary EducationAct was made in England in theyear....

    (1) 1829

    {2^ 1849

    (3) 1860

    (4) 1870

    166. Who developed the concept of"The principle of the GardenCitv" ?

    (^T Andrew Means(2) Henry Mayhew(3) Ebenezer Howard

    (4) Haussman

    167. Who wrote "Ninety five Theses"criticising many of the practicesand rituals of the Roman CatholicClmrch ?

    ^ Martin Luther(2) Thomas Pain

    (3) J.VSchley(4) Richard M. Hoe

    168. Kashi baba, a kanpur mill workerwrote and published "Chhote AurBade Ka Sawal" in 1938 to showthe links between ....

    (1) Caste and Class exploitation.Caste and Religion relation.

    (3) Income and Untouchability.(4) Industrialists and Politicians.

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  • 169. "Only a decade ago, they were asilliterate, helpess and hungry asour own masses, who could bemore astonished than an

    unfortunate Indian like myself tosee how they had removed themountains of ignorance and helplessness in these few years."Name the Indian, who quoted thisRussian revolution ?

    M N Roy.

    Rabindranath Tagore.

    (3) Mahatma Gandhi.

    (4) Jawaharlal Nehru.

    170. Find out the wrong statementrelated to Franklin Roosevelt.

    Announced New Deal Policyto eradicate economic

    depression.

    Introduced the much

    needed Social Securitysystem.

    President of America duringSecond World War.

    None of the above.

    (1)

    (3)

    (4)

    1:- -V-

    Spi, I . • '.p:

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    171. The Ryotwari settlement wasintroduced by the British in the ...

    Madras Presidency.

    (2) Bengal Presidency.

    (3) Central Presidency.

    (4) Assam Presidency.

    172. The famous Quit India Resolutionwas passed on .....

    (1) August 18, 1942

    (2) April 4, 1942

    April 14, 1942 ^

    (4) August 8, 1942

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    GEOGRAPHY

    173. Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam andArunachal Pradesh have common

    frontiers with

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    China

    Bhutan

    Bangladesh

    Mayanmar

    174. Which of these is hot a Himachal

    Range ?

    (p'^'^haula Dhar(2) Pirpanjal Range

    (3) Kailash Range

    (4) Mahabharat Range

    175. The Himalayas is divided intofour major Geological sections.Choose among the followingwhich is not one of them.

    (1) Nepal Himalayas - BetweenKali and Teesta.

    (2) Mahabharat Himalayas -Between Indus and Gilgit.

    (3^ Kumaon Himalayas -Between Sutlej and Teesta.

    y

    (4) Assam Himalayas - BetweenTeesta and Dihang.

    176. Match list A with B and select the

    correct answer using the codesgiven below the list.

    List - A

    (a) Hyderabad iswarmer than

    Mumbai.

    (b) Snowfall in

    Himalayas.(c) North western

    plain gets rainfallin winter.

    (d) Rainfall in

    summer.

    List - B

    (i) Altitude

    (ii) Mangoshowers.

    riiij Distance

    from sea.

    (iv) Western

    Depression

    a b c d

    (1) Hi ii iv i

    (2) ii i Hi iv

    (/ Hi i iv ' ii(4) iv ii i Hi

    177. Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in

    the world network of bio-reserve ?

    (1) Sunderbhan

    (2) Gulf of Mannar

    Nanda Devi

    (4) Silent Valley

    178. Highest Annual Growth Rate inIndia was recorded in these

    decades. -

    (1) 1981, 1971, 1991

    (2) 1991, 2001, 1971

    1971, 2001, 1991

    (4) 1961, 1971, 1981

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  • 179. Which of these is not related to

    Conservation of Resources '

    (1) The club of Rome advocated. • resources conservation "for

    the first time in a more

    systematic way in 1968.

    (2) Brundtland Commission

    Report, 1987 introduced theconcept of "SustainableDevelopment".

    (3) E.F Schumacher is the

    author of the book "Small is

    Beautiful".

    Earth Summit was held in

    New York in 1997.

    180. With reference to Indian

    agriculture, which of the following■; statements is not correct ?

    (1) India is the largest produceras well as the consumer ofpulses in the world.India is the second largestproducer of rice in the worldafter China.

    (3)

    (4)

    Tea is an importantbeverage crop introduced inIndia initially by thePersians.

    Groundnut is a kharif cropand accounts for about halfof the major oil seedsproduced in the country.

    E-225

    NTSE(EE)181. In which of these following

    industries, limestone is not used ?(1) Cement industry.(2) Iron and Steel industry.(3^ Oil Refinery industry.(4) None of the above.

    182. Find the wrongly matched.(1) Ferrous mineral - Iron ore.(2) Non-ferrous - Mica.

    ,yf mineral(3) Non-Metallic - Limestone.

    mineral

    (4) Fuel minerals - Coal.

    183. Identify the non - fibre crop ?(1) Hemp(2) Cotton

    (3) Natural Silk

    (4^ Rubber

    184. The South-east Trade winds areattracted towards the Indian subcontinent in the month of Junedue to

    (1) the effect of the westerlies.(2) the effect of Somaliya

    current.

    the presence of lowatmospheric pressure overNorth-west India.

    (4) None of the above.

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  • POLITICAL SCIENCE

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    :■ . jii J

    185. Consider the following twostatements on power sharing andselect the answer using the codesgiven below.

    k-. (a) Power sharing is good fordemocracy.

    (b) It helps to reduce thepossibility of conflictsbetween social groups.

    Which of these statements are trueand false ?(1) Both a and 6 are triie.

    Both a and b are false.

    (3) a is true but b is false.(4) a is false but b is true.

    186. Match the following countries andthe path democracy has taken inthat country.

    Country Path to Democracy

    faj Nepal (i) End of One partyRule.

    (b) Chile (ii) King agreed to giveup his powers.

    (c) Ghana (Hi) End of MilitaryDictatorship.

    Poland (iv) Freedom fromBritish Colonial

    Rule.

    Codes:

    (

    a b c d

    (i) (H) (iv) (Hi) - ■ ■ , i _ ; : ,(ii) (Hi) (iv) (i)(Hi) (ii) (i) (iv)(iv) (i) (Hi) (ii)

    187. Consider the following statements

    about pressure groups and

    parties.

    (a) Pressure groups are the

    organised expression of the

    interests and views of

    specific social sections.

    (b) Pressure groups take

    positions on political issiiesi

    (c) All pressure groups are

    political parties.

    Which of the statements given

    above are correct ?

    (1) a.bdindc

    (2) a and b

    (3) b and c

    (4) a and c

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    188. Match the ministry with the news'that the ministry may havereleased.

    (a) A new policy is beingmade to increase the

    jute exports from thecountry.

    (b) Telephone serviceswill be made more

    accessible to rural

    areas.

    (c) The price of rice andwheat sold under the

    Public Distribution

    system will go down.(d)A pulse polio

    campaign will belaunched,

    (e) The allowances of thesoldiers posted onhigh altitudes will beincreased.

    B

    (i) Ministry ofDefence.

    (ii) Ministry ofHealth.

    Ministry ofAgriculture,

    Food and

    Public

    Distribution.

    (iv) Ministry ofCommerce

    and Industry,

    fuj Ministry ofCommunicat

    ions and

    Information

    Technology.

    Codes :

    (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

    (1] i Hi ii iv V

    /) iv V ' Hi ii i(3) Hi V ii i iv

    (4) ii V Hi iv i

    189. Find out the right which is notunder the Indian Constitution ?

    (1) Freedom of Speech andExpression.

    (2) Move freely through theCountry.

    j(Q)—-Practise any profession.

    (4) None of the above.

    E-225

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    190. Find out the wrong statementabout National Human RightsCommission.

    ^ This is an independentCommission established bylaw in 1993.

    Present Chairman for

    National Human RightsCommission is Justice

    Jeevan Reddy.

    Like National Human

    Rights Commission, thereare State Human RightsCommissions in 14 states of

    the country.

    There is no fee or any formalprocedure to approach theNational Human RightsCommission.

    (3)

    (4)

    191. Find out the subject which isunder concurrent list ?

    (1) Police

    (2) Communication

    Marriages and Divorce.

    (4) None of the above.

    192. A struggle known as "Bolivia'swater war" took place in city.

    (1) Cochabamba

    (2) Lapaz

    (3) Trinidad

    (4)^ Montero

    .:

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    ECONOMICS

    193, Consider the followingstatements.

    (i) Equitable allocation ofresources.

    (ii)

    (Hi)

    (iv)

    Generation of employment.Tax concession to bigcorporates.

    Universalisation of publicdistribution.

    Which of the factors given abovecan bring inclusive growth in ourcountry ?

    (1) (i), (ii)-, (Hi){3(r (i), (ii), (iv)(3) (i), (Hi), (iv)(4) (ii), (Hi), (iv)

    194. Which of the following is wrongrelated to Antyodaya AnnaYojana ?

    (1) Antyodaya Anna Yojana waslaunched in December 2000.

    (2) 2 crore families have been

    covered under the

    ^Antyodaya Anna Yojana.Wheat is supplied at the rateof Rs.6 and rice at the rate of

    Rs.7 under this scheme.

    (4) None of the above.

    195. Find out the correct one related tounder employment.

    (1) They do not want to work.

    (2) ̂/They work in a lazy manner.^ They work less than what

    they are capable, of doing.

    (4) They are not paid for theirwork. • '

    (2)

    196. Find out the wrong one aboutSecondary sector.(1) Secondary sector is also

    called as industrial sector.Manufacturing of bricks andsugar come under secondarysector.

    The share of secondarysector is more in currentGDP of India.

    None of the above.(4)

    197. Which among the following ismoney function ?

    . (1) ■ Medium of exchange.(2) Unit of account.

    (3) ̂^tore of value.(^' All the above.

    198. Consider the following statementsabout Globalisation.(a)

    (b)

    (0

    The most common route for

    investment by MNC'S incountries around the worldis to buy existing localcompanies.Investment made byMultinational companies iscalled foreign investment.Cargill Foods, an Americancompany purchased anIndian company calledParakh Foods.

    Ford Motors is one of the

    biggest German Automobilemanufacturer

    Which of the given statements areTrue ?

    (1). a, c, d(2) a,b,c

    b, c, dw" a,b,c,d

    (d)

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  • 199. In which year, did the BengalFamine occur, whfich ' wasresponsible for the death of30 lakh people in BengalProvince ?

    . (1) 1933

    (2) 1943

    (3) 1953

    1963

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    200. Find out the wrong one related to'V,.' -.'Annapurna Scheme (APS).

    (1) Introduced in the year 2000.

    A scheme meant for indigentsenior citizens.

    (3) 10 kg of food grains aresupplied freely under thescheme.

    (4) None of the above.

    r

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