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TNPSC WEEKLY TEST

QUESTIONS: 100 TEST CODE: 034 DURATIONS: 90 MINS 1. What is the reason for planets revolution around the sun? a) Gravitational force b) Circular force c) Linear force d) Centrifugal force Nfhs;fs; #hpaidr; Rw;Wtjw;F fhuzk; vd;d? a) <h;g;Gtpir b) Rw;Wg;Gwtpir

c) Neh;Nfhl;L tpir d) ikaNehf;Ftpir 2. Which of the following are true? 1. The planets are classified into Solid Planets and Gaseous planets. 2. All planets are rotating around the sun in circular pathway same time. 3. Stars are having the character of glittering individually. 4. No planet has the capacity to emit light. a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1,2 and 3 d) 1, 3 and 4 fPo;f;fz;l thf;fpaj;jpy; vit rhpahdit?

1. #hpaf;FLk;gj;jpd; Nfhs;fis jplf;Nfhs;fs;> thAf;Nfhs;fs; ,uz;L gphpTfshfg; gphpf;fyhk;. 2. #hpaidr; Rw;Wk; vy;yhf;Nfhs;fSk; tl;lg;ghijapy; xNu rkaj;jpy; Rw;wp tUfpd;wd. 3. el;rj;jpuq;fs; jhdhf xspUk; jd;ik nfhz;lit. 4. Nfhs;fSf;F jhdhf xsp ckpOk; jd;ik ,y;iy a) 1 kw;Wk; 2 b) 2 kw;Wk; 3 c) 1>2 kw;Wk; 3 d) 1>3 kw;Wk; 4

3. Which of the following planet doesn’t have natural satellite? a) Pluto b) Earth c) Jupiter d) Venus gpd;tUtdtw;Ws; Jizf;Nfhs; ,y;yhj Nfhs; vJ? a) GSl;Nlh b) Gtp c) tpahod; d) nts;sp 4. Who explains scientifically that the earth rotates on its own axis? a) Pope Gregory b) Aryabhatta c) Edwin hubble d) Neil Armstrong

G+kp jd;idjhNd Rw;WfpwJ vd;W $wpath; ahh;?

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a) Nghg; fphpfhhp b) Mhpagl;lh; c) vl;tpd; `gps; d) ePy; Mk;];l;uhq; 5. When will the sunlight falls vertically on the earth axis?

a) March 21 and September 23 b) March 11 and September 20 c) March 1 and September 3 d) March 12 and September 30 #hpad; Gtpapilf;Nfhl;by; nrq;Fj;jhf gpufhrpf;Fk; ehl;fs; vit? a) khh;r; 21 kw;Wk; nrg;lk;gh; 23 b) khh;r; 11 kw;Wk; nrg;lk;gh; 20 c) khh;r; 1 kw;Wk; nrg;lk;gh; 3 d) khh;r; 12 kw;Wk; nrg;lk;gh; 30

6. Where was the first creatures appeared on the earth? a) Oceans b) Trenches c) Continents d) Mountains Gtpapd; Kjy; caphpdq;fs; vq;F Njhd;wpd a) fly; b) mfopfs; c) fz;lq;fs; d) kiyfs; 7. Who explained that the existing universe is being expanded? a) Pope Gregory b) Edwin Hubble c) Wegener d) Aryabhatta

Nguz;lkhdJ ,d;Dk; tphptile;J nfhz;Ljhd; tUfpwJ vd tpsf;fpath; ahh;? a) Nghg; fphpfhhp b) vl;tpd; `gps; c) nta;dh; d) Mhpagl;lh;

8. Peninsular india is a part of a) Panthalassa b) Ankara c) Pangaea d) Gondwana jPgfw;g ,e;jpah ve;j epyg;gFjpapd; xU gFjp a) ghd;jyhrh b) mq;fhuh c) ghd;Ipah d) Nfhz;Lthdh 9. Who theorize about the structure of earth? a) Richter b) Wegener c) Suess d) Isaac newton G+kp mikg;Gg; gw;wp Nfhl;ghl;il Kjypy; cUthf;fpath; ahh;? a) hpf;lh; b) nta;dh; c) #a]; d) Irf; epA+l;ld; 10. When did the fire accident in Kumbakonam school happened? a) 26th july 2004 b) 16th july 2006 c) 16th july 2004 d) 16th june 2004 Fk;gNfhzk; gs;sp jP tpgj;J vg;NghJ ele;jJ? a) [{iy 26> 2004 b) [{iy 16> 2006 c) [{iy 16> 2004 d) [{d; 16> 2004 11. When earth quake occurs which of the following regions has very high damage risk zone ? a) jammu, Bihar b) Kashmir, Punjab c) Andaman, Nicobar islands d) Delhi

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gpd;tUtdtw;Ws; mjph;tiy Vw;gLk; gFjpfspy; kpf mjpf mgha Neh;T kz;lyk; vJ? a) [k;K> gPfhh; b) fh\;kPh;> gQ;rhg; c) me;jkhd; epf;Nfhgh; jPTfs; d) nly;yp 12. In India tsunami warning centre is located in a) Hyderabad b) Kolkata c) Mumbai d) Chennai ,e;jpahtpy; Rdhkp vr;rhpf;if ikak; vq;F epWtg;gl;Ls;sJ. a) i`juhghj; b) nfhy;fj;jh c) Kk;ig d) nrd;id 13. „Titan’ is the ____- a) Largest satellite of Saturn b) Smallest satellite of Saturn c) Largest satellite of mars d) Smallest satellite of mars ‘ill;ld; vd;gJ ____- a) rdpapd; kpfg; nghpa Jizf;Nfhs; b) rdpapd; kpfr; rpwpa Jizf;Nfhs; c) nrt;thapd; kpfg; nghpa Jizf;Nfhs; d) nrt;thapd; kpfr; rpwpa Jizf;Nfhs; 14. The small central part of a hurricane is known as the “eye” is a region of _____ a) Calm and clear sky b) Very strong winds c) Torrential rain d) Low temperature „fz;‟ vd; miof;fg;gLk; `hpNfdpd; rpwpa ikag; gFjp ,j;jifaJ ____ a) mikjp kw;Wk; njspthd thdk; cilaJ b) mjpNtf fhw;iw cilaJ c) kpf mjpf kiog; nghopit nfhz;lJ d) Fiwe;j ntg;gj;ij cilaJ 15. The Himalayas is rising 5mm per year, due to the movement of which plate. a) Eurosia Plate b) Africa Plate c) Pacific Plate d) Indo – Austrian Plate ve;j jl;bd; efh;tha;> ,kakiy Mz;bw;F 5 kpy;yp kPl;lh; mstpw;F cah;fpwJ. a) ANurpah jl;L b) Mg;gphpf;fh jl;L c) grpgpf; jl;L d) ,e;Njh – M];jphpah jl;L 16. The wave first to be recorded by the seismograph. a) S – waves b) p – waves c) L – waves d) R – waves rP];Nkhfpuhg; fUtpapy; Kjypy; gjpT nra;ag;gLk; miy vJ a) S – miyfs; b) p – miyfs; c) L – miyfs; d) R – miyfs;

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17. Which is also known as Halocasty a) Dissolution b) Mineral Hydration c) Salt crystal Growth d) Frost weathering `hNyh`pyh];b> vdTk; miof;fg;gLk; vJ. a) fiujy; b) jhJ ePh;nfhs;sy; c) cg;G gbfq;fspd; tsh;r;rp d) ciwgdpr; rpijT 18. The deposition of fan shape alluvial soil at the mouth of river is a) Flood plain b) Delta c) Rapid d) Meander Mw;wpd; Kfj;Jthug;gFjpapy; gbag;gLk; tprpwp tbt tz;ly; kz; ngah; ahJ. a) nts;sr; rkntsp b) nly;lh c) Js;sy; d) kpahz;lh; 19. Which layer of atmosphere is known as weather layer? a) Stratosphere b) Ionosphere c) Exosphere d) Troposphere thdpiy mLf;F vd miof;fg;gLk; tspkz;ly mLf;F ahJ a) gilaLf;F b) madpaLf;F c) ntspaLf;F d) mbaLf;F 20. The centre of low pressure system is a) Local winds b) Anti – cyclone c) Cyclone d) Monsoon Winds vJ jho;tOj;j mikg;gpd; ikakhFk; a) jyf; fhw;Wfs; b) vjph; #whtspfs; c) Gay; d) gUtf; fhw;Wfs; 21. Which is known as Twister in USA? a) Tornadoes b) Cyclone c) Anti – cyclone d) Typhoons If;fpa ehl;by; (USA)> Ltp];lh; vd miof;fg;gLtJ vJ a) #iwf; fhw;Wfs; b) Gay;fs; c) vjph; - #whtspfs; d) ijG+d;fs; 22. The Average ocean salinity is a) 45 grams b) 30 grams c) 35 grams d) 40 grams Nguhopfspd; ruhrhp cth;g;gpak; a) 45 fpuhk; b) 30 fpuhk; c) 35 fpuhk; d) 40 fpuhk; 23. Aralvaimozhi, a wind farm located in which district of Tamil Nadu a) Madurai b) Kaniyakumari c) Salem d) Vellore Muy;tha;nkhop jkpo;ehl;bd; vk;khtl;lj;jpy; cs;s fhw;whiy gz;izahFk; a) kJiu b) fd;dpahFkhp c) Nryk; d) NtY}h;

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24. Which layer of atmosphere we can find colourful display of Aurorasare? a) Troposphere b) Ionosphere c) Exosphere d) Stratosphere tspkz;lyj;jpd; ve;j mLf;fpy; xU jpwg; nghd; vd;W miof;fg;gLk; (Auroras)> tz;zkakhd fhl;rpaikg;gpid fhzyhk;. a) mbaLf;F b) madpaLf;F c) ntspaLf;F d) gilmLf;F 25. The Asian Games were held in Delhi for the first time in? a) 1951 b) 1963 c) 1971 d) 1982 Kjy; Kiwahf Mrpa tpisahl;Lg; Nghl;bfs; by;yp-apy; vg;NghJ eilngw;wJ. a) 1951 b) 1963 c) 1971 d) 1982 26. The ‘Dronacharya Award’ is given to? a) Sportsmen b) Coaches c) Umpires d) Sports Editors

‘JNuhzhr;rhpah tpUJ‟ vjw;fhf toq;fg;gLfpwJ? a) tpisahl;L tPuh; b) gapw;rpahsh; c) eLth; d) tpisahl;L Mrphpah; 27. The great Victoria Desert is located in a) Canada b) West Africa c) Australia d) North America tpf;Nlhhpah ghiytdk; vq;Fs;sJ? a) fdlh b) Nkw;F Mg;gphpf;fh c) M];jpNuypah d) tl mnkhpf;fh 28. The world famous ‘Khajuraho’ sculptures are located in a) Gujarat b) Madhya Pradesh c) Orissa d) Maharashtra cyf Gfo;ngw;w f[PuhN`h rpiyfs; mike;Js;s ,lk; a) F[uhj; b) kj;jpa gpuNjrk; c) xhp]h d) kfhuh\;buh 29. The first nuclear reactor in India is a) Dhurva b) Harsha c) Vipula d) Apsara ,e;jpahtpd; Kjy; mZ ciy vJ? a) JUth b) `h;\h c) tpGyh d) mg;ruh 30. Which of the following is Human Rights Organisation? a) The French community b) The Organisation of African Unity c) The Arab League d) Amnesty International fPo;f;fz;ltw;wpy; vJ kdpj chpik mikg;G a) gpnuQ;R fk;A+dpl;b b) Mg;gphpf;f xw;Wik mikg;G c) muG yPf; d) mk;dp];b ,d;lh;Ne\dy;

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31. When was SAARC founded? a) 1982 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1983 SAARC mikg;G Muk;gpf;fg;gl;l tUlk;

a) 1982 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1983 32. Which of the following is a cultural organization? a) UNESCO b) ILO c) WHO d) FAO fPo;f;fz;ltw;wpy; fyhr;rhu epWtdk; vJ? a) UNESCO b) ILO c) WHO d) FAO 33. The headquarters of IMF and World Bank are located at a) Geneva and Montreal b) Geneva and Vienna c) New York and Geneva d) Washington

cyf tq;fp kw;Wk; gd;dhl;L nryhtdp epjpaj;jpd; jiyefuk; vq;Fs;sJ? a) n[dpth kw;Wk; khd;bhpay; b) n[dpth kw;Wk; tpad;dh c) epA+ahh;f; kw;Wk; n[dpth d) th\pq;ld; 34. Who is the first recipient of Bharat Ratna Award? a) C.V.Raman b) S.Chandrasekhar c) C.Rajagopalachari d) Gobind Ballabh Pant

ghuj uj;dh tpUJ Kjypy; ngw;wth; ahh;? a) C.V. uhkd; b) S. re;jpuNrfh; c) C. uh[Nfhghyr;rhhp d) Nfhgpe;j; gy;yhg; ghz;l 35. Dr.A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious

Bharat Ratna Award in the year: a) 1992 b) 1995 c) 1997 d) 1998

Kd;dhs; FbauRj; jiyth; Dr. ABJ mg;Jy;fyhk; ghuj uj;dh tpUJ ngw;w Mz;L

a) 1992 b) 1995 c) 1997 d) 1998

36. The first Woman to get Bharat Ratna Award is a) Sarojini Naidu b) Mother Teresa

c) Lata Mangeshkar d) Indiar Gandhi ghuj uj;dh tpUJ ngw;w Kjy; ngz;kzp ahh;? a) rNuh[pdp ehAL b) md;id njurh c) yjh kq;Nf\;fh; d) ,e;jpuh fhe;jp 37. Which is the largest tiger reserve in India? a) Nagarjuna b) Corbett c) Kaziranga d) Manas

,e;jpahtpy; kpfg;nghpa Gypfs; ruzhyak; vJ? a) ehfh;[Pdh c) fhh;ngl; c) fhrpuq;fh d) khdh];

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38. Which of the following rivers is associated with Mahatma Gandhi Hydroelectric Project?

a) Godavari b) Sharavati c) Subansiri d) Krishna kfhj;kh fhe;jp ePh;kpd; epiyak; ve;j Mw;wpy; mike;Js;sJ? a) Nfhjhthp b) rhuhtjp c) Rgd;];hp d) fpU\;zh 39. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National parks? a) Assam b) West Bengal

c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands d) Tamil Nadu fPo;f;fz;ltw;wpy; mjpf Njrpa G+q;fh cs;sJ?

a) mrhk; b) Nkw;F tq;fhsk; c) me;jkhd; epNfhghh; d) jkpo;ehL

40. Choose the correct answer The first Battle of Panipat was fought in A.D. ______ a) 1536 b) 1526 c) 1506 d) 1706 Kjy; ghdpg;gl; Nghh; ele;j Mz;L ----------- a) 1536 b) 1526 c) 1506 d) 1706 41. Guru Arjun Dev was the ______ Sikh guru a) 5th b) 9th c) 10th d) 4th FU mh;Rd; Njt; ---------- rPf;fpa FU Mthh;. a) 5th b) 9th c) 10th d) 4th 42. Lord Amherest was succeeded by _____ as the Governor General of India. a) William Bentinck b) Lord Hastings c) Lord Curzon d) Lord Minto Mh;k;`h];l; gpwF -------- vd;gth; ,e;jpahtpd; jiyik MSeuhfg; nghWg;Ngw;whh;. a) tpy;ypak; ngz;bq; b) N`];bq; gpuG c) fh;rd; gpuG d) kpz;Nl gpuG 43. Human sacrifice was practiced by a) Wild tribes of Orissa b) Rajputs c) People of central India d) Bengal people euGyp Kiwia ---------- gpd;gw;wpdhh;fs; a) xbrhtpy; tho;e;j kf;fs; b) ,uh[Gj;jpuh;fs; c) kj;jpa ,e;jpahtpy; tho;e;j kf;fs; d) ngq;fhy; kf;fs; 44. Match the following

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i. First railway line - A. adopted sons of Baji Rao II ii. Woods Despatch - B. Nawab of Oudh iii. Nana Sahib - C. 1853 iv. Wajid Ali Shah - D. 1854 i ii iii iv a) A C D B b) C D A B c) B D C A d) D C A B nghUj;Jf: i. Kjy; ,Ug;Gg;ghij - A. ,uz;lhtJ gh[puhtpd; jj;Jg;gps;is ii. cl;]; fy;tpf; FO - B. mNahj;jp ethg; iii. ehdh rhfpg; - C. 1853 iv. th[pj; myp \h - D. 1854 i ii iii iv a) A C D B b) C D A B c) B D C A d) D C A B 45. The Great Revolt of A.D. 1857 took place during the period of Lord a) Bentick b) Canning c) Dalhousie d) Hastings fp.gp. 1857 - Mz;L Gul;rp – vd;gth; fhyj;jpy; Njhd;wJ. a) ngz;bq; b) fhdpq; c) ly;n`srp d) `h];bq; 46. The Sepoy mutiny first broke out in a) Barrack pore b) Delhi c) Kanpur d) Bengal rpg;gha; Gul;rp Kjypy; Njhd;wpa ,lk; a) guhf;G+h; b) nly;yp c) fhd;G+h; d) ngq;fhy; 47. _____ was the first solidier who refused to use the greatest catridge a) Mangal Pandey b) Nana Sahib c) Bahadur Sha d) Bentinck nfhOg;Gj; jltpa Njhl;lhitj; njhl kWj;j Kjy; tPuh; a) kq;fs; ghz;Nl b) ehdh rhfpg; c) gfJ}h; \h d) ngz;bq; 48. The main political cause for the great Revolt of A.D. 1857 was _____ a) Heavy Taxes b) Dual Govt c) Doctrine of capse d) None of these 1857k; Mz;L rpg;gha; Gul;rpf;F --------- murpay; fhuzk; MFk;. a) kpFjpahd thpfs; b) ,ul;il Ml;rp Kiw c) ehbiof;Fk; nfhs;if d) VJkpy;iy

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49. Choose the correct answer Paligar system was introduced by _______ a) Vishwanathan Nayak b) Rani Mangammal c) Ragunatha d) Vijayaragava ghisaf;fhuh; Kiwia mwpKfg;gLj;jpath; a) tp];tehj ehaf;fh; b) uhzp kq;fk;khs; c) uFehj ehaf;fh; d) tp[auhfth 50. Mismatch A. Thirumalai Nayak 1. Meyngnana Vilakkam B. Paranjothiar 2. Seerapuranam C. Thiruvenkatam 3. Chidambarapuranam D. Umarupulavar 4. Chidambarapattial a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4 nghUe;jhijf; fz;Lgpbf;fTk; A. jpUkiy ehaf;fh; 1. nka;Qhd tpsf;fk; B. guQ;N[hjpahh; 2. rPwhg;Guhzk; C. jpUNtq;flh 3. rpjk;gug;Guhzk; D. ckWg;Gyth; 4. rpjk;gu gl;bay;

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4

51. Match the correct 1. Nayak - A. Leader 2. Ariyanatha - B. Vishwanatha Nayak 3. Palayakkar System - C. Kind of Tax 4. Kaval Pitchai - D. Minister a) A b) C c) D d) B rhpahdijg; nghUj;Jf: 1. ehaf;fH - A. jiyth; 2. mhpahde;j; - B. tp];tehj ehaf;fh; 3. ghisaf;fh; Kiw - C. thp mikg;G 4. fhty; gpr;ir - D. mikr;rH a) A b) C c) D d) B 52. Ekoji was the son of _______ a) Shaji Bhonsle b) Shivaji c) Shambaji d) Serfoji – II vf;Nfh[p --------- vd;gthpd; kfdhthh;. a) \h[p ghd;rpNy b) rpth[p c) \hk;gh[p d) ruNghfp – II 53. Panchalankuruchi was ruled by _______ a) Serfoji – II b) Sethupathy c) Kattabomman d) Shambaji ghQ;rhyq;Fwpr;rpia Mz;l kd;dh; ----------- Mthh;.

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a) ,uz;lhk; ruNgh[p b) NrJgjp c) fl;lnghk;kd; d) \hk;gh[p 54. Saraswathy mahal was established by ____ a) Vishwanatha Nayak b) Thirumalai Nayak c) Serfoji – II d) Shanbaji ru];tjp kfhy; fl;bath; ------------ ahh;? a) tp];tehj ehaf;fh; b) jpUkiy ehaf;fh; c) ,uz;lhk; ruNgh[p d) \hk;gh[p 55. Vira Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at _____ a) Sivaganga b) Kayatharu c) Kalaiyur d) Nill tPughz;ba fl;lnghk;kd; J}f;fpyplg;gl;l ,lk; ----------- MFk;. a) rptfq;if b) faj;jhW c) fhisah; Nfhay; d) VJkpy;iy 56. The English East India company was started in _____ a) 1600 A.D. b) 1644 A.D. c) 1664 A.D. d) 1600 A.D. ,e;jpahtpy; Mq;fpy fpof;fpe;jpa fk;ngdp Njhd;wpaJ a) 1600 A.D. b) 1644 A.D. c) 1664 A.D. d) 1600 A.D. 57. Colbert was the minister of ____ a) Louis X b) Louis XI c) Louis XIV d) Louis – XV fhy;gh;l; vd;gth; ve;j mikr;rh; thpirapy; ,lk; ngWk; ---------- a) Y}ap]; - X b) Y}ap]; XI c) Y}ap]; XIV d) Y}ap]; XV 58. Who were the first to discover a new sea route to India a) The Portuguese b) Francis c) Nayakar d) Varanasi – King Kjy;Kjypy; ,e;jpahtpd; fly;top ghijia fz;Lgpbj;jth;? a) Nghh;j;Jf;fPrpah;fs; b) /gpuhd;rp]; c) ehaf;fh; d) thudhrp kd;dh; 59. The Battle of Plassey war was fought in --- year a) 1764 b) 1757 c) 1756 d) 1774 gpshrpg;Nghh; eilngw;w Mz;L a) 1764 b) 1757 c) 1756 d) 1774 60. The Governor of Bengal in A.D. 1765 was a) Clive b) Hastings c) Canning Lord d) Lord Minto A.D. 1765-y; ngq;fhspd; MSeh; a) fpist; b) `h];bq;]; c) fhdpq; gpuG d) kpz;Nlh gpuG 61. The Carnatic wars were fought in ________

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a) 1736 – 1744 b) 1774 – 1786 c) 1746 – 1763 d) 1750 – 1838 fh;ehlfg; Nghh; eilngw;w Mz;L a) 1736 – 1744 b) 1774 – 1786 c) 1746 – 1763 d) 1750 – 1838 62. The maker of modern India in a) Wellesley b) Clive c) Dalhousie d) British etPd ,e;jpahit cUthf;fpath; a) nty;ny];rp b) fpist; c) ly;n`srp d) gphpl;b\; 63. The last Governor General of British India was a) canning b) warren Hastings c) Clive d) Lord Minto filrp MSeuhf ,e;jpahtpy; ,Ue;j Mq;fpyh; a) fhdpq; b) thud; `h];bq; c) fpist; d) kpz;Nlh gpuG 64. The Battle of Buxar was fought in a) A.D. 1764 b) 1857 c) 1847 d) 1791 gf;rhh; Nghh; eilngw;w Mz;L a) A.D. 1764 b) 1857 c) 1847 d) 1791 65. Who introduced the dual government in Bengal? a) Shah Alan II b) Mir Jafar c) Robert Clive d) Dalhousi ngq;fhspy; ,ul;il Ml;rp Kiwia Vw;gLj;jpath; a) \h myhk; - II b) kph; [hgh; c) ,uhgh;l; fpist; d) ly;n`srp 66. The Dutch people were from ______ a) England b) Holland c) Finland d) None of these lr;R – kf;fs; vq;fpUe;J te;jdh; a) ,q;fpyhe;J b) N`hyhe;J c) /gpd;yhe;J d) VJkpy;iy 67. Hyder Ali was ruler of ______ a) Bengal b) Karnataka c) England d) Mysore Ijh; myp Mz;l gFjp a) ngq;fhy; b) fh;ehlfh c) ,q;fpyhe;J d) ik#h; 68. Umarupulavan wrote ______ a) Kandar Kalivenbah b) Irrusamaya Vizhakam c) Indica d) Seerapuranam ckWg;Gyth; vOjpaJ ---------- a) fe;jh; fypntz;gh b) ,Urka tpsf;fk; c) ,z;bfh d) rPuhg;Guhzk; 69. Raja Desingh’s father was

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a) Swaroop Singh b) Chanda Sahib c) Yuvaraj – Singh d) Yadev Singh Njrpq; uh[htpd; je;ij a) Rthug; rpq; b) re;jh rhfpg; c) Atuh[; rpq; d) ahNjt; rpq; 70. Which is known as Island continent? a) Africa b) Antartica c) North America d) Australia “jPT fz;lk;” vd;W miof;fg;gLtJ vJ? a) Mg;gphpf;fh b) mz;lhh;bfh c) tl mnkhpf;fh d) M];jpNuypah 71. We can find “Asthenosphere” in? a) Upper Mantle b) Lower Mantle c) Crust d) Lower core “M];jpNdh];gpah;” gFjpia ehk; vq;F fhzyhk;? a) Nky; ftrk; b) fPo; ftrk; c) NkNyhL d) fPo; fUtk; 72. Pedestal Rock is also called as ____ a) Insel berg b) Mushroom Rock c) Loess d) Barchans gPlg;ghiwfs; ,g;gbAk; miof;fg;gLfpd;wd. a) ,d;ry; ghh;f;Ffs; b) fhshd; ghiw c) Nyha]; d) gh;fhd;fs; 73. The average air pressure at the sea level is _____ milibar a) 1008 b) 1020 c) 1033 d) 1045 fly; kl;lj;jpy; epyTk; ruhrhp fhw;W mOj;jj;jpd; msT ---------- kpy;yp ghh; a) 1008 b) 1020 c) 1033 d) 1045 74. Deepest feature in the ocean is a) Ridges b) Trenches c) Guyot d) Abyssal plain Nguhopapd; mokhd gFjp a) kiyj; njhlh; b) mfopfs; c) fahl; d) Mo;fly; rkntsp 75. World’s busiest trade route is a) Atlantic Trade Route b) Pacific Trade Route c) Indian Ocean Trade Route d) Antarctic Trade Route vJ Nghf;Ftuj;J epiwe;j th;j;jf top a) ml;yhz;bf; th;j;jf top b) grpgpf; th;j;jf top c) ,e;jpad; Ngohapd; th;j;jf top d) mz;lhh;bfh th;j;jf top 76. A vehicle travels 360 km in 4 hours. Find the distance it covers in 6 hours 30 mins at the same speed.

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a) 585 km b) 575 km c) 625 km d) 685 km xU thfdk; 4 kzp Neuj;jpy; 360 km J}uj;ij flf;fpwJ vdpy; mNj Ntfj;jpy; 6 kzp 30 epkplq;fspy; mJ fle;j njhiyT vd;d? a) 585 km b) 575 km c) 625 km d) 685 km 77. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days A alone finish the work? a) 26 days b) 27 days c) 25 days d) 24 days A, B Ig; Nghy ,uz;L klq;F jpwikahd ey;y Ntiyahs;. mth;fs; ,UtUk; xU Ntiyia> 18 ehl;fspy; Kbf;fpwhh;fs;. A kl;Lk; mt;Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghh;? a) 26 b) 27 c) 25 d) 24

78. The following AP is -1, - 5

6 , -

2

3 , …

10

3 then the total number of term is

a) 25 b) 27 c) 23 d) 21

gpd;tUk; $l;Lj;njhlh; thpir -1, - 5

6 , -

2

3 , …

10

3 vdpy; nkhj;j cWg;Gfsp;d;

vz;zpf;if a) 25 b) 27 c) 23 d) 21

79. An institute organised a fete and 1

5 of the girls and

1

8 of the boys participated in

the same. What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete?

a) 2

13 b)

13

40 c) Data inadequate d) None of these

xU epWtdk; xU tpohit elj;jpaJ. mjpy; 1

5 ghfk; khztpfSk;>

1

8 ghfk;

khzth;fSk; fye;J nfhz;ldh;. nkhj;jj;jpy; khzt khztpah; ve;j gpd;dg;gFjp fye;J nfhz;ldh;?

a) 2

13 b)

13

40

c) tptuk; NghjhJ d) Nkw;fz;litfspy; xd;Wkpy;iy 80. Range of the first ten positive integers is a) 10 b) 9 c) 5 d) 4.5 Kjy; gj;J kpif KOvz;fspd; tPr;R vJ? a) 10 b) 9 c) 5 d) 4.5 81. If Rama pays Rs. 1,000 at the beginning of every month in a post office recurring deposit for 5 years. If the rate of interest is 7%. What is the amount Rama gets at the end of five years? a) Rs. 62,675 b) Rs. 72,675 c) Rs. 10,675 d) Rs. 70,675 uhkd; xt;nthU khj njhlf;fj;jpYk; 5 Mz;L mQ;ryf njhlh; itg;Gj; jpl;lj;jpy; &.1>000 nrYj;jp tUfpwhh;. tl;b tPjk; 7% vdpy; 5 Mz;LfSf;F gpd; uhkd; ngWk; njhif vd;d?

14

a) &.62,675 b) &.72,675 c) &.10,675 d) &.70,675 82. The mean of seven observations is 8. A new observation 16 is added. The mean of eight observations is a) 12 b) 9 c) 8 d) 24 VO kjpg;Gfspd; ruhrhp 8. ,jDld; 16 vd;Dk; xU kjpg;G Nrh;f;fg;gLfpwJ vdpy;> vl;L kjpg;Gfspd; ruhrhp a) 12 b) 9 c) 8 d) 24 83. For the given values, 46, 50, 55, 55, 49, 42, 49, 55 the mode is a) 50 b) 49 c) 47 d) 55 nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s kjpg;Gfspd; KfL fhz;f : 46, 50, 55, 55, 49, 42, 49, 55 a) 50 b) 49 c) 47 d) 55 84. A third of Ravi’s marks in English exceeds one tenth of his marks in Science by 45. If he got 200 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in Science? a) 45 b) 50 c) 100 d) 60 utpapd; Mq;fpy kjpg;ngz;zpd; %d;wpy; xU gq;F mtdpd; mwptpay; kjpg;ngz;zpd; gj;jpy; xU gq;if tpl 45 kjpg;ngz;fs; mjpfkhf cs;sJ. ,uz;L kjpg;ngz;fspd; $Ljy; 200 vdpy;> utpapd; mwptpay; kjpg;ngz; vd;d? a) 45 b) 50 c) 100 d) 60 85. The sum of the first 11 terms of the A.P. 3, 8, 13, ….. is a) 380 b) 318 c) 308 d) 388 3> 8> 13> …. vd;w $l;Lj;njhlhpd; Kjy; 11 cWg;Gfspd; $Ljy; a) 380 b) 318 c) 308 d) 388 86. If n (A) = 5 then n (P(A)) is a) 32 b) 16 c) 8 d) 64 n (A) = 5 vdpy; n (P(A)) d; kjpg;G a) 32 b) 16 c) 8 d) 64

87. The value of 5 2 + 32 is

a) 21 2 b) 5 2 c) 32 2 d) 9 𝟐

5 2 + 32 d; kjpg;G

a) 21 2 b) 5 2 c) 32 2 d) 9 𝟐 88. The area of a triangle with base 9 cm and height 12 cm is

a) 108 cm2 b) 21 cm2 c) 42 cm2 d) 54 𝐜𝐦𝟐

15

xU Kf;Nfhzj;jpd; mbg;gf;fk; 9 nr.kP. kw;Wk; cauk; 12 nr.kP. vdpy; mjd; gug;G a) 108 nr.kP.2 b) 21 nr.kP.2 c) 42 nr.kP.2 d) 54 nr.kP.2 89. A fair die is rolled. The probability of getting an even number on the face of the die is

a) 1

4 b)

3

4 c)

1

3 d)

𝟏

𝟐

rPuhd gfil xd;W cUl;lg;gLfpwJ. ,ul;il vz; gfilapd; Kfj;jpy; Njhd;w epfo;jfT

a) 1

4 b)

3

4 c)

1

3 d)

𝟏

𝟐

90. A Voluntary organization planted a total of 106 tree along the road side. Some of

the trees were fruit bearing trees. If the number of non – fruit bearing trees was two more than thrice the number of fruit bearing trees, what was the number of fruit bearing trees planted?

a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 26 xU jd;dhh;t njhz;L epWtdk; xU Njrpa neLQ;rhiyapd; ,U Gwq;fspYk; kuq;fs; el;ld. mtw;wpy; rpy fdp jUk; kuq;fs;. fdp juhj kuq;fspd; vz;zpf;if fdp jUk; kuq;fspd; vz;zpf;ifapd; %d;W klq;NfhL ,uz;il $l;bdhy; tUk;. nkhj;jk; 106 kuq;fs; elg;gl;L ,Ue;jhy;> fdp jUk; kuq;fspd; vz;zpf;if vt;tsT? a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 26 91. Find the length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 12 m long, 8 m broad a 9 m high. a) 15 m b) 16 m c) 18 m d) 17 m 12 kP ePsk;> 8 kPl;lh; mfyk;> 9 kPl;lh; cauKs;s xU miwapy; itf;fg;glf; $ba kpf ePskhd fk;gj;jpd; ePsk; fhz;f. a) 15 kP b) 16 kP c) 18 kP d) 17 kP 92. If “ORIENT” is written as “532146” and “SOUL” is “7598”, how will you write “LINE”? a) 9241 b) 8341 c) 8241 d) 6241 “ORIENT” vd;w nrhy;iy “532146” vd;Wk; “SOUL” vd;w nrhy;iy “7598” vd;Wk;; vOjpdhy;> “LINE” vd;w nrhy;iy vg;gb vOJtPh;fs;? a) 9241 b) 8341 c) 8241 d) 6241 93. If 7 is related to 56 then 10 is related to a) 74 b) 64 c) 50 d) 90 vz; 7> 56–w;F rk;ge;jg;gl;lJ vd;why;> 10-f;F rk;ge;jg;gl;l vz; a) 74 b) 64 c) 50 d) 90

16

94. If 12 compositors can compose 60 pages of a book in 5 hours, how many compositors will compose 200 pages of the book in 20 hours? a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 11 12 mr;Rf; Nfhg;gth;fs;> 5 kzp Neuj;jpy; xU Gj;jfj;jpd; 60 gf;fq;fis Kbg;gh;. 20 kzp Neuj;jpy;> 200 gf;fq;fis Kbf;f vj;jid mr;Rf; Nfhg;gth;fs; Njit? a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 11 95. If the length of a rectangle is decreased by 50% and the breadth is increased by 80%, then the % change in the area of rectangle is a) decreased by 10% b) increased by 10% c) decreased by 20% d) increased by 20% xU nrt;tfj;jpd; ePsk; 50% mstpw;F Fiwj;Jk;> mfyj;ij 80% mstpw;Fk; mjpfhp;f;Fk; NghJ mjDila gug;gpy; Vw;gLk; khw;wj;jpd; rjtPjk; vd;d? a) 10% Fiwthf b) 10% mjpfkhf c) 20% Fiwthf d) 20% mjpfkhf

96. If x + 1

x = 2, find the value of x3 +

1

x3

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

x + 1

x = 2 vdpy; x3 +

1

x3-d; kjpg;G vd;d?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 97. A hollow cylindrical iron pipe is of length 35 cm. Its outer and inner diameters are 10 cm and 8 cm respectively. Find the weight of the pipe if 1 cu.cm of iron weighs 7 gm. a) 6.93 kg b) 9.90 kg c) 7.53 kg d) 7.93 kg xU cs;sPlw;w ,Uk;G Fohapd; ePsk; 35 nr.kP. mjd; ntsp kw;Wk; cs; tpl;lq;fs; KiwNa 10 nr.kP. kw;Wk; 8 nr.kP vdpy;> ,Uk;Gf; Fohapd; vilia fhz;f. [1 f.nr.kP ,Uk;gpd; vil 7 fpuhk;] a) 6.93 fpfp b) 9.90 fpfp c) 7.53 fpfp d) 7.93 fpfp 98. Find out the missing term in the given alphabet series. AZ, GT, MN, ___, YB a) JH b) SH c) SK d) TS gpd;tUk; nrhy; njhlh; thpirapy; tpLgl;l njhlh; vd;d? AZ, GT, MN, ___, YB a) JH b) SH c) SK d) TS 99. Arrange in descending order :

123

, 204

, 256

, 80, 11212

a) 𝟖𝟎, 𝟏𝟐𝟑

, 𝟐𝟎𝟒

, 𝟐𝟓𝟔

, 𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟏𝟐

17

b) 80, 123

, 204

, 11212

, 256

c) 123

, 80, 204

, 256

, 11212

d) 256

, 11212

, 123

, 80, 204

,wq;F thpirapy; vOJ :

a) 𝟖𝟎, 𝟏𝟐𝟑

, 𝟐𝟎𝟒

, 𝟐𝟓𝟔

, 𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟏𝟐

b) 80, 123

, 204

, 11212

, 256

c) 123

, 80, 204

, 256

, 11212

d) 256

, 11212

, 123

, 80, 204

100. Find the H.C.F of 4

9 ,

2

5,

6

8,

2

5

a) 𝟏

𝟏𝟖𝟎 b)

2

481 c)

2

350 d)

1

142

4

9 ,

2

5,

6

8,

2

5 d; kP.ngh.t vd;d?

a) 𝟏

𝟏𝟖𝟎 b)

2

481 c)

2

350 d)

1

142

Answer Key

1. a 2. d 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. c

11. b 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. c

21. a 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. a 26.b 27.c 28.b 29.d 30.d

31.c 32. a 33.d 34.c 35.c 36.d 37.b 38.b 39.c 40.b

41. a 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. d

51. a 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. b 60. a

61. c 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. d 69. a 70. d

71.a 72.b 73.c 74.b 75.a 76. a 77. b 78. b 79. c 80. b

81. d 82. b 83.d 84.b 85. c 86.a 87.d 88.d 89.d 90. d

91. d 92. c 93. d 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. a