u9 hw #6: practice staar review teks 4b, 6e-6h, 7e, 7f, 9a ... · practice staar review 4b, 6e-6h,...

Practice STAAR Review 4B, 6E-6H, 7E, 7F, 9A

U9 HW #6: Practice STAAR Review – TEKS 4B, 6E-6H, 7E, 7F, 9A 4B: Cell Transport 1. The diagram to the right shows a container divided into two compartments by a membrane permeable to water but not to starch. Two solutions containing different concentrations of dissolved starch were placed on each side of the membrane.

Which of the following describes what will happen to the water level during the process of osmosis?

A. The water level of both sides of the

membrane will decrease

B. The water level on the right side of the membrane will increase

C. The water level on the left side of the membrane will increase

D. The water level on both sides of the membrane will stay the same

Justification-

2. In order to make hydrochloric acid, which is required in human digestion, ATP is used to move hydrogen ions from the blood to the stomach lining. This is an example of ___.

A. Active Transport

B. Passive Transport

C. Osmotic Potential

D. Facilitated Diffusion

Justification- 3. In active transport, carrier proteins ___.

A. Move substances across the cell membrane

without the use of ATP.

B. Move from low concentration to high

concentration by diffusion.

C. Move small molecules through the cell

membrane by osmosis

D. Move substances from a low concentration

to high concentration through the use of

energy.

Justification-


4. The diagram to the right shows the semipermeable membrane of a cell and the concentration of solutions inside and outside the cell. Which of the following statements best describes how the molecules will move?

A. Water molecules will move out of the cell

B. Water molecules will move into the cell

C. Solute molecules and water molecules will move out of the cell

D. Solute molecules and water molecules will move into the cell

Justification-

5. The drawing shows four beakers with 100 mL of different concentrations of sucrose solutions. Identical slices of potato were placed in each beaker. In which beaker will the potato slice most likely lose the most mass after two hours?

A. Beaker 1

B. Beaker 2

C. Beaker 3

D. Beaker 4

Justification-

6E: Mutations 6. When DNA is copied, sometimes a base pair is substituted for a different base pair, as shown in the diagram below.

This substitution will most likely result in ___.

A. Crossing over

B. Loss of the chromosomes

C. A mutation

D. A break in the chromosome

Justification-


7. According to natural selection, for a mutation to be evolutionarily significant it—

A. changes the type of protein being produced

B. has a neutral effect on an organism

C. provide an advantage to the species

D. causes the loss of a gene

Justification-

8. The DNA strand TAG TTG TTT TGC codes for the amino acid sequence isoleucine, aspartic acid, lysine, and threonine. If a point mutation takes place in the DNA, and the first triplet becomes TAT, what effect will this have on the amino acid sequence?

A. The first amino acid in the sequence remains isoleucine.

B. Isoleucine is replaced by methionine in the amino acid sequence.

C. The amino acid sequence now includes lysine.

D. The last amino acid in the sequence will become serine.

Justification-

9. During cell division, if a chromosome breaks, a mutation occurs. Which of the following processes prevent or minimize chromosome breakage during cell division?

A. The chromosomes tightly coil before the nucleus divides.

B. Protein synthesis takes place during the division of the cytoplasm.

C. Hydrogen bonds form between nitrogen bases.

D. An enzyme rearranges the nitrogen bases in a gene.

Justification-

10. A recent study of the genetic code has determined that the mRNA codons UCU, UCC, UCA, and UCG all code for the amino acid serine. What does this research finding suggest?

A. The genetic code is the same for nearly all organisms.

B. The genetic code does not dictate the amino acid sequence of proteins.

C. A mutation in one base will always have a physical effect on the resulting protein.

D. A mutation in one base could have absolutely no physical effect on the resulting protein.

Justification-


6F: Genetics 11. A cross between a red rose and a white rose produced plants with only pink flowers. What is this pattern of inheritance?

A. Incomplete dominance

B. Dominance

C. Sex-linked

D. Polygenic

Justification- 12. Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. Cystic fibrosis occurs when two recessive genes (cc) are present. A person with one allele for cystic fibrosis is called a carrier (Cc) of the disease.

If both parents are unaffected but carriers of the disease, what are the chances that their child will have cystic fibrosis? A. 25% Justification-

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

13. The inheritance of a trait is shown in the pedigree below. Based on the pedigree, what is the genotype of the male in the P1 generation?

A. XCYc

B. XcYc

C. XCY

D. XcY

Justification- 14. A person with blood type AB has both IA and IB genes. The Blood Type AB expresses the characteristics of both A and B blood types. This is an example of which type of inheritance?

A. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Sex-linked

D. Nondisjunction

Justification-

15. A person with blood type AB has both IA and IB genes. The Blood Type AB expresses the characteristics of both A and B blood types. This is an example of which type of inheritance?

E. Codominance

F. Incomplete dominance

G. Sex-linked

H. Nondisjunction

Justification-


6G: Significance of Meiosis 16. The population of elephant seals dropped to fewer than 100 animals in the 1890s due to

overhunting. The seals are now protected, and the population has increased to nearly 10,000 animals. Meiosis can help variability in a population by ___.

A. Forming daughter cells identical to the parent cell B. Introducing new alleles into the population C. Recombining the population’s alleles in different ways D. Preventing mutated traits from being passed on

Justification- 17. Which statement best explains the role of meiosis in the production of sex cells?

A. To produce cells with half the DNA of the original cell B. To produce cells that are genetically identical to each other C. To combine the DNA of two identical cells D. To combine the DNA of two different cells

Justification- 18. Which best explains how meiosis is a contributing factor to genetic variation within the

species?

A. Meiosis reduces the number of mutations within an organism. B. Meiosis produces daughter cells that will contain identical chromosomes. C. Meiosis results in offspring that contain alleles from only one parent gamete D. Meiosis allows for crossing over of chromosomes, resulting in new gene combinations.

Justification- 19. Most cells in the human body undergo the process of mitosis. Some specialized human cells

undergo the process of meiosis. Which of these statements accurately describes a difference between these two process in humans?

A. Mutations do not occur during mitosis but they do occur during meiosis. B. Mitosis results in half as many chromosomes as meiosis produces in each cell. C. Mitosis does not usually produce variation between offspring but meiosis does. D. Meiosis creates new body cells and mitosis results in the formation of sex cells.


Justification-

20. The amount of DNA in a cell can be determined by measuring the fluorescence of a dye that binds in direct proportion to the amount of DNA. The histogram represents the fluorescence of a eukaryotic germ cell during different stages of its cell cycle.

Which bar in the histogram is correctly described?

A. I - Prophase II of meiosis

B. III – G1, S, G2

C. III – Anaphase I of meiosis

D. V – Cytokinesis following Telophase II

Justification-

6H: Biotechnology

21. Scientists have developed a way to analyze and compare DNA sequences between humans. Using this genetic information would be most beneficial for

A. Identifying individuals

B. Dating the age of fossils

C. Creating new gene sequences

D. Determining proteins produced in skin cells

Justification-

7E: Natural Selection, Adaptations and Relationship to Diversity

22. The differences in the species seen in the diagram are most likely a result of ____.

A. Length of mating season

B. Population size

C. Color of feathers

D. Available food sources

Justification- 23. An isolated population of termites lives in a forest surrounded by mountains. These termites feed on dead wood, grasses, and seeds. This food is broken down by species of microorganism that lives inside the intestines of the termites. Without the microorganisms, these termites cannot obtain the nutrients they need to survive. One winter, a virus causes most of these


microorganisms to die. As a result of the microorganism’s absence, these termites will most likely ___.

A. Eat different food

B. Decrease to a level near extinction

C. Evolve immediately into a new species

D. Develop a new species of microorganism

Justification- 24. In the study of immunology, it has been discovered that each person has a unique immune system, even identical twins. This would be considered an adaptive advantage because it —

A. allows for the production of many different types of antibiotics and vaccines

B. encourages the rapid mutations of bacteria and viruses

C. inhibits the creation of vaccinations for viral infections

D. increases the probability that some members of a species will survive a threat

Justification-

25. Most vertebrates have two or more types of cone cells to sense color in abundant light. They have a single type of rod cell to sense black and white in low-level light. Many lizards lack rod cells yet are mostly active at night. The most likely explanation for this adaptation is that lizards —

A. are active only at night

B. prey on light colored insects

C. originally were daytime creatures

D. live in tropical areas

Justification- 26. The North American gray wolf is a placental mammal and the Tasmanian wolf was a marsupial. Despite being on different continents, they look and behave similarly. The most likely reason these two species occupy a similar niche is ___.

A. They experienced the same type of selection pressure

B. They are both carnivores

C. They were exposed to similar diseases and parasites

D. They are genetically identical

Justification- 27. A pictorial chart of five cichlid species of fish is shown. The physical differences among the fish are most likely due to ___.

A. A feeding adaptation due to competition for food.

B. A swimming adaptation due to water temperature.

C. An osmotic adaptation due to salinity levels.

D. A respiration adaptation due to different oxygen levels.

Justification- 28. Why do structural, physiological, and behavioral adaptations of individuals become more common each generation?


A. Individuals with those adaptations do not breed frequently

B. More offspring with those adaptations survive and reproduce

C. Well-adapted individuals rarely survive

D. The alleles responsible for those adaptations increase or decrease randomly Justification- 29. A researcher sprays a new pesticide on thousands of insects of the same species that live in a large field. A few of the insects survive. What can be concluded by the researcher?

A. The pesticide had no effect on the species B. The concentration of the pesticide was too weak C. The species of insects will likely become resistant to the pesticide D. The ideal interval between the first and second applications of the pesticide should be

increase. Justification- 7F: Evolutionary Mechanisms 30. Two species of finches from the

Galapagos Islands are shown on the right. These two finches share a common ancestor from South America. What is the most likely way that one ancestral finch species will develop into two distinct species?

A. The ancestral species mated with other species and the offspring resulted in two new

species. B. The ancestral species was genetically engineered to become two new species. C. Groups of the ancestral species became isolated and adapted to different environments. D. Two individual birds acquired many spontaneous mutations.

Justification- 31. The flying squirrel of North America closely resembles the flying

phalanger of Australia. They are similar in size and have long, bushy tails and skin folds that allow them to glide through the air. The squirrel is a placental mammal, while the phalanger is a marsupial. These close resemblances, even though genetically and geographically isolated by great distances, can be explained by ___.

A. Convergent evolution

B. Divergent evolution

C. Vestigial structures

D. Spontaneous generation

Justification- 32. The average individuals in a population are favored in _____ selection. Human infants weigh

tend to weigh between 5-9 pounds when born is an example of this type of selection

A. Directional


B. Stabilizing

C. Disruptive

D. Natural

Justification-

33. In _____ selection, individuals with both extreme forms of a trait are at a selective advantage.

A. Directional

B. Stabilizing

C. Disruptive

D. Natural

Justification- 34. Which best illustrates gene flow?

A. A flock migrating geese enters into a territory of another flock and begin to interbreed.

B. A flock of geese becomes isolated on an island, and over time, the population begins to exhibit new characteristics.

C. Individuals in a flock of geese have genes that are more advantageous, and over time, the numbers of these geese increase.

D. A flock of migrating geese loses its way to its wintering grounds, leaving other geese without competition for resources and enabling those geese to produce more offspring.

Justification- 35. Genetic drift states that random events can cause differences in the survival and reproduction

of individuals. What is one effect of genetic drift on evolution?

A. It can cause a population’s allele frequencies to become predictable

B. It produces only the traits in a population that are best adapted to the environment.

C. It can cause an unusual amount of genetic variation within a single population of a species.

D. It can cause certain traits in a population to increase even if those traits are not the ones that are best adapted to the environment.

Justification- 36. Which two factors change gene (allele) frequencies in a population?

A. no mutations and large populations

B. no migration and no mutations

C. large populations and random mating

D. mutations and nonrandom mating

Justification-


37. A species of frog has inhabited the tropical rain forests of South America for the past one million years. Which two factors would tend to disrupt the gene pool stability of this frog population?

A. Low mutation rate and random mating B. High mutation rate and numerous migrations C. Low mutation rate and no migrations D. Small population that randomly mates

Justification- 38. A gene mutation has adaptive value if it _____.

A. Enables an organism to survive an environmental change

B. Results in the production of an unhealthy organism

C. Leads to the extinction of a species

D. Produces sterility in male members of a species

Justification- 9A: Biomolecules 39. Which element is present in living cells and in all organic compounds?

A. Potassium B. Sulfur C. Nitrogen D. Carbon

Justification- 40. A chemical analysis of organisms from each kingdom shows that living things are primarily composed of the elements.

A. Carbon, hydrogen, chlorine, and sulfur

B. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

C. Iron, calcium, hydrogen, and oxygen

D. Chlorine, carbon, calcium, and sulfur

Justification- 41. Antibodies are composed primarily of amino acids. In which class of biomolecules would antibodies belong?

A. Nucleic acids

B. Carbohydrates

C. Proteins

D. Lipids


Justification-

42. Proline, methionine, aspartic acid represent three types of

A. Fatty acids

B. Amino acids

C. Ribosomes

D. Mitochondria

Justification-

43. The equation below shows how ATP is produced.

ADP + P + energy ATP

How is ATP used? A. As the building block of lipids

B. As the building block of proteins

C. As an energy source for most of diffusion

D. As an energy source for most cellular processes

Justification-

44.

1. A student tests an unknown colorless solution for the presence of sugars, starches, lipids, and proteins. The results are shown in the table below.

Based on the data collected, which molecules are present in the unknown solution? A. Starches and lipids

B. Proteins and starches

C. Sugars and proteins

D. Lipids and proteins


Justification-

45. Students conducted an investigation using Biuret reagent to determine the presence of proteins in different foods. The results are shown in the table below.

According to the data, which foods tested by the students contained proteins? A. Honey and potato B. Potato and chicken broth C. Cottage cheese and water D. Cottage cheese and yogurt

Justification-

u9 hw #6: practice staar review teks 4b, 6e-6h, 7e, 7f, 9a ... · practice staar review 4b, 6e-6h,...

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