unauthorized distribution...

SHSAT ELA Exam 3 (full-length)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS

Suggested Time - 90 Minutes

57 Questions

IMPORTANT NOTE

The Revising/Editing section (Questions 1-20) is in two parts: Part A and Part B.

REVISING/EDITING Part A

DIRECTIONS: Read and answer each of the following questions. You will be asked to recognize and

correct errors in sentences or short paragraphs. Mark the best answer for each question.

1. Read this sentence.

Scientists have also asked if growing organic food using traditional methods, as opposed to mass production, can

adequately and affordably feed the world?

Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?

A. Replace the question mark with a period.

B. Insert a comma after food.

C. Remove the comma after production.

D. Remove all commas.


Forward-thinking employers understand the need for investing in the staff they have rather than hiring new employees

when the skills of current workers get old and worn out.

What is the most precise revision of the words investing in the staff they have rather than hiring new employees

when the skills of current workers get old and worn out?

A. investing in the staff they have rather than hiring new employees when the skills of current

workers become obsolete.

B. investing in existing staff rather than hiring new employees when the skills of current workers are

no good anymore.

C. investing in future staff rather than hiring new employees when the skills of current workers get

old and worn out.

D. investing in existing staff rather than hiring new employees when the skills of current workers

become obsolete.

TestPrepSHSAT.com

1Unauthorized Distribution Prohibited


(1) If students find themselves falling behind in a specialized high school, these teachers contend.

(2) Then it is the duty of those students to seek extra help.

Which sentence correctly combines sentences 1 and 2?

A. If students find themselves falling behind in a specialized high school, these teachers contend;

then it is the duty of those students to seek extra help.

B. If students find themselves falling behind in a specialized high school, these teachers contend,


C. If students find themselves falling behind in a specialized high school, these teachers contend then it is the duty of

those students to seek extra help.

D. If students find themselves falling behind in a specialized high school, these teachers contend:


4. Read this paragraph.

[1] A 2006 report by the Space Foundation estimated that NASA contributed nearly $200 billion to the economy. [2]

More than half of the contribution coming from commercial goods and services created by companies using space-

related technology. [3] This gain translates into excellent returns from an agency that received approximately 18 billion in

tax dollars the year before. [4] This investment by taxpayers enhances not only the national economy but also the United

States’ competitiveness in the international market.

Which sentence should be revised to correct an inappropriate shift in verb tense?

A. Sentence 1

B. Sentence 2

C. Sentence 3

D. Sentence 4

5. Read this paragraph.

(1) Delivering peaceful benefits to the world, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has greatly

increased international cooperation. (2) A short list of commercially successful innovations developed by NASA includes

communications satellites, invisible braces, and cordless tools. (3) All these inventions spawned by a public enterprise

resulted in new industries teeming with high-quality private sector jobs. (4) NASA, which is specifically designed to

support technological development in the private sector, also sponsors the for-profit Small Business Innovation Research

program.

Which sentence should be revised to correct a misplaced modifier?

A. Sentence 1

B. Sentence 2

C. Sentence 3

D. Sentence 4

TestPrepSHSAT.com



By launching and coordinating projects such as the missions to the moon, the space shuttle program, the Hubble

Telescope, and planetary exploration NASA has consistently challenged its scientists and engineers to do things

previously considered impossible.

Which edit should be made in this sentence?

A. insert a comma after exploration

B. insert a semicolon before NASA

C. delete the comma after program

D. insert a comma after scientists


In sizeable quantities, which often result from the trash collection for an entire community), compost can be converted

into useful fuel for transportation or climate control systems.

How should this sentence be revised? A. In sizeable quantities, (which often result from the trash collection for an entire community) compost can be

converted into a useful fuel that can be used for transportation or climate control systems. B. In sizeable quantities (which often result from the trash collection for an entire community)

compost can be converted into a useful fuel that can be used for transportation or climate control systems.

C. In sizeable quantities, which often result from the trash collection for an entire community, compost can be converted into a useful fuel that can be used for transportation or climate control systems.

D. In sizeable quantities, which often result from the trash collection for an entire community, compost can be converted a useful fuel, that can be used for transportation or climate control systems.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


REVISING/EDITING Part B

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage below and answer the questions following it. You will be asked to

improve the writing quality of the passage and to correct errors so that the passage follows the conventions of

standard written English. You may reread the passage if you need to. Mark the best answer for each question.

ALIEN INVASION?

(1) In 1938, Orson Welles and other actors transmitted frightening “news bulletins” about an alien invasion

occurring in Grover’s Mill, New Jersey. (2) The troupe was performing a radio play based on the science

fiction novel The War of the Worlds by H.G. Wells. (3) The following morning, a front-page headline in the

New York Times declared, “Radio Listeners in Panic, Taking War Drama as Fact.” (4) This widely reported

version of events grew to a legend that Welles’ broadcast caused as many as twelve million people to panic.

(5) People believed Martians had invaded.

(6) Scholars question the accuracy of this legend, suggesting that reports exaggerate the degree of public

hysteria. (7) The authors of one article go so far as to assign blame for the exaggeration to the newspaper

industry. (8) In the article, two professors of communication studies suggest that the newspaper industry

sought to discredit the emerging technology of radio, which was cutting into newspapers’ profits. (9) The

newspaper industry attempted to do this by characterizing the new medium as irresponsible.

(10) Proof of ulterior motives is scarce. (11) For instance, the ratings indicate that a mere 2 percent of households had listened to the broadcast. (12) The professors also debate the validity of a report based on a survey conducted several weeks after the broadcast. (13) Just because the report was somewhat unsettling, it doesn’t mean people reacted with real terror. (14) According to this report, one million people indicated that they had been “frightened” by the broadcast. (15) Ratings, however, reveal that fewer than a million people had been listening to the broadcast. (16) Furthermore, the professors note that this survey equated being “disturbed” or “excited” by the program with being “panicked.”

8. Which sentence inserted immediately before the claim in sentence 4 provides the best supporting detail? A. The Times article claimed that people had fled their homes and that police stations had been overwhelmed

with calls. B. Other newspapers also ran stories claiming that the broadcast had incited mass hysteria.

C. Recently, various newspapers and magazines featured articles about the seventy‑fifth anniversary of the broadcast.

D. The NY Times has always been one of the United States’ most popular news sources.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


9. What is the best way to combine sentences 4 and 5 to clarify the relationship between ideas? A. This widely reported version of events grew to a legend that Welles’ broadcast caused as many as twelve million

people to panic; people believed Martians had invaded. B. Martians had invaded, so this widely reported version of events grew to a legend that Welles’ broadcast caused as

many as twelve million people to panic. C. This widely reported version of events grew to a legend that Welles’ broadcast caused as many as twelve million

people to panic as people believed Martians had invaded. D. This widely reported version of events grew to a legend that Welles’ broadcast caused as many as twelve million

people to panic because they believed Martians had invaded.

10. Which transition word or phrase should be added to the beginning of sentence 6? A. However, B. On one hand, C. Consequently, D. For instance,

11. Which choice most effectively combines sentences 8 and 9? A. In the article, two professors of communication studies suggest that the newspaper industry sought to discredit

the emerging technology of radio, which was cutting into newspapers’ profits, which is what the newspaper industry attempted to do when it portrayed this by characterizing the new medium as irresponsible.

B. In the article, two professors of communication studies suggest that the newspaper industry sought to discredit

the emerging technology of radio, which was cutting into newspapers’ profits, by which the newspaper industry

portrayed this by characterizing the new medium as irresponsible.

C. In the article, two professors of communication studies suggest that the newspaper industry sought to discredit the emerging technology of radio, which was cutting into newspapers’ profits and attempted to do this by characterizing the new medium as irresponsible.

D. In the article, two professors of communication studies suggest that the newspaper industry sought to discredit the emerging technology of radio, which was cutting into newspapers’ profits, by characterizing the new medium as irresponsible.

12. Which revision of sentence 10 best establishes the main idea of the third paragraph? A. Proof of ulterior motives is scarce, thus weakening the claim of the two professors. B. Proof of ulterior motives is scarce, but the evidence does suggest that reports of panic have been overblown. C. Proof of ulterior motives is scarce, yet the two professors maintain that the newspaper industry purposely

misreported the story. D. Proof of ulterior motives is scarce, making it difficult to determine what happened in 1938.

13. Where should sentence 13 be moved to improve the organization of the third paragraph (sentences 10-16)? A. After sentence 11 B. After sentence 12 C. After sentence 14 D. After sentence 16

TestPrepSHSAT.com


RECYCLING

(1} Over the past decade, conscientious citizens have become accustomed to dividing their household waste products into separate categories for recycling. (2) Paper typically gets discarded in one container, glass and aluminum in a separate bin, and general trash in a third. (3) Americans waste nearly 1 million pounds of materials per person every year. (4) Some U.S. cities have added a new category: compost, organic matter such as food waste and yard debris. (5) Like other types of recycling, composting requires effort from the public to be successful. (6) But the inconveniences of composting are far outweighed by its benefits. (7) When utilized as a fertilizer, compost provides nutrients to the soil and improves plant growth while deterring pests and preventing certain plant diseases. (8) It also makes the soil texture better, cheering on healthy roots and minimizing or devastating the need for chemical fertilizers. (9) Compost can absorb more water than soil, so it minimizes storm runoff, reduces watering costs, and prevents erosion on embankments near bodies of water. (10) In volume, compost can be converted to natural gas that can be used as fuel for transportation or electricity production.

(11) Despite compost’s potential uses, most of this material gets squandered. (12) Even worse than the waste of resources, compost in landfills cannot break down due to the lack of necessary air and moisture. (13) According to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) reports, over 33 million tons of food scraps and over 13 million tons of yard debris were discarded in U.S. landfills in 2009. (14) Remarkably, more food waste was discarded in landfills in that year than any other substance, including plastics or paper. (15) As a result, organic material that is sent to landfills contributes to the release of methane, a very potent greenhouse gas. (16) A few major cities on the West Coast have instituted mandatory composting laws mandating individuals and businesses to use separate bins for compostable waste. (17) This strict approach may not work everywhere.

14. Which transition word or phrase should be added to the beginning of sentence 2?

A. Regardless, B. Moreover, C. For Example, D. However,

15. Which sentence is irrelevant to the argument presented in the passage and should be deleted?

A. Sentence 3 B. Sentence 7 C. Sentence 12 D. Sentence 17

16. Which sentence inserted before sentence 7 best introduces the topic of the second paragraph?

A. Most people think of food waste like rotten fruit or meat that has gone bad as “disgusting,” but that

characterization could not be further from the truth. B. Dead leaves and other yard debris should be separated for further recycling.

C. Compost is a category of trash that includes food waste and yard debris.

D. Compost is a valuable resource with many practical uses.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


17. Which sentence should replace sentence 8 to best maintain the style and tone of the passage?

A. It also makes the soil texture better, encouraging healthy roots and minimizing or destroying the need

for chemical fertilizers. B. It also enhances soil texture, encouraging healthy roots and minimizing or ousting the need for

chemical fertilizers. C. It also enhances soil texture, encouraging healthy roots and minimizing or eliminating the need for

chemical fertilizers. D. It also enhances soil texture, fostering healthy roots and minimizing or shutting down the need for

chemical fertilizers.

18. Where should sentence 12 be moved to improve the organization of the third paragraph

(sentences 11–15)? A. After sentence 11 B. After sentence 13 C. After sentence 14 D. After sentence 15

19. Which transition added to the beginning of sentence 16 best preserves the relationship with the previous paragraph?

A. While composting can occasionally result in unintended pollution through the release of methane gas,

B. Though government regulations vary, C. Empowered with these facts, D. Mindful of this setback,

20. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 17 to support the argument presented in the passage?

A. Numerous urban centers do not have the capacity to collect and recycle compost. B. Nonetheless, recycling provides clear benefits to society and the environment, and communities

everywhere should explore ways to recycle more. C. The environmental cost of composting is also significant, and new solutions to minimize the release

of related greenhouse gases must be pursued further. D. However, given the obvious benefits of composting and the potential costs of not composting, all

communities should encourage citizens to separate food waste and yard debris from other trash to create compost piles for collection.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


READING COMPREHENSION

Questions 21-57

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage below and answer the questions following it. Base your answers on

information contained only in the passage. You may reread a passage if you need to. Mark the best

answer for each question.

Passage 1:

The Connecticut Four may sound like a gang of

outlaws from an old Western movie, but in

reality, they were librarians. On the surface,

they were polite, mild-mannered individuals

5. who had never been in trouble and certainly

weren’t looking for any. But trouble found them

one afternoon in 2005. While sitting in his office,

George Christian, the director of the non-profit

27 library cooperative, Library Connection,

10. heard a knock at the door and in walked two

special agents of the FBI with a letter in

hand—no ordinary letter. It was a National

Security Letter (NSL): a document that proliferated

under the Patriot Act which allowed federal agents to

15. acquire telephone, e-mail, travel and financial records

(of library patrons) without a judge's approval.

Moreover, once opened the recipient was bound to

comply and banned from speaking about the

letter to anyone else or face up to five years in

20. jail. George mustered enough courage to say, “I

believe this is unconstitutional,” and he refused

to comply. The Patriot Act was meant to protect

Americans from terrorism, but George claimed,

“Terrorists win when the fear of them induces

25. us to destroy the rights that make us free.” As

George considered his options and shared the

letter with three board members at Library

Connection, each librarian became infected

merely by reading the contents of the NSL. Each

30. would be required to keep the letter secret. The

librarians believed that the NSL not only violated

their civil rights and those of their patrons, but

they expressed grave concern that the FBI

obtained the NSL without a court order—

35. without a neutral third party evaluating the

merits of the request.

The Connecticut Four turned to the American

Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) for defense.

Named only as John and Jane Doe because of

40. the lifetime gag order, the librarians filed a

lawsuit challenging the Patriot Act on First

Amendment grounds. At the first court

hearing, the librarians were banned from the

courthouse because their identity could pose

45. a national security threat. At the same time,

the debate for the 2006 reauthorization of

the Patriot Act began, and the Connecticut

Four sat helplessly as government

spokespeople announced publicly, “There

50. have been no verified civil liberties abuses in

the four years of the (Patriot) act's existence."

The NSL banned the librarians from telling

their story to the public or Congress. "Our

clients were gagged by the government at a

55. time when Congress needed to hear their

voices the most," said Ann Beeson, the

ACLU's lead attorney in the case. In 2006,

Congress reauthorized the Patriot Act, and

several months later a judge lifted the NSL.

60. ban. Authorities dropped their demand for

the library records, indicating they discounted

the potential threat that gave rise to the

initial request in the NSL.

Despite hundreds of thousands of NSLs,

65. there has only been one known conviction of

a terrorist resulting from NSLs. Fortunately,

the provisions that gave rise to the NSLs for

the Connecticut Four (section 215) have

expired, yet much of the Patriot Act remains

70. in place. Libraries remain central figures in

meeting the online needs of many

communities. Today, our libraries have

responded by increasing the privacy

protection of their patrons. Local libraries

75. have improved browser and network

TestPrepSHSAT.com


security, and they typically teach digital

privacy classes. Personal data is arguably

more secure on a library computer today

than ever before. Thanks in large part to four

80. fearless patriots, the civil rights of library

patrons remain intact.

21. Which of the following best tells what this

passage is about?

A. National Security Letters present a danger to individual privacy rights.

B. Brave librarians who fought to defend civil

rights.

C. The consequences of NSA spying on

American citizens after 2001.

D. The Connecticut Four’s victory reversing the

Patriot Act.

22. What is the most likely reason the court case by the Connecticut Four drew to a close?

A. The judge agreed the plaintiffs’ civil rights

had been compromised, and the librarians

should be able to tell their story to Congress.

B. The FBI eliminated the terrorist threat related

to the NSL.

C. The relevant section of the Patriot Act was

repealed and ruled unconstitutional.

D. The story of the Connecticut Four could no

longer affect the renewal of the Patriot Act.

23. Which of the following can be concluded

about National Security Letters?

A. NSLs existed before the anti-terrorism laws

enacted after the World Trade Center

bombing in 2001.

B. They were unconstitutional and violated the

First Amendment rights of citizens.

C. NSLs required librarians to divulge personal

information or face potential jail time.

D. The Patriot Act created NSLs including a

lifetime gag order.

24. Why does the author state the librarians

became “infected” in line 28 while reading the

NSL?

A. To suggest terrorists poisoned the letter

presented by the FBI

B. To explain the extent of the trouble the

librarians faced

C. To describe how the NSL affects the lives of

anyone who knows about its contents

D. To demonstrate the contents of an NSL were

secretive

25. How does the third paragraph contribute to

the passage?

A. It hails an ordinary librarian as a civil rights

hero.

B. It outlines certain general consequences of

the rise in the use of NSLs after 2001.

C. It illustrates the personal difficulties

experienced by individuals subject to NSLs.

D. It reassures library patrons that their online

data is completely secure.

26. The details in the first paragraph suggest that

some members of the Connecticut Four

A. may themselves have been terrorists if they

did not comply with the law.

B. viewed the FBI as trouble that could

potentially change their lives forever.

C. did not believe the Patriot Act thwarted

terrorism.

D. believed civil rights are an important weapon

against terror.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


Passage 2:

On the second Sunday in March many

Americans will lose one hour of their precious

weekend to daylight saving time. Aside from

people who live in and Hawaii and Arizona,

5. changing clocks forward one hour in March

and reversing the change in November is a

time-honored tradition, but why do we bother

to “shift back” and then “jump forward?”

The simple answer is energy conservation;

10. thus, the name Daylight Saving Time. Benjamin

Franklin originally developed the notion of

resetting clocks in the summer to save energy

by reducing the waking hours that coincide with

the dark. The official practice, however, did

15. not begin until more than a century later. In

May 1916, as fighting intensified during World

War I, Germany established daylight saving

time to preserve fuel for the war effort. The

rest of Europe followed suit, and even the

20. United States adopted daylight saving time by

1918. President Woodrow Wilson wanted to

keep daylight saving time after the war ended,

but the nation’s farmers objected. The sudden

time changes created havoc with their farming

25. routines, which were dictated by the natural

cycle of the sun. The farmers won, and

daylight saving time was eliminated after the

war. However, during World War II, the

practice was instituted again to cut back on

30. electricity and save energy for the war effort.

On February 9, 1942, roughly two months

after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor,

President Franklin Roosevelt implemented

year-round daylight saving time, which was

35. nicknamed “War Time.”

Postwar, each U.S. state decided whether to

stick with daylight saving time or not, but this

free-for-all system resulted in more

inefficiencies than savings. Neighboring

40. towns operated in different time zones

resulting in widespread confusion and

bewilderment. Finally, in 1966, Congress

enacted the Uniform Time Act to establish

more order. The federal law enforced a

45. uniform protocol on states that chose to

observe daylight saving time: the practice

must start on the first Sunday of April and

end on the last Sunday of October. The

Energy Policy Act of 2005 extended the ritual

50. of daylight saving time in the United States,

which now begins on the second Sunday in

March and ends on the first Sunday in

November.

While daylight saving time has continued in

55. effect for decades, the main question

remained. Does the practice of changing the

clocks save energy? Many energy experts

disputed the practice until the Department of

Energy finally conducted a study in 2008 and

60. found daylight saving time does save energy,

unfortunately not very much. According to

the study the total energy savings in 2007

amounted to an inconsequential 0.02 percent of

the nation’s consumption. In the meantime, most

65. readers will continue to lose an hour one weekend

every spring but don’t expect to see lower utility

bills as a result.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


27. Which of the following is the best title for this

passage?

A. Daylight Savings from Ben Franklin to Today

B. The History and Benefits of Daylight Saving Time

C. Daylight Saving Time: An Energy Conservation

Study

D. The Story of the First Clock Changes

28. Which of the following best depicts a potential

shortcoming of daylight saving time according to the

passage?

A. A farmer after WWI was forced to arbitrarily tend to

the livestock one hour earlier each spring.

B. A delivery from Kansas City, MO to Kansas City, KA

in the 1950s was delivered one hour late due to the

differences in clock settings.

C. The Japanese conserved fuel in WWII by switching

to a continuous “War Time” clock.

D. A current resident in Phoenix, AZ misses an

important call from New York on the second Sunday

in March due to the time zone change that day.

29. According to the passage, what is the most likely

reason daylight saving time preserves energy?

A. It extends daylight one clock hour reducing the need

for lights in the evening.

B. It reduces energy production by one hour.

C. The one hour "jump forward" reduces the need to

use lights in the morning hours.

D. It coincides with the longer days during the summer

solstice.

30. According to the passage, Ben Franklin did which of

the following?

A. Invented Daylight Saving Time

B. Discovered Electricity

C. First enacted Daylight Saving Time into law

D. Abandoned the practice of resetting clocks because it

did not save energy

31. In line 47 of the third paragraph, the author indicates

daylight saving time begins on the first Sunday of April in

order to

A. emphasize that clocks get adjusted forward by one

hour only once per year.

B. describe the process of daylight saving time by including

additional details about clock adjustments.

C. highlight that the legislated dates for daylight saving time

were different before the new millennium.

D. suggest that a standard adjustment to the nation’s clocks

reduced the chaos related to daylight saving time.

32. The author of the passage would most likely agree with

which of the following statements regarding daylight saving

time?

A. It is a time-honored tradition whose benefits outweigh

the costs.

B. It is a questionable practice implemented for the wrong

reason.

C. It should be discarded because it fails to save energy.

D. It is a helpful ritual that reduces confusion and

provides order.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


Passage 3:

Paleontologists discovered a new bird-like, crested

dinosaur in both North and South Dakota—the

"chicken from hell." Although nicknamed a

"chicken,” it was not one you'd want to stumble

5. across in the barnyard. The new dinosaur,

dubbed Anzu Wyliei, was about 11 feet long and

about 10 feet tall. It boasted a flashy head crest and

probably wore feathers. Anzu Wyliei lived at the

same time as Tyrannosaurus Rex but was more lithe

10. and graceful. "It's a fairly delicate animal compared

to the large predators that were living at the time,"

said one researcher. Anzu Wyliei's tale begins over

one decade ago with Tyler Lyson, a paleontologist

at the Smithsonian's National Museum of Natural

15. History. His team was on a dig in western North

Dakota near Montana when they discovered some

bones from an unknown species. The researchers

analyzed and classified the bones, and the team

presented the findings as a new species at a

20. paleontology conference soon after. It turns out

those bones were not the only example of this new

species discovered in the same area. A private

collector had found two nearly complete skeletons

of the same animal in South Dakota, and the

25. Carnegie Museum had already acquired those fossils.

The two groups worked together over the

next decade to study and classify this new species.

They had the opportunity to name a new dinosaur

in the process. "That's one thing, when you're a

30. little kid, you kind of always dream of doing," said

Tyler. The creature has two namesakes. The

first, Anzu, translates to mean "Mesopotamian

feathered demon." The new fossils were not found

with feathers, of course, but the dinosaur's close

35. relatives had them, and it's highly likely Anzu

Wyliei did, too. The second part of the

name, Wyliei, refers to a boy named Wylie, the

grandson of a major donor to the Carnegie

Museum. The researchers did kick around some

40. joke names before settling on Anzu Wyliei,

however. A favorite was Phobo gallus or, roughly

translated, "chicken fear."

The Anzu bones were discovered in an area that

was once a swampy floodplain. The dinosaur lived

45. during the Late Cretaceous period, over 65 million

years ago. Scientists believe the Anzu Wyliei was

omnivorous, eating both plants and animals. Its diet

likely consisted of plants, eggs, and even small

animals. Researchers discovered one of the

50. specimens with the debris of shells and tiny

vertebrae between the Anzu’s ribs and pelvis, but

the scientists are uncertain whether these fossils

came from within the dinosaur’s stomach or

whether they simply washed up next to the Anzu’s

55. bones. The bones do, however, show evidence of

the dinosaurs' rough and tumble lifestyle. The

North Dakota specimen appears to have a broken

and slightly healed rib. One of the South Dakota

specimens reveals bony healing that would result

60. from an injury to the toe.

The Anzu Wyilei dinosaur is part of a mysterious

oviraptorosaur subgroup called the caenagnathids.

However, like all dinosaurs, the oviraptorosaurs

including the Anzu Wyliei are closely related to

65. birds, the only living relatives of dinosaurs today.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


33. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

A. Anzu Wyliei: A New Dinosaur Discovery

B. Chicken from Hell: Part of a Rare Dinosaur Family

C. Classifying the Dinosaurs of North America

D. The Challenges of Making a New Dinosaur Discovery

34. Which close relative of Anzu Wyliei most likely had

feathers (lines 34-35)?

A. Mesopotamian feathered demon

B. Birds

C. Tyrannosaurus Rex

D. Oviraptors

35. In line 61, oviraptorosaur most likely means

A. a small cousin of the raptor, caenagnathid.

B. chicken from hell.

C. a classification of dinosaur species.

D. a group classification close to birds.

36. The author includes the sentence in lines (3-5) in order

to

A. convey a lesson learned to the reader: appearances

are not always reality.

B. introduce the thesis claim of the passage.

C. captures the readers’ attention by bringing elements of

the story to life.

D. set up the main idea of the following paragraph.

37. The Anzu was originally found in which of the

following locations according to the passage?

A. North Dakota

B. South Dakota

C. Cretaceous Period 100 million to 66 million years ago

D. North Texas

38. How does the third paragraph (lines 43-60) contribute

to the passage?

A. It compares the bone specimens of the Anzu to other

delicate dinosaurs of the period.

B. It identifies the name and classification of a new

species of dinosaur.

C. It constructs a profile of the Anzu dinosaur based on the fossil discoveries.

D. It explains why researchers believe the Anzu was likely an omnivore.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


Passage 4:

Greenland is losing the fight against

rising sea levels and air temperatures, new

research shows. The last rampart to collapse

is the northeast corner of the Greenland Ice

5. Sheet, which began to shrink rapidly in 2003.

"This is a new record," said one climate

scientist at the National Space Institute from

the Technical University of Denmark. “We

don't expect huge ice loss in northeast

10. Greenland.” However, northeast

Greenland’s glaciers lost more than 10

billion tons of ice per year since 2003,

according to the study. Once thought

immune to global warming's effects, melting

15. in northeast Greenland could significantly

boost Greenland's contribution to sea level

rise.

The study found that northeast Greenland's

Zachariae glacier retreated 12.4 miles in the

20. last decade. For comparison, southwest

Greenland's Jakobshavn glacier has retreated

21.7 miles in the past 150 years, the

researchers said. Jakobshavn is the fastest-

flowing glacier on Earth. The disturbing

25. results have already sparked debate among

Greenland experts because the rate of ice

loss for the northeast exceeds the estimates

in other studies. The study’s authors relied on

several data sources such as satellite data,

30. aerial photos, GPS and airborne radar

instruments to track movement in

northeast Greenland's ice. Satellite pictures

show that the northeast's three main glaciers;

Nioghalvfjerdsfjorden glacier, also called 79

35. North, the Zachariae glacier and the

Storstrømmen glacier all lost ice recently.

Earlier studies have also noted the Zachariae

glacier has accelerated, flowing at a speed one

third greater than earlier studies revealed.

40. Zachariae covers an area twice as large as

southwest Greenland's fastest-flowing glacier,

the Jakobshavn, and it serves as a conduit for

much of the Greenland ice sheet.

Upon melting, the newly exposed ground

45. previously beneath the glacier rises because it

is released from the heavy burden. The land

in northeast Greenland started to spring up

in 2003 based on GPS measurements.

Before, the land was relatively stable. Also in

50. the last decade, observers have noted new

icebergs and giant cracks in glaciers.

"Northeast Greenland was the last stable part

of the Greenland ice sheet. This study reveals

that ice loss in the northeast is now

55. accelerating. It seems that all of the margins

of the Greenland ice sheet are unstable."

Scientists agree the rate of loss in

Greenland's ice has doubled during the last

decade, exceeding 375 billion tons annually.

60. More ice is melting than the snow can

replace. However, there is disagreement on

what the ice loss in Greenland means for the

future sea level rise. Some models show that

many of Greenland's glaciers will eventually

65. slow or even halt their retreat as they shrink

back toward choke points in their rocky

valleys. "Greenland is extremely complex,

and it's very, very difficult to predict what

will happen in the future," said researchers.

70. "This also means our future estimates of sea

level rise are also difficult to predict." And

until now, researchers thought northeast

Greenland's glaciers weren't part of the

equation.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


39. Which of the following best states the author's

purpose for writing the passage?

A. To educate readers about global warming and

potential changes in the climate

B. To educate readers about unexpected changes in the

Greenland Ice Sheet

C. To sound the alarm about rising sea levels

D. To highlight the uncertainties of climate science

40. To which "fight" is the author most likely referring in

line 1 of the passage?

A. The battle against global warming

B. The battle to preserve the northeastern corner of the

Greenland Ice Sheet

C. The battle against rising temperatures and sea levels in

the Atlantic

D. The battle against human-kinds' willingness to ignore

obvious changes to earth's environment

41. Which of the following is not identified as a glacier in

northeast Greenland according to the passage?

A. Nioghlavfjerdsfjorden

B. 79 North

C. Zacharie

D. Jakobshavn

42. The study suggests northeast Greenland's Zacharie

glacier is retreating at an annual rate how many times that

of Jakobshavn glacier in the southwest?

A. Just over 2 times

B. Almost twice as fast

C. Almost 10 times

D. Over 20 times

43. What is the importance of the Zacharie glacier

described in the passage?

A. It represents a useful barometer for measuring

changes in Greenland’s sea level.

B. It provides the conduit for several fast-flowing

glaciers like the Jakobshavn.

C. It helps explain recent, unexpected losses of

Greenland’s ice sheet.

D. It dams all of northeast Greenland’s ice from flowing

to the sea.

44. According to the passage, why does the ground rise

when enormous ice sheets melt?

A. Water in liquid form contracts in volume permitting

the ground to expand.

B. The land is no longer weighed down by the mass of

ice on top.

C. The increase in local sea level pushes the land mass

upward.

D. The ground material expands as the air and water

temperatures rise.

45. Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion

based on the passage?

A. Climate science is complicated and inexact.

B. The unexpected glacier melting in Greenland might

not raise sea levels.

C. Global warming is a reality that will challenge the

next generation.

D. Sea levels will increase with time if Greenland’s

northeast glacier continues to melt.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


Passage 5:

Beams of light can make waves in crystals,

and those waves can be “tuned” which gives

rise to new technological possibilities.

Physicists at the University of California

5. targeted a beam of infrared light onto a

boron nitride crystal. Researchers probed

surfaces at the scale of atoms and molecules

with a focused beam at the tip of an atomic

force microscope, which acts as a needle at

10. the end of a vinyl record player. The

microscope transferred the momentum from

the light to the crystal. The light generated

ripples or waves in the boron nitride surface.

The waves, known as phonon polaritons, had

15. wavelengths as small as ultraviolet light,

about 300-400 nanometers, or mere

billionths of a meter. “Waves on the surface

of the water is the best analogy,” one

scientist said in a statement. “The process is

20. like throwing a stone in the water to create

waves in concentric circles that radiate

outward. Atoms are moving. The triggering

action is illumination with a beam of light.”

The material used is a chemical used in

25. cosmetics, boron nitride (BN). It is a Van der

Waals crystal, which means its atoms form

sheets, one on top of another joined by

forces between molecules. Physicists could

adjust the shape and size of the polaritons by

30. changing the frequency or wavelength of the

light as well as the number of layers of boron

nitride. “The key novelty is that the wave

properties can be tuned by altering the

number of atomic layers in a (boron nitride)

35. specimen,” according to one physicist. If it’s

possible to control the waves, then it’s also

possible to use the boron nitride crystal to

transmit information, much the way we use

light in radio communications. “It becomes

40. possible to direct information at the

nanoscale,” according to researchers. The

ability to tune polaritons means also

controlling the movement of heat in the

material because heat results from the

45. movement of atoms and molecules.

Tuning waves could be important

to building nanometer-size circuits. Today,

we transmit data between circuit

components using electrons. Light has

50. various properties that make it superior for

transmitting information; for example, it’s

fast. Transmission of information with light

waves requires a simple antenna, but the

antenna usually has to be a significant

55. fraction of the size of the light waves: one

reason antennas for radios are as big as they

are. It’s possible to make them smaller, but

there are efficiency trade-offs. Radio waves,

in even the fastest networks, have

60. wavelengths measured in tenths of a

millimeter. The infrared waves common in TV

remotes are even smaller, just micrometers

long. Even so, that’s thousands of times the

size of typical computer circuits, which are

65. tens of nanometers across. Computer circuits

are simply too small to use radio frequencies.

In a Wi-Fi network, for example, the radio

signal is converted into electrons so the

computer can “hear” it and that requires a

70. larger antenna. The ability to transmit light-

like waves in solids would obviate some of

the problems of generating ultra-high

frequency signals including a

transmitter/receiver setup. Tinier circuits also

75. encounter more difficulty expelling heat,

which is why computers have fans to keep

the processors cool. The use of light to

control the temperature instead could mean

future machines will not require fans. The

80. work started with experiments in graphene.

Graphene, a carbon-based material, also

forms single-molecule layers and also can

make polaritons in response to light. The

waves, however, don’t last as long as they do

85. with boron nitride but the research is

promising.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


46. What is the most likely reason the author wrote this

passage?

A. To present an exciting new technology with

potential applications in electronics

B. To educate readers about the importance of

phonon polaritons

C. To herald a breakthrough in the development of

nanoscale computers

D. To inform readers about new developments in

the field of electronics and communication

47. Which of the following is the most significant

feature of a Van der Waals crystal introduced in lines (25-

26) of the passage?

A. It is composed of Boron Nitride, a chemical

used in cosmetics.

B. Its atoms form overlaying sheets bound together

by molecular forces.

C. Varying the number of elemental sheets in the

material is possible.

D. It delivers superior data transmission in

computer circuitry via light waves.

48. Why is the ability to "tune" the light waves

important?

A. It could revolutionize radio communications.

B. Nanoscale fans could be developed in the future

to expel heat from computers.

C. It will lead to the development of nanoscale

computer circuits.

D. It makes it possible to deliver information

through light waves rather than electrons.

49. If various properties of light make it superior for

transmitting data, then what is the most likely reason

computer circuits still rely on electrons?

A. The technology behind electronic computer

circuitry has been established for decades.

B. Light waves have one overriding weakness for

data transmission: speed.

C. The size of productive antennas for light waves

represents an obstacle to the development of

nanometer circuitry.

D. The dissipation of heat in nanoscale circuits

represents a problem that has no apparent

solution.

50. According to the passage, which of the following is

the smallest in size?

A. Wavelength of phonon polaritons

B. Electronic computer circuitry

C. Wavelength of infrared light

D. Wavelength of radio signals

51. How would the author most likely characterize the

technology of “tuning” phonon polaritons?

A. A revolutionary breakthrough in computer

design

B. An unproven process with little hope for future

product applications

C. A method showing signs of future success

D. An up-and-coming field that will lead to the next

generation of computers

TestPrepSHSAT.com


Passage 6:

In late 1917 the European Allies in World War

One including France, Great Britain, Belgium,

and Russia desperately needed the help of

American soldiers. Three years of trench

5. warfare had exhausted the Allied armies.

Millions of soldiers died. An entire generation

of young men, nearly 1 in 2 French below the

age of 25, were killed or wounded in the Great

War. As the stalemate wore on, war supplies

10. and food began to run short. Adding fuel to

the fire, a second revolution in Russia by the

Bolsheviks, resulted in Russia’s withdrawal

from the war so the Bolsheviks could focus

their energies on setting up a new Communist

15. state. The withdrawal of Russia changed the

dynamics for Germany from a two-front war

in the east and west to a one-front war in

western Europe. The Germans moved

hundreds of thousands of troops from the

20. Eastern Front to the Western Front in France.

The reinforced German troops launched a

powerful offensive against the Allies in the

spring of 1918. German military leaders

intended to drive a wedge in the Allied lines

25. and capture the city of Amiens before

proceeding to Paris. Between March and June

1918, the Germans ruthlessly attacked Allied

lines, pushing them back to within 40 miles of

Paris. After holding firm through years of

30. stalemate along the Western Front, the area

along the French-German border, it suddenly

looked as if Germany might break through and

win the war.

Fortunately, the American Expeditionary

35. Forces reached full strength in Europe in the

spring of 1918. The French and British

wanted to use the American soldiers to build

up their troop counts, but General Pershing

refused. He decided to keep the AEF a

40. separate fighting force. The American

Expeditionary Force saw its first serious

fighting in early June 1918. AEF soldiers

helped turn back a German offensive at

Château-Thierry on the Marne River east of

45. Paris. The American troops then advanced to

nearby Belleau Wood where they battled their

way through the forest against the constant

barrage of German machine-gun fire all day

every day for the next three weeks. In July the

50. Americans and the French fought back

German attacks on Allied forces along the

Marne and the Somme rivers. Within a few

short weeks, the Allies had halted the German

offensive. General Pershing wrote that the

55. battles had “turned the tide of war.”

The Allies soon began an offensive of their

own. In mid-September about 500,000

“doughboys,” the nickname given to American

soldiers fighting alone, defeated the Germans

60. at Saint Mihiel, east of Verdun. More than one

million additional American troops joined the

Allies in the Battle of the Argonne Forest, west

of Verdun. The Battle of the Argonne Forest

raged for nearly seven weeks, with soldiers

65. struggling over the rugged, heavily forested

ground. Rain, mud, barbed wire, and withering

fire from German machine guns hindered the

Allies’ advance, which resulted in many lives

lost. The Battle of the Argonne Forest ended

70. in early November when the Allies eventually

pushed back the Germans and smashed

through the enemy lines. For the first time, the Germans

faced an invasion of their own

country. In six months the tide of the Great

75. War had changed permanently in favor of the

Allies thanks to American soldiers.

TestPrepSHSAT.com


52. Which of the following best tells what this passage is

about?

A. The history of battles in World War I

B. The reasons why the U.S. entered the Great War

in 1917

C. The extreme difficulties faced by European

Allied nations after years of deadlock and trench

warfare

D. The favorable impact of U.S. forces on the

Allied cause in the latter stages of WWI.

53. According to the passage, which was not a result of

Russia withdrawing from the Allied war effort?

A. Germany moved substantial forces from the east

to the French battlefront.

B. Bolsheviks were able to focus on developing a

communist government.

C. The American Expeditionary Forces built to full

strength to counter the Russian loss.

D. Allied lines were pushed back by reinforced

German lines to within 40 miles of Paris.

54. According to the passage, which of the following is

true about the AEF?

A. They fought as a merged force with the allies

throughout their campaign.

B. The AEF was engaged in serious fighting from

1917 onward.

C. The AEF thwarted German attacks on Paris.

D. They helped fight back German offensives at the

Marne and Somme Rivers.

55. What is meant by "doughboys" in the passage?

A. WWI ace pilots on the allied side

B. 500,000 American soldiers integrated into the

French and British armies

C. The heavy artillery guns used by the German

army

D. U.S. infantry fighting independently from the

other allied forces

56. To which battle(s) did Pershing refer to as "turning

the tide of the war" on line 55?

A. Saint Mihiel

B. Verdun

C. Argonne Forest

D. Marne River

57. What would likely have been the result of World War

I in the absence of U.S. involvement?

A. The Allied powers would have been defeated.

B. Germany would have commanded a hegemony

in Europe.

C. The British would have starved and the French

abandoned resistance.

D. Trench warfare would have continued for years.

END EXAM 3

TestPrepSHSAT.com


unauthorized distribution...

Documents