AP Energetics Practice Test

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?a. catalysisb. metabolismc. anabolismd. dehydratione. catabolism

____ 2. Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?a. They do not depend on enzymes.b. They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions.c. They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.d. They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.

____ 3. Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?a. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.b. The entropy of the universe is decreasing.c. The entropy of the universe is constant.d. Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of

matter.e. Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.

____ 4. For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics?a. The energy content of an organism is constant.b. The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its

environment.c. The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in

complexity.d. Organisms are unable to transform energy.e. Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.

____ 5. Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics?a. Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that

entropy must increase with time.b. Life obeys the second law of thermodynamics because the decrease in entropy as

the organism grows is balanced by an increase in the entropy of the universe.c. Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics.d. As a consequence of growing, organisms create more disorder in their environment

than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth.e. Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy.

____ 6. Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in thea. free energy of the system.b. free energy of the universe.c. entropy of the system.d. entropy of the universe.e. enthalpy of the universe.

____ 7. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?a. If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the

entropy of the universe.b. If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding

decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe.c. Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment.d. Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe.e. Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

____ 8. Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics?a. Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some

gain of free energy.b. Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work.c. Without an input of energy, organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy.d. Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of

organization.e. Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe.

____ 9. Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?a. dehydration reactionsb. hydrolysisc. respirationd. digestione. catabolism

____ 10. The organization of organisms has become increasingly complex with time. This statementa. is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.b. requires that due to evolution, the entropy of the universe increased.c. is based on the fact that organisms function as closed systems.d. A and B onlye. A, B, and C

____ 11. Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?a. a boy mowing grassb. water rushing over Niagara Fallsc. a firefly using light flashes to attract a mated. a food molecule made up of energy-rich macromoleculese. an insect foraging for food

____ 12. Which of the following is considered an open system?a. an organism

b. liquid in a corked bottlec. a sealed terrariumd. food cooking in a pressure cooker

____ 13. Which of the following is true of metabolism in its entirety?a. Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy from foodb. Metabolism depends on an organism's adequate hydrationc. Metabolism utilizes all of an organism's resourcesd. Metabolism is a property of organismal lifee. Metabolism manages the increase of entropy in an organism

____ 14. The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system is Which of the following is (are) correct?a. is the change in enthalpy, a measure of randomness.b. is the change in entropy, the energy available to do work.c. is the change in free energy.d. T is the temperature in degrees Celsius.

____ 15. What is the change in free energy of a system at chemical equilibrium?a. slightly increasingb. greatly increasingc. slightly decreasingd. greatly decreasinge. no net change

____ 16. Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?a. The products have more total energy than the reactants.b. The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.c. Some reactants will be converted to products.d. A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to

proceed.e. The reactions are nonspontaneous.

____ 17. Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell?a. a reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the energy content

at any point away from equilibriumb. a chemical reaction in which the entropy change in the reaction is just balanced by

an opposite entropy change in the cell's surroundingsc. an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway where the energy for that

reaction is supplied only by heat from the environmentd. a chemical reaction in which both the reactants and products are only used in a

metabolic pathway that is completely inactivee. There is no possibility of having chemical equilibrium in any living cell.

____ 18. Which of the following shows the correct changes in thermodynamic properties for a chemical reaction in which amino acids are linked to form a protein?a.

b.c.d.e.

____ 19. When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer, the changes in free energy, total energy, and entropy are as follows:a.b.c.d.e.

____ 20. A chemical reaction that has a positive ?G is correctly described asa. endergonic.b. endothermic.c. enthalpic.d. spontaneous.e. exothermic.

____ 21. Which of the following best describes enthalpy (H)?a. the total kinetic energy of a systemb. the heat content of a chemical systemc. the system's entropyd. the cell's energy equilibriume. the condition of a cell that is not able to react

____ 22. When 10,000 molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi in a test tube, about twice as much heat is liberated as when a cell hydrolyzes the same amount of ATP. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?a. Cells are open systems, but a test tube is a closed system.b. Cells are less efficient at heat production than nonliving systems.c. The hydrolysis of ATP in a cell produces different chemical products than does the

reaction in a test tube.d. The reaction in cells must be catalyzed by enzymes, but the reaction in a test tube

does not need enzymes.e. Reactant and product concentrations are not the same

____ 23. Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP?a. an anabolic steroidb. a DNA helixc. an RNA nucleotided. an amino acid with three phosphate groups attachede. a phospholipid

____ 24. What term is used to describe the transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways?a. feedback regulationb. bioenergetics

c. energy couplingd. entropye. cooperativity

____ 25. Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?a. They combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules.b. They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in

the form of ATP.c. They are endergonic.d. They are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis.e. They build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.

____ 26. When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat generated?a. It is used to power yet more cellular work.b. It is used to store energy as more ATP.c. It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors.d. It is lost to the environment.e. It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.

____ 27. When ATP releases some energy, it also releases inorganic phosphate. What purpose does this serve (if any) in the cell?a. It is released as an excretory waste.b. It can only be used to regenerate more ATP.c. It can be added to water and excreted as a liquid.d. It can be added to other molecules in order to activate them.e. It can enter the nucleus to affect gene expression.

____ 28. What must be the difference (if any) between the structure of ATP and the structure of the precursor of the A nucleotide in RNA?a. The sugar molecule is different.b. The nitrogen-containing base is different.c. The number of phosphates is three instead of one.d. The number of phosphates is three instead of two.e. There is no difference.

____ 29. Which of the following statements is (are) true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions?a. The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme.b. The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction in the absence

of the enzyme.c. The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium.d. A and B onlye. A, B, and C

____ 30. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction?a. Increase the activation energy needed.b. Cool the reactants.c. Decrease the concentration of the reactants.

d. Add a catalyst.e. Increase the entropy of the reactants.

____ 31. Sucrose is a disaccharide, composed of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose. The hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase results ina. bringing glucose and fructose together to form sucrose.b. the release of water from sucrose as the bond between glucose and fructose is

broken.c. breaking the bond between glucose and fructose and forming new bonds from the

atoms of water.d. production of water from the sugar as bonds are broken between the glucose

monomers.e. utilization of water as a covalent bond is formed between glucose and fructose to

form sucrase.

____ 32. Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction'sa. entropy.b. activation energy.c. endothermic level.d. heat content.e. free-energy content.

____ 33. A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars becausea. the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution.b. the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic.c. the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot be surmounted.d. starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water.e. starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous.

____ 34. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?a. Enzymes decrease the free energy change of a reaction.b. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction.c. Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions.d. Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze.e. Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations.

____ 35. The active site of an enzyme is the region thata. binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.b. is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.c. binds the products of the catalytic reaction.d. is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.

____ 36. According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct?a. The binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site.b. Some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme.c. A competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site.

d. The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme's active site.e. The active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction.

Refer to Figure 8.1 to answer the following questions.

Figure 8.1

____ 37. Which curve represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?a. curve 1b. curve 2c. curve 3d. curve 4e. curve 5

____ 38. Which curve was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where conditions are strongly acid?a. curve 1b. curve 2c. curve 3d. curve 4e. curve 5

____ 39. Which of the following is true of enzymes?a. Enzymes may require a nonprotein cofactor or ion for catalysis to take speed up

more appreciably than if the enzymes act alone.

b. Enzyme function is increased if the three-dimensional structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered.

c. Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature.

d. Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering activation energy barriers.

____ 40. Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as a(n)a. competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.b. noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.c. allosteric activator of the enzyme.d. cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.e. coenzyme derived from a vitamin.

Use the following information to answer the following questions.

Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid.

____ 41. Based on this information, which of the following is correct?a. Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate.b. Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate.c. Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product.d. Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor.e. Malonic acid is the product, and fumarate is a competitive inhibitor.

____ 42. What is the purpose of using malonic acid in this experiment?a. It is a competitive inhibitor.b. It blocks the binding of fumarate.c. It is a noncompetitive inhibitor.d. It is able to bind to succinate.e. It replaces the usual enzyme.

The following questions are based on the reaction A + B C + D shown in Figure 8.2.

Figure 8.2

____ 43. Which of the following terms best describes the reaction?a. endergonicb. exergonicc. anabolicd. allosterice. nonspontaneous

____ 44. Which of the following represents the of the reaction?a. ab. bc. cd. de. e

____ 45. Which of the following would be the same in an enzyme-catalyzed or noncatalyzed reaction?a. ab. bc. cd. de. e

____ 46. Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reaction and the free-energy content of the products?a. ab. bc. cd. de. e

____ 47. Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction?a. ab. bc. c

d. de. e

____ 48. Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction?a. ab. bc. cd. de. e

____ 49. Which best describes the reaction?a. The amount of free energy initially present in the reactants is indicated by "a."b. The amount of free energy present in the products is indicated by "e."c. The amount of free energy released as a result of the noncatalyzed reaction is

indicated by "c."d. The amount of free energy released as a result of the catalyzed reaction is indicated

by "d."e. The difference between "b" and "c" is the activation energy added by the presence

of the enzyme.

____ 50. Competitive inhibitors block the entry of substrate into the active site of an enzyme. On which of the following properties of an active site does this primarily depend?a. the ability of an enzyme to form a template for holding and joining moleculesb. the enzyme's ability to stretch reactants and move them toward a transition statec. the enzyme providing an appropriate microenvironment conducive to a reaction's

occurrenced. the enzyme forming covalent bonds with the reactantse. the enzyme becoming too saturated because of the concentration of substrate

____ 51. Which of the following is likely to lead to an increase in the concentration of ATP in a cell?a. an increase in a cell's anabolic activityb. an increase in a cell's catabolic activityc. an increased influx of cofactor moleculesd. an increased amino acid concentratione. the cell's increased transport of materials to the environment

____ 52. When you have a severe fever, what may be a grave consequence if this is not controlled?a. destruction of your enzymes' primary structureb. removal of amine groups from your proteinsc. change in the folding of enzymesd. removal of the amino acids in active sitese. binding of enzymes to inappropriate substrates

____ 53. How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?a. by binding at the active site of the enzymeb. by changing the shape of an enzymec. by changing the free energy change of the reactiond. by acting as a coenzyme for the reaction

e. by decreasing the activation energy of the reaction

The next questions are based on the following information.

A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X Y Z A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme.

____ 54. What is substance X?a. a coenzymeb. an allosteric inhibitorc. a substrated. an intermediatee. the product

____ 55. Substance A functions asa. a coenzyme.b. an allosteric inhibitor.c. the substrate.d. an intermediate.e. a competitive inhibitor.

____ 56. The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is known asa. metabolic inhibition.b. feedback inhibition.c. allosteric inhibition.d. noncooperative inhibition.e. reversible inhibition.

____ 57. Which of the following statements describes enzyme cooperativity?a. A multi-enzyme complex contains all the enzymes of a metabolic pathway.b. A product of a pathway serves as a competitive inhibitor of an early enzyme in the

pathway.c. A substrate molecule bound to an active site affects the active site of several

subunits.d. Several substrate molecules can be catalyzed by the same enzyme.e. A substrate binds to an active site and inhibits cooperation between enzymes in a

pathway.

Use Figure 8.3 to answer the following questions.

Figure 8.3

____ 58. Which of the following is the most correct interpretation of the figure?a. Inorganic phosphate is created from organic phosphate.b. Energy from catabolism can be used directly for performing cellular work.c. ADP + Pi are a set of molecules that store energy for catabolism.d. ATP is a molecule that acts as an intermediary to store energy for cellular work.e. Pi acts as a shuttle molecule to move energy from ATP to ADP.

____ 59. In coupled reactions, in which direction would the endergonic reaction be driven relative to the clockwise direction of the ATP reaction above and shown in the figure?a. from left to right at the top of the figureb. under the symbol for energy doing cellular work in the figurec. from right to left at the bottom of the figured. it would be shown separately after the figuree. it would be shown in a clockwise direction at the top of the figure

____ 60. Some enzymatic regulation is allosteric. In such cases, which of the following would usually be found?a. cooperativityb. feedback inhibitionc. both activating and inhibitory activityd. an enzyme with more than one subunite. the need for cofactors

____ 61. Which of the following is an example of cooperativity?a. the binding of an end product of a metabolic pathway to the first enzyme that acts

in the pathwayb. protein function at one site affected by binding at another of its active sitesc. a molecule binding at one unit of a tetramer allowing faster binding at each of the

other threed. the effect of increasing temperature on the rate of an enzymatic reactione. binding of an ATP molecule along with one of the substrate molecules in an active

site

____ 62. Among enzymes, kinases catalyze phosphorylation, while phosphatases catalyze removal of phosphate(s). A cell's use of these enzymes can therefore function as an on-off switch for various processes. Which of the following is probably involved?a. the change in a protein's charge leading to a conformational changeb. the change in a protein's charge leading to cleavagec. a change in the optimal pH at which a reaction will occur

d. a change in the optimal temperature at which a reaction will occure. the excision of one or more peptides

____ 63. Besides turning enzymes on or off, what other means does a cell use to control enzymatic activity?a. cessation of all enzyme formationb. compartmentalization of enzymes into defined organellesc. exporting enzymes out of the celld. connecting enzymes into large aggregatese. hydrophobic interactions

____ 64. An important group of peripheral membrane proteins are enzymes, such as the phospholipases that attack the head groups of phospholipids leading to the degradation of damaged membranes. What properties must these enzymes exhibit?a. resistance to degradationb. independence from cofactor interactionc. water solubilityd. lipid solubilitye. membrane spanning domains

____ 65. Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as ____ is to ____.a. exergonic; spontaneousb. exergonic; endergonicc. free energy; entropyd. work; energye. entropy; enthalpy

____ 66. Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work becausea. heat is not a form of energy.b. cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool.c. temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.d. heat can never be used to do work.e. heat denatures enzymes.

____ 67. Which of the following metabolic processes can occur without a net influx of energy from some other process?a. ADP + ATP + b. + 6 6 + 6 c. 6 + 6 + 6 d. amino acids proteine. glucose + fructose sucrose

____ 68. If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, what would occur?a. Additional product would be formed.b. Additional substrate would be formed.c. The reaction would change from endergonic to exergonic.

d. The free energy of the system would change.e. Nothing; the reaction would stay at equilibrium.

____ 69. Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs becausea. they are able to maintain a cooler internal temperature.b. high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.c. their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.d. their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.e. they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as their main catalysts.

____ 70. What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?a. anabolic pathwaysb. catabolic pathwaysc. fermentation pathwaysd. thermodynamic pathwayse. bioenergetic pathways

____ 71. The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or oxidation-reduction reactiona. gains electrons and gains energy.b. loses electrons and loses energy.c. gains electrons and loses energy.d. loses electrons and gains energy.e. neither gains nor loses electrons, but gains or loses energy.

____ 72. When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom, what happens?a. Energy is released.b. Energy is consumed.c. The more electronegative atom is reduced.d. The more electronegative atom is oxidized.e. A and C are correct.

____ 73. Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce and water release free energy?a. The covalent bonds in organic molecules are higher energy bonds than those in

water and carbon dioxide.b. Electrons are being moved from atoms that have a lower affinity for electrons

(such as C) to atoms with a higher affinity for electrons (such as O).c. The oxidation of organic compounds can be used to make ATP.d. The electrons have a higher potential energy when associated with water and

than they do in organic compounds.e. The covalent bond in is unstable and easily broken by electrons from organic

molecules.

____ 74. Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?

a. is oxidized and is reduced.b. is oxidized and is reduced.c. is reduced and is oxidized.d. is reduced and is oxidized.e. is reduced and is oxidized.

____ 75. When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomesa. dehydrogenated.b. hydrogenated.c. oxidized.d. reduced.e. an oxidizing agent.

____ 76. When a molecule of NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a hydrogen ion) the molecule becomesa. hydrogenated.b. oxidized.c. reduced.d. redoxed.e. a reducing agent.

____ 77. Which of the following statements describes NAD ?a. NAD is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.b. NAD has more chemical energy than NADH.c. NAD is reduced by the action of hydrogenases.d. NAD can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation.e. In the absence of NAD , glycolysis can still function.

____ 78. Where does glycolysis takes place?a. mitochondrial matrixb. mitochondrial outer membranec. mitochondrial inner membraned. mitochondrial intermembrane spacee. cytosol

____ 79. The ATP made during glycolysis is generated bya. substrate-level phosphorylation.b. electron transport.c. photophosphorylation.d. chemiosmosis.e. oxidation of NADH to NAD .

____ 80. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

a. glycolysisb. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chainc. the citric acid cycled. the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAe. the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

____ 81. Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent?a. electron transportb. glycolysisc. the citric acid cycled. oxidative phosphorylatione. chemiosmosis

____ 82. An electron loses potential energy when ita. shifts to a less electronegative atom.b. shifts to a more electronegative atom.c. increases its kinetic energy.d. increases its activity as an oxidizing agent.e. attaches itself to NAD .

____ 83. Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods?a. They have a lot of oxygen atoms.b. They have no nitrogen in their makeup.c. They can have very long carbon skeletons.d. They have a lot of electrons associated with hydrogen.e. They are easily reduced.

____ 84. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?a. 0%b. 2%c. 10%d. 38%e. 100%

____ 85. During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose isa. transferred to ADP, forming ATP.b. transferred directly to ATP.c. retained in the pyruvate.d. stored in the NADH produced.e. used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose-6-phosphate.

____ 86. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?a. and b. and pyruvatec. NADH and pyruvated. and NADH

e. , , and citrate

____ 87. The free energy for the oxidation of glucose to and water is -686 kcal/mole and the free energy for the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is +53 kcal/mole. Why are only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed?a. Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose is used in the

production of ATP in glycolysis.b. Glycolysis is a very inefficient reaction, with much of the energy of glucose

released as heat.c. Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose remains in

pyruvate, one of the products of glycolysis.d. There is no or water produced as products of glycolysis.e. Glycolysis consists of many enzymatic reactions, each of which extracts some

energy from the glucose molecule.

____ 88. Starting with one molecule of glucose, the "net" products of glycolysis area. 2 NAD , 2 H , 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 .b. 2 NADH, 2 H , 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 .c. 2 , 2 pyruvate, 4 ATP, and 2 .d. 6 , 6 , 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate.e. 6 , 6 , 36 ATP, and 2 citrate.

____ 89. In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvatea. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced.b. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 4 molecules of ATP are produced.c. 4 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced.d. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced.e. 6 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced.

____ 90. A molecule that is phosphorylateda. has been reduced as a result of a redox reaction involving the loss of an inorganic

phosphate.b. has a decreased chemical reactivity; it is less likely to provide energy for cellular

work.c. has been oxidized as a result of a redox reaction involving the gain of an inorganic

phosphate.d. has an increased chemical reactivity; it is primed to do cellular work.e. has less energy than before its phosphorylation and therefore less energy for

cellular work.

____ 91. Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase?a. It both splits molecules and assembles molecules.b. It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.c. It uses glucose and generates pyruvate.d. It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion.

e. It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.

Use the following information to answer the next questions.

In the presence of oxygen, the three-carbon compound pyruvate can be catabolized in the citric acid cycle. First, however, the pyruvate 1) loses a carbon, which is given off as a molecule of , 2) is oxidized to form a two-carbon compound called acetate, and 3) is bonded to coenzyme A.

____ 92. These three steps result in the formation ofa. acetyl CoA, , and ATP.b. acetyl CoA, , and .c. acetyl CoA, FAD, , and .d. acetyl CoA, NADH, H , and .e. acetyl CoA, NAD , ATP, and .

____ 93. Why is coenzyme A, a sulfur containing molecule derived from a B vitamin, added?a. because sulfur is needed for the molecule to enter the mitochondrionb. in order to utilize this portion of a B vitamin which would otherwise be a waste

product from another pathwayc. to provide a relatively unstable molecule whose acetyl portion can readily bind to

oxaloacetated. because it drives the reaction that regenerates NADe. in order to remove one molecule of

____ 94. How does pyruvate enter the mitochondrion?a. active transportb. diffusionc. facilitated diffusiond. through a channele. through a pore

____ 95. Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the citric acid cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of a carbon ( ) from one molecule of pyruvate?a. lactateb. glyceraldehydes-3-phosphatec. oxaloacetated. acetyl CoAe. citrate

____ 96. During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location?a. cytosolb. mitochondrial outer membranec. mitochondrial inner membraned. mitochondrial intermembrane spacee. mitochondrial matrix

____ 97. How many carbon atoms are fed into the citric acid cycle as a result of the oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate?a. 2b. 4c. 6d. 8e. 10

Refer to Figure 9.2, showing the citric acid cycle, as a guide to answer the following questions.

Figure 9.2

____ 98. Starting with one molecule of isocitrate and ending with fumarate, what is the maximum number of ATP molecules that could be made through substrate-level phosphorylation?a. 1b. 2c. 11d. 12e. 24

____ 99. Carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis are supplied by intermediates of the citric acid cycle. Which intermediate would supply the carbon skeleton for synthesis of a five-carbon amino acid?a. succinateb. malatec. citrated. α-ketoglutaratee. isocitrate

____ 100. How many molecules of carbon dioxide ( ) would be produced by five turns of the citric acid cycle?

a. 2b. 5c. 10d. 12e. 60

____ 101. How many reduced dinucleotides would be produced with four turns of the citric acid cycle?a. 1 and 4 NADHb. 2 and 8 NADHc. 4 and 12 NADHd. 1 FAD and 4 NADe. 4 FAD and 12 NAD

____ 102. Starting with citrate, which of the following combinations of products would result from three turns of the citric acid cycle?a. 1 ATP, 2 , 3 NADH, and 1 b. 2 ATP, 2 , 1 NADH, and 3 c. 3 ATP, 3 , 3 NADH, and 3 d. 3 ATP, 6 , 9 NADH, and 3 e. 38 ATP, 6 , 3 NADH, and 12

____ 103. Carbon dioxide ( ) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration?a. glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAb. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cyclec. the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylationd. oxidative phosphorylation and fermentatione. fermentation and glycolysis

____ 104. For each molecule of glucose that is metabolized by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, what is the total number of NADH + molecules produced?a. 4b. 5c. 6d. 10e. 12

____ 105. Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from which of the following?a. substrate-level phosphorylationb. chemiosmotic phosphorylationc. converting oxygen to ATPd. transferring electrons from organic molecules to pyruvatee. generating carbon dioxide and oxygen in the electron transport chain

____ 106. Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

a. cytosolb. mitochondrial outer membranec. mitochondrial inner membraned. mitochondrial intermembrane spacee. mitochondrial matrix

____ 107. Which of the following describes the sequence of electron carriers in the electron transport chain, starting with the least electronegative?a. ubiquinone (Q), cytochromes (Cyt), FMN, Fe•Sb. cytochromes (Cyt), FMN, ubiquinone, Fe•Sc. Fe•S, FMN, cytochromes (Cyt), ubiquinoned. FMN, Fe•S, ubiquinone, cytochromes (Cyt)e. cytochromes (Cyt), Fe•S, ubiquinone, FMN

____ 108. During aerobic respiration, which of the following directly donates electrons to the electron transport chain at the lowest energy level?a. NADb. NADHc. ATPd. ADP + e.

____ 109. The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is toa. yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain.b. act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water.c. combine with carbon, forming .d. combine with lactate, forming pyruvate.e. catalyze the reactions of glycolysis.

____ 110. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway?a. glycolysis NADH oxidative phosphorylation ATP oxygenb. citric acid cycle electron transport chain ATPc. electron transport chain citric acid cycle ATP oxygend. pyruvate citric acid cycle ATP NADH oxygene. citric acid cycle NADH electron transport chain oxygen

____ 111. In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP + to ATP?a. energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport systemb. energy released from substrate-level phosphorylationc. energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions from the

mitochondrial matrixd. energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthasee. No external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic.

____ 112. Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?a. cytosol

b. mitochondrial outer membranec. mitochondrial inner membraned. mitochondrial intermembrane spacee. mitochondrial matrix

____ 113. The direct energy source that drives ATP synthesis during respiratory oxidative phosphorylation isa. oxidation of glucose to and water.b. the thermodynamically favorable flow of electrons from NADH to the

mitochondrial electron transport carriers.c. the final transfer of electrons to oxygen.d. the difference in H concentrations on opposite sides of the inner mitochondrial

membrane.e. the thermodynamically favorable transfer of phosphate from glycolysis and the

citric acid cycle intermediate molecules of ADP.

____ 114. When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space, the result is thea. formation of ATP.b. reduction of NAD .c. restoration of the Na /K balance across the membrane.d. creation of a proton gradient.e. lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix.

____ 115. Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion?a. cytosolb. electron transport chainc. outer membraned. inner membranee. mitochondrial matrix

____ 116. It is possible to prepare vesicles from portions of the inner membrane of the mitochondrial components. Which one of the following processes could still be carried on by this isolated inner membrane?a. the citric acid cycleb. oxidative phosphorylationc. glycolysis and fermentationd. reduction of NADe. both the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

____ 117. Each time a molecule of glucose ( ) is completely oxidized via aerobic respiration, how many oxygen molecules ( ) are required?a. 1b. 2c. 6d. 12e. 38

____ 118. Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose ( ) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide ( ) and water?a. glycolysisb. fermentationc. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAd. citric acid cyclee. oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)

____ 119. Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose ( ) in cellular respiration?a. 2b. 4c. 15d. 38e. 76

____ 120. Assume a mitochondrion contains 58 NADH and 19 . If each of the 77 dinucleotides were used, approximately how many ATP molecules could be generated as a result of oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)?a. 36b. 77c. 173d. 212e. 1102

____ 121. Approximately what percentage of the energy of glucose ( ) is transferred to storage in ATP as a result of the complete oxidation of glucose to and water in cellular respiration?a. 2%b. 4%c. 10%d. 25%e. 40%

____ 122. What is proton-motive force?a. the force required to remove an electron from hydrogenb. the transmembrane proton concentration gradientc. movement of hydrogen into the intermembrane spaced. movement of hydrogen into the mitochondrione. the addition of hydrogen to NAD

____ 123. In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about 5 X the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes, and about 17 X that of the cell's plasma membrane. What purpose must this serve?a. It allows for increased rate of glycolysis.b. It allows for increased rate of the citric acid cycle.c. It increases the surface for oxidative phosphoryation.

d. It increases the surface for substrate-level phosphorylation.e. It allows the liver cell to have fewer mitochondria.

Use the following to answer the following questions.

Exposing inner mitochondrial membranes to ultrasonic vibrations will disrupt the membranes. However, the fragments will reseal "inside out." These little vesicles that result can still transfer electrons from NADH to oxygen and synthesize ATP. If the membranes are agitated still further however, the ability to synthesize ATP is lost.

____ 124. It should be possible to reconstitute the abilities of the vesicles if which of the following is added?a. cytochromesb. extra NADHc. a second membrane surfaced. more electronse. intact ATP synthase

Figure 9.3

____ 125. The accompanying figure shows the electron transport chain. Which of the following is the combination of substances that is initially added to the chain?a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and waterb. NAD , FAD, and electronsc. NADH, , and protonsd. NADH, , and electronse. Oxygen and electrons

____ 126. Which of the following most accurately describes what is happening along this chain?a. Chemiosmosis is coupled with electron transfer.b. Each electron carrier alternates between being reduced and being oxidized.c. ATP is generated at each step.d. Energy of the electrons increases at each step.e. Molecules in the chain give up some of their potential energy.

____ 127. The parts of the figure labeled with Roman numerals symbolize what concept?a. different inner mitochondrial membranesb. different mitochondria functioning togetherc. molecules with different attached metal ionsd. carbohydrate framework holding the molecules in placee. multimeric groups of proteins in 4 complexes

____ 128. What happens at the end of the chain?a. The 2 original electrons combine with NAD .b. The 2 original electrons combine with oxygen.c. 4 electrons combine with oxygen and protons.d. 4 electrons combine with hydrogen and oxygen atoms.e. 1 electron combines with oxygen and hydrogen.

____ 129. Which of the following couples chemiosmosis to energy storage?a. NADHb.c. cytochromesd. electron transporte. ATP synthase

____ 130. Which of the following describes ubiquinone?a. a protein in the electron transport chainb. a small hydrophobic coenzymec. a substrate for synthesis of FADHd. a vitamin needed for efficient glycolysise. an essential amino acid

____ 131. Which of the following normally occurs whether or not oxygen ( ) is present?a. glycolysis

b. fermentationc. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAd. citric acid cyclee. oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)

____ 132. Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?a. glycolysis and fermentationb. fermentation and chemiosmosisc. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAd. citric acid cyclee. oxidative phosphorylation

____ 133. Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?a. the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAb. the citric acid cyclec. oxidative phosphorylationd. glycolysise. chemiosmosis

____ 134. The ATP made during fermentation is generated by which of the following?a. the electron transport chainb. substrate-level phosphorylationc. chemiosmosisd. oxidative phosphorylatione. aerobic respiration

____ 135. In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production ofa. ATP, , and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).b. ATP, , and lactate.c. ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.d. ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen.e. ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA.

____ 136. In alcohol fermentation, NAD is regenerated from NADH during which of the following?a. reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol)b. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAc. reduction of pyruvate to form lactated. oxidation of NAD in the citric acid cyclee. phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

____ 137. One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is toa. reduce NAD to NADH.b. reduce FAD to .c. oxidize NADH to NAD .

d. reduce to FAD .e. none of the above

____ 138. An organism is discovered that consumes a considerable amount of sugar, yet does not gain much weight when denied air. Curiously, the consumption of sugar increases as air is removed from the organism's environment, but the organism seems to thrive even in the absence of air. When returned to normal air, the organism does fine. Which of the following best describes the organism?a. It must use a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the electron

transport chain.b. It is a normal eukaryotic organism.c. The organism obviously lacks the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain.d. It is an anaerobic organism.e. It is a facultative anaerobe.

____ 139. Glycolysis is thought to be one of the most ancient of metabolic processes. Which statement supports this idea?a. Glycolysis is the most widespread metabolic pathway.b. Glycolysis neither uses nor needs O2.c. Glycolysis is found in all eukaryotic cells.d. The enzymes of glycolysis are found in the cytosol rather than in a membrane-

enclosed organelle.e. Ancient prokaryotic cells, the most primitive of cells, made extensive use of

glycolysis long before oxygen was present in Earth's atmosphere.

____ 140. Muscle cells, when an individual is exercising heavily and when the muscle becomes oxygen deprived, convert pyruvate to lactate. What happens to the lactate in skeletal muscle cells?a. It is converted to NAD .b. It produces and water.c. It is taken to the liver and converted back to pyruvate.d. It reduces to FAD .e. It is converted to alcohol.

____ 141. When muscle cells are oxygen deprived, the heart still pumps. What must the heart cells be able to do?a. derive sufficient energy from fermentationb. continue aerobic metabolism when skeletal muscle cannotc. transform lactate to pyruvate againd. remove lactate from the bloode. remove oxygen from lactate

____ 142. When muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused bya. buildup of pyruvate.b. buildup of lactate.c. increase in sodium ions.d. increase in potassium ions.e. increase in ethanol.

____ 143. Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme in the regulation of cellular respiration. Which of the following statements describes a function of phosphofructokinase?a. It is activated by AMP (derived from ADP).b. It is activated by ATP.c. It is inhibited by citrate, an intermediate of the citric acid cycle.d. It catalyzes the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate,

an early step of glycolysis.e. It is an allosteric enzyme.

____ 144. Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis. In the presence of oxygen, an increase in the amount ATP in a cell would be expected toa. inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.b. activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.c. inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid

cycle.d. activate the enzyme and increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.e. inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of

citrate.

____ 145. Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. When and where will this occur?a. in photosynthetic cells in the light, while photosynthesis occurs concurrentlyb. in non-photosynthesizing cells onlyc. in cells that are storing glucose onlyd. in photosynthesizing cells in dark periods and in other tissues all the timee. in photosynthesizing cells in the light and in other tissues in the dark

____ 146. In vertebrate animals, brown fat tissue's color is due to abundant mitochondria. White fat tissue, on the other hand, is specialized for fat storage and contains relatively few mitochondria. Brown fat cells have a specialized protein that dissipates the proton-motive force across the mitochondrial membranes. Which of the following might be the function of the brown fat tissue?a. to increase the rate of oxidative phosphorylation from its few mitochondriab. to allow the animals to regulate their metabolic rate when it is especially hotc. to increase the production of ATP synthased. to allow other membranes of the cell to perform mitochondrial functione. to regulate temperature by converting energy from NADH oxidation to heat

____ 147. What is the purpose of beta oxidation in respiration?a. oxidation of glucoseb. oxidation of pyruvatec. feedback regulationd. control of ATP accumulatione. breakdown of fatty acids

____ 148. Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle?a. pyruvateb. malate or fumarate

c. acetyl CoAd. α-ketoglutaratee. succinyl CoA

____ 149. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?Pyruvate + NADH + H Lactate + NADa. oxygenb. NADHc. NADd. lactatee. pyruvate

____ 150. The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation isa. the oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds.b. the flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.c. the affinity of oxygen for electrons.d. the H concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.e. the transfer of phosphate to ADP.

____ 151. Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of a glucose molecule?a. the citric acid cycleb. the electron transport chainc. glycolysisd. synthesis of acetyl CoA from pyruvatee. reduction of pyruvate to lactate

____ 152. In mitochondria, exergonic redox reactionsa. are the source of energy driving prokaryotic ATP synthesis.b. are directly coupled to substrate-level phosphorylation.c. provide the energy that establishes the proton gradient.d. reduce carbon atoms to carbon dioxide.e. are coupled via phosphorylated intermediates to endergonic processes.

____ 153. The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation isa. oxygen.b. water.c. NAD .d. pyruvate.e. ADP.

____ 154. Cells do not catabolize carbon dioxide becausea. its double bonds are too stable to be broken.b. has fewer bonding electrons than other organic compounds.

c. is already completely reduced.d. is already completely oxidized.e. the molecule has too few atoms.

____ 155. Which of the following is a true distinction between fermentation and cellular respiration?a. Only respiration oxidizes glucose.b. NADH is oxidized by the electron transport chain in respiration only.c. Fermentation, but not respiration, is an example of a catabolic pathway.d. Substrate-level phosphorylation is unique to fermentation.e. NAD functions as an oxidizing agent only in respiration.

____ 156. Most from catabolism is released duringa. glycolysis.b. the citric acid cycle.c. lactate fermentation.d. electron transport.e. oxidative phosphorylation.

____ 157. If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with synthesized with heavy oxygen ( ), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the algae contain the

label. That one isa. PGA.b. PGAL.c. glucose.d. RuBP.e. .

____ 158. Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle?a. and glucoseb. and c. ADP, , and NADPd. electrons and He. ATP and NADPH

____ 159. What are the products of the light reactions that are subsequently used by the Calvin cycle?a. oxygen and carbon dioxideb. carbon dioxide and RuBPc. water and carbond. electrons and photonse. ATP and NADPH

____ 160. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?a. stroma of the chloroplastb. thylakoid membrane

c. cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplastd. chlorophyll moleculee. outer membrane of the chloroplast

____ 161. In any ecosystem, terrestrial or aquatic, what group(s) is (are) always necessary?a. autotrophs and heterotrophsb. producers and primary consumersc. photosynthesizersd. autotrophse. green plants

____ 162. In autotrophic bacteria, where are the enzymes located that can carry on organic synthesis?a. chloroplast membranesb. nuclear membranesc. free in the cytosold. along the outer edge of the nucleoide. along the inner surface of the plasma membrane

____ 163. When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the following?a. reducing NADPb. splitting the water moleculesc. chemiosmosisd. the electron transfer system of photosystem Ie. the electron transfer system of photosystem II

____ 164. A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment?a. red and yellowb. blue and violetc. green and yellowd. blue, green, and rede. green, blue, and yellow

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

Theodor W. Engelmann illuminated a filament of algae with light that passed through a prism, thus exposing different segments of algae to different wavelengths of light. He added aerobic bacteria and then noted in which areas the bacteria congregated. He noted that the largest groups were found in the areas illuminated by the red and blue light.

____ 165. What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas?a. Bacteria released excess carbon dioxide in these areas.b. Bacteria congregated in these areas due to an increase in the temperature of the red

and blue light.c. Bacteria congregated in these areas because these areas had the most oxygen being

released.d. Bacteria are attracted to red and blue light and thus these wavelengths are more

reactive than other wavelengths.e. Bacteria congregated in these areas due to an increase in the temperature caused by

an increase in photosynthesis.

____ 166. An outcome of this experiment was to help determinea. the relationship between heterotrophic and autotrophic organisms.b. the relationship between wavelengths of light and the rate of aerobic respiration.c. the relationship between wavelengths of light and the amount of heat released.d. the relationship between wavelengths of light and the oxygen released during

photosynthesis.e. the relationship between the concentration of carbon dioxide and the rate of

photosynthesis.

____ 167. If you ran the same experiment without passing light through a prism, what would you predict?a. There would be no difference in results.b. The bacteria would be relatively evenly distributed along the algal filaments.c. The number of bacteria present would decrease due to an increase in the carbon

dioxide concentration.d. The number of bacteria present would increase due to an increase in the carbon

dioxide concentration.e. The number of bacteria would decrease due to a decrease in the temperature of the

water.

Figure 10.1

____ 168. Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different?a. Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths.b. Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments.c. Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light.d. Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a.e. Aerobic bacteria take up oxygen which changes the measurement of the rate of

photosynthesis.

____ 169. What wavelength of light in the figure is most effective in driving photosynthesis?a. 420 mmb. 475 mmc. 575 mmd. 625 mme. 730 mm

____ 170. Compared with the lines for chlorophyll a in the figure, where would you expect to find the lines to differ for chlorophyll b?a. The absorption spectrum line would be lowest for chlorophyll b somewhat to the

right of that for chlorophyll a (500—600).b. The rate of photosynthesis line for chlorophyll b would be lowest from 600—700

nm.c. The lines for the two types of chlorophyll would be almost completely opposite.d. The lines for the two types of chlorophyll would be almost completely identical.e. The peaks of the line for absorbance of b would be shifted to the left, and for rate

of photosynthesis would be shifted to the right.

____ 171. In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules?a. split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyllb. harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyllc. synthesize ATP from ADP and Pid. transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPHe. concentrate photons within the stroma

____ 172. The reaction-center chlorophyll of photosystem I is known as P700 becausea. there are 700 chlorophyll molecules in the center.b. this pigment is best at absorbing light with a wavelength of 700 nm.c. there are 700 photosystem I components to each chloroplast.d. it absorbs 700 photons per microsecond.e. the plastoquinone reflects light with a wavelength of 700 nm.

____ 173. Which of the events listed below occur in the light reactions of photosynthesis?a. NADP is produced.b. is reduced to NADP .c. carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA.d. ATP is phosphorylated to yield ADP.e. light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll a.

____ 174. Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II?a. Light energy excites electrons in the electron transport chain in a photosynthetic

unit.b. The excitation is passed along to a molecule of P700 chlorophyll in the

photosynthetic unit.c. The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADPH, which is thus

converted to NADP .d. The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water.

e. The splitting of water yields molecular carbon dioxide as a by-product.

____ 175. Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I?a. harvesting of light energy by ATPb. receiving electrons from plastocyaninc. P680 reaction-center chlorophylld. extraction of hydrogen electrons from the splitting of watere. passing electrons to plastoquinone

____ 176. Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would bea. to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts.b. to test for liberation of in the light.c. to test for fixation in the dark.d. to do experiments to generate an action spectrum.e. to test for production of either sucrose or starch.

____ 177. What are the products of linear photophosphorylation?a. heat and fluorescenceb. ATP and P700c. ATP and NADPHd. ADP and NADPe. P700 and P680

____ 178. What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?a. establishment of a proton gradientb. diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membranec. reduction of water to produce ATP energyd. movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stromae. formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP

____ 179. Suppose the interior of the thylakoids of isolated chloroplasts were made acidic and then transferred in the dark to a pH-8 solution. What would be likely to happen?a. The isolated chloroplasts will make ATP.b. The Calvin cycle will be activated.c. Cyclic photophosphorylation will occur.d. Only A and B will occur.e. A, B, and C will occur.

____ 180. In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?a. thylakoid membraneb. plasma membranec. inner mitochondrial membraned. A and Ce. A, B, and C

____ 181. In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from

a. the stroma to the photosystem II.b. the matrix to the stroma.c. the stroma to the thylakoid space.d. the intermembrane space to the matrix.e. ATP synthase to NADP reductase.

____ 182. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?a. Respiration is the reversal of the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis.b. Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration

releases it.c. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs only in animals.d. ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis and used up in respiration.e. Respiration is anabolic and photosynthesis is catabolic.

____ 183. Where are the molecules of the electron transport chain found in plant cells?a. thylakoid membranes of chloroplastsb. stroma of chloroplastsc. outer membrane of mitochondriad. matrix of mitochondriae. cytoplasm

____ 184. Synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs duringa. photosynthesis.b. respiration.c. both photosynthesis and respiration.d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration.e. photorespiration.

____ 185. Reduction of oxygen which forms water occurs duringa. photosynthesis.b. respiration.c. both photosynthesis and respiration.d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration.e. photorespiration.

____ 186. Reduction of NADP occurs duringa. photosynthesis.b. respiration.c. both photosynthesis and respiration.d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration.e. photorespiration.

____ 187. The splitting of carbon dioxide to form oxygen gas and carbon compounds occurs duringa. photosynthesis.b. respiration.c. both photosynthesis and respiration.d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration.

e. photorespiration.

____ 188. Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs duringa. photosynthesis.b. respiration.c. both photosynthesis and respiration.d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration.e. photorespiration.

____ 189. What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon?a. They have a direct, linear relationship.b. They are inversely related.c. They are logarithmically related.d. They are separate phenomena.e. They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum.

____ 190. In a protein complex for the light reaction (a reaction center), energy is transferred from pigment molecule to pigment molecule, to a special chlorophyll a molecule, and eventually to the primary electron acceptor. Why does this occur?a. The action spectrum of that molecule is such that it is different from other

molecules of chlorophyll.b. The potential energy of the electron has to go back to the ground state.c. The molecular environment lets it boost an electron to a higher energy level and

also to transfer the electron to another molecule.d. Each pigment molecule has to be able to act independently to excite electrons.e. These chlorophyll a molecules are associated with higher concentrations of ATP.

____ 191. P680 is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Why?a. It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either photosystem.b. It is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron

transfer system.c. NADP reductase will then catalyze the shift of the electron from Fd to NADP to

reduce it to NADPH.d. This molecule results from the transfer of an electron to the primary electron

acceptor of photosystem II and strongly attracts another electron.e. This molecule is found far more frequently among bacteria as well as in plants and

plantlike Protists.

____ 192. Some photosynthetic bacteria (e.g., purple sulfur bacteria) have photosystem I but not II, while others (e.g. cyanobacteria) have both PSI and PSII. Which of the following might this observation imply?a. Photosystem II must have been selected against in some species.b. Photosystem I must be more ancestral.c. Photosystem II may have evolved to be more photoprotective.d. Cyclic flow must be more primitive than linear flow of electrons.e. Cyclic flow must be the most necessary of the two processes.

____ 193. Cyclic electron flow may be photoprotective (protective to light-induced damage). Which of the following experiments could provide information on this phenomenon?a. using mutated organisms that can grow but that cannot carry out cyclic flow of

electrons and compare their abilities to photosynthesize in different light intensitiesb. using plants that can carry out both linear and cyclic electron flow, or only one or

another of thee processes, and measuring their light absorbancec. using bacteria that have only cyclic flow and look for their frequency of mutation

damaged. using bacteria with only cyclic flow and measuring the number and types of

photosynthetic pigments they have in their membranese. using plants with only photosystem I operative and measure how much damage

occurs at different wavelengths.

____ 194. Carotenoids are often found in foods that are considered to have antioxidant properties in human nutrition. What related function do they have in plants?a. They serve as accessory pigments.b. They dissipate excessive light energy.c. They cover the sensitive chromosomes of the plant.d. They reflect orange light.e. They take up toxins from the water.

____ 195. In thylakoids, protons travel through ATP synthase from the stroma to the thylakoid space. Therefore the catalytic "knobs" of ATP synthase would be locateda. on the side facing the thylakoid space.b. on the ATP molecules themselves.c. on the pigment molecules of PSI and PSII.d. on the stroma side of the membrane.e. built into the center of the thylkoid stack (granum).

____ 196. Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place?a. stroma of the chloroplastb. thylakoid membranesc. outer membrane of the chloroplastd. electron transport chaine. thylakoid space

____ 197. What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?a. use ATP to release carbon dioxideb. use NADPH to release carbon dioxidec. split water and release oxygend. transport RuBP out of the chloroplaste. synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide

For the following questions, compare the light reactions with the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis in plants.

____ 198. Produces molecular oxygen ( )a. light reactions alone

b. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 199. Requires ATPa. light reactions aloneb. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 200. Produces NADHa. light reactions aloneb. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 201. Produces NADPHa. light reactions aloneb. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 202. Produces three-carbon sugarsa. light reactions aloneb. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 203. Requires a. light reactions aloneb. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 204. Requires glucosea. light reactions aloneb. the Calvin cycle alonec. both the light reactions and the Calvin cycled. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cyclee. occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

____ 205. The sugar that results from three "turns" of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P). Which of the following is a consequence of this?a. Formation of a molecule of glucose would require 9 "turns."b. G3P more readily forms sucrose and other disaccharides than it does

monosaccharides.c. Some plants would not taste sweet to us.d. The formation of starch in plants involves assembling many G3P molecules, with

or without further rearrangements.e. G3P is easier for a plant to store.

Use the following figure and the stages labeled A, B, C, D, and E to answer the following questions.

Figure 10.2

____ 206. If ATP used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, in which molecules will the radioactivity be measurable after one "turn" of the cycle?

a. in B onlyb. in B and C onlyc. in B, C, and D onlyd. in B and E onlye. in B, C, D, and E

____ 207. If the carbon atom of the incoming molecule is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, where will the radioactivity be measurable after one cycle?a. in C onlyb. in B, D, and E onlyc. in C, D, and Ed. in A, B, and Ce. in B and C

____ 208. Which molecule(s) of the Calvin cycle is/are most like molecules found in glycolysis?a. A, B, C, and Eb. B, C, and Ec. A onlyd. C and D onlye. E only

____ 209. In metabolic processes of cell respiration and photosynthesis, prosthetic groups such as heme and iron-sulfur complexes are encountered. What do they do?a. donate electronsb. act as reducing agentsc. act as oxidizing agentsd. transport protons within the mitochondria and chloroplastse. both oxidize and reduce during electron transport

____ 210. The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured, as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosol of a particular plant cell. Which, if any, relationship would you expect to find?a. The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma.b. The pH of the stroma is higher than that of the other two measurements.c. The pH of the stroma is higher than that of the thylakoid space but lower than that

of the cytosol.d. The pH of the thylakoid space is higher than that anywhere else in the cell.e. There is no consistent relationship.

Figure 10.3

____ 211. Which of the following statements is true concerning Figure 10.3?a. It represents cell processes involved in photosynthesis.b. It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants.c. It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration.d. It represents a photosynthetic system.e. It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that

cannot.

____ 212. Referring to Figure 10.3, oxygen would inhibit the fixation reactions ina. cell I only.b. cell II only.c. neither cell I nor cell II.d. both cell I and cell II.e. cell I during the night and cell II during the day.

____ 213. In which cell would you expect photorespiration?a. Cell Ib. Cell IIc. Cell I at nightd. Cell II at nighte. neither Cell I nor Cell II

____ 214. In an experiment studying photosynthesis performed during the day, you provide a plant with radioactive carbon ( ) dioxide as a metabolic tracer. The is incorporated first into oxaloacetate. The plant is best characterized as aa. plant.b. plant.c. CAM plant.d. heterotroph.e. chemoautotroph.

____ 215. Why are plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration?a. They do not participate in the Calvin cycle.b. They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix .c. They are adapted to cold, wet climates.d. They conserve water more efficiently.e. They exclude oxygen from their tissues.

____ 216. CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because theya. fix into organic acids during the night.b. fix into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells.c. fix into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells.d. use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for .e. use photosystems I and II at night.

____ 217. Photorespiration lowers the efficiency of photosynthesis by preventing the formation ofa. carbon dioxide molecules.b. 3-phosphoglycerate moleculesc. ATP molecules.d. ribulose bisphosphate molecules.e. RuBP carboxylase molecules.

____ 218. The alternative pathways of photosynthesis using the or CAM systems are said to be compromises. Why?a. Each one minimizes both water loss and rate of photosynthesis.b. compromises on water loss and CAM compromises on photorespiration.c. Each one both minimizes photorespiration and optimizes the Calvin cycle.d. CAM plants allow more water loss, while plants allow less into the plant.e. plants allow less water loss but Cam plants but allow more water loss.

____ 219. If plant gene alterations cause the plants to be deficient in photorespiration, what would most probably occur?a. Cells would carry on more photosynthesis.b. Cells would carry on the Calvin cycle at a much slower rate.c. Less ATP would be generated.

d. There would be more light-induced damage to the cells.e. More sugars would be produced.

____ 220. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle witha. light energy.b. and ATP.c. and NADPH.d. ATP and NADPH.e. sugar and .

____ 221. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?a. NADPH b. NADPH Calvin cyclec. NADPH chlorophyll Calvin cycled. photosystem I photosystem IIe. NADPH electron transport chain

____ 222. In mechanism, photophosphorylation is most similar toa. substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis.b. oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration.c. the Calvin cycle.d. carbon fixation.e. reduction of NADP .

____ 223. How is photosynthesis similar in and CAM plants?a. In both cases, only photosystem I is used.b. Both types of plants make sugar without the Calvin cycle.c. In both cases, rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially.d. Both types of plants make most of their sugar in the dark.e. In both cases, thylakoids are not involved in photosynthesis.

____ 224. Which process is most directly driven by light energy?a. creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membraneb. carbon fixation in the stromac. reduction of NADP moleculesd. removal of electrons from chlorophyll moleculese. ATP synthesis

____ 225. Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs?a. Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment.b. Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs.c. Only heterotrophs have mitochondria.d. Autotrophs, but not heterotrophs, can nourish themselves beginning with and

other nutrients that are inorganic.e. Only heterotrophs require oxygen.

____ 226. Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle?a. carbon fixationb. oxidation of NADPHc. release of oxygend. regeneration of the acceptore. consumption of ATP

Multiple ResponseIdentify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

____ 227. If an enzyme solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is toa. add more of the enzyme.b. heat the solution to 90°C.c. add more substrate.d. add an allosteric inhibitor.e. add a noncompetitive inhibitor.

____ 228. Using a series of arrows, draw the branched metabolic reaction pathway described by the following statements, then answer the question at the end.•·L can form either M or N.• M can form O.• O can form either P or R.• P can form Q.• R can form S.• O inhibits the reaction of L to form M.• Q inhibits the reaction of O to form P.• S inhibits the reaction of O to form R.Which reaction would prevail if both Q and S were present in the cell in high concentrations?a. L Mb. M Oc. L Nd. O Pe. R S

Short Answer

Refer to Figure 9.1 to answer the following questions.

Figure 9.1 illustrates some of the steps (reactions) of glycolysis in their proper sequence. Each step is lettered. Use these letters to answer the questions.

Figure 9.1

229. Which step shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules?

230. In which step is an inorganic phosphate added to the reactant?

231. In which reaction does an intermediate pathway become oxidized?

232. Which step involves an endergonic reaction?

233. Which step consists of a phosphorylation reaction in which ATP is the phosphate source?

234. The graph here shows the pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane over time in an actively respiring cell. At the time indicated by the vertical arrow, a metabolic poison is added that specifically and completely inhibits all function of mitochondrial ATP synthase. Draw what you would expect to see for the rest of the graphed line.

AP Energetics Practice TestAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension2. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension3. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension4. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation5. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation6. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension7. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation8. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension9. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Application/Analysis

10. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension11. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension12. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension13. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concepts 8.1, 8.5

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation14. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension15. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension16. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension17. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation18. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Application/Analysis19. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Application/Analysis20. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension21. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension22. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Application/Analysis23. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension24. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension25. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension26. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension27. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Application/Analysis28. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension29. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension30. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension31. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis32. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension33. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis34. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension35. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension36. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension37. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis38. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis39. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension40. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis

41. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis42. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis43. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis44. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension45. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension46. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension47. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension48. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension49. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis50. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension51. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis52. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Application/Analysis53. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension54. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Application/Analysis55. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Application/Analysis56. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension57. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension58. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Application/Analysis59. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation60. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension61. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Application/Analysis62. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation63. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension64. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 8.5 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation65. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions66. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions67. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions68. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions69. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions70. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension71. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension72. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension73. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension74. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension75. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension76. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension77. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension78. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension79. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension80. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension81. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension82. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension83. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension84. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Application/Analysis85. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension86. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension87. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation

88. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension89. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension90. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation91. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension92. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Application/Analysis93. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation94. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension95. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension96. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension97. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension98. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Application/Analysis99. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Application/Analysis

100. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Application/Analysis101. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Application/Analysis102. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Application/Analysis103. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension104. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension105. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension106. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension107. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension108. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension109. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension110. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension111. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension112. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension113. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension114. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension115. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension116. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis117. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension118. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension119. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension120. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis121. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension122. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension123. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis124. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis125. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis126. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis127. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis128. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Application/Analysis129. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension130. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension131. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension132. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension133. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

134. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension135. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension136. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension137. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Application/Analysis138. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Application/Analysis139. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation140. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension141. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation142. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.5 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension143. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.6 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension144. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.6 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension145. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.6 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation146. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.6 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation147. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.6 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension148. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.6 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension149. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions150. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions151. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions152. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions153. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions154. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions155. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions156. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions157. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Application/Analysis158. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension159. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension160. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension161. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation162. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension163. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.1

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension164. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Application/Analysis165. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension166. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation167. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Application/Analysis168. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension169. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Application/Analysis170. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation171. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension172. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension173. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension174. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension175. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension176. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Application/Analysis177. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension178. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension179. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension180. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension181. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension182. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension183. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension184. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension185. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension186. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension187. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension188. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension189. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension190. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation191. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation192. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation193. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2

SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation

194. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

195. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

196. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

197. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

198. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

199. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

200. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

201. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.2SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

202. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

203. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

204. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

205. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation

206. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Application/Analysis

207. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Application/Analysis

208. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

209. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation

210. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.3SKL: Application/Analysis

211. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

212. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Application/Analysis

213. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Application/Analysis

214. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Application/Analysis

215. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

216. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

217. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

218. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

219. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 10.4SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

220. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions221. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions222. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions223. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions224. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions225. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions226. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

227. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions228. ANS: C

PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions

SHORT ANSWER

229. ANS:B

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Application/Analysis230. ANS:

C

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Application/Analysis231. ANS:

C

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Application/Analysis232. ANS:

A

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Application/Analysis233. ANS:

A

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 9.2 SKL: Application/Analysis234. ANS:

PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions