Test 3 Semiconductor 1. The name of pure semiconductor material that has an equal number of electrons and holes A. n-type B. pure type C. intrinsic D. p-type ANSWER: C 2. Elements that has four valence electrons are classified as A. conductor B. insulator C. elemental semiconductor D. compound semiconductor ANSWER: C 3. An example of an elemental semiconductor. A. Germanium (Ge) B. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) C. Gallium Phosphide (GaP) D. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs) ANSWER A 4. Which of the following is an example of a compound semiconductor? A. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) B. Gallium Phosphide (GaP) C. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs) D. All of the above ANSWER: D 5. Germanium has an atomic number of 32 and an atomic weight of approximately 72 amu. How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there? A. 32, 32, 40 B. 32, 32, 104 C. 40, 32, 32 D. 40, 32, 104 ANSWER: A 6. The chemical bond that is present in a crystal lattice of silicon atoms. A. covalent bond B. electrovalent bond C. ionic bond D. metallic bond ANSWER: A 7. The atomic weight of a silicon atom is approximately 28 amu. How many electro ns, protons and neutrons does the atom consist? A. 14, 42, 14 B. 14, 14, 42 C. 42, 14, 14 D. 14, 14, 14 ANSWER: D 8. What is the total charge at the nucleus of silicon atom? A. -12e C B. 12e C C. -14e C D. 14e C ANSWER: D

9. In materials, what do you call the area that separates the valence band and t he conduction band? A. energy gap B. forbidden band C. insulation band D. A and B are correct ANSWER: B 10. At absolute zero temperature, semiconductor acts as A. an insulator B. a conductor C. a semi-insulator D. usual ANSWER: A 11. The electron flow in a semiconductor material is A. opposite in direction of hole flow B. the same direction with hole flow C. the drift current D. known as the conventional current ANSWER: A 12. Typical range of the resistivity of a semiconductor A. 10-15 10-18 -cm B. 10-5 10-8 -cm C. 10 104 -cm D. 108 1015 -cm ANSWER: C 13. Chemical bond that is significant in metals A. ionic bonding B. electrovalent bonding C. covalent bonding D. metallic bonding ANSWER: D 14. A semiconductor that is free from impurities A. intrinsic semiconductor B. extrinsic semiconductor C. compensated semiconductor D. elemental semiconductor ANSWER: A 15. The process of adding impurities in a semiconductor material. A. growing B. diffusion C. doping D. depleting ANSWER: C 16. Impurities with five valence electrons. A. acceptor B. donor C. trivalent D. pentavalent ANSWER: D 17. Example of acceptor impurities. A. pentavalent impurities B. trivalent impurities

C. tetravalent impurities D. hexavalent impurities ANSWER: B 18. If the substance used in doping has less than four valence electrons, it is known as A. acceptor B. donor C. trivalent D. pentavalent ANSWER: A 19. Commonly used as donor impurities. A. Antimony (Sb) B. Arsenic (As) C. Phosphorus (P) D. all of the above ANSWER: D 20. Example of trivalent impurities. A. Boron (B) B. Gallium (Ga) C. Indium (In) D. all of the above ANSWER: D 21. Donor-doped semiconductor becomes a A. N-type semiconductor B. good conductor C. p-n semiconductor D. P-type semiconductor ANSWER: A 22. What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and acceptor impurities? A. double doped semiconductor B. compensated semiconductor C. compound semiconductor D. diffused semiconductor ANSWER: B 23. The resistance of a semiconductor is known as A. bulk resistance B. intrinsic resistance C. extrinsic resistance D. dynamic resistance ANSWER: A 24. The most extensively used semiconductor. A. silicon B. germanium C. gallium phosphide D. gallium arsenide ANSWER: A 25. Semiconductor whose electron and hole concentrations are equal. A. extrinsic semiconductor B. intrinsic semiconductor C. compensated semiconductor D. doped semiconductor ANSWER: B

26. Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its several advantages, what do you think is its most significant advantage? A. abundant B. cheap C. temperature stable D. low leakage current ANSWER: D 27. Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to the applied electric field. A. diffusion current B. conventional current C. drift velocity D. drift current ANSWER: D 28. The movement of charge carriers in a semiconductor even without the applicat ion of electric potential. A. diffusion current B. conventional current C. drift current D. saturation current ANSWER: A 29. Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to the conduction band for a doped semiconductor? A. 0 eV B. 0.05 eV C. 1.0 eV D. 5.0 eV ANSWER: B 30. Conduction of electrons in a doped semiconductor happens at A. conduction band B. forbidden band C. valence band D. nuclei band ANSWER: A 31. Theoretically, where does the conduction of holes occur in a doped semicondu ctor? A. conduction band B. forbidden band C. valence band D. empty band ANSWER: C 32. In energy band diagram of a doped semiconductor, the donor level A. is near the valence band B. is near the conduction band C. is exactly in between the valence and conduction band D. depends on the amount of doping ANSWER: B 33. The acceptor level in a doped semiconductor A. is near the valence band level B. is near the conduction level C. is exactly in between the conduction and valence band D. will depend on the concentration of doping ANSWER: A

34. In a semiconductor material, what will happen to the number of free electron s when the temperature rises? A. increases B. decreases exponentially C. decreases D. remains the same ANSWER: A 35. The electrical resistance of a semiconductor material will ________ as the t emperature increases. A. increase B. increase exponentially C. decrease D. not change ANSWER: C 36. The potential required to removed a valence electron A. valence potential B. threshold potential C. critical potential D. ionization potential ANSWER: D 37. Among the given elements, which is considered as nonmetal? A. silicon (Si) B. germanium (Ge) C. tin (Sn) D. lead (Pb) ANSWER: A 38. A semiconductor that is classified as a metalloid or semimetal A. silicon (Si) B. germanium (Ge) C. tin (Sn) D. carbon (C) ANSWER: B 39. Semiconductor that is very rare, it only occurs in minute quantities in many metal sulfides A. silicon (Si) B. germanium (Ge) C. tin (Sn) D. lead (Pb) ANSWER: B 40. Compound semiconductors are also known as A. compensated semiconductors B. amorphous semiconductors C. organic semiconductors D. inner-mettalic semiconductors ANSWER: D 41. What semiconductor that is mostly used in devices requiring the emission or absorption of lights? A. amorphous semiconductor B. organic semiconductor C. compound semiconductor D. elemental semiconductor ANSWER: C

42. For high-speed integrated circuit, which semiconductor material given below is best to be used? A. silicon B. germanium C. carbon D. gallium arsenide ANSWER: D 43. How much impurity concentration is needed for a sample of silicon to change its electrical property from a poor conductor to a good conductor? A. one part per hundred B. one part per thousand C. one part per million D. one part per billion ANSWER: C 44. The restriction of certain discrete energy levels in a semiconductor materia l can be predicted generally by using what model? A. Bohr model B. string model C. wave model D. particle model ANSWER: A 45. Is defined as the energy acquired by an electron moving through a potential of one volt. A. electron Joules (eJ) B. electron-potential C. oxidation potential D. electron Volt (eV) ANSWER: D 46. At room temperature, in a perfect silicon crystal, the equilibrium concentra tion of thermally generated electrons in the conduction band is about A. 1.5 x 105 per cubic cm. B. 1.5 x 1010 per cubic cm. C. 1.5 x 1015 per cubic cm. D. 1.5 x 1020 per cubic cm. ANSWER: B 47. What is the basis in operation of semiconductor photoconductors? A. EHP generation B. EHP degeneration C. EHP optical degeneration D. EHP optical generation ANSWER: D 48. The semiconductor that is used in xerography A. selenium (Se) B. gallium phosphide (GaP) C. cadmium compound D. organic semiconductor ANSWER: A 49. A silicon material has an intrinsic concentration ni=1010 per cubic centimet er at room temperature. If it is doped with 1015 antimony atoms per cubic centim eter, what is now the approximate electron concentration at the conduction band? A. 105 electrons B. 1010 electrons

C. 1015 electrons D. 1020 electrons ANSWER: C 50. When an electron at the conduction band falls back to the valence band it wi ll recombine with the hole. This is known as A. regeneration B. reunion C. combination D. recombination ANSWER: D 51. Which semiconductor is mostly used to detect near infrared? A. silicon B. germanium C. carbon D. silicon carbide ANSWER: D 52. What semiconductor that is good for high-temperature applications? A. indium antimonide (InSb) B. gallium anitmonide(GaSb) C. silicon carbide (SiC) D. diamond (C) ANSWER: A 53. Among the given semiconductors below, which has the highest mobility? A. silicon B. germanium C. gallium arsenide D. indium antimonide ANSWER: D 54. A semiconducting glass is known as A. isomorphous semiconductor B. amorphous semiconductor C. organic semiconductor D. compound semiconductor ANSWER: B 55. For an electroluminescent of green and red lights, which semiconductor is be st? A. silicon carbide B. gallium arsenide C. indium antimonide D. gallium phosphide ANSWER: D 56. Typical range of power dissipation for a semiconductor to be considered as lo w power or small signal A. less than 1 watt B. 5 < P < 10 watts C. 10 < P < 20 watts D. 20 watts above ANSWER: A 57. In the design of high power semiconductor devices, it involves what factors? A. making the size of the semiconductor bigger B. packing the device into a bigger case C. excellent contact between the semiconductor and the case D. all of the above

ANSWER: D 58. How to have a better high-frequency response in designing semiconductor devi ces? A. make the chip as small as possible B. the leads should be made shorter and smaller C. smaller packaging D. all of the above ANSWER: D 59. Before an electron can participate in the conduction of electricity, it must leave from the valence band and transfer to the conduction band. Transferring t o the conduction band involves energy acquisition by an electron from external s ources and this energy must be greater than the energy gap of the material. Whic h semiconductor material has the highest energy gap? A. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS) B. silicon (Si) C. germanium (Ge) D. Indium Antimonide (InSb) ANSWER: A 60. Which of the following semiconductors has the smallest energy gap? A. ZnS B. Si C. Ge D. InSb ANSWER: D 61. The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or hole) moves in a semicondu ctor material is known as mobility. It is also defined as the average drift velo city of electrons and holes per unit electrostatic field. Which of the semicondu ctor materials has the highest value of electron-mobility? A. InSb B. Ge C. Si D. AlP ANSWER: A 62. In semiconductor materials, electrons have a higher value of mobility than h oles, but which semiconductor material has the slowest electron-mobility? A. InSb B. GaP C. GaAs D. AlP ANSWER: D 63. Solar cell is a semiconductor electric-junction device, which absorbs the ra diant energy of sunlight and converts it directly and efficiently into electrica l energy. This device, uses what type of semiconductor materials? A. single-crystal silicon B. amorphous or polycrystalline silicon C. GaAs, CdS, CdTe, CuS D. all of the above ANSWER: D 64. What is formed when n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together? A. pn junction B. semiconductor junction C. energy band gap D. semiconductor diode

ANSWER: A 65. PN junction acts as a one way valve for electrons because _________. A. the circuit in which the diode is used, only attempts to pump electrons in on e diode B. electrons tend to follow the direction of the hole C. there is a little mechanical switch inside a diode D. when electrons are pump from P to N, free electrons and holes are force apart leaving no way for electrons to cross the junction ANSWER: D 66. The device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are broug ht together A. pn junction B. semiconductor junction C. depletion region D. junction diode ANSWER: D 67. An external voltage applied to a junction reduces its barrier and aid curren t to flow through the junction A. reverse bias B. external bias C. junction bias D. forward bias ANSWER: D 68. A device containing an anode and a cathode or a pn junction of a semiconduct or as the principal elements and provides unidirectional conduction. A. diode B. diac C. triode D. triac ANSWER: A 69. Unidirectional conduction in two-electrodes in any device other than a diode , such that rectification between the grid and cathode of a triode, or asymmetri cal conduction between the collector and base of a transistor is called A. rectification B. diode action C. clipping D. clamping ANSWER: B 70. The p-type material in a semiconductor junction diode is technically termed as A. positive terminal B. negative terminal C. cathode D. anode ANSWER: D 71. Cathode in a semiconductor junction diode is referred to the A. positive terminal B. junction C. p-type terminal D. n-type terminal ANSWER: D 72. The area in the semiconductor diode where there are no charge carriers

A. depletion B. depletion C. depletion D. depletion ANSWER: B

layer region mode area

73. Depletion region is an area in a semiconductor device where there are no cha rge carriers exist. This will be always near the junction of n-type and p-type m aterials. What causes this junction to be depleted by charge carriers? A. Due to the recombination of holes and electrons at the junction B. Due to the cancellation of positively charge protons and negatively charge el ectrons C. Due to the annihilation of charge carriers D. Due to the combination of positively charge holes and negatively charge elect rons ANSWER: D 74. A junction diode A. Anode is supplied B. Anode is supplied C. A voltage greater anode. D. A voltage greater anode. ANSWER: C is said to be forward-biased if more positive than the cathode. more negative than the cathode. than threshold is applied, with cathode less positive than than threshold is applied, with cathode less negative than

75. What do you call the very small amount of current that will flow in the diod e when it is reverse biased? A. saturation current B. reverse saturation current C. cut-off current D. holding current ANSWER: B 76. When the diode is supplied with forward direction potentials but with a magn itude less than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not turn-on and will only allow a very small amount of current to pass. This very small current is known A. as leakage current B. as forward saturation current C. as holding current D. as cut-off current ANSWER: D 77. The minimum voltage required before a diode can totally conduct in a forward direction. A. triggering voltage B. breakdown voltage C. saturation voltage D. threshold voltage ANSWER: D 78. What will happen to the threshold voltage of the diode when it operates at h igher temperatures. A. increases B. increases exponentially C. decreases D. decreases exponentially ANSWER: C

79. The forward current in a conducting diode will ______________ as the operati ng temperature increases. A. not be affected B. decrease C. decrease exponentially D. increase ANSWER: D 80. As the operating temperature of a reverse-biased diode is increased, its lea kage or reverse saturation current will A. Increase B. increase exponentially C. decrease D. decrease exponentially ANSWER: B 81. The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor device has reverse bias A. surge current B. bias current C. reverse current D. current limit ANSWER: C 82. Normally, diodes will not conduct when reverse-biased, but if the reverse vo ltage is increased further, a point will be reached where the diode gives up and allowing the current to surge. This voltage is one of the limiting parameter of diodes and is known as A. breakdown voltage (VBR) B. peak inverse voltage (PIV) C. peak reverse voltage (PRV) D. all are correct ANSWER: D 83. For a silicon diode, calculate the current at room temperature if the forwar d voltage VF = 0.3 V and the reverse saturation current IS = 100 nA. A. 32.8 A B. 10.8 A C. 32.8 mA D. 10.8 mA ANSWER: A 84. The breakdown voltage of a junction diode will ___________ A. Increase as operating temperature rises. B. Increase exponentially as operating temperature rises. C. Decrease as operating temperature rises. D. Not change as operating temperature rises. ANSWER: C 85. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at 100 0C. A. 0.113 V B. 0.188 V C. 0.215 V D. 0.513 V ANSWER: A 86. A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at room temperatur e. If the operating temperature is raised by 50C, what is now the reverse saturat ion current? A. 105.56 nA

B. 287.73 nA C. 827.89 nA D. 1.66 A ANSWER: D 87. In every increase of 10C in the operating temperature of a diode will cause i ts reverse saturation current to A. decrease B. double C. triple D. quadruple ANSWER: B 88. What do you call the resistance of the diode when operating at a steady stat e voltage? A. dc resistance B. dynamic resistance C. ac resistance D. average resistance ANSWER: A 89. The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating with a small ac signal A. dc resistance B. static resistance C. dynamic resistance D. average resistance ANSWER: C 90. When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the resistance that is to be cons idered is A. dc resistance B. static resistance C. dynamic resistance D. average resistance ANSWER: D 91. At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the applied voltage is increased? A. will also increase B. will increase exponentially C. will decrease D. will not change ANSWER: C 92. The primary use of Zener diode in electronic circuits. A. resistance regulator B. rectifier C. voltage regulator D. current regulator ANSWER: C 93. What phenomenon in electronics does an avalanche breakdown primarily depende nt? A. Doping B. Recombination C. Ionization D. Collision ANSWER: C

94. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in b etween positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is called what? A. diffusion capacitance B. storage capacitance C. stray capacitance D. transition capacitance ANSWER: D 95. In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance bet ween terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of the junction is called A. diffusion capacitance B. transition capacitance C. depletion-region capacitance D. diode capacitance ANSWER: D 96. What capacitance is significant when the diode is forward biased? A. diffusion capacitance or storage capacitance B. transition capacitance C. depletion-region capacitance D. stray capacitance ANSWER: A 97. A diode that is especially designed to operate as a voltage-variable capacit or. It utilizes the junction capacitance of a semiconductor diode. A. varactor B. varicap C. varistor D. A and B are correct ANSWER: D 98. The capacitance of a varactor will _______ when the forward bias voltage is increased. A. increase B. decrease C. exponentially decrease D. not change ANSWER: A 99. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward conduction A. reverse recovery time B. forward recovery time C. reverse holding time D. reverse time constant ANSWER: A 100. In operating a diode at high-speed switching circuits, one of the most impo rtant parameters to be considered is A. ac resistance B. diode capacitance C. noise figure D. reverse recovery time (trr) ANSWER: D 101. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value after switching the diode from its reverse-to-forward-biased state. A. reverse recovery time

B. forward recovery time (tfr) C. saturation time D. conduction time ANSWER: B 102. The maximum power the diode can handle. A. maximum derating power B. maximum consumption power C. breakdown power D. maximum dissipation power ANSWER: D 103. What is the most important specification for semiconductor diode? A. Forward resistance B. Reverse resistance C. Peak inverse voltage D. Current capacity ANSWER: D 104. What will happen to the power handling capability of the diode if it is to be operated at a higher temperature? A. decreases B. increases C. increases exponentially D. will not be affected ANSWER: A 105. Diode parameter that will inform the user as to what factor does the power handling capability of the diode is reduced as the operating temperature is incr eased. A. power derating factor B. power dissipating factor C. power reduction constant D. all of the above ANSWER: A 106. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperatu re and a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/C. How much power the diode can h andle if operated at 50C. A. 625 mW B. 505 mW C. 495 mW D. 375 mW ANSWER: D 107. A semiconductor device especially fabricated to utilize the avalanche or ze ner breakdown region. This is normally operated in the reverse-region and its ap plication is mostly for voltage reference or regulation. A. varactor diode B. zener diode C. shockley diode D. Schottky barrier diode ANSWER: B 108. Refers to a special type of diode which is capable of both amplification an d oscillation. A. Junction diode B. Tunnel diode C. Point contact diode D. Zener diode

ANSWER: B 109. The effect obtain when the electric field across a semiconductor is strong enough which causes the free electrons to collide with valence electrons, thereb y releasing more electrons and a cumulative multiplication of charge carriers oc cur. A. Gunn B. avalanche C. tunneling D. diffusion ANSWER: B 110. A negative resistance diode commonly used in microwave oscillators and dete ctors, it is sometimes used as amplifiers. This device is also known as Esaki di ode. A. varactor diode B. Schottky diode C. IMPATT diode D. tunnel diode ANSWER: D 111. A rectifying metal-semiconductor junction A. Schottky barrier diode B. surface barrier diode C. hot-carrier or hot-electron diode D. all of the above are correct ANSWER: D 112. Diode whose negative resistance depends on a specific form of quantum-mecha nical bond structure of the material A. Gunn diode B. tunnel diode C. TRAPATT diode D. backward diode ANSWER: A 113. One of the electronic semiconductor devices known as diac, function as A. Four terminal multi-directional switch B. Two terminal bi-directional switch C. Two terminal unidirectional switch D. Three terminal bi-directional switch ANSWER: C 114. Another name of a three-layer diode. This is also considered as an ac diode . A. Shockley diode B. thyrector C. thyristor D. diac ANSWER: D 115. A diode whose negative resistance is dependent on the classical effects of phase shift introduced by the time lag between maximum field and maximum avalanc he current, and by the transit time through the device. A. Read diode B. IMPATT diode C. TRAPATT diode D. all of the above ANSWER: D 116. What semiconductor diode that have a fine wire (called a cat-whisker) whose

point is in permanent contact with the surface of a wafer of semiconductor mate rial such as silicon, germanium or gallium arsenide? A. point-contact diode B. diac C. PiN diode D. thyrector ANSWER: A 117. When the p-n junction of a semiconductor diode is inserted with an intrinsi c material, the diode becomes a A. backward diode B. Read diode C. Schokley diode D. PiN diode ANSWER: D 118. A four layer semiconductor diode whose characteristic at the first quadrant is similar to that of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR). A. Shockley diode B. thyrector C. Schottky diode D. diac ANSWER: A 119. A diode that is especially processed so that its high-current flow takes pl ace when the junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode. A. Esaki diode B. Read diode C. zener diode D. backward diode ANSWER: D 120. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up to certain voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conductin g state. It can be viewed as two zener diodes connected back-to-back in series. A. bizener diode B. diac C. thyristor D. thyrector ANSWER: D 121. A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped n-type material as its drift region A. IMPATT diode B. TRAPATT diode C. TUNNETT diode D. MITATT ANSWER: A 122. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge -rectifier integrated circuit. A. diode array B. diode IC C. diode pack D. combined diode ANSWER: C 123. Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes, capacitan ce of the junction, and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor diode. A. diode impedance B. diode ac resistance

C. diode reactance D. diode ac parameter ANSWER: A 124. In a reverse-biased pn junction, the sudden large increase in current that occurs when a particular value of reversed voltage is reached, and which is due to ionization by the high intensity electric field in the depletion region. A. Zener effect B. Hall effect C. breakdown voltage D. ionization ANSWER: A 125. The appearance of RF current oscillations in a dc-biased slab of n-type gal lium arsenide in a 3.3 kV electric field A. Gunn effect B. Hall effect C. Zener effect D. avalanche ANSWER: A 126. The impedance presented by a junction operating in its zener breakdown regi on. A. diode impedance B. zener impedance C. breakdown impedance D. critical impedance ANSWER: B 127. A curve showing the relationship between the voltage and the current of the diode at any given temperature A. characteristic curve B. transfer curve C. transfer characteristic curve D. all are correct ANSWER: A 128. The line that is plotted in the diode characteristic curve which represents the load A. linear line B. operating line C. load line D. transfer load line ANSWER: C 129. Diode is said to be operating at a point where the characteristic curve and the load line intersect. This point is technically termed as A. Q-point B. operating point C. quiescent point D. all are correct ANSWER: D 130. What will happen to the magnitude of the load-line slope when the load resi stance is decreased? A. it will also decrease B. it will increase C. it will increase exponentially D. is not affected by the load ANSWER: B

131. Q-point position is dependent on A. the supply voltage B. the load resistance C. the type of diode D. all of the above ANSWER: D 132. A germanium diode is connected to a load resistance of 1.5 k and is supplied with 12-V such that the diode will be forward biased. What is the voltage acros s the diode? A. approximately 12 V B. approximately 0.7 V C. approximately 0.3 V D. lack of data and cant be solved ANSWER: C 133. What is the drop across the diode when it is connected in series to a resis tor of 1.8 k and a supply voltage of 50 V. The supply voltage causes the diode to be reverse-biased. A. 50 V B. 0.7 V C. 0.3 V D. can not be solve, lack of data ANSWER: A 134. Two germanium diodes are connected in series and have a load resistance of 10 k and a forward supply voltage of 5 V. Calculate the voltage across the load r esistor. A. 4.7 V B. 4.4 V C. 0.6 V D. 0.3 V ANSWER: B 135. A silicon diode is in parallel with a germanium diode and is connected to a load resistor having a value of 20 k and a forward supply voltage of 10 V. What is the approximate voltage across the silicon diode? A. 10 V B. 1.0 V C. 0.7 V D. 0.3 V ANSWER: D 136. What is the output voltage across a load resistor if it is paralleled with a forward biased silicon diode? The resistor network is supplied with 10 V. A. 0.7 V B. 9.3 V C. 10 V D. Cant be solve, lack of data. ANSWER: A 137. Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal A. clipper B. clamper C. peak detector D. level shifter ANSWER: A 138. A clipper circuit wherein the diode is connected in series with the load A. series clipper

B. parallel clipper C. shunt clipper D. series feed clipper ANSWER: A 139. What do you call a clipper circuit wherein the diode is shunted with the lo ad? A. series clipper B. parallel clipper C. cascade clipper D. cascade clipper ANSWER: B 140. A network with a diode and a capacitor that is used to shift the dc-level o f the input signal A. clipper B. clamper C. shifter D. level inverter ANSWER: B 141. Half-wave rectifier is a good example of A. a series clamper B. a parallel clamper C. a parallel clipper D. a series clipper ANSWER: D 142. Which of the given circuit below must have a capacitor? A. rectifier B. clipper C. clamper D. all of the above ANSWER: C 143. How many capacitors are used in a diode-capacitor half- wave voltage double r? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ANSWER: B 144. An improvement of a diode-capacitor half-wave voltage doubler is the full-w ave doubler, this circuit uses how many capacitors? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ANSWER: B 145. In a diode-capacitor voltage quadrupler, what is the voltage across the thi rd stage capacitor? A. Vmax B. 2 Vmax C. 3 Vmax D. 4 Vmax ANSWER: B 146. A combination of several diodes in a single housing

A. diode array B. diode network C. diode IC D. diode matrix ANSWER: A 147. A chopper, employing an alternately biased diodes as the switching element. A. diode chopper B. active chopper C. junction chopper D. all are correct ANSWER: A 148. A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used in a circuit with a supply volta ge of 5 V. What should be the value of the resistor needed by the LED to operate normally? A. 25 B. 250 C. 25 k D. 250 k ANSWER: B 149. A simple voltage-regulator whose output is the constant voltage drop develo ped across a zener diode conducting in the reverse breakdown region. The regulat or circuit consists of a zener diode in parallel with the load and an appropriat e limiting resistor. A. ordinary voltage regulator B. zener voltage regulator C. series voltage regulator D. switching voltage regulator ANSWER: B 150. Logic circuitry in which a diode is the logic element and a transistor acts as an inverting amplifier. A. RTL B. DTL C. HDTL D. ECL ANSWER: B 151. What is a bridge rectifier having diodes in two arms and resistors in the o ther two? A. full-wave bridge B. half-wave bridge C. half-bridge D. full bridge ANSWER: C 152. An over-voltage protection circuit employing a zener diode and an SCR whose function is to produce high overload by-pass current on a circuit. A. regulator B. current enhancer C. crowbar D. shunted zener ANSWER: C 153. The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when used in electronic circuit is from _______. A. collector to base B. collector to base

C. emitter to collector D. base to emitter ANSWER: C 154. A three terminal, three layer semiconductor device that has the ability to multiply charge carriers. This device was first introduced at Bell Laboratories, by Brattain and Bardeen in 1947 and which opens a completely new direction of i nterest and development in the field of electronics. A. triode B. triac C. SCR D. transistor ANSWER: D 155. An active semiconductor device, capable of amplification, oscillation, and switching action. It is an acronym for transfer resistor and had replaced the tu be in most applications. A. thyristor B. thyrector C. SBS D. transistor ANSWER: D 156. Transistor replaces the old vacuum tubes because it has several obvious adv antages, what are they? A. smaller, lightweight and rugged construction B. no heater loss, low operating voltage and therefore efficient C. low power consumption and low power dissipation D. all of the above ANSWER: D 157. Which of the three regions/areas in a transistor that is the smallest in co nstruction? A. emitter B. collector C. base D. all are equal ANSWER: C 158. The region or area in a transistor that is heavily doped A. at the junction B. emitter C. collector D. base ANSWER: B 159. A transistor in which the base is diffused and the emitter is alloyed. The collector is provided by the semiconductor substrate into which alloying and dif fusion are affected. A. alloy-transistor B. alloy-diffused transistor C. alloy junction transistor D. diffused junction transistor ANSWER: B 160. A transistor whose junctions are created by alloying A. alloy transistor B. alloy-diffused transistor C. diffused transistor D. alloy junction

ANSWER: A 161. In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction formed by alloying a suitable mat erial such as indium with the semiconductor. A. alloy junction B. diffused junction C. depletion junction D. storage junction ANSWER: A 162. A transistor in which one or both electrodes are created by diffusion A. diffused transistor B. alloy transistor C. planar transistor D. mesa transistor ANSWER: A 163. A two-junction transistor whose construction takes the form of a pnp or a n pn. Such device uses both electron and hole conduction and is current-driven. A. bipolar transistor B. unipolar transistor C. bi-directional transistor D. double junction transistor ANSWER: A 164. The predecessor of the junction transistor, and is characterized by a curre nt amplification factor, alpha of greater than one. A. surface-charge transistor B. surface-barrier transistor C. schottky transistor D. point-contact transistor ANSWER: D 165. For a transistor, the outer layers are A. lightly doped semiconductors B. heavily doped semiconductors C. no doping at all D. A and B above ANSWER: B 166. The ratio of the total width of the outer layers to that of the center laye r A. 100:1 B. 150:5 C. 150:1 D. 1:150 ANSWER: C 167. The ratio of the doping level of the outer layers to that of the sandwiched material A. 10:3 or more B. 10:2 or more C. 10:3 D. 10:1 or less ANSWER: D 168. Limiting the number of free carriers will A. increase the conductivity but decreases the resistance B. decrease the conductivity but increases the resistance C. increase the conductivity as well as resistivity

D. decrease the conductivity as well as resistivity ANSWER: B 169. The term ________ reflects the fact that holes and electrons participate in the injection process into the oppositely polarized material. A. unipolar B. bipolar C. tetrode D. pentode ANSWER: B 170. What device, that employs only electron or hole? A. unipolar B. bipolar C. tetrode D. pentode ANSWER: A 171. At forward-biased junction of pnp transistor, majority carriers flow heavil y A. from p- to the n-type material B. from n- to the p-type material C. from p- to p-type material D. A and B above ANSWER: A 172. The minority-current component of a transistor is called A. leakage current B. emitter current C. cut-off current D. all of the above ANSWER: A 173. For general-purpose transistors, IC is measured in ____, while ICO is measu red in ____. A. micro and nanoamperes B. milliamperes and microamperes C. milliamperes and nanoamperes D. b and c above ANSWER: D 174. Is temperature sensitive, and can severely affect the stability of the syst em, when not carefully examined during design A. IC B. ICO C. IS D. IE ANSWER: B 175. For the transistor, the arrow in the graphic symbol defines the direction o f _______ through the device A. leakage current flow B. emitter electron flow C. majority carrier flow D. emitter conventional current flow ANSWER: D 176. In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IE due to the majority carriers are re lated by the quantity A. alpha ()

B. bet () C. gamma () D. A nd B bove ANSWER: A 177. In the c mode, lph is form lly c lled A. common-b se, short-circuit, mplific tion f ctor B. common-emitter, mplific tion f ctor C. common-collector, mplific tion f ctor D. ll of the bove re correct ANSWER: A 178. Phr ses not pointin in A. npn nd pnp B. pnp nd npn C. npn only D. pnp only ANSWER: A nd pointin in simply me n

179. In the dc mode, the levels of IC nd IB re rel ted by A. B. C. D. A nd B bove ANSWER: B

qu ntity c lled

180. For pr ctic l tr nsistor devices, the level of typically ranges A. from a out 25 to over 400 B. less than 1 C. mostly in midrange of 50 to 400 D. A or C a ove ANSWER: C 181. The formal name of ac A. Common-collector reverse-current amplification factor B. Common-collector forward-current amplification factor C. Common-emitter forward-current amplification factor D. Common-emitter reverse-current amplification factor ANSWER: C 182. It is a particularly important parameter that provides a direct link etwee n current levels of the input and output circuits for a common-emitter configura tion. A. B. C. A and B a ove D. none of the a ove ANSWER: B 183. The _______ id defined as that area A. active region B. cutoff region C. saturation region D. none of the a ove ANSWER: B

elow IC= ICEO.

184. It is referred to as the communication link er A. specification sheet B. characteristic manual

etween the manufacturer and us

C. characteristic curve D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 185. The information that can e found in most specification sheets? A. maximum ratings B. thermal characteristics C. electrical characteristics D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 186. With an ohmmeter, a large or small resistance in either junction of an npn or pnp transistor indicates A. faulty device B. well functioning device C. leaky device D. either A or C ANSWER: A 187. At ase-emitter junction, using an ohmmeter, if the positive (+) lead is co nnected to the ase and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a low resistance r eading would indicate A. npn transistor B. pnp transistor C. germanium transistor D. silicon transistor ANSWER: A 188. At ase-emitter junction, if the positive (+) lead is connected to the ase and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a high resistance reading would indic ate A. npn transistor B. pnp transistor C. germanium transistor D. silicon transistor ANSWER: B 189. Transistors of heavy duty construction A. high-power devices B. low-power devices C. medium-power devices D. all of the a ove ANSWER: A 190. On a voltage-current condition curve, the point elong to which a further i ncrease in voltage produces no (or very little) further increase in current. A. saturation flux B. saturation value C. saturation point D. all of the a ove ANSWER: C 191. It is applied to any system where levels have reached their maximum values A. saturation B. active C. cutoff D. quiescent point ANSWER: A 192. For an on transistor, the voltage VBE should e in the neigh orhood of

A. 0.3 V B. 0.55 V C. 0.7 V D. 1.7 V ANSWER: C 193. Among the three characteristics of a transistor amplifier, which region is normally employed for linear (undistorted) amplifiers? A. active region B. cutoff region C. saturation region D. capital region ANSWER: A 194. In the active region, the collector- ase junction is ________, while the a se-emitter junction is ________. A. forward and forward- iased B. forward and reverse- iased C. reverse and reverse iased D. reverse and forward- iased ANSWER: D 195. It is necessary, in order to esta lish the proper region of operation for a c amplification. A. ac iasing B. dc iasing C. A and B a ove D. none of the a ove ANSWER: B 196. At cutoff region, the collector- ase and ase-emitter junctions of a transi stor are A. oth reverse- iased B. forward and reverse- iased C. oth forward- iased D. reverse and forward- iased ANSWER: A 197. In saturation region, the collector- ase and ase-emitter junctions of a tr ansistor are A. oth reverse- iased B. forward and reverse- iased C. oth forward- iased D. reverse and forward- iased ANSWER: C 198. If the ase-emitter junction is reverse iased and the ase-collector junct ion is forward iased, the transistor will e at what region of operation? A. active region B. cut-off region C. saturation region D. reakdown region ANSWER: B 199. Under what region does the transistor operate if oth the ase-emitter and ase-collector junctions are reverse- iased? A. active region B. cut-off region C. saturation region D. reakdown region

ANSWER: B 200. What region the transistor should t the output signal? A. active region B. cut-off region C. saturation region D. none of the a ove ANSWER: A

201. In dc iasing, it means quiet, still, inactive A. passive B. quench C. static D. quiescent ANSWER: D 202. The transistor terminal that handles most current A. ase B. collector C. emitter D. collector and emitter ANSWER: C 203. Which indicates the degree of change, in operating-point due to temperature variation in the dc iasing? A. temperature coefficient B. factor of safety C. merit factor D. sta ility factor ANSWER: D 204. What est descri es the transistor current that flows and emitter terminals when the ase is open? A. leakage current B. cut-off current C. reverse saturation current D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 205. Solve for the ain is 20. A. 30 mA B. 3 mA C. 12 mA D. 1.2 mA ANSWER: A

ase current if collector current is 600 mA and the current g

206. When the transistor is saturated, VCE is approximately A. 0 V B. VCC C. VCC D. infinite ANSWER: A 207. Collector-emitter resistance of ideal transistor at cut-off A. 0 B. infinite C. a function of the load resistance D. a function of the collector current

e operating to have minimum distortion a

etween the collector

ANSWER: B 208. The leakage current that flows at the collector-base junction when the emit ter is open A. ICO B. ICBO C. ICEO D. ICBE ANSWER: B 209. A transistor with = 100 is connected as common ase, was found to have a le akage current ICBO = 1A. If the transistor is configured as common emitter, what is the approximate value of its ICEO? A. 0.01 A B. 1.0 A C. 100 A D. 10 mA ANSWER: C 210. The most correct technical term of the reverse leakage current that flows b etween the collector and base junctions when the emitter is open circuited. A. leakage current B. saturation current C. reverse saturation current D. cut-off current ANSWER: C 211. How is the collector cut-off or reverse saturation current ICBO related to the emitter cutoff current IEBO? IEBO p A. ICBO B. ICBO IEBO/ C. ICBO IEBO(1-) D. ICBO IEBO ANSWER: D 212. ICBO of n ide l tr nsistor A. incre ses s temper ture incre ses B. incre ses s temper ture decre ses C. is not ffected by temper ture ch n e D. is zero (0) mA ANSWER: D 213. The m ximum volt e th t c n be l for iven tr nsistor is specified s A. VCEO B. VECO C. V(BR)BEO D. V(BR)CEO ANSWER: D pplied cross the collector-emitter termin

214. If the current- in-b ndwidth product of tr nsistor is 250 MHz ted t 100 MHz, wh t is the effective current in of the tr nsistor? A. 2.5 B. 25 C. 250

nd is oper

D. 350 ANSWER: A 215. The current in of tr nsistor decre ses s the oper tin frequency incre ses. As the oper tin frequency is incre sed continuously, point occurs where the current in becomes unity. This point, is best described by wh t tr nsisto r p r meter? A. unity in frequency B. 0 dB frequency C. cut-off frequency D. unity in b ndwidth product or unity current in b ndwidth product ANSWER: D

217. Which tr nsistor confi ur tion h s the hi hest input resist nce? A. common b se B. common emitter C. common collector D. common tr nsistor ANSWER: C 218. One of the followin mplifier ch r cteristic refers to th t of common-b se (C-B) s comp red to common-emitter (C-E) nd common-collector (C-C) mplifie rs. A. H s l r er current in B. H s lower input resist nce C. H s hi her input resist nce D. H s l r er volt e in ANSWER: B 219. A tr nsistor is s id to be confi ured s common emitter if the emitter term in l is A. rounded B. connected to V+ C. flo tin D. not used s n input nor output ANSWER: D 220. Most frequently used tr nsistor confi ur tion for pnp nd npn A. common-b se B. common-collector C. common-emitter D. A nd C bove ANSWER: C 221. C lcul te the common-emitter mplific tion f ctor of a transistor with a co mmon- ase amplification factor =0.99. A. 10 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 ANSWER: C

216. When b se is common to both the input nd output sides of the confi ur tion nd is usu lly the termin l closes to, or t round potenti l, it is c lled wh t? A. common-emitter terminolo y B. common-collector terminolo y C. common-b se terminolo y D. ll of the these ANSWER: C

222. Which tr nsistor confi ur tion hybrid p r meters, th t is usu lly specified by the m nuf cturers? A. for common-b se B. for common-collector C. for common-emitter D. combin tion of the three confi ur tions ANSWER: C 223. For common-emitter tr nsistor confi ur tion, the hybrid p r meter hfe st nds for forw rd tr nsfer current r tio. This p r meter is pproxim tely equ l to A. HFE B. ac C. D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 224. Hy rid parameter that is usually neglected in circuit analysis A. hi and ho B. hr and hf C. hi and hf D. hr and ho ANSWER: D 225. The input impedance of a common- ase configuration is hi , and its magnitud e is approximately equal to A. hie/hfe B. hie/(1+) C. re for dynamic model D. all of these ANSWER: D 226. In most transistor input equivalent circuit it comprises of a resistor and a A. voltage source B. stiff voltage source C. current source D. stiff current source ANSWER: A 227. Which transistor configuration has the highest input resistance? A. common- ase B. common-collector C. common-emitter D. emitter follower ANSWER: B 228. Common- ase configuration has a high voltage gain and a current gain of A. low B. moderate C. high D. approximately equal to one (1) ANSWER: D 229. Common-collector has the lowest power gain and a voltage gain of approximat ely one. In contrast to this, what configuration has the highest power gain? A. common- ase B. common-collector C. common-emitter D. emitter follower

ANSWER: C 230. Which of the following transistor characteristic curves that is most useful ? A. input characteristic curve B. output characteristic curve C. transfer characteristic curve D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 231. The graph of the product of collector-emitter voltage VCE and collector cur rent IC in the transistor output characteristic curve. A. maximum power curve B. minimum power curve C. saturation power curve D. reakdown curve ANSWER: A 232. The ase of a transistor serves a purpose to what element of the FET? A. source B. ground C. su strate D. gate ANSWER: D 233. What is the primary difference etween the BJT and the A. current-controlled device and voltage-controlled device, B. voltage-controlled device and current-controlled device, C. impedance transformed device and conductance transformed D. A and C a ove are correct ANSWER: A

234. Another difference etween a BJT and a FET with regards to its normal iasi ng. A. The input circuit is forward- iased for BJT while reverse for FET. B. The input circuit is reverse- iased for BJT while forward for FET. C. The output circuit is forward- iased for BJT while reverse for FET. D. The output circuit is reverse- iased for BJT while forward for FET. ANSWER: A 235. Field-effect transistors (FETs) offer high input impedance than BJT. What m akes FETs have high input impedance? A. The way FETs are constructed. B. Because of the materials used. C. Due to the level of doping D. Due to the reverse- iased input circuit of FETs ANSWER: D 236. The operation of BJT involves oth the flow of electrons and holes and is t herefore, considered as a ipolar device. Unlike BJT, FETs operation involves onl y either electrons or holes and is considered as a _________ device. A. single polar B. unipolar C. unpolar D. polarized ANSWER: B 237. Considered as the A. JFET B. MOS-FET C. IGFET asic FET or the simplest form of FET

FET? respectively respectively device, respectively

D. VMOS-FET ANSWER: A 238. Junction field effect transistor or JFET has three terminals, which corresp onds to the E-B-C of the BJT? A. D-S-G B. D-G-S C. S-G-D D. S-D-G ANSWER: C 239. One o vious advantage of a JFET over BJT is its A. high voltage gain B. high current gain C. high input resistance D. high output resistance ANSWER: C 240. A BJT is a current-controlled current-source device while JFET is a _______ __ device. A. current-controlled voltage-source B. voltage-controlled voltage-source C. voltage-controlled current-source D. voltage-controlled transconductance-source ANSWER: C 241. What do you call the area in a JFET where current passes as it flows from s ource (S) to drain (D). A. channel B. su strate C. depletion D. drift ANSWER: A 242. What will happen to the channel of a JFET as current flows to it? A. widens B. narrows C. skews D. nothing ANSWER: C 243. For a normal operation of an n-channel JFET, how do you e junction? A. positive-negative respectively B. negative-positive respectively C. forward- iased D. any of the a ove ANSWER: B

244. The voltage across the gate-source terminal of a FET that causes drain curr ent ID equal to zero. A. saturation voltage B. threshold voltage C. cut-off voltage D. pinch-off voltage ANSWER: D 245. The current that flows into the channel of a JFET when the gate-source volt age is zero. A. drain-source saturation current

ias the gate-sourc

B. drain-source cut-off current C. drain-source leakage current D. drain-source pinch-off current ANSWER: A 246. The graph of the drain current ID versus drain-source voltage VDS with VGS as the parameter. A. transfer characteristic curve B. output characteristic curve C. input characteristic curve D. current-voltage characteristic curve ANSWER: D 247. In FET, the conduction path of the output is controlled y the electric fie ld as its name implies. How does an electric field in FET esta lished? A. By the charges present at the gate due to the reverse- iased junction. B. By the application of reverse- iased etween the gate and drain. C. By the charges produced due to the applied potential etween drain and source VDS. D. By the charges present at each terminal due to the applied potential. ANSWER: A 248. An early version of the field effect transistor in which limited control of current carriers near the surface of a semiconductor ar or film was o tained y an external electric field applied transversely. A. fieldistor B. JFET C. IGFET D. MOSFET ANSWER: A 249. A FET in which the gate electrode consists of a pn junction A. JFET B. fieldistor C. MOS-FET D. IGFET ANSWER: A 250. Which type of FET has the lowest input resistance? A. JFET B. MOS-FET C. IGFET D. VMOSFET ANSWER: A 251. In order to increase further the input resistance of a FET, its gate is ins ulated. An example of this type is the A. fieldistor B. JFET C. MOS-FET D. A and B a ove ANSWER: C 252. What is the insulator used in most MOS-FET? A. CO2 B. SiO2 C. mica D. plastic ANSWER: B

253. An n-channel JFET has a drain-source saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a gate-source pinch-off voltage Vp = -4 V. If the applied reverse gate-source volt age VGS = 2 V, calculate the drain current ID. A. 2.5 mA B. 5.0 mA C. 10.0 mA D. 22.5 mA ANSWER: A 254. Base from Shockleys equation of a JFET, what is the drain current when the a pplied voltage VGS is exactly equal to the pinch-off voltage Vp? A. IDSS B. maximum C. minimum D. zero ANSWER: D 255. The transconductance of a JFET is defined as A. dID/dVGS B. dVGS/dID C. dIDSS/dVGS D. dID/dVp ANSWER: A 256. A field-effect transistor in which the gate electrode is not a pn junction (as in the junction field-effect transistor) ut a thin metal film insulated fro m the semiconductor channel y a thin oxide film. A. MOSFET (enhancement type) B. MOSFET (depletion type) C. IGFET D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 257. In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will e constructed a nd is formed from a silicon ase A. su strate B. sla C. source D. ase ANSWER: A 258. A type of MOSFET wherein originally there is no channel nd the source A. depletion type B. enhancement type C. reak type D. insulated type ANSWER: B 259. What type of MOSFET whose channel is originally thick oper gate ias is applied? A. enhancement B. depletion C. transverse D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B

etween the drain a

ut narrows as the pr

260. The amount of voltage needed at the gate-source terminal for an enhancement type MOSFET so that a channel can e formed for the current to flow. A. ON voltage B. pinch-off voltage

C. threshold voltage D. trigger voltage ANSWER: C 261. To switch off the depletion type MOSFET, the channel should e depleted. De pletion of the channel is done y applying enough voltage across the gate-source terminal. What do you call this voltage? A. pinch-off voltage B. trigger voltage C. holding voltage D. threshold voltage ANSWER: A 262. The su strate of a MOSFET is usually connected internally to A. source B. gate C. drain D. channel ANSWER: A 263. In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, the gate voltage should e _______ _ with respect to the source in order to produce or enhance a channel. A. the same B. positive C. negative D. either positive or negative ANSWER: B 264. To deplete a channel from a p-channel IGFET depletion type, the gate voltag e should e ________ with respect to the source. A. the same B. positive C. negative D. either positive or negative as long as it is greater ANSWER: B 265. The su strate used in a p-channel IGFET enhancement type A. n -type material B. n+ -type material C. p -type material D. p+ -type material ANSWER: A 266. The ase material of a MOSFET which extends as an additional terminal A. source (S) B. channel (C) C. drain (D) D. su strate (SS) ANSWER: D 267. Which FET that has a su strate? A. MOSFET enhancement type B. IGFET C. MOSFET depletion type D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 268. What is the difference etween a JFET and a MOSFET? A. The gate of a MOSFET is insulated. B. MOSFET uses a su strate in its construction.

C. MOSFET can work in oth forward and reverse gate-source voltages. D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 269. Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel MOSFET enhancement type if th e gate-source voltage VGS = -8 V, threshold voltage VT = -4 and a constant k = 0 .3 mA/V2. A. 1.2 mS B. 2.4 mS C. 3.6 mS D. 7.2 mS ANSWER: B 270. One draw ack of JFET devices is the strong dependence of the devices paramet ers on the channel geometry. Which parameter is an example of this? A. drain saturation current (IDSS) B. pinch-off voltage (VP) C. transconductance (gm) D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 271. JFET cutoff frequency is dependent on channel length y a factor of A. 1/L B. 1/L2 C. 1/L3 D. 1/L4 ANSWER: B 272. Which FET operates as close as BJT in terms of switching? A. JFET B. MOSFET depletion type C. MOSFET enhancement type D. IGFET ANSWER: C 273. Generally, MOSFET has low power handling capa ility than BJT. To increase M OSFET power, the channel should e made A. narrow and long B. narrow and short C. wide and long D. wide and short ANSWER: D 274. Which FET has a wide and short effective channel? A. JFET B. MOSFET C. IGFET D. V-MOSFET ANSWER: D 275. A type of FET wherein the channel is formed in the vertical direction rathe r than horizontal A. JFET B. MOSFET C. IGFET D. V-MOSFET ANSWER: D 276. Advantage or advantages of V-MOS over BJT A. No stored charge and therefore faster in switching action.

B. A negative temperature dependence of output current which eliminates thermal runaway. C. High input impedance and therefore high current gain. D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 277. In general, which of the transistors is particularly more useful in integra ted-circuit (IC) chips? A. BJTs B. FETs C. UJTs D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 278. A monolithic semiconductor-amplifying device in which a high-impedance GATE electrode controls the flow of current carriers through a thin ar of semicondu ctor called the CHANNEL. Ohmic connections made to the ends of the channel const itute SOURCE and DRAIN electrodes. A. BJT B. UJT C. FET D. UPT ANSWER: C 279. A junction field effect transistor has a drain saturation current of 10 mA and a pinch-off voltage of -4 V. Calculate the maximum transconductance. A. 2.5 mS B. 5.0 mS C. 25.0 mS D. 50.0 mS ANSWER: B 280. In semiconductor application, which of the following statement is not true? A. An ohmmeter test across the ase-collector terminal of a transistor should sh ow low resistance in one polarity and high resistance in the opposite polarity. B. A triac is a idirectional device. C. An ohmmeter test across a diode shows low resistance in one polarity and high resistance in the opposite polarity. D. An ohmmeter test across the ase-collector of a transistor should show low re sistance for oth polarities. ANSWER: D Test 4 Amplifiers 1. What do you call an amplifier which has an output current flowing during the whole input current cycle? A. class AB amplifier B. class B amplifier C. class A amplifier D. class C amplifier ANSWER: C

ANSWER: D 3. If a transistor amplifier provides a 360 output signal, it is classified as A. class A

2. A. B. C. D.

Class A amplifier can e uilt from what transistor configuration? common ase common emitter common collector all of the a ove

B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: A 4. An amplifier that delivers an output signal of 180 only. A. class A B. class B C. class AB D. class D ANSWER: B 5. A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal swings more than 180 ut less than 360. A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class AB ANSWER: D 6. What is the distinguishing feature of a class C amplifier? A. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle B. Output is present for the entire signal cycle C. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle D. Output is present for more than 180 degrees ut less than 60 degrees of the i nput signal cycle ANSWER: A 7. A full 360 sine-wave signal is applied as an input to an unknown class of ampl ifier, if the output delivers only a pulse of less than 180, of what class does t his amplifier elongs? A. class AB B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: C 8. Which class of amplifiers that is intended for pulse operation? A. class B B. class C C. class D D. class S ANSWER: C 9. How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify either amplitude modulated ( AM) or frequency modulated (FM) signals? A. class C B. class BC C. class D D. class S ANSWER: D 10. Which class of amplifiers that has the highest efficiency? A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: D 11. What is the efficiency of a series-fed class A amplifier? A. 25%

B. 50% C. 78.5% D. a ove 90% ANSWER: A 12. A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%, ut this can e increased if the output is coupled with a transformer. Up to how much is its efficiency w ill reach due to coupling? A. 36.5% B. 50% C. 68.5% D. 78.5% ANSWER: B 13. Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of 180 and have a maximum efficie ncy of A. 50% B. 68.5% C. 78.55 D. a ove 90% ANSWER: C 14. Transistorized class C power amplifiers will usually have an efficiency of A. 25% B. 33% C. 50% D. 78.5% ANSWER: B 15. For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is mostly used. How efficient is a class D amplifier? A. a out 25% efficient B. less efficient than class B C. more efficient than class A ut less efficient than class B D. its efficiency reaches over 90% ANSWER: D 16. An amplifier of class AB means its output signal is etween the output of cl ass B and A, such that it varies from 180 (class B) to 360 (class A). How a out it s efficiency? A. Efficiency of class AB is in etween the efficiency of class A and B, that is from 25% - 78.5%. B. It is always as efficient as class A (25%). C. It is always as efficient as class B (78.5%) D. The efficiency of class AB is the average of the efficiencies of oth class A and class B (25% + 78.5%)/2 = 51.75% ANSWER: A 17. Among the given amplifiers elow, which is the most efficient? A. class A (series-fed) B. class A (transformer-coupled) C. class A (directly-coupled) D. class A (capacitor-coupled) ANSWER: B 18. In order to have the est efficiency and sta ility, where at the loadline sh ould a solid state power amplifier e operated? A. Just elow the saturation point B. At 1.414 times the saturation point C. Just a ove the saturation point D. At the saturation point

ANSWER: A 19. In most transistor class A amplifiers, the quiescent point is set at A. near saturation B. near cutoff C. elow cutoff D. at the center ANSWER: D 20. For a class B amplifier, the operating point or Q-point is set at A. the top of the load line B. saturation C. the center D. cutoff ANSWER: D 21. The Q-pint for class A amplifier is at the active region, while for class B it is at cutoff region, how a out for class AB? A. it is slightly elow saturation B. it is slightly a ove cutoff C. it is slightly a ove saturation D. it is at the saturation region ANSWER: B 22. Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier positioned? A. at saturation region B. at active region C. at cutoff region D. elow cutoff region

ANSWER: D 24. Which of the amplifiers given elow that is considered as non-linear? A. class A B. class B C. class AB D. class C

ANSWER: D 26. What do you call an amplifier that is iased to class C ut modulates over t he same portion of the curve as if it were iased to class B? A. class S B. class D C. class AB D. class BC

ANSWER: D 25. Which amplifiers can A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class A or B

e used for linear amplification?

ANSWER: D 23. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can n the load line? A. elow saturation B. a ove cutoff C. at cutoff D. any of the a ove

e set or positioned at what region i

ANSWER: D 27. Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both output signals are th en coupled y a transformer to the load. A. transformer-coupled push pull amplifier B. complementary-symmetry amplifier C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier ANSWER: A 28. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the posit ive and negative cycles respectively. A. transformer-coupled push pull amplifier B. complementary-symmetry amplifier C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier ANSWER: B 29. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The ci rcuit configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry. A. transformer-coupled push pull amplifier B. complementary-symmetry amplifier C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier D. feed- ack pair amplifier ANSWER: C 30. Amplifiers conversion efficiency are calculated using what formula? A. ac-power/dc-power B. ac-power/dissipated power C. dc-power/ac-power D. A or B are correct ANSWER: D 31. Basically, which class of amplifiers has the least distortion? A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: A 32. A type of distortion wherein the output signal does not have the desired lin ear relation to the input. A. linear distortion B. nonlinear distortion C. cross-over distortion D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 33. Distortion that is due to the ina ility of an amplifier to amplify equally w ell all the frequencies present at the input signal. A. nonlinear distortion B. amplitude distortion C. harmonic distortion D. cross-over distortion ANSWER: B 34. A nonlinear distortion in which the output consists of undesired harmonic fr equencies of the input signal. A. amplitude distortion B. frequency distortion C. cross-over distortion

D. harmonic distortion ANSWER: D 35. Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an output signal having a fundamen tal amplitude of 3V and a 2nd harmonic amplitude of 0.3V. A. 1.0% B. 10% C. 23.33% D. 43.33% ANSWER: B 36. An amplifier has the following percent harmonic distortions; D2=10%, D3=5% a nd D4=1%. What is the amplifier % THD? A. 5.33% B. 11.22% C. 16.0% D. 22.11% ANSWER: B 37. Which of the following refers to the gain of a circuit? A. Input quantity of an amplifier divided y the output quantity. B. The difference etween the input voltage and the output voltage of a circuit. C. The ratio of the output quantity to input quantity of an amplifier. D. The total increase in output quality over the input quantity of an amplifier. ANSWER: C 38. The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is A. the sum B. the average of each C. the product D. 100% the sum ANSWER: C 39. If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in cascade, how much is the ov erall gain? A. 72 B. 24 C. 512 D. 8 ANSWER: C 40. A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a conventional series manner, the output of one stage is forward-coupled to the next stage. A. cascaded amplifier B. cascoded amplifier C. darlington configuration D. feed- ack pair configuration ANSWER: A 41. A direct-coupled two-stage transistor configuration wherein the output of th e firs transistor is directly coupled and amplified y the second transistor. Th is configuration gives a very high current gain. A. cascade configuration B. cascode configuration C. darlington configuration D. feed- ack pair ANSWER: C

42. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage provides input to the emitter of the second stage. The final output is the n taken from the collector of the second stage. A. cascade configuration B. cascode configuration C. quasi-complementary D. complementary amplifier ANSWER: B 43. Famous transistor amplifier configuration designed to eliminate the so calle d Miller effect. A. cascode amplifier B. darlington amplifier C. differential amplifier D. complementary-symmetry ANSWER: A 44. What are the transistor configurations used in a cascade amplifier? A. common- ase and common-emitter B. common- ase and common-collector C. common-collector and common-emitter D. common-emitter and common- ase ANSWER: D 45. Transistor configuration known to have a super- eta (2). A. cascade B. cascode C. darlington D. differential

ANSWER: C 47. Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington ut uses a com inatio n of pnp and npn transistors instead of oth npn. A. differential B. common C. cascode D. feed ack pair ANSWER: D 48. An amplifier asically constructed from two transistors and whose output is proportional to the difference etween the voltages applied to its two inputs. A. differential amplifier B. cascode amplifier C. complementary amplifier D. quasi-complementary amplifier ANSWER: A 49. An amplifier having high direct-current sta ility and high immunity to oscil lation, this is initially used to perform analog-computer functions such as summ ing and integrating. A. operational amplifier (op-amp) B. parametric amplifier (par-amp)

ANSWER: C 46. What is the approximate threshold voltage etween the of a silicon darlington transistor? A. 0.3 V B. 0.6 V C. 1.6 V D. 3.0 V

ase-emitter junction

C. instrumentation amplifier D. DC-amplifier ANSWER: A 50. One of the most versatile and widely used electronic device in linear applic ations. A. SCR B. FET C. UJT D. op-amp ANSWER: D 51. It is a very high-gain differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance. A. par-amp B. op-amp C. differential amp D. complementary amp ANSWER: B 52. What are the possi le applications of operational amplifiers (op-amps)? A. ac and dc-amplifiers B. oscillators and signal conditioning C. voltage-level detectors and comparators D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 53. An operational amplifier must have at least how many usa le terminals? A. 3 terminals B. 5 terminals C. 8 terminals D. 14 terminals ANSWER: B 54. The circuit at the input stage of operational amplifiers A. differential amplifier B. cascaded amplifier C. current mirror D. complementary amplifier ANSWER: A 55. An amplifier whose output is proportional to the difference etween the volt ages applied to its two inputs. A. differential amplifier B. differencing C. delta amp D. cascode-amp ANSWER: A 56. In op-amps functional lock diagram, what follows the differential amplifier ? A. cascode-amplifier B. complementary amplifier C. level shifter D. high gain amplifier ANSWER: D 57. A good op-amp has a A. very high input resistance B. very low input resistance C. very high output resistance

D. very low CMRR ANSWER: A 58. Ideally, op-amps have infinite input resistance and ________ output resistan ce. A. infinite B. zero C. varia le D. a highly sta ilized ANSWER: B 59. How does the input of an op-amp made high? A. y using super eta transistor at the input differential stage B. y using FETs at the input differential stage C. y connecting a very high resistance in series with the input differential st age D. A and B a ove ANSWER: D 60. What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps? A. differential amplifier B. cascade-amplifier C. complementary amplifier D. darlington stage amplifier ANSWER: C 61. The transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps A. cascode configuration B. common emitter C. common collector D. common ase ANSWER: C 62. Why do A. to have B. to have C. to have D. to have

most op-amps use a common collector at the output stage? a higher output power a etter frequency response a low harmonic distortion a very low output resistance

ANSWER: D 63. The stage followed y the output complementary in op-amps functional lock d iagram. A. level shifter B. phase shifter C. current mirror D. polarizer ANSWER: A 64. What is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps? A. to set and/or adjust the output voltage to zero when the input signal is zero B. to set and/or adjust the input offset voltage to zero C. to shift the input offset current to zero D. all of the a ove ANSWER: A 65. Primarily, op-amps are operated with ipolar power supply, however, we can a lso use single polarity power supply y A. generating a reference voltage a ove ground.

B. floating the negative supply terminal (V-) of the op-amp. C. simply connecting the negative supply terminal (V-) of the op-amp to ground. D. isolating the negative supply terminal (V-) y a capacitor. ANSWER: A 66. Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the inverting (-) and non-inverting (+) inputs. What is the significance of its name? A. If a sine-wave is applied to the inverting (-) input, the output will e inve rted or shifted y 180, while if applied to the non-inverting (+) there will e n o phase shift at the output. B. If pulses are applied to the inverting (-) input, the positive pulse ecomes negative at the output and vice versa, while if applied at the non-inverting (+) there will e no reversal of the pulse at the output. C. In dc amplifier applications, increasing input at the inverting (-) terminal causes the output to decrease and vice versa, while at the non-inverting (+) inp ut, the output magnitude goes with the input. D. all of these are correct ANSWER: D 67. When the same signal is applied to oth inverting and non-inverting input te rminals of an ideal op-amp, the output voltage would e A. zero (0) V B. +VSAT C. VSAT D. offset voltage ANSWER: A 68. The operating mode of an op-amp, when oth inputs are tied together or when the input signal is common to oth inputs. A. differential mode B. rejection mode C. dou le-ended mode D. common mode ANSWER: D 69. What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if operated in common mode input? A. differential gain B. common gain C. dou le-ended gain D. rejection gain ANSWER: B 70. When one input of the op-amp is connected to ground and the other is to the signal source, its operation is called A. single-ended output B. dou le-ended output C. single-ended input D. dou le-ended input ANSWER: C 71. If op-amps are operated in differential mode, its gain is technically termed as A. common-mode differential gain B. differential gain C. open-loop gain D. closed-loop gain ANSWER: B 72. In op-amps, which gain is the highest? A. common-mode gain

B. differential gain C. closed-loop gain D. open-loop gain ANSWER: D 73. The ratio of the differential gain and common gain of an op-amp A. differential-common mode ratio B. common-mode ratio C. differential-mode rejection ratio D. common-mode rejection ratio ANSWER: D 74. An operational amplifier has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a differen tial-mode voltage gain of 20,000, calculate its common-mode rejection ratio (CMR R). A. B. C. D. 200 2,000 20,000 200,000

ANSWER: B 75. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differ ential-mode gain of 100,000. A. 1000 dB B. 100 dB C. 80 dB D. 40 dB ANSWER: C 76. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV and 1.0 mV, respectively. If the op-amp has a common-mode voltage gain o f 10 and a differential-mode gain of 10,000, what is its output voltage? A. 5.0 V B. 5.0125 mV C. 5.0125 V D. 25.0125 V ANSWER: C 77. What is the maximum output voltage swing of an op-amp? A. +V to -V (supply voltage) B. +VSAT to -VSAT C. +V to -V D. depends on the input signal ANSWER: B 78. The A741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode voltage amplificat ion of 200,000.What is the op-amps common-mode voltage gain? A. 31,622.778 B. 632.40 C. 6.324 D. 0.158 ANSWER: C 79. The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally A. input bias current B. input offset current C. input threshold current D. input holding current

ANSWER: A 80. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small i nput current called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a slight difference. What do you call this difference? A. differential input current B. differential bias C. input offset difference D. input offset current ANSWER: D 81. The change in input offset current due to temperature change A. delta input offset current B. slew rate C. input offset current drift D. PSRR ANSWER: C 82. The reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This unsymmetr ical condition also produces a difference in input voltage called what? A. drift voltage B. differential voltage C. input offset voltage D. input threshold voltage ANSWER: C 83. As electronic circuit operates, its operating temperature changes which caus es device parameters to change. In op-amps, what do you call the change in input offset voltage due to the change in temperature? A. input differential drift B. input offset voltage drift C. slew rate D. PSRR ANSWER: B 84. It is known through experiment that the input bias currents at the non-inver ting (IB+) and inverting (IB-) inputs of a certain op-amp is 100 nA and 80 nA, r espectively. Determine the op-amps input offset current. A. -20 nA B. 20 nA C. 90 nA D. 180 nA ANSWER: B 85. Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input sign al, however, in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as A. minimum output voltage B. pinch-off voltage C. output offset voltage D. saturation voltage ANSWER: C 86. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is (are) due to A. input offset current B. input offset voltage C. voltage and current drift D. A and B above ANSWER: D

87. Calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using op-amp w ith an input offset current of 10 nA. The circuit is having an input resistance of 10 k and a feedback resistance of 100 k. A. 0.1 mV B. 1.0 mV C. 10.0 mV D. 100.0 mV ANSWER: B 88. An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100 k and input res istor of 10 k. If the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0 mV, approximate the amp lifier output offset voltage due to this input offset voltage. A. 10 mV B. 11 mV C. 20 mV D. 22 mV ANSWER: D 89. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current an d voltage. If 1 mV is due to the input offset current and 22 mV due to the input offset voltage, what is the total output offset voltage of the op-amp? A. 11.5 mV B. 22 mV C. 23 mV D. 45 mV ANSWER: C 90. How will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset curr ent of an op-amp? A. by installing a bias-current-compensating resistor B. by increasing the value of the feedback resistor C. by decreasing the value of the input resistor D. B and C above ANSWER: A 91. What is a bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits? A. A resistor used to reduce the undesired output offset voltage due to the inpu t offset current. B. A resistor connected between the non-inverting terminal and ground. C. A resistor used to balance both input bias currents and therefore eliminates the input offset current. D. all of these ANSWER: D 92. The approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp ci rcuits is A. equal to the feedback resistor B. equal to the input resistor C. equal to the series combination of the input and feedback resistors D. equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors ANSWER: D 93. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by A. a battery B. a signal generator C. Thevenins voltage source D. Nortons current source ANSWER: A 94. The battery representing the input offset voltage in op-amp circuit analysis

is connected where? A. between the inverting and ground terminal B. between the non-inverting and ground terminal C. between the inverting and non-inverting terminal D. either B and C above ANSWER: B 95. What is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no feedback element? A. causes the output to be always at cutoff B. causes the output to saturate towards positive C. causes the output to saturate towards negative D. causes the output to saturate either towards positive or negative ANSWER: D 96. How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the output offset voltage? A. by making the feedback resistance small B. by making the feedback resistance large C. by making the input resistance small D. by making the input resistance large ANSWER: A 97. An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resi stances of 1 k and 100 k, respectively. When the input signal is set to zero, the output was found to have an offset voltage of 101 mV. Calculate the input offset voltage. A. 0.01 mV B. 0.1 mV C. 1.0 mV D. 10.0 mV ANSWER: C 98. What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp? A. by reducing the value of the feedback resistor B. by increasing the value of the input resistor C. by a capacitor-compensation technique D. by properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals ANSWER: D 99. What cause(s) the well-adjusted output offset voltage of op-amps to change? A. change in operating temperature B. component aging C. variations in supply voltage D. all of the above ANSWER: D 100. Which op-amp parameter(s) that normally affects its small signal dc-amplifi cation performance? A. input bias current B. input offset voltage C. input offset current D. all of the above ANSWER: D 101. Op-amp parameter(s) that is important in large signal dc-amplification. A. input offset voltage B. input offset current C. slew rate

D. all of the above ANSWER: C 102. In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least e ffect on its performance? A. drift B. slew rate C. input offset voltage D. input offset current ANSWER: A 103. For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance. A. B. C. D. input offset current and voltage input bias current and voltage drift and slew rate slew rate and frequency response

ANSWER: D 104. If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter you should greatly consider to ensure better performance? A. input bias current B. drift C. frequency response D. slew rate ANSWER: C 105. What do we mean by internally compensated op-amps? A. Op-amps with internal frequency compensation capacitor to prevent . B. Op-amps with an internal compensating resistor to make the output age zero. C. Op-amps with internal coupling capacitor to block dc-voltages and oltages to pass. D. Op-amps with internal active components to make its gain constant re operating frequency.

oscillation offset volt allows ac-v at the enti

ANSWER: A 106. The frequency at which the open-loop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its v alue at very low frequency A. threshold frequency B. break frequency C. minimum frequency D. operating frequency ANSWER: B 107. What will happen to the voltage gain of op-amp when its operating frequency is increased? A. also increases B. increases exponentially C. will decrease D. decreases exponentially ANSWER: C 108. The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency. A. Cutoff B. roll-off C. diminishing factor D. reduction step

ANSWER: B 109. What do we mean by a 20 dB/decade roll-off? A. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per decade B. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per decade C. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per 10 Hz increased in frequency D. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per 10 Hz increased in frequency ANSWER: A 110. A reduction of op-amps voltage gain by a factor of two each time the frequen cy doubles. A. 2 dB/octave B. 2 dB/decade C. 6 dB/octave D. 6 dB/decade ANSWER: C 111. Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp reduces to unity. A. unity-gain frequency B. cutoff frequency C. bandwidth point D. unity-gain bandwidth product ANSWER: D 112. The low and high cutoff frequencies of an amplifier is also called A. corner frequencies B. 0.707 frequencies C. 3-dB frequencies D. all of these are correct ANSWER: D 113. Calculate the cutoff frequency (fc)of an op-amp having a unity-gain bandwid th product B1 = 1 MHz and a open-loop voltage gain AOL = 100,000. A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 100 Hz D. 200 Hz ANSWER: A 114. An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3 s, calculate i ts unity-gain bandwidth. A. 0.857 MHz B. 1.0 MHz C. 1.167 MHz D. 2.334 MHz ANSWER: C 115. Rise time is defined as the time required for the output voltage to rise fr om _______ to ________ of its final value. A. 0% - 100% B. 1% - 99% C. 5% - 95% D. 10% - 90% ANSWER: D 116. The maximum output voltage rate of change of an op-amp. A. rise time B. maximum voltage swing C. differential rate D. slew rate ANSWER: D

117. Factor(s) or parameter(s) that determine(s) the op-amps maximum operating t emperature A. PSRR B. slew rate C. unity-gain bandwidth product D. B and C above ANSWER: D 118. What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a specified slew rate of 0.5 V/sec? The maximum output voltage desired is 5 V. A. 16 kHz B. 32 kHz C. 100 kHz D. 1 MHz ANSWER: A 119. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an u ndistorted output voltage of .10 V ac a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec? A. 0.1 V/sec B. 0.5 V/sec C. 1.0 V/sec D. 6.28 V/sec ANSWER: C 120. When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the output voltage would be +VSAT i f A. V+ > VB. V- > V+ C. V- = V+ D. V- and V+ are both zero ANSWER: A 121. Two comparators using op-amps, configured such that it can detect voltage l evels within a certain range of values rather than simply comparing whether a vo ltage is above or below a certain reference. A. analog comparator B. regenerative comparator C. parallel comparator D. window comparator ANSWER: D 122. What gain is significant when an op-amp is used as a voltage comparator? A. open-loop gain B. common gain C. differential closed loop gain D. closed loop gain ANSWER: A 123. An op-amp zero-crossing detector without hysteresis, A. uses a resistor as its feedback element B. uses a capacitor as its feedback element C. uses an inductor as its feedback element D. has no feedback ANSWER: D 124. The feedback element of a differentiator constructed from op-amp is A. a resistor B. an inductor C. a capacitor D. an RC network

ANSWER: A 125. An active integrator uses an op-amp, what is its feedback element? A. Resistor B. capacitor C. inductor D. RC network ANSWER: B 126. The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage follower. A. unity B. Rf/Ri C. 1 + Rf/Ri D. depends on the type of op-amp ANSWER: A 127. Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier having a f eedback and an input resistance of 100 k and 10 k, respectively. A. 10 B. 11 C. 100 D. 110 ANSWER: A 128. The gain of an inverting amplifier is determined by the ratio of the feedba ck and input resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we can select any value of resistors as long as its ratio is the same. What op-amp parameter that helps us determine the appropriate values of these resistors? A. CMRR B. PSRR C. SR D. input bias current ANSWER: D 129. What is the noise gain of op-amps? A. equal to the open loop gain B. Rf/Ri C. 1 + Rf/Ri D. equal to the common gain ANSWER: C 130. A unity-gain summing amplifier has three inputs, V1 = 1.0 mV, V2 = 1.5 mV, and V3 = 2.5 mV, calculate the total output voltage. A. 2.5 mV B. 3.5 mV C. 4.0 mV D. 5.0 mV ANSWER: D 131. The random voltage at the output of an op-amp which could occupy the entire bandwidth. A. noise B. hash C. interference D. all of the above ANSWER: D 132. Which of the following of the resistor combinations that provides lesser no ise in op-amp circuits? A. Make both the feedback and input resistances as large as possible B. Make the feedback as large as possible, while the input as low as possible.

C. Make the feedback as low as possible, while the input as large as possible. D. Make the feedback and input resistances as small as possible. ANSWER: D 133. In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small capacitance, what is its purpose? A. to prevent oscillation B. to improve stability C. to minimize high frequency noise D. to compensate for high frequency loss ANSWER: C 134. Approximate the noise gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has fi ve inputs. A. unity (1) B. two (2) C. four (4) D. six (6) ANSWER: D 135. Op-amps with internal frequency compensation are very stable with respect t o signal frequencies. However, the trade-off for frequency stability is (are) A. limited small-signal bandwidth B. slow slew rate C. limited open-loop frequency response D. all of these ANSWER: D 136. What do we mean by externally compensated op-amps? A. op-amps with frequency-compensation terminals B. op-amps with provision to externally compensate for frequency stability C. op-amps whose gain is externally compensated D. A and B above ANSWER: D 137. What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor? A. the higher its value, the wider is its bandwidth B. the lower its value, the wider is its bandwidth C. the higher its value, the faster its slew rate D. A and C above ANSWER: B 138. Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op-amps. A. 3 - 30 nF B. 30 - 300 nF C. 0.3 - 3.0 F D. 3.0 - 30 F ANSWER: D 139. What do we mean by a general-purpose op-amps? A. op-amps with limited unity-gain bandwidth up to approximately 1 MHz B. op-amps with slew rate about 0.5 V/sec C. op-amps that has unlimited application D. A and B above ANSWER: D 140. Op-amps designed to operate at high slew rate, about 2000 V/sec and at high frequencies, more than 50 MHz. A. general purpose op-amps B. high power op-amps

C. high-stability op-amps D. high-frequency, high-slew rate op-amps ANSWER: D 141. Generally, where does hybrid op-amps found its application? A. for high-output voltage B. for high-output current C. for high-frequency D. A and B above ANSWER: D 142. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classifi ed as a low-input offset voltage op-amp A. 0.2 mV B. 2.0 mV C. 2.5 mV D. 5.0 mV ANSWER: A 143. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorize as A. general purpose op-amps B. programmable op-amps C. variable op-amps D. externally compensated op-amps ANSWER: B 144. What op-amp parameter(s) that can be governed by the bias control in a prog rammable op-amp? A. open-loop gain and slew rate B. unity-gain bandwidth C. input bias current D. all of the above ANSWER: D 145. The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of these corresponds to TO-99? A. metal can B. 8-pin DIP C. SMT D. all of the above ANSWER: A 146. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as A. TO-99 B. TO-91 C. TO-116 D. TO-220 ANSWER: C 147. For high density ICs involving many op-amps, what packaging is suitable? A. metal can B. 14-pin DIL C. SMT D. flat-pack ANSWER: C 148. Example(s) of surface-mounted technology (SMT) devices. A. PLCCs B. SOICs C. LCCCs

D. all of the above ANSWER: D 149. Which condition must exist for A. It must have a negative feedback B. It must have a gain of less than C. It must have a positive feedback D. It must be neutralized

a circuit to oscillate? sufficient to cancel the input 1 sufficient to overcome losses

ANSWER: C 150. Which of the following is not an essential part of an oscillator? A. Source of energy that supply the losses in tank circuit. B. A resistor IC combination circuit. C. Resonant circuit consist of inductance and capacitance. D. Regenerative feedback circuit. ANSWER: B 151. Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating current or voltage. A. Damper B. Generator C. oscillator D. mixer ANSWER: C 152. What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coli in the tune d circuit? A. Pierce B. Colpitts C. Hartley D. Ultraudion ANSWER: C 153. What determines the resonant frequency of a crystal? A. external components B. the temperature of the crystal C. the size and thickness of the crystal material D. the hermitic seal ANSWER: C 154. Type o