Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

9 3 3 7 2 4 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions : 120 vuqer le; % 90 feuV D29MYX6ECNS02 ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120

Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % _______________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k: _______________________

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : ____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke %

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrkkj _______________________ dk fujhkd ds gLrkkj _______________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in

different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE– 1 : The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate. IMPORTANT NOTE– 2 : Candidates must ensure that their biometric thumb impression has been taken. This is candidates responsibility to give their biometric impression. In case you fail to do so, You may be debarred from selection process.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it. 7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material

is NOT allowed inside the examination hall. 8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No

other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. 9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take

this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDEDIRECTIONS: (Question No. 1 & 2) Study the following information and answer the questions given below it.

A blacksmith has five iron articles M, N, O, P and Q each having a different weight.

• M weighs twice as much as N. • N weighs four and a half times as much as O. • O weighs half as much as P. • P weighs half as much as Q. • Q weighs less than M but more than O.

1. What of the following is the lightest in weight? (1) M (2) N (3) P (4) O

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 1 ,oa 2½ fuEufyf[kr lwpukvksa dks i<+sa vkSj uhps fn;s

x, ç”uksa dk mÙkj nsaA

,d yksgkj ds ikl çR;sd fofHkUu Hkkj okyh ik¡p ykSg oLrq,a M, N, O, P ,oa Q gSaA

• M] N ds Hkkj dk nqxquk gSA

• N] O ds Hkkj dk 4.5 xquk gSA • O] P ds Hkkj dk vk/kk gSA

• P] Q ds Hkkj dk vk/kk gSA

• Q] dk Hkkj M ls de gS ysfdu O ls vf/kd gSA

1. dkSu Hkkj esa lcls gYdk gS\

(1) M (2) N (3) P (4) O

2. Which of the following articles is the heaviest in weight? (1) N (2) O (3) M (4) Q

2. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lh oLrq lcls Hkkjh gSa\

(1) N (2) O (3) M (4) Q

3. Identify the odd one on the basis of games: (1) Jwala Gutta (2) P.V. Sindhu (3) Vinesh Phogat (4) Saina Nehwal

3. [ksyksa ds vk/kkj ij fo’ke dks igpkusa%

(1) Tokyk xqêk (2) ih-oh- flU/kw (3) fous”k QksxV (4) lk;uk usgoky

4. Who was recently appointed as lieutenant Governor of Puducherry? (1) Virendra Kataria (2) Ajay Kumar Singh (3) Kiran Bedi (4) None of these

4. vHkh gky gh esa fdls iqMqpsjh dk ys¶VhusUV xoZuj fu;qä fd;k x;k%

(1) fojsUæ dVkfj;k (2) vt; dqekj flag

(3) fdj.k csnh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

5. Who among the following has recently sworn in as chief minister for the record sixth time? (1) Mamata Banerjee (2) J. Jayalalithaa (3) P. Vijayan (4) Sarbananda Sonowal

5. fdls vHkh gky gh esa fjdkWMZ NBoha ckj ,d eq[;ea=h ds :i esa “kiFk

fnyk;k x;k%

(1) eerk cutÊ

(2) ts- t;yyhrk

(3) ih- fot;u

(4) ljcuUnk lksuksoky

6. Who is the chief justice of India at present? (1) Mr. Justice Anil R. Dave (2) Mr. Justice T.S. Thakur (3) Mr. Justice H.L. Dattu (4) Mr. Justice R.M. Lodha

6. orZeku esa dkSu Hkkjr ds eq[; U;k;k/kh”k gSa\

(1) fe- tfLVl vfuy vkj- nos

(2) fe- tfLVl Vh-,l- Bkdqj

(3) fe- tfLVl ,p-,y- nÙkw

(4) fe- tfLVl vkj-,e- yks/kk

7. The supreme court of India recently appointed Justice R.M. Lodha panel to oversee the: (1) Functions of Medical Council of India (2) Functions of Board of Control for Cricket in India (3) Functions of TRAI (4) Monitoring of medical exam through NEET

7. gky gh esa loksZPp U;k;ky; us tfLVl vkj-,e- yks/kk iSuy dks

fdldh fuxjkuh ds fy, fu;qä fd;k gS%

(1) Hkkjrh; fpfdRlk ifj’kn ds dk;ks± dh

(2) Hkkjrh; fØdsV fu;a=.k cksMZ ds dk;ks± dh

(3) TRAI ds dk;ks± dh (4) NEET ds ek/;e ls gkus okys esfMdy ijhkk dh ekWfuVfjax ds fy;s

8. What was the name of the movement started by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan against British? (1) Red Shirt (2) Quit India (3) Khilafat (4) Gaddar

8. vaxzstksa ds fo:) [kku vCnqy x¶Qkj [kku kjk çkjEHk fd;s x;s

vkUnksyu dk D;k uke Fkk\

(1) yky dqrÊ (2) Hkkjr NksM+ks (3) f[kykQr (4) xnj

9. Gatiman Express runs between- (1) Delhi to Agra (2) Ahmadabad to Mumbai (3) Delhi to Chandigarh (4) Ahmadabad to Pune

9. xfreku ,Dlçsl pyrh gS%

(1) fnYyh ls vkxjk

(2) vgenkckn ls eqEcbZ

(3) fnYyh ls p.Mhx<+

(4) vgenkckn ls iq.ks

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–1 ]

10. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is: (1) 100 km/h. (2) 110 km/h. (3) 120 km/h. (4) 130 km/h.

10. ,d jsyxkM+h ,d dkj ls 50% rhoz ;k=k djrh gSA nksuksa ,d gh

le;] ^A* fcUnq ls pyuk vkjaHk djrh gSa vkSj fcUnq ^B* ij tks fd

^A* fcUnq ls 75 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gS] ,d gh le; ij igq¡prh gSaA jkLrs esa] jsyxkM+h us fofHkUu LVs”ku ij :dus esa yxHkx 12.5 feuV yxk,A dkj dh xfr gS%

(1) 100 fdeh-@?kaVk (2) 110 fdeh-@?kaVk (3) 120 fdeh-@?kaVk (4) 130 fdeh-@?kaVk

11. ASSERTION (A):- The President is a part of Parliament. REASON (R):- A bill passed by two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President. (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

11. n`<+ksfDr ¼,½% jk’Vªifr laln dk ,d fgLlk gSA

rdZ ¼vkj½% laln ds nksuksa lnuksa kjk ikfjr fo/ks;d jk’Vªifr dh

lgefr ds fcuk dkuwu ugha cu ldrkA

(1) A rFkk R & nksuksa lgh gS vkSj R] A dk lgh Li’Vhdj.k gS (2) A rFkk R nksuksa lgh gS ysfdu R] A dk lgh Li’Vhdj.k ugha gS (3) A lgh gS ysfdu R xyr gS

(4) A feF;k gS ysfdu R lgh gS

12. The average temperature of a town in the first four days of a month was 58°C. The average temperature for second, third, fourth and fifth days was 60°C. If temperature on the first and fifth days was in the ratio 7:8, then what was the temperature on the fifth day? (1) 64°C (2) 62°C (3) 56°C (4) None of these

12. ,d dLcs dk vkSlr rkiØe eghus ds igys pkj fnuksa esa 58°C FkkA

vkSlr rkiØe nwljs] rhljs] pkSFks ,oa ikapos fnu ds fy;s 60°C FkkA

;fn çFke ,oa ikapos fnu ds rkiØe dk vuqikr 7:8 Fkk] rks ikapos fnu rkiØe D;k Fkk\

(1) 64°C (2) 62°C (3) 56°C (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

13. Total salary of three persons A, B and C are ` 1,44,000. They spend 80%, 85% and 75% respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8:9:20, find C’s salary: (1) ` 48,000 (2) ` 64,000 (3) ` 40,000 (4) ` 32,000

13. rhu O;fä A, B ,oa C dk dqy osru ` 1,44,000 gSA os Øe”k% 80%, 85% ,oa 75% O;; djrs gSaA ;fn muds cpr dk vuqikr

8:9:20 gS] rks C dk osru Kkr djsa%

(1) ` 48,000 (2) ` 64,000 (3) ` 40,000 (4) ` 32,000

14. In which state India’s premier satellite launching station SRIHARIKOTA is located: (1) Tamilnadu (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Kerala (4) Karnataka

14. Hkkjr ds fdl çns”k esa çeq[k mixzg ykWfpax LVs”ku JhgfjdksVk fLFkr

gS%

(1) rfeyukMq (2) vkU/kz&çns”k

(3) dsjy (4) dukZVd

15. Which one of the following dam has been built on Mahanadi: (1) Bagalihar (2) Bansagar (3) Bhakra Nangal (4) Hirakud

15. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk cka/k egkunh ij cuk;k x;k gS%

(1) cxfygkj

(2) ckulkxj

(3) Hkk¡[kM+k ukaxy

(4) ghjkdqM

16. 8th Annual BRICS summit will be held in: (1) China (2) South Africa (3) India (4) Brazil

16. vkBoha okf’kZd BRICS f”k[kjokrkZ dgk¡ vk;ksftr gksxh\

(1) phu

(2) nfk.k vÝhdk

(3) Hkkjr

(4) czkt+hy

17. Tipu Sultan was ruler of: (1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai (3) Mysore (4) Vijaiwada

17. Vhiw lqYrku fdldk “kkld Fkk%

(1) gSnjkckn (2) enqjkbZ (3) eSlwj (4) fot;okM+k

18. Which countries parliament became first in the world to run fully on solar energy: (1) Russia (2) Germany (3) U.S.A. (4) Pakistan

18. fdl ns”k dk laln lkSj ÅtkZ ij pyus okyk fo”o dk igyk ns”k

cuk%

(1) :l (2) teZuh (3) ;w-,l-,- (4) ikfdLrku

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–2 ]

19. Canberra is the capital city of: (1) Australia (2) Austria (3) Bahamas (4) Bahrain

19. dsucsjk fdl ns”k dh jkt/kkuh gS\

(1) vkWLVªsfy;k (2) vkWfLVª;k

(3) cgkekl (4) cgjhu

20. If ‘yellow’ is called white, ‘white’ is called pink, ‘pink’ is called red, ‘red’ is called black, ‘black’ is called green, ‘green’ is called orange, then what is the colour of coal? (1) Red (2) Orange (3) Green (4) Black

20. ;fn ^ihys* dks lQsn dgrs gSa] ^lQsn* dks xqykch] ^xqykch* dks yky]

^yky* dks dkyk] ^dkyk* dks gjk] ^gjk* dks ukjaxh dgrs gSa] rks dks;yk

dk jax D;k gS\

(1) yky (2) ukjaxh (3) gjk (4) dkyk

21. A team can do a particular task in 10 days. Another team can do the same task in 20 days. In how many days will the job be finished, if both the teams work together?

(1) 236 days (2)

316 days

(3) 326 days (4)

346 days

21. ,d Vhe ,d fuf”pr dk;Z dks 10 fnuksa esa dj ldrh gSA ,d nwljh Vhe mlh dk;Z dks 20 fnuksa esa dj ldrh gSA ;fn nksuksa Vhe ,d lkFk feydj dke djsa rks og dk;Z dks fdrus fnuksa esa dj ysaxh\

(1) 236 fnu (2)

316 fnu

(3) 326 fnu (4)

346 fnu

22. Puttingal Devi Temple of Kerala where recently fire tragedy took place, is located at: (1) Alleppy (2) Munnar (3) Kollam (4) Trivendrum

22. dsjy esa iqfÙkaxy nsoh dk efUnj tgk¡ vHkh gky gh esa ,d nq?kZVuk

?kfVr gqbZ] dgk¡ ij fLFkr gS\

(1) ,Yysih (2) eqékj (3) dksYye (4) f=osUæe

23. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest? (1) Character, file, record, field, database (2) Character, record, field, file, database (3) Character, field, record, file, database (4) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database

23. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkoZ MkVk rRoksa dks fuEure ls fo”kkyre Øe esa

j[krk gS\

(1) djSDVj] Qkby] fjdkMZ] QhYM] MkVkcsl

(2) djSDVj] fjdkMZ] QhYM] Qkby] MkVkcsl

(3) djSDVj] QhYM] fjdkMZ] Qkby] MkVkcsl

(4) fcV] ckbV] djSDVj] fjdkMZ] QhYM] Qkby] MkVkcsl

24. The hair of shaving brush clings together when removed from water due to: (1) Surface tension (2) Viscosity (3) Elasticity (4) Friction

24. ikuh ls gVk;s tkus ij nk<+h cukus okys cz”k ds cky vkil esas fdl

dkj.k fpid tkrs gSa%

(1) i`’Bh; ruko

(2) “;kurk

(3) çR;kLFkrk

(4) ?k’kZ.k

25. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of: (1) Odisha (2) Karkartaka (3) Assam (4) Kerala

25. ;kxu fdl jkT; dk ,d çfl) u`R; gS%

(1) vksfMlk

(2) dukZVd

(3) vle

(4) dsjy

26. The tide produced in an ocean when the pull on the Earth by the Sun and Moon is unidirectional is called: (1) High tide (2) Spring tide (3) Neap tide (4) Low tide

26. tc lw;Z ,o¡ pUæek dk f[kpk¡o i`Foh ij ,d fn”kh; gks rks lkxj esa

mRiUu gksus okyk Tokj HkkVk gksrk gS%

(1) Tokj HkkVk

(2) c`gn Tokj HkkVk

(3) y?kq Tokj HkkVk

(4) fuEu HkkVk

27. The maintenance charges for 35 residents for 24 days is ` 6,300. In how many days will the maintenance charges be ` 3,375 for 25 residents? (1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) None of these

27. 35 fuokfl;ksa dk 24 fnuksa ds fy;s j[k&j[kko ykxr ` 6,300 gSA 25 fuokfl;ksa ds fy;s ` 3,375 dh j[k&j[kko ykxr fdrus fnuksa ds fy;s gksxh\

(1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–3 ]

28. If ‘SPARK’ is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for ‘FLAME’? (1) GNAMF (2) GMBNO (3) GMBNF (4) GMCMF

28. ;fn ^SPARK* dks ^TQBSL* dksM fd;k tkrk gS] rks ^FLAME* dks D;k dksM djsaxs\

(1) GNAMF (2) GMBNO (3) GMBNF (4) GMCMF

29. Simplify 0.9 –[2.3 – 3.2 – (7.1 – 5.4 – 3.5)] (1) 0.18 (2) 1.8 (3) 0 (4) 2.6

29. 0.9 –[2.3 – 3.2 – (7.1 – 5.4 – 3.5)] dks ljy djsa%

(1) 0.18 (2) 1.8 (3) 0 (4) 2.6

30. 2022 Common Wealth Games will be hosted by: (1) Durban (2) Gold Coast (3) Victoria (4) Kingston

30. 2022 dkWeu osYFk xsEl dh estckuh fdlds kjk dh tk;sxh% (1) Mjcu

(2) xksYM dksLV

(3) foDVksfj;k

(4) fdaXlVu

31. A number ‘a’ is short of ‘b’ by 40%. By what percent is ‘b’ in excess of ‘a’?

(1) %3166 (2) %266

3

(3) %6166 (4) None of these

31. ,d la[;k ^a*] ^b* ls 40% de gSA ^b* ^a* ls fdruh çfr”kr vf/kd gS\

(1) %3166 (2) %

3266

(3) %6166 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

32. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, result obtained is 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is: (1) 81 cm (2) 72 cm (3) 48 cm (4) None of these

32. ;fn ,d xksys dk vk;ru blds i`’Bh; ks=Qy ls foHkkftr fd;k

tkrk gS rks ifj.kke 27 cm vkrk gSA rks xksys dh f=T;k gS%

(1) 81 cm (2) 72 cm (3) 48 cm (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: Complete the Series in the following figures. / funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr vkÑfr dh Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsaA

33. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

?

33. (1) (2) (3) (4)

34. Find the wrong number in the series. 12, 237, 406, 527, 604, 657 (1) 406 (2) 604 (3) 657 (4) None of these

34. J`a[kyk esa xyr la[;k igpkusaA

12, 237, 406, 527, 604, 657 (1) 406 (2) 604 (3) 657 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

35. Select the choice that represents the given number the best. 1 7 2 5 5 5 2: (1) N P N R R R S (2) A B C D E F F (3) N N P Q Q R S (4) A B C D D D C

35. ml fodYi dks pqus tks nh gqbZ la[;k dk loZJs’B izfrfuf/kRo djrk

gks%

1 7 2 5 5 5 2: (1) N P N R R R S (2) A B C D E F F (3) N N P Q Q R S (4) A B C D D D C

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–4 ]

GENERAL ENGLISH

36. Pick the word spelt incorrectly – (1) Foreigner (2) Intresting (3) Dangerous (4) Farmer

37. Pick the synonym of ‘Hope’ – (1) Accept (2) Expect (3) Except (4) Imagine

DIRECTIONS: Identify the tense in the following sentence.

38. I had never been visited by him before: (1) Past perfect tense (2) Past perfect continuous tense (3) Past Indefinite Tense (4) Past continuous tense

DIRECTIONS: Change the following sentence into reported speech and mark the correct option among the choices given:

39. I said to him, “your brother is a brave boy”. (1) I told him that his brother was a brave boy. (2) I told him that your brother was a brave boy. (3) I asked him that his brother is a brave boy. (4) I inquired him that his brother is a brave boy.

40. Identify the wrong sentence: (1) The sun rises in the east. (2) Honey is sweet. (3) Fortune favoured the brave. (4) The next flight is at 7:00 tomorrow morning.

DIRECTIONS: Select the nearest Antonyms of the following word out of the given choices.

41. ARROGANT (1) Proud (2) Rude (3) Servile (4) Humble

DIRECTIONS: Fill in the blank with correct preposition.

42. The tiger was moving _____ the herd of buffaloes. (1) About (2) Towards (3) By (4) After

DIRECTIONS: Fill in the blank with correct preposition.

43. A sub inspector is two ranks _____ a D.S.P. (1) Below (2) Under (3) Down (4) Little

DIRECTIONS: Choose the correct antonym of word given in bold in the following question.

44. Indulge (1) Regress (2) Abstain (3) Deter (4) Imbibe

45. Find the odd one out on the basis of singular and plural: (1) Measles (2) Mumps (3) Rickets (4) Spectacles

36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–5 ]

TECHNICAL (APTITUDE)46. Sum of all currents meeting at a point is zero. Stated

law is: (1) Kirchhoff's first rule (2) Kirchhoff's third rule (3) Kirchhoff's fourth rule (4) Kirchhoff's second rule

46. ,d gh fcanq ij feyus okyh lHkh /kkjkvksa dk ;ksx “kwU; gSA of.kZr

fu;e dk uke gS%

(1) fØ[kkWQ dk igyk fu;e

(2) fØ[kkWQ dk rhljk fu;e

(3) fØ[kkWQ dk pkSFkk fu;e

(4) fØ[kkWQ dk nwljk fu;e

47. What is the source of heat generation in cables? (1) Copper loss in conductor (2) Dielectric losses in cable insulation (3) Losses in metallic sheathings and armouring (4) All of these

47. dscyksa esa Å’ek dh mRifRr dk lzksr D;k gksrk gS\

(1) pkyd esa rkacs dh gkfu

(2) dscy fo|qrjks/ku esa ijkoS|qr gkfu;ka

(3) /kkfRod vkoj.kksa vkSj dopuksa esa gkfu;ka

(4) ;s lHkh

48. CRO gives the visual representation of time varying signals. The display of the signal is: (1) One dimensional (2) Two dimensional (3) Three dimensional (4) Four dimensional

48. CRO le; ifjorhZ ladsrksa dh n`”; izLrqfr djrk gSA ladsr dk

fun”kZu gksrk gS%

(1) ,d foeh; (2) f foeh; (3) f= foeh; (4) pkj foeh;

49. In terms of the division on screen, the voltage of the waveform in CRO is: (1) Average voltage (2) RMS voltage (3) Peak to peak voltage (4) Maximum voltage

49. LØhu ij foHkktu ds vFkksZa esa] CRO esa rjax :i dh oksYVrk gksrh

gS%

(1) vkSlr oksYVrk (2) RMS oksYVrk (3) pjekarj oksYVrk (4) vf/kdre oksYVrk

50. In a HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero, is known as: (1) Arcing time (2) Total operating time (3) Pre-arcing time (4) Any of the above

50. HRC ¶;wt esa foPNsn vkSj vafre /kkjk “kwU; ds chp dk le; gksrk

gS%

(1) vkdZu dky (2) dqy izpkyu le; (3) vkdZu&iwoZ dky (4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ Hkh

51. A 1 henry inductance carrying a current of 3A will store energy of: (1) 3 watt (2) 9 watt–sec (3) 3 joules (4) None of these

51. 3A /kkjk dk okgd ,d 1 gsujh izsjdRo fuEu dh ÅtkZ lafpr djsxk%

(1) 3 okV (2) 9 okV lsdaM (3) 3 twy (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

52. The r.m.s. value of an a.c. signal is 10V. It’s peak value will be: (1) 6.37V (2) 14.14V (3) 141V (4) None of these

52. a.c. ladsrd dk r.m.s. eku 10V gSA bldk pje eku gksxk%

(1) 6.37V (2) 14.14V (3) 141V (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

53. The direction of rotation of dc shunt motor can be reversed by interchanging: (1) The supply terminals (2) The field terminals (3) The armature terminals only (4) Either field or armature terminals

53. dc “kaV eksVj ds ?kw.kZu dh fn”kk dks fuEu dk varj fofue; djds

iyVk tk ldrk gS%

(1) vkiwfrZ VfeZuy

(2) ks=h; VfeZuy

(3) dsoy vkesZpj ds VfeZuy

(4) ks=h; vFkok vkesZpj VfeZuy

54. How many degrees of phase represents one full cycle? (1) 360 (2) 180 (3) 270 (4) 90

54. dyk dh fdruh fMfxz;ka ,d iw.kZ pØ dh ifjpk;d gSa\

(1) 360 (2) 180 (3) 270 (4) 90

55. In an induction motor, rotor speed is always: (1) Less than the stator speed (2) More than the stator speed (3) Equal to the stator speed (4) None of these

55. ,d izsj.k eksVj esa] jksVj dh pky gksrh gS lnSo%

(1) LVsVj dh pky ls de

(2) LVsVj dh pky ls vf/kd

(3) LVsVj dh pky ds cjkcj

(4) bueas ls dksbZ ugha

56. Which of the following is an unexcited single phase synchronous motor? (1) A.C. series motor (2) Universal motor (3) Reluctance motor (4) Repulsion motor

56. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d vuqRrsftr ,dy dyk rqY;dkfyd eksVj gS\

(1) AC Js.kh eksVj (2) lkoZf=d eksVj (3) izfr’VEHk eksVj (4) izfrd’kZ.k eksVj

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–6 ]

57. Which instrument is used for measuring the Insulation Resistance of the new installations? (1) Multimeter (2) Megger (3) Ohm meter (4) Energy meter

57. ubZ LFkkiukvksa ds fo|qr&jks/ku izfrjks/k dks ekius ds fy, dkSu&ls

midj.k dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) eYVhehVj (2) esxj (3) vkseehVj (4) ÅtkZ ehVj

58. 4 cells each of emf E are connected in series. The effective emf of combination will be: (1) E (2) 4E (3) E/4 (4) 4/E

58. 4 lsyksa dks ftueas ls izR;sd emf E dk gS] Js.kh esa tksM+k tkrk gSA bl ;ksfxd dk izHkkoh emf gksxk%

(1) E (2) 4E (3) E/4 (4) 4/E

59. In which combination, Ammeter is connected with circuit: (1) Series (2) Sometime series, sometimes parallel (3) Parallel (4) None of these

59. dkSu&lh lfEefyr la;kstu esa ,sehVj dks ifjiFk ds lkFk la;ksftr

fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) Js.kh

(2) dHkh Js.kh dHkh lekukarj

(3) lekukarj

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

60. A power transistor is a: (1) Three layer, three junction device (2) Three layer, two junction device (3) Two layer, one junction device (4) Four layer, three junction device

60. ,d fo|qr ¼ikoj½ VªkaftLVj gksrk gS%

(1) f=&Lrjh;] f=&laf/k;qDr midj.k

(2) f=&Lrjh;] f&laf/k;qDr midj.k

(3) f&Lrjh;] ,dy laf/k;qDr midj.k

(4) pkj Lrjh;] f=&laf/k;qDr midj.k

61. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers? (1) Electro-magnetic (2) Electro-pneumatic (3) Pneumatic (4) Vacuum

61. fuEu esa ls dkSu ifjiFk fo;kstdksa ds fy, laifdZ= dh dksfV ugha gS\

(1) fo|qr&pqacdh; (2) fo|qr&okfry (3) okfry (4) fuokZr

62. The losses occurring in the rotor of an induction motor are less than those in the stator because of: (1) Small diameter of rotor (2) Less rotor frequency (3) Slot skewing (4) None of these

62. izsj.k eksVj esa jksVj esa gksus okyh gkfu;ka LVsVj dh rqyuk esa de gksrh

gaaSa D;ksafd%

(1) jksVj dk NksVk O;kl (2) U;wu jksVj vko`fRr

(3) LykV Ldhfoax (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

63. In a transformer, with change in frequency: (1) Copper losses increase (2) Copper losses decrease (3) Copper losses remain unchanged (4) None of these

63. VªkalQkeZj esa vko`fRr esa cnyko ds lkFk%

(1) rkacs dh kfr;ka c<+ tkrh gSa

(2) rkacs dh kfr;ka de gks tkrh gSa

(3) rkacs dh kfr;ka vifjofrZr jgrh gSa

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

64. In case a synchronous motor starts but fails to develop full torque, the probable cause could be: (1) Low excited voltage (2) Reverse field winding (3) Open or short circuit (4) Any of the above

64. ;fn ,d rqY;dkfyd eksVj pkyw gksrh gS ysfdu iwjk cy vk?kw.kZ ugha

mBk ikrh gS rks bldk laHkkfor dkj.k gks ldrk gS%

(1) U;wu mRrsftr oksYVrk

(2) O;qrØfe; ks=h; yisVu

(3) eqDr vFkok y?kq ifjiFk

(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ,d

65. In dc machines the plane passing through the axis of the armature and through center of contact of the brushes is known as: (1) Geographic plane (2) Magnetic plane (3) Commutating plane (4) Geometrical plane

65. dc e”khuksa esa vkesZpj dh vk vkSj czq”kksa ds laidZ ds dsUnz ds ek/;e

ls xqtjus okyk lery dgykrk gS%

(1) HkkSxksfyd lery (2) pqacdh; lery (3) fnd~ifjorhZ lery (4) T;kferh; lery

66. Field systems of the cylindrical rotor alternators are wound in the ____: (1) Slots of the rotor (2) Slots of the stator (3) Slots of the rotor and stator both simultaneously (4) On the commutating poles

66. csyukdkj jksVj vkYVjusVjksa dh ks=h; iz.kkfy;ka --- dqaMfyr gksrh gSa%

(1) jksVj ds LykVksa esa

(2) LVsVj ds LykVksa esa

(3) jksVj vkSj LVsVj & nksuksa ds LykVksa ,d lkFk

(4) fnd~ifjorZd /kqzoksa ij

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–7 ]

67. The resistance which is the property of opposing the current to flow depends up on its: (1) The material or the specific resistance (2) The area of cross-section (3) Its length and the temperature (4) All of these

67. izfrjks/k] tksfd /kkjk ds izokfgr gksus ds izfrdwy ,d xq.k gS og fuEu

ij fuHkZj djrk gS%

(1) lkexzh vFkok fof”k’V izfrjks/k

(2) vuqizLFk ifjPNsn dk ks=

(3) bldh yackbZ vkSj rkieku

(4) ;s lHkh

68. Charged atom is called: (1) Molecule (2) Ion (3) Nucleus (4) Orbit

68. vkosf”kr ijek.kq dgykrk gS%

(1) v.kq (2) vk;u

(3) ukfHkd (4) dkk

69. Which motor has more starting torque: (1) Slip ring motor (2) Squirrel cage (3) Induction (4) D.C. Series

69. dkSu&lh eksVj esa vf/kd izorZu cy vk?kw.kZ gksrk gS\

(1) lihZ oy; eksVj (2) fiatjh (3) izsj.k (4) D.C. Js.kh

70. The resistance of a 100W, 200V lamp is: (1) 100Ω (2) 200Ω (3) 400Ω (4) None of these

70. ,d 100W, 200V ySai dk izfrjks/k gksrk gS%

(1) 100Ω (2) 200Ω (3) 400Ω (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

71. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances? (1) Ohm's law method (2) Wheat-stone bridge method (3) Raleigh method (3) Lorentz method

71. izfrjks/kksa ds ije ekiu ds fy, dkSu&lh fof/k dk iz;ksx fd;k tk

ldrk gS\

(1) vkse fu;e fof/k (2) OghV&LVksu lsrq fof/k (3) jsys fof/k (4) yksjsaV~t fof/k

72. Galvanizing is the coating of: (1) Lead (2) Chromium (3) Brass (4) Zinc

72. ;”knhdj.k ¼xSYosukbts”ku½ fuEu dk ysi gksrk gS%

(1) lhlk (2) Øksfe;e (3) ihry (4) tLrk

73. The regulation of a transformer is least affected by changes in frequency at: (1) Leading power factor (2) Lagging power factor (3) Unity power factor (4) All of these

73. VªkalQkeZj fuEu LFkku ij vko`fRr esa ifjorZu gksus ij U;wure

izHkkfor gksrk gS%

(1) vxz “kfDr xq.kd (2) i”p “kfDr xq.kd (3) bdkbZ “kfDr xq.kd (4) ;s lHkh

74. LED is a: (1) Thermistor (2) Transistor (3) Gate (4) P-N diode

74. LED gksrk gS ,d% (1) FkfeZLVj (2) VªkaftLVj (3) kj (4) P-N Mk;ksM

75. The eddy current losses in the transformer occurs in: (1) Primary winding (2) Core (3) Secondary winding (4) None of these

75. VªkalQkeZj esa Hkaoj /kkjk kfr;ka fuEu esa gksrh gS%

(1) izkFkfed yisVu (2) dksj (3) frh;d yisVu (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

76. In 3–phase system phase voltage differ by: (1) 180° (2) 120° (3) 90° (4) None of these

76. ,d 3-dyk iz.kkyh esa dyk oksYVrk esa fuEu varj vk ldrk gS%

(1) 180° (2) 120° (3) 90° (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

77. Which of the following is heaviest? (1) Molecule (2) Atom (3) Electrons (4) Protons

77. fuEu esa ls dkSu lcls vf/kd Hkkjh gS\

(1) v.kq (2) ijek.kq (3) bysDVªksu (4) izksVksu

78. The material which has zero temperature coefficient of resistance is: (1) Manganin (2) Porcelain (3) Carbon (4) Aluminum

78. lkexzh ftldk izfrjks/k xq.kkad “kwU; rkieku gS] gS%

(1) eSaxfuu (2) iksflZysu (3) dkcZu (4) ,sY;wehfu;e

79. Constantan contains: (1) Copper & nickel (2) Copper & tungsten (3) Tungsten & silver (4) Silver & tin

79. dkULVsUVu esa “kkfey gksrk gS%

(1) rkack vkSj fudy (2) rkack vkSj VaXLVu

(3) VaXLVu vkSj pkanh (4) pkanh vkSj fVu

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–8 ]

80. Alternators are rated in: (1) kVA (2) kW (3) kVAR (4) None of these

80. vkYVjusVj fuEukuqlkj fu/kkZfjr fd, tkrs gSa%

(1) kVA (2) kW (3) kVAR (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

81. The form factor of a sine wave is equal to: (1) Irms/Iav (2) Iav/2 (3) Irms/2 (4) None of these

81. lkbu rjax dk vkd`fr xq.kd fuEu ds lerqY; gS%

(1) Irms/Iav (2) Iav/2 (3) Irms/2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

82. If four capacitors 16µF each is connected in series, their resultant capacity will be: (1) 64 µF (2) 8 µF (3) 32 µF (4) None of these

82. ;fn pkj la/kkfj=ksa dks] ftuesa ls izR;sd 16µF dk gS] Js.kh esa tksM+k tkrk gS] mudh ifj.kkeh kerk gksxh%

(1) 64 µF (2) 8 µF (3) 32 µF (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

83. Star/Delta starter is used in a: (1) D.C. shunt motor (2) Three phase induction motor (3) D.C. series (4) All of these

83. LVkj@MsYVk LVkj dk iz;ksx fuEu esa fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) D.C. “kaV eksVj (2) f=dyk izsj.k eksVj (3) D.C. Js.kh (4) ;s lHkh

84. In a balanced 3–phase star connected system the relation between phase voltage and line voltage is: (1) Vph=√3 VL (2) VL=√3 Vph

(3) Vph= VL/√2 (4) None of these

84. ,d larqfyr f=&dyk rkjk la;ksftr iz.kkyh esa dyk oksYVrk vkSj ykbu

oksYVrk ds chp dk laca/k gS%

(1) Vph=√3 VL (2) VL=√3 Vph

(3) Vph= VL/√2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

85. In a centre tap full wave rectifier, 100 V is the peak voltage between the centre tap and one of the secondary. What is the maximum voltage across the reverse biased diode? (1) 200 V (2) 141 V (3) 100V (4) None of these

85. ,d e/; VSi iw.kZ rjax fn’Vdkjh esa e/; VSi vkSj ,d frh;d ds

chp 100 V pje oksYVrk gSA izfrykse vfHkur Mk;ksM ds vkj&ikj

vf/kdre oksYVrk D;k gS\

(1) 200 V (2) 141 V (3) 100V (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

86. A modern power semi-conductor device that combines the characteristics of BJT and MOSFET is: (1) GTO (2) FCT (3) IGBT (4) MCT

86. ,d vk/kqfud fo|qr v/kZpkyd midj.k ftlesa BJT vkSj MOSFET dh fo”ks’krk,a “kkfey gSa] gS%

(1) GTO (2) FCT (3) IGBT (4) MCT

87. The electrical power in the circuit can be expressed as _____: (1) Voltage multiplied by the current (2) Voltage squared divided by the resistance (3) Current squared multiplied by the resistance (4) All of these

87. ifjiFk esa fo|qr “kfDr dks ------ ds :i esa O;Dr fd;k tk ldrk gS%

(1) oksYVrk dks /kkjk ls xq.kk djds

(2) oksYVrk ds oxZ dks izfrjks/k ls foHkkftr djds

(3) /kkjk ds oxZ dks izfrjks/k ls xq.kk djds

(4) ;s lHkh

88. Power factor of the magnetizing component of a transformer is: (1) Unity (2) 0.8 legging (3) Always leading (4) Zero

88. VªkalQkeZj ds pqacdh; ?kVd dk “kfDr xq.kd gksrk gS%

(1) bdkbZ (2) 0.8 i”p (3) lnSo vxz (4) “kwU;

89. A choke coil is used for controlling current in an: (1) AC circuit only (2) DC circuit only (3) Both AC & DC circuits (4) Integrated circuit

89. pksd dkW;y dk iz;ksx fuEu esa /kkjk dks fu;af=r djus ds fy, fd;k

tkrk gS%

(1) dsoy AC /kkjk (2) dsoy DC /kkjk (3) AC rFkk DC nksuksa ifjiFk (4) lesfdr ifjiFk

90. Coulomb’s law for the force between electric charges most closely resembles with: (1) Newton’s law of motion (2) Law of conservation of energy (3) Gauss theorem (4) Newton’s law of gravitation

90. oS|qr vkos”kksa ds chp cy ds fy, dwyke fu;e vR;ar fudVrk ls

fuEu tSlk yxrk gS%

(1) U;wVu dk xfr fu;e

(2) ÅtkZ lajk.k fu;e

(3) xkml izes;

(4) U;wVu dk xq#Ro fu;e

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–9 ]

91. Four point DC motor starter is used to start and run the ______: (1) Synchronous motor (2) DC compound/shunt motors (3) Hysteresis motor (4) DC series motor

91. --------- eksVj dks pkyw djus vkSj pykus ds fy, pkj fcanq DC eksVj LVkVZj dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) rqY;dkfyd eksVj (2) DC ;kSfxd@”kaV eksVj (3) fgLVsjsfll eksVj (4) DC Js.kh eksVj

92. The lightning arrester, generally installed ______: (1) At the top of the building (2) At the bottom of the building (3) In the center of the building (4) Away from the building

92. rfM+r fujks/kd vkerkSj ij -------- LFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) Hkou ds “kh’kZ ij

(2) Hkou dh ryh ij

(3) Hkou ds dsUnz ij

(4) Hkou ls nwj

93. A triac is a: (1) Two terminal switch (2) Two terminal bilateral switch (3) Three terminal unilateral switch (4) Three terminal bidirectional switch

93. ,d Vªk;d gS%

(1) 2 VfeZuy fLop (2) 2 VfeZuy fikh fLop (3) 3 VfeZuy ,dikh fLop (4) 3 VfeZuy f&fn”kkRed fLop

94. DC armature winding are of ______ types: (1) Lap winding and distributed (2) Concentrating and distributed (3) Diamond and Concentrating (4) Lap and Wave

94. DC vkesZpj yisVu -------- dksfV;ksa dk gksrk gS%

(1) ySi yisVu vkSj foHkkftr

(2) ladsUnz.k vkSj foHkkftr

(3) ghjk vkSj ladsUnz.k

(4) ySi vkSj rjax

95. An ideal current source should have: (1) Zero internal resistance (2) Infinite internal resistance (3) Large value of emf (4) None of these

95. ,d vkn”kZ /kkjk lzksr esa gksuk pkfg,%

(1) “kwU; vkarfjd izfrjks/k

(2) vuar vkarfjd izfrjks/k

(3) emf dk fo”kky eku (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

96. Hysteresis loss in a magnetic materials depends upon: (1) Area of hysteresis loop (2) Frequency of reversal of field (3) Volume of magnetic material (4) All of these

96. pqacdh; lkexzh esa fgLVsjsfll kfr fuEu ij fuHkZj djrh gS%

(1) fgLVsjsfll ik”k dk ks=

(2) ks= ds mRØe.k dh vko`fRr

(3) pqacdh; lkexzh dk vk;ru

(4) ;s lHkh

97. Methods of improving power factor: (1) Static capacitor (2) Synchronous condenser (3) Use of phase advancers (4) All of these

97. “kfDr xq.kd lq/kkjus dh fof/k;k¡ gSa%

(1) LFkSfrd la/kkfj=

(2) rqY;dkfyd nzof.k=

(3) dyk vxzdkjh dk ç;ksx

(4) ;s lHkh

98. At high frequency, value of inductive reactance: (1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains the same (4) Depend upon voltages

98. mPp vko`fRr ij izsjd izfr?kkr dk eku%

(1) c<+ tkrk gS

(2) ?kV tkrk gS

(3) oSlk gh jgrk gS

(4) oksYVrkvksa ij fuHkZj djrk gS

99. An electric lamp is marked 100W, 220V, the resistance of the filament will be: (1) 22Ω (2) 200Ω (3) 484 Ω (4) None of these

99. ,d fctyh ds ySai dks 100W, 220V ds :i esa fpfg~ur fd;k tkrk gS] fQykesaV dk izfrjsk/k gksxk%

(1) 22Ω (2) 200Ω (3) 484 Ω (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

100. The number of negative plates in lead cell are: (1) One less than the positive plate (2) One more than the positive plate (3) Equal to the positive plate (4) There is no such restriction

100. lhlk lsy esa _.kkRed IysVksa dh la[;k gksrh gS%

(1) /kukRed IysV ls ,d de

(2) /kukRed IysV ls ,d vf/kd

(3) /kukRed IysV ds cjkcj

(4) ,slk dksbZ izfrca/k ugha gS

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–10 ]

101. The cell in which the chemical reaction is not reversible is known as: (1) Secondary cell (2) Primary cell (3) Voltaic cell (4) Edison cell

101. ,slk lsy ftleas jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k vizfrØE; ugha gksrh] dgykrk

gS%

(1) frh;d lsy (2) izkFkfed lsy (3) oksYVh; lsy (4) ,sfMlu lsy

102. Ohm’s law deals with the relation between: (1) Charge and resistance (2) Charge and capacity (3) Current and voltage (4) Capacity and potential difference

102. vkse dk fu;e fuEu ds chp laca/k ls tqM+k gqvk gS%

(1) vkos”k vkSj izfrjks/k

(2) vkos”k vkSj kerk

(3) /kkjk vkSj oksYVrk

(4) kerk vkSj foHko varj

103. An alternating e.m.f. is applied to a pure capacitance such that the capacitive reactance is 10r. If the frequency of a.c. is doubled, the resistance will become: (1) 5Ω (2) 10Ω (3) 15Ω (4) None of these

103. ,d vkYVjusfVax e.m.f. ,d fo”kq) la/kkfj= ij ykxw fd;k tkrk gS

ftlls /kkfjrk izfr?kkr 10r gks tkrk gSA ;fn a.c. dh vko`fRr nqxqquh

dj nh tk, rks izfrjks/k gks tk,xk%

(1) 5Ω (2) 10Ω (3) 15Ω (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

104. An ideal current source has zero: (1) Internal conductance (2) Internal resistance (3) Voltage on no load (4) Ripple

104. ,d vkn”kZ /kkjk lzksr dk gS “kwU;%

(1) vkarfjd pkydrk

(2) vkarfjd izfrjks/k

(3) “kwU; Hkkj ij oksYVrk

(4) ÅfeZdk

105. Which of the following has non-linear V-I characteristics: (1) Vacuum diode (2) Transistor (3) Filament (4) All of these

105. fuEu esa ls fdlesa vjSf[kd V-I fo”ks’krk,a gSa% (1) fuokZr Mk;ksM (2) VªkaftLVj (3) fQykesaV (4) ;s lHkh

106. An ideal diode is: (1) Current controlled resister (2) Voltage controlled resister (3) Neither current controlled nor voltage controlled resister (4) Non–liner time varying resister

106. ,d vkn”kZ Mk;ksM gksrk gS%

(1) /kkjk fu;af=r izfrjks/kd

(2) oksYVrk fu;af=r izfrjks/kd

(3) u /kkjk fu;af=r u oksYVrk fu;af=r izfrjks/kd

(4) vjSf[kd le; ifjorhZ izfrjks/kd

107. In three phase star connections, line voltage is the same as: (1) Phase voltage (2) 1/√3 phase voltage (3) √3 please voltage (4) 3 phase voltage

107. f=dyk LVkj la;kstuksa esa oksYVrk uhps of.kZr ftruh gksrh gS% (1) dyk oksYVrk (2) 1/√3 dyk oksYVrk (3) √3 dyk oksYVrk (4) 3 dyk oksYVrk

108. Unit of electro static flux density is: (1) Farad/meter (2) Coulomb/sq. m (3) Weber/sq. m (4) None of these

108. fLFkj oS|qr ¶yDl ds xq#Ro dh bdkbZ gksrh gS% (1) QSjkM@ehVj (2) dwyke@oxZ ehVj (3) oscj@oxZ ehVj (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

109. One volt is same as: (1) One joule (2) One coulomb (3) One joule/coulomb (4) One coulomb/joule

109. ,d oksYV fuEu tSlk gh gksrk gS% (1) ,d twy (2) ,d dwyke (3) ,d twy@dwyke (4) ,d dwyke@twy

110. In a uniform electric field, field lines and equipotentials: (1) Are parallel to one another (2) Intersect at 30°(3) Intersect at 45°(4) Are orthogonal

110. ,d ,dleku fo|qr ks= esa] ks=h; ykbusa vkSj lefoHko%

(1) ,d&nwljs ds lekukarj gksrs gSa

(2) 30° ij izfrPNsfnr djrs gSa (3) 45° ij izfrPNsfnr djrs gSa (4) ykafcd gksrs gSa

111. The law that the induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them, is due to: (1) Lenz (2) Newton (3) Coulomb (4) Faraday

111. fu;e tks izsfjr emf vkSj /kkjk lnSo mUgsa mRiUu djus okys dkj.k

dk fojks/k djrk gS] og fuEu dkj.k ls gS%

(1) ySat (2) U;wVu (3) dwyke (4) QSjkMs

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–11 ]

112. Inside a hollow spherical conductor: (1) Electric field is zero (2) Electric field is constant (3) Electric field changes with the magnitude of the

charge given to the conductor (4) Electric field changes with the distance from the center

of the sphere

112. ,d [kks[kys xksyh; pkyd ds Hkhrj% (1) fo|qr ks= “kwU; gksrk gS

(2) fo|qr ks= fLFkj gksrk gS

(3) fo|qr ks= pkyd dks fn, tkus okys vkos”k dh ek=k ds vuqlkj

cnyrk gS

(4) fo|qr ks= xksyd ds dsUnz ls nwjh ds vuqlkj cnyrk gS

113. The starting torque of an induction motor is maximum when: (1) Rotor resistance equals rotor reactance (2) Rotor resistance is twice the rotor reactance (3) Rotor resistance is 1/2 the rotor reactance (4) Rotor resistance is √2 times rotor reactance

113. ,d izsj.k eksVj dk izkjafHkd cy vk?kw.kZ rc vf/kdre gksrk gS tc%

(1) jksVj izfrjks/k jksVj izfr?kkr ds lerqY; gks

(2) jksVj izfrjks/k jksVj izfr?kkr ls nqxquk gks

(3) jksVj izfrjks/k jksVj izfr?kkr dk 1/2 gks (4) jksVj izfrjks/k jksVj izfr?kkr dk √2 xquk gks

114. If fuse blows at the starting of DC Motor, the probable cause could be: (1) Low capacity of the fuse (2) Overload (3) Short–circuit in the starter resistance (4) Any of the above

114. ;fn DC eksVj ds pkyw gksus ds lkFk gh ¶;wt ty tkrk gS] rks laHkkfor dkj.k gks ldrk gS%

(1) ¶;wt dh U;wu kerk

(2) vfrHkkj

(3) LVkVZj izfrjks/k esa y?kq iFk

(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ,d

115. A pulse transformer uses: (1) Ferrite core (2) Air core (3) Iron core (4) Copper core

115. Lian VªkalQkeZj fuEu dk iz;ksx djrs gSa% (1) QsjkbZV dksj (2) ok;q dksj (3) ykSg dksj (4) rkack dksj

116. Load saturation characteristics of a dc generator gives relation between: (1) E and If (2) V and If (3) V and Ia (4) None of these

116. dc tsujsVj ds Hkkj lar`fIr fo”ks’krk,a fuEu ds chp dk laca/k iznku djrh gS%

(1) E rFkk If (2) V rFkk If (3) V rFkk Ia (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

117. Which loss in a transformer varies significantly with load? (1) Hysteresis loss (2) Eddy current loss (2) Copper loss (4) Core loss

117. VªkalQkeZj esa dkSu&lh kfr Hkkj ds vuqlkj vR;f/kd cnyrh gS\

(1) fgLVsjsfll kfr

(2) Hkaoj /kkjk kfr

(3) rkack kfr

(4) dksj kfr

118. The electric current flowing in a circuit is the ______: (1) Random movement of the electrons (2) Movement of free electrons in one direction (3) Potential difference applied (4) Cross-section of the conductors used

118. fdlh ifjiFk esa izokfgr gksus okyh fo|qr /kkjk--------gksrh gS% (1) bysDVªksuksa dk ;kn`fPNd lapyu

(2) eqDr bysDVªksuksa dk ,d fn”kk esa lapyu

(3) vuqiz;qDr foHko varj

(4) iz;qDr pkydksa dk vuqizLFk ifjPNsn

119. In a junction diode: (1) The depletion capacitance increases with the increase

in the reverse bias (2) The depletion capacitance decreases with the

increase in the reverse bias (3) The depletion capacitance increases with the increase

in the forward bias (4) None of these

119. laf/k Mk;ksM esa% (1) O;qrØeh; vfHkufr esa o`f) ds lkFk vok; la/kkfjrk c<+ tkrh

gS

(2) O;qrØeh; vfHkufr esa o`f) ds lkFk vok; la/kkfjrk ?kV tkrh gS

(3) vxz vfHkufr esa o`f) ds lkFk vok; la/kkfjrk c<+ tkrh gS

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

120. Which of the following is not unit of flux? (1) Weber (2) Tesla (3) Maxwell (4) All of these

120. fuEu esa ls dkSu ¶yDl dh ,d bdkbZ ugha gS\ (1) oScj (2) Vslyk (3) eSDloSy (4) ;s lHkh

(SET-02) [ 9 3 3 7 2 4 ] D29MYX6ECN [ A–12 ]

egRoiw.kZ%& fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh

ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh

ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ

deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zoskd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa

fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV & 1 % vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh

tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh

,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

egRoiw.kZ uksV & 2 % vH;FkÊ ;g lqfuf”pr djsa fd mudk v¡xwBs dk fu”kku ck;ksesfVªd e”khu kjk fy;k x;k gSA ck;ksesfVªd e”khu ij

v¡xwBs dk fu”kku nsus dh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA vxj vki bls nsus esa vlQy jgrs gSa] rks vkidks p;u çfØ;k ls oafpr

fd;k tk ldrk gSA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. dk&fujhkd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrkkj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrkkj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijhkk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks

Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A

5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i

ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx

ijhkk dk esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU;

dkx+t ij bls djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijhkk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zoskd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx

vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk dks ijhkk dk ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh

dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= fHkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij

ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA