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AIR INDIA Examination paper 2009
OBJECTIVE TEST BOOKLET
Test Battery Number Booklet Series
C
2 9 1
Test Form No. Test-Booklet Serial No.
26642
1 7 2
1. This Test-Booklet consists of an objective type of test having questions on Intelligence, Reasoning, General Awareness, General English, Electronics, Electrical Engineering, Computer Applications, Information technology, Physics. Tele-communication and Mathematics. There are 100 questions in total in the test and duration of the test is two hours.
2. You have to answer these questions on an Answer-Sheet which is given to you separately. Write your roll number on the Answer-Sheet at the appropriate place and blacken from H.B. Pencil the corresponding circle in it.
3. On the top right hand corner of the cover page of you Test-Booklet, Booklet series is printed as A. In the Box for Booklet Series in your Answer-Sheet, blacken circle with your HB pencil. Similarly on the left hand corner of the cover pager of your Test-Booklet, Test Form No. is printed, blacken from H.B. pencil the corresponding circles in the Box for Test Form No. in your Answer-Sheet. Please make sure that you do not blacken more than one circle in any column. The three circles blackened by you, one in each column below the Test Form No., in your Answer-Sheet should tally with the Test Form No. as printed to you Test-Booklet.
4. Don’t forget to mention the Test Battery Number and Test-Booklet Serial Number which are printed on the cover page of your Test-Booklet, at the indicated places in you Answer-Sheet.
5. You had already written the category to which you belong in your Application From. Therefore leave the rectangle for Category, blank in you Answer-Sheet.
6. Also leave the Rectangles X1 and X2 blank in you Answer-Sheet.
7. For each question in you Test-Booklet, four alternative answer numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4) are given. Of these four alternative answers only one alternative answer is the correct answer to each question. Your task in this test is to find out this correct answer and to show it in SIDE-2 of you Answer-Sheet by blackening with an H.B. pencil, the circle having the alternative number of your choice under the corresponding serial number of the question. If you want to change the answer given by you earlier for a question, then erase the black mark made by you earlier in the alternative for that question, leaving no impression at all and make a fresh mark in the alternative of you new choice. For any question, if more than one circle are found blackened, the machine will allot zero mark to such an answer.
8. There is a provision to answer 200 questions on SIDE-2 of your Answer-Sheet but as there are only 100 questions in total in the test, use the space for the first hundred questions in SIDE-2 of your Answer-Sheet to mark your answers and leave the remaining space blank.
9. Before beginning to answer the questions please make sure that all the entries in your Answer-Sheet have been duly completed. Any carelessness in this regard may jeopardize your chances of selection.
10. Do not spend time on reading all the questions before beginning to answer them. Try the questions one by one and wherever you are not sure of the answer, pass one to the next question. If time permits, you may again try the left out questions.
11. For rough work, blank space has been provided on pages 2 and 23 of you Test-Booklet. Don’t make any mark elsewhere.
Note: In case of variation of any kind in the English and Hindi version of any question(s). English version will be considered as final.
AAI (ATC)-2009
1. Which of the following series observes the rule, “skip in between adjacent letter, increasing one letter each time to build a set of letters”?
A C F J L Q
B D G K P V
C E H L Q V
H I L P U Z
2. If in the following alphabet the first four letters are interchanged with the 2nd four letters, 3rd four letters are interchanged with the 4th four letters, 5th four letters are interchanged with the 6th four letters. What will be the 9th letter to the right of 18th letter from your right?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
M N
U
V
3. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain but the rest one is different. Find the one which is different from the rest three.
7359
1593
9175
3781
4. A girl moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 14 m. From there, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stood at that point. How far is the starting point (in metres) from where she stood?
3
4
10
11
5. In this question arithmetical symbols are denoted by capital letters as given below:
A→, B→>, C→=, D→<, E→Ž, F→¹ �Two formulae are given. Find the inference which is drawn from the given Formulae.
Formulae: 3x B 4y, 4y E 3z
3x C 3z 3x A 3z
3x B 3z
3x D 3z
6. Select one alternative in which the third statement is implied by the first two statements.
All oranges are black. All figs are oranges. So, all figs are black.
No man can fly. No kite can fly. So, all mean are kites.
All dogs are mad. All rich persons are mad. So, all rich persons are dogs.
All windows are dogs. Some doors are dogs. So, all windows are doors.
7. There is some relationship between the figures A and B given below. the same relationship exists between the figures C and one of the alternative figure (a), (b), (c) or (d). Choose that alternative figure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a.
b.
c.
d.
8. Out of the four figures given below, three are similar in a certain way. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
1.
2.
3.
4.
9. State the minimum number of straight lines required to make the figure given below:
1. 152. 16
3. 17
4. 18
10. A father tells his on, “I was of your present age when you were born”. If the father is 36 now, how old was the boy 5 years back?
1. 13
2. 15
3. 17
4. 20
11. In a certain code language. TRIANGLE is written as RSGBLHJF. How is CROWN written in that code?
1. ASNXL
2. ASMXM
3. ATMXL
4. ASMXL
12. Four Youngman, A, B, C and D are friendly with four girls P, Q, R and S. P and R are friends. C’s girl friend does not like P and R. Q does not care for C. B’s girls friend is friendly with P. P does not like A. Who does not like P and R?
1. A
2. Q
3. B
4. S
13. Two words given below have a definite relationship. Find out the alternative whose words have the same relationship.
Volcano: Lava
1. Vegetable : Gravy2. Surprise : Wonder
3. Laugh :Cry
4. Eyes : Tears
14. Find out the group of missing letters for the series given below:
a-caabc-bba-caab-abbab
1. babc2. bacc
3. aabc
4. abca
15. A story book for children has 8 stories. Each story is told in three more pages than the previous one. If the total number of pages in the book is 124, then in how pages has the sixth story been told?
1. 16
2. 18
3. 20
4. 22
16. Decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly know facts.
Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white.Conclusions:
1. Some blue are green2. Some white are green
3. Some green are not white
4. All white are blue.
a. Only 1 and 2 follow
b. Only 2 and 3 follow
c. Only 1 and 3 follow
d. Only 1 and 4 follow.
17. Three out of four pairs of numbers given in the alternatives below, have similar relationship. Found out the odd-man
1. 1 : 11
2. 7 : 23
3. 11: 31
4. 13: 37
18. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
A.
1.
2.
3.
4.
18. The set of figures X, Y and Z shows a sequence of folding a piece of paper. Fig (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose as figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig (Z).
1.
2.
3.
1.
2.
3.
4.
19. Count the number of cubes in the figure given below:
1. 1442. 150
3. 158
4. 168
20. The prominent nationalist write in Marathi was
1. Lakshminath Bezbarua
2. Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar
3. Subrahmanyam Bharti
4. Altaf Hussain Hali
17. Three out of four pairs of numbers given in the alternatives below, have similar relationship. Found out the odd-man
1. 1 : 11
2. 7 : 23
3. 11: 31
4. 13: 37
18. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
A.
1.
2.
3.
4.
18. The set of figures X, Y and Z shows a sequence of folding a piece of paper. Fig (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose as figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig (Z).
1.
2.
3.
1.
2.
3.
4.
19. Count the number of cubes in the figure given below:
1. 1442. 150
3. 158
4. 168
20. The prominent nationalist write in Marathi was
1. Lakshminath Bezbarua
2. Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar
3. Subrahmanyam Bharti
4. Altaf Hussain Hali
22. The highest mountain peak in India is
1. Nanga Parbat
2. Nanda Devi
3. Nilgiri
4. K-2
23. The first country-wide agricultural census in India was completed in
1. June, 1951
2. June, 1961
3. June, 1971
4. June, 1981
24. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Pimpri : Drugs
2. Sindri : Rubber Goods
3. Ballarpur : Leather
4. Shahabad : Fertilizer
25. Who was the first Indian woman to swim across the English Channel?
1. Rita Faria
2. Arti Saha
3. Shipra Dutta
4. Shanta Rangaswami
26. Which one of the following provides constitutional guarantee of personal freedom?
1. Quo Warranto
2. Mandamus
3. Certiorari
4. Habeas Corpus
27. The holy book of the Parsis is called
1. Ahura Mazda
2. Avestare-Zend
3. Ahirman
4. Zarathustra
28. The most populous of the Nordic countries is
1. Sweden
2. Norway
3. Switzerland
4. Denmark
29. ‘White Lily’ is the emblem of
1. Cyprus
2. Guinea
3. Greece
4. Italy
30. ‘OPEC’ stands for
1. Oil Producing European Countries
2. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
3. Oil and Petroleum Exploring Countries
4. Organization of Pacific Exploring Countries
31. Which of the following cities is situated on the banks of river Tiber?
1. Rome
2. Berlin
3. Peking
4. Tokyo
32. Chennai is hotter than Kolkata because
1. there is no mountain nearby it.
2. Chennai has sandy region everywhere.
3. Chennai is closer the sea than Kolkata.
4. Chennai is nearer to the Equator.
33. What is the distance of running in a Marathan race?
1. 26 miles
2. 26 miles 180 yards
3. 26 miles 385 yards
4. 26 miles 405 yards
34. C. Funk’s name has been associated with the research of which of the following?
1. Vitamins
2. Minerals
3. Carbohydrates
4. Proteins
35. Dar-es-Salaam is the capital of
1. Kenya
2. Tanzania
3. Libya
4. United Arab Emirates
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-37): Use the correct form of word given in the brackets from the choices to fill in the blank in the sentences.
36. The bride’s friends admired the …….. of the embroidery on her wedding dress. (fine)1. fine-drawn
2. finery
3. fineness
4. finity
37. His ………. attitude to the marvels of nature irritates me. (prose)
1. prosy
2. prosaic
3. prosaical
4. prosing
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-39): From the choice given below, select the correct preposition to fill in the blanks.
38. The headmaster sent ………….. the two boys who were accused of bullying their classmates.
1. through
2. about
3. for
4. by
39. We cannot publish this story …… giving offence to some people.
1. by
2. beside
3. through
4. without
Directions (Q. Nos. 40-41): From the choices given below, fill in the blanks with the correct word or phase.
40. Since I have ..…….. some money, I have decided to leave my job.1. come down with
2. come through
3. come into
4. come upon
41. I am definitely not …………… the examination.
1. expecting
2. anticipating
3. looking forward to
4. awaiting
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44): From the choices given below, select the nearest meaning of the given phrase/idiom.
42. Make common cause with 1. side with or support
2. come to an agreement with
3. make similar observations as
4. find mutual friends
43. Bring down the house
1. scatter one’s belongings
2. create an unpleasant scene
3. elicit general and loud applause
4. rebuild one’s house
44. Burn the candle at both ends
1. overtax one’s energies
2. by unhealthy
3. overspend
4. overspeed.
Directions (Q. Nos. 45-47): From the choices given below, select the appropriate part of speech or figure of speech represented by the underlined word or phrase.
45. I retreated after I was told to mind my own business.1. Noun
2. Adverb
3. Adjective
4. Gerund.
46. The camel is the ship of the desert.
1. Oxymoron
2. Metaphor
3. Epithet
4. Metonymy
47. The teacher’s words were met with a deafening silence.
1. Hyperbolc
2. Epither
3. Metaphor
4. Oxymoron.
Directions (Q. Nos. 48-50): From the choices given below, select the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the given word/phrase.
48. testy1. quarrelsome
2. ittitable
3. inquisitive
4. miserly
49. esoteric
1. universal
2. simplistic
3. horrifying
4. taught to a select few
50. shamrock
o a musical genre
o a form of agate
o a musical instrument
o a plant
51. The Ruth’s criterion tells us the number of roots lying
o In the right half of s-plane
o In the left half of s-plane
o On the origin of s-plane
o None of the above
52. Which of the following characteristic equations represents a stable state?
o as2+bs+c=0
o as4+bs2+cs+d=0
o –as2+bs-c=0
o as2-bs-c=0
53. The common collector amplifier is also called emitter follower
o Emitter current follows the collector current
o Emitter voltage follows the collector voltage
o Emitter voltage follows the base signal voltage
o Emitter current follows the collector voltage
54. In an FET, transconductance gm is proportional to
o IDS
o
o
o I/IDS
55. The 3-dB frequency of an amplifier is one at which gain reduces to
o unity
o zero
o of its mid-band value
o Half of its mid-band value
56. Which of the following types of amplifier operations causes maximum distortion?
o Class A
o Class AB
o Class B
o Class C
57. Class B push pull amplifier suffers from
o inter modulation distortion
o cross-over distortion
o excessive harmonic distortion
o phase distortion
58. Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillations gives
o -Ab = 1
o Ab = 0
o Ab = 0
o A = 1/b
59. Low frequency response of an RC coupled amplifier can be improved by
o increasing the coupling capacitors only
o increasing the bypass capacitors only
o increasing both the coupling capacitor and bypass capacitor
o decreasing the bypass capacitor
60. An ideal Operational Transconductance Amplifier (OTA) has
o infinite Zin, infinite Z0
o infinite Zin, zero Z0
o zero Zin, infinite Z0
o zero Zin, zero Z0
61. The radiation resistance of folded dipole is approximately
o 75 W
o 150 W
o 300 W
o 377 W
62. IN IC timer 555, a low on pin 4 (reset) causes
o output state : low
o output state : high
o no effect on output
o toggle
63. Which one of the following is a privileged instruction?
o MOV B, A
o INT 21
o IN 08
o A D D B, A
(where A, B are CPU registers)
64. Which of the following items in the assembly language program is not converted in machine language?
o Privileged instructions
o Assembler directives
o Interrupt instructions
o Trap instruction
65. In assembly language:
Macro is more efficient than subroutine w.r.t. storage space and execution time.
Subroutine is more efficient than macro w.r.t. storage space and execution time
Macro is more efficient than subroutine w.r.t. execution time.
Subroutine is more efficient than macro w.r.t. execution time.
66. Conversion of 13,8125 in digital form is
1101.1011
1011.1011
1101.1101
1011.1111
67. In a full adder, there are
two binary number inputs and two outputs
three binary digital inputs and two binary outputs
three binary digit inputs and three binary digit outputs
none of these
68. For a Schmitt trigger, the upper and lower trip voltages are 3V and 1V, and high and low states are 15V and 2V. The output for a sinusoidal input of 10V peak will lie between
1 V and 3 V
2 V and 15 V
3V and 15 V
10 V and 15 V
69. The output of a circuit shown below is
o A pulse train of duration 0.5 seco A pulse train of duration 2 sec
o A pulse train of duration 1 sec
o A pulse train of duration 5 sec
70. The circuit shown below is a
o Half-wave rectifiero Average detector
o Peak detector
o Clamping circuit
71. A program that translated symbolically represented instruction into their binary equivalents is called
A loader
Assembler
Linker
Autoloader
72. Normally, a microprocessor cycles between
Fetch and Halt states
Fetch and Interrupt states
Fetch and Executes states
Half and Executes states
73. The voltage levels for a six-bit binary ladder are ‘0’ = 0V, ‘1’ = +10V. Its output for the input 101001 will be
0.423 V
0.552 V
0.641 V
0.9223 V
74. A mass of moment of inertia J is supported by a shaft of stiffness coefficient k and is rotated by a torque T through an angle. If the viscous frictional coefficient is B, the transfer function q(s)/T(s) of this rotational mechanical system is given by (assuming zero initial conditions)
75. In a feedback system, feedback factor of 0.1 is used with a forward gain of 10. The sensitivity of the system with respect to the feedback element is
-0.5
0.5
-0.9
+0.9
76. The impulse response of a system is h(t) is
inverse Laplace transform of the input excitation
inverse Laplace transform of its transfer function
inverse Laplace transform of inputs multiplied by the transfer function
None of these
77. The LINUX operating system is implemented as:
1. Monolithic architecture
2. Micro-kernel architecture
3. Virtual machine architecture
4. Multi-threaded micro-kernel architecture.
78. The characteristics equation of a system is given by s4+5s3+5s2+4s+k=0. The system is stable if ‘k’ lies in the range
1.
2.
3. 3 > k > 1
4. 4 > k > 3
79. In order that a feed back control system is stable the following applies:
1. roots of the characteristic questions should be locate din right half of the S-plane
2. roots of the characteristic questions should be located in left half of the S-plane excluding the poles on the imaginary excess
3. roots of the characteristic questions should be real and be located on left half of the S-plane excluding the imaginary excess
4. roots of the characteristic question should be located in left of the S-plane.
80. A phase-locked-Loop is useful for
1. FM demodulation
2. Rectification
3. Phase compensation
4. Ensuring stability of a loop
81. The random variable X is Gaussian distributed with zero mean and unit variance. What is the variance of a random variable Y. where Y=X–1?
1. 2.0
2. 3.0
3. zero
4. 1.0
82. The input to a stable and causal LTI system is a Gaussian process. The output process will be
1. Poisson
2. Gaussian
3. Weiner
4. None of the above
83. The frequency response of an ideal communication channel should have
1. flat amplitude response and linear decreasing phase response
2. flat amplitude response and flat phase response
3. linear decreasing amplitude response and linear decreasing phase response
4. linear decreasing amplitude response and flat phase response
84. The transmission bandwidth required for a single sideband (SSB) modulated signals is
1. two times bandwidth of modulating signal
2. three times bandwidth of modulating signal
3. same as bandwidth of modulating signal
4. half the bandwidth of modulating signal.
85. Which one of the following given the best error performance for the same average energy per bit?
1. 16QAM
2. 16ASK
3. 16PSK
4. QPSK
86. In sampling theorem. Nyquist interval T equals
1.
2.
3.
4.
87. For a periodic function, the spectral density and the auto-correlation functions are
1. Fourier transform pair
2. Laplace transform pair
3. One and the same thing
4. None of the above