njctlcontent.njctl.org/courses/science/biology/midterm/... · web view2014/01/22 · extinction of...

Multiple Choice Review

1. We know that the kinetic energy of an object can be calculated utilizing the formula KE = 1/2mv2. Suppose the KE of helium atoms is equal to the KE of iron atoms. Why might one have a much higher velocity than the other?

a. difference in number of protonsb. difference in number of electronsc. difference in atomic massd. difference in kinetic energy

2. Some characteristics are true for all elements on the periodic table. Which of the following statements accurately identifies one such characteristic?

a. The less mass the higher velocity, if all other conditions are equalb. The atoms from all elements are light enough to escape from Earth’s

atmosphere.c. All atoms found on Earth, were once found within stars d. Both A & C

3. Organic monomers may have originated on Earth, but may also have been brought to early Earth. What is one theory of how they might have been brought to Earth?

a. organic monomers were brought to Earth by alien plants and animalsb. organic monomers originated from stars that exploded long agoc. organic monomers were brought to Earth by meteoritesd. organic monomers were brought to Earth by comets.

4. Stanley Miller developed an experiment to test which hypothesisa. that organic monomers originated on Earthb. that organic monomers originated in starsc. that organic monomers were brought to Earthd. that organic monomers developed after cells

5. Ultimately, others have developed experiments expanding upon Stanley Miller’s work. In these more recent experiments, which of the following molecules have been produced?

a. Proteinsb. Cellsc. Sugarsd. All of the above

www.njctl.org Biology Midterm Review

6. If chemical evolution requires specific conditions, what are those conditions?a. oxygen present - inorganic molecules - adequate time - hydrogen and

helium in atmosphereb. oxygen absent- inorganic molecules present - high energy input -

adequate timec. oxygen absent - organic polymers present - low UV radiation -

adequate timed. oxygen present - organic polymers present - ozone present - adequate

time

7. Identify the process shown in the illustration below:

http://kasper-achs-block2.wikispaces.com

a. Dehydration synthesisb. Hydration synthesisc. Hydrolysisd. De-polymerization

8. One end of a phospholipid molecule forms hydrogen bonds with water. We can describe this end of the molecule as the _________________.

a. polar hydrophilic endb. polar hydrophobic endc. non-polar hydrophilic endd. non-polar hydrophobic end

9. Which of the characteristics of life relate to an organism’s change as it proceeds through a life cycle?

a. adaptationb. developmentc. sexual reproductiond. response


10. Which characteristic refers to regulation?a. Adaptationb. Environmental responsec. Adaptationd. Homeostasis

11. The extinction of the American mastodon occurred approximately 6,000 years ago. If the average human lifetime is 70 years, approximately how many lifetimes ago did these animals become extinct?

a. 8.6 lifetimesb. 86 lifetimesc. 420,000 lifetimesd. 4,200 lifetimes

Use the table provided below to answer questions 12, 13, and 14

Event Time Event Time

Formation of Earth 4.6 BYA Mammals 200 MYA

A. 3.6 BYA Birds 150 MYA

First Prokaryotic Cell 3.5 BYA D. 85 MYA

Photosynthesis (in Cyanobacteria)

3.0 BYA Dinosaurs Extinction 65 MYA

First Eukaryotic Cell (single celled)

2.0 BYA First Hominids (Genus Homo) 2.5 MYA

First Eukaryote (multi-cellular)

1.0 BYAFirst Homo habilis (species of hominid that made the first stone tools)

2.4 MYA

B. 600 MYA First Homo neanderthalensis 350,000 YA

Simple Animals in Oceans 600 MYA First Early Humans (Homo sapiens) 100,000 YA

Fish 500 MYAExtinction of Homo neanderthalensis

30,000 YA

First Vertebrate appears (fish)

480 MYA Extinction of Wooly Mammoth 10,000 YA

C. 360 MYA Extinction of America Mastodon 6, 000 YA

Reptiles 320 MYA The Fall of the Roman Empire 1,500 YA


12. LUCA existed during the time period markeda. Ab. Bc. Cd. D

13. The first single celled eukaryote occurred approximately ____________ years after the Earth was formed.

a. 3.6 billionb. 2.6 billionc. 2.6 milliond. 3.6 million

14. Approximately how long after the first vertebrates appeared, did dinosaurs become extinct?

a. 39.5 myb. 480 myc. 395 myd. 48.0 my

15. Amino acids have an identifiable structure. Which of the following accurately represents that structure?

a. ammonia - carbon group - side chainb. NO2 - COH - side chainc. NH3 - COOH - side chaind. N2OH- COOH - side chain

16. When proteins are formed , their monomers are linked together to form a _____________.

a. polypeptide b. monopeptidec. bipeptided. plurapeptide

17. Which of the following statements best describes the impact of the structure of proteins?

a. The structure of a protein is the major factor in its function.b. The structure of a protein has some impact on its function.c. The structure of a protein can change, without impacting its function.d. The structure of a protein results from being changed by enzyme

reactions.


18. Glucose is an example of a(n) __________________, and is a ___________________.a. inorganic molecule; carbohydrateb. carbohydrate; disaccharidec. protein; monocarbohydrated. carbohydrate; monosaccharide

19. Polysaccharides play important roles in cells. Which of the following correctly matches one type of polysaccharide with its primary function?

a. starch, storageb. starch, cell walls c. glucose, cell wallsd. cellulose, storage

20. There are five types of nitrogenous bases, four of which are found within DNA molecules. These are:

a. adenine, thymine, guanine, uracilb. adenine, uracil, guanine, cytosinec. adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanined. adenine, uracil, phosphate, ribose

21. The nucleotides of DNA pair bond utilizing ___________________ bonds. _____________ bonds with guanine and _________________ bonds with ________________.

a. oxygen; cytosine, adenine, uracilb. hydrogen; guanine, adenine, cytosinec. hydrogen; cytosine, adenine, thymined. helium; cytosine, adenine, thymine

22. The image below represents a(n) __________________ fatty acid, identifiable because of its _______________ bond(s).

a. saturated fat; single carbon b. saturated fat; double carbonc. unsaturated; double carbon d. unsaturated, single carbon


Use the table of results below to answer question 23

Results from an experiment testing for presence of specific chemicals. Indicators used are listed across the top of the chart.

unknown Lugol’s iodine Sudan stain Biuret reagent

1 positive Negative negative

23. The results of the lab tests performed (shown in the data table above) indicate that unknown #1 contains _______________. This is because the _________________ changed from light brown to blue black during the test.

a. proteins; Lugol’sb. sugars; Biuretc. starch; Lugol’sd. lipids; Lugol’s

24. The image below represents monomer of a nucleic acid. Which of the lists below accurately identifies the components of this monomer?

a. 1 = sugar; 2 = phosphate; 3 = baseb. 1 = base; 2 = sugar; 3 = phosphatec. 1 = phosphate; 2 = sugar; 3 = based. 1 = sugar; 2 = base; 3 = phosphate

25. Cell membranes allow some materials to pass freely, therefore, they are considered to be _____________________________

a. selectively permeableb. ionically permeablec. completely permeabled. protein permeable

Use the illustration below to answer


26. Using the information found within the illustration above, determine the concentration of NaCl outside of the cell and the concentration of NaCl inside of the cell.

a. Outside = 2.0g/ml; inside = 0.1g/mlb. Outside = 5.0g/ml; inside = 10.0g/mlc. Outside = 50.0g/ml; inside =1.0g/mld. Outside = 0.20g/ml; inside 0.10g/ml

27. Based upon the concentrations of NaCl inside and outside of the bag, the outside environment is considered to be ____________________ relative to the inside of the bag.

a. hypertonicb. isotonicc. hypotonicd. equatonic

28. A cell will likely shrink or shrivel up when placed into a ______________________ environment.

a. Hypotonicb. Hypertonicc. Isotonicd. Neutral tonic

29. What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?a. They both involved the movement of molecules from low

concentration to high concentration.b. They both involve the transport but facilitated diffusion requires

energy for movement across the cell membrane.c. They both involve the movement of molecules that require proteins

for movement across the cell membrane.d. They both involve the movement of molecules from high

concentration to low concentration.

30. What is the purpose of active transport if molecules can already move into and out of the cell by diffusion or facilitated transport?


60gNaCl300ml water

3g NaCl,30ml water

a. Some molecules must move down the concentration gradient and energy is required to accomplish this.

b. Water molecules need to move even when solutions are isotonic and energy is needed for this.

c. Some molecules must move against the concentration gradient and energy is needed to accomplish this.

d. Molecules that are too large to pass directly through the phospholipid membrane must use energy to pass through.

Cells are placed in a liquid environment. The concentration of glucose outside of the cells is 30mg/ml. The concentration of glucose inside of the cells is 3g/l. Use this information to answer questions 35 below:

31. Assuming the glucose is the only solute, in which direction will osmosis occur?

a. Water will diffuse into the cell.b. Water will diffuse out of the cell.c. Water is already in equilibriumd. The solute will move out of the cell.

32. The formation of a membrane has allowed cells to regulate materials coming into and out of the cell. This allows the cell to maintain _____________________.

a. an isotonic stateb. acidic pH c. isolationd. homeostasis

33. Molarity is one way to measure the concentration of a solution. We dissolve 0.15 moles of KMnO4 in 0.75 L of solution. What is the molarity of the solution?

a. 0.5Mb. 2.0Mc. 0.2Md. 5.0M

34. Which of the following characteristics are not associated with catalysts?a. Change G of the reactionb. Speed up reactionsc. Remain unchangedd. Lower activation energy


35. The graphs below show the same reaction, with the energy of activation required for each reaction. Which graph represents the reaction with the contribution of an enzyme?

http://cnx.org/content/m46004/latest/?collection=col11496/latest

a. a represents the reaction with the enzymeb. b represents the reaction with the enzymec. neither represents the reaction with the enzymed. both represent the reaction with the enzyme

36. How might a significant variation from the optimal temperature or pH affect an enzyme in a reaction?

a. The enzyme will perform faster if the pH and temperature are extremely high.

b. The enzyme will perform slower if the pH and temperature are extremely high.

c. Any significant variation will denature the enzyme.d. Any significant variation will cause dehydration synthesis in the

enzyme.

37. There are a few ways in which the human body will increase internal temperature above the normal 37o Celsius. Why might this potentially be a problem?

a. The optimal temperature for bacterial enzymes are 40oC and above.b. At 40oC and above, bacterial enzymes will be denatured.c. At 40oC and above, human enzymes will be denatured.d. The optimal temperature for viral enzymes are 40oC and above.




Use the data provided in the table below to answer this question:“Normal” values for human blood test for five indicators:

Partial pressure of oxygen 75-100 mmHgPartial pressure of carbon dioxide 38-42 mmHgArterial blood pH 7.38 – 7.42Oxygen saturation 94 – 100%Bicarbonate 22-28 mg/L

38. Based upon the data provided, enzymes found in our blood most likely have an optimal pH range, which is ___________________.

a. neutralb. basicc. acidicd. acidic or basic

39. The graph below shows the action of two enzymes, pepsin and trypsin, both of which are found in the human body. Trypsin is found primarily within the small intestine while pepsin is found within the stomach. What is the pH of the stomach and small intestine?

a. Both tend to be neutral environmentsb. The small intestine is acidic while the stomach is basicc. The small intestine is neutral while the stomach is basicd. The small intestine is neutral while the stomach is acidic

40. Which of the following is not true regarding the active site of an enzyme?a. It is specific to a substrateb. It may require a cofactorc. It can be denaturedd. It can be utilized only once


41. Which of the following best describes how a competitive inhibitor may affect the enzyme substrate complex?

a. A competitive inhibitor binds to non-active site obstructing the reaction.

b. A competitive inhibitor binds to a non-active site encouraging the reaction.

c. A competitive inhibitor binds to the active site encouraging the reaction.

d. A competitive inhibitor binds to the active site obstructing the reaction.

42. The image below represents a type of inhibition. Which type of inhibition is seen in this illustration?

a. Competitive inhibition b. Non-competitive inhibitionc. Accidental inhibitiond. Irreversible inhibition

43. Increasing the concentration of the substrate in the above situation will most likely

a. Inhibit the reactionb. Inhibit the enzyme’s functionc. Increase the enzyme concentrationd. Increase the rate of the reaction

44. Below is an illustration representing how a product of a reaction can have an impact on the reaction itself. What type of interaction is seen in this illustration?

a. Allosteric inhibitionb. Feedback activationc. Allosteric denaturationd. Feedback inhibition


45. What molecules and bonding connects one strand of DNA to another strand of DNA?

a. Purine and pyrimidine connected by hydrogen bondsb. Purine and purine connected by hydrogen bondsc. Pyrimidine and pyrimidine connected by hydrogen bondsd. Sugar and base connected by hydrogen bonds.

46. Both DNA and RNA contain codes for the production of molecules. Where is this code contained?

a. in the sequence of phosphate groupsb. in the sequence of amino acidsc. in the sequence of bases d. in the sequence of sugars

47. If one strand of DNA is A-A-T-C-C-C-T-G-A what is the base sequence of the complimentary strand of DNA?

a. A-A-U-G-G-G-U-G-Ab. A-A-T-C-C-C-T-G-Ac. U-U-A-C-C-C-U-G-Ad. T-T-A-G-G-G-A-C-T

48. In DNA replication, what is the template strand of a DNA molecule?a. This is the newly produced DNA strandb. This is the parent strand of DNAc. This is the parent strand of RNAd. This is the newly produced RNA strand

49. The illustration below shows a section of a single strand of a DNA molecule. To which end is the new DNA nucleotide attached, and what is this end of the DNA called?

a. End 1; this is the 3’ end of the strand.b. End 2; is the 3’ end of the strandc. End 1; this is the 5’ end of the strandd. End 2; is the 5’ end of the strand

50. Once RNA is produced, what is its function?a. to deliver sugar for metabolism to the

ribosomeb. to deliver the genetic code to the outside

of the cellc. to deliver the sugar to the mitochondriad. to deliver the genetic code to the

ribosome


51. When RNA is produced from a DNA template, there is a specific region just before the actual start of RNA production. What is this region called, and what is the process called?

a. Initiation region; translationb. Promoter; transcriptionc. Promoter; translationd. Initiation; RNA processing

52. The structure of proteins is directly related to their ability to perform their function(s) within the cell. Which of the following factors is the primary factor affecting protein structure?

a. sequence of amino acidsb. two dimensional shapec. where the protein is producedd. type of bonds between monomers

53. The process of using the information within mRNA to produce a protein is called

a. replicationb. translationc. transcriptiond. transduction

54. The mRNA base sequence is considered a code. Three bases are read at a time. What is this three base code called and what does it code for?

a. tri-code, DNAb. base coding, more RNAc. coding code, amino acidsd. codon, amino acids


The chart below shows the mRNA codes for amino acids. Use this chart to answer

http://www.oconee.k12.sc.us/webpages/tstanton/index.cfm?subpage=47164

55. A portion of an mRNA sequence to be “de-coded” is C-G-U-U-A-C-G-C-U What will the amino acid sequence be for the protein produced from this section of mRNA?

a. arginine, stopb. arginine, tyrosine, alaninec. alanine, methionine, arginined. alanine, tyrosine, alanine

56. Which of the following will be the amino acid sequence from the DNA template sequence of C-C-G-T-A-T-G-A-T ?

a. glycine, isoleucine, leucineb. proline, tyrosine, aspartatec. glycine, tyrosine, leucined. proline, isoleucine, aspartate

57. The central dogma of biology refers to which of the following?a. The concept that RNA leads to DNA, which leads to proteins through

transcription and translation.b. The concept that translation is the most important step in the process

of producing proteins from DNA and RNAc. The concept that proteins carry the same genetic code that originates

in the DNA.d. The concept that DNA, via transcription, results in RNA, which, via

translation, results in proteins.


58. Which of the following accurately reflects the central dogma of biology?a. Changes in proteins will affect DNA, but not the reverse.b. Changes to DNA will affect proteins, but not the reverse.c. Changes in proteins will affect RNA, but not the reverse.d. Changes in RNA will affect DNA, but not the reverse.

59. What is the primary role played by tRNA?a. It carries the protein away from the ribosome.b. It carries the mRNA to the ribosome.c. It brings an amino acid to the ribosome.d. It contains a codon for each amino acid.

60. What is the “A” site?a. A site within the ribosome where RNA processing occurs.b. A site within the ribosome where tRNA is produced.c. A site within the ribosome where amino acids are delivered.d. A site within the ribosome where the new protein is emerging.

61. The “codes” between the mRNA and tRNA are said to be complimentary. Which of the following best explains how this is utilized in the production of proteins?

a. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on tRNA, A with U and C with G.

b. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on the tRNA, A with A, U with U, C with C, and G with G.

c. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on the tRNA, A with T, and C with G.

d. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on the tRNA, A with A, T with T, C with C and G with G.

62. To code for a particular protein, a gene consists of 12,669 base pairs. Assuming that 3 base pairs code for the START and 3 base pairs code for STOP, approximately how many amino acids do we anticipate exist within the protein?

a. 4223 amino acidsb. 4,222 amino acidsc. 37,989 amino acidsd. 38,007 amino acids

63. The normal hemoglobin protein consists of 574 amino acids. Approximately how many base pairs (bp) code for this protein?

a. 191 bpb. 1,722 bpc. 287 bpd. 1,910 bp


Graph 1 Graph 2

http://funylool.com

64. Which of the following statements best characterizes anabolic and catabolic pathways?

a. Anabolic pathways break down molecules while catabolic pathways synthesize molecules

b. Anabolic pathways synthesize molecules while catabolic pathways break down molecules.

c. Both pathways synthesize molecules but do so in different ways.d. Both pathways break down molecules but do so in different ways.

65. Which of the reactions shown in the graphs below requires a net input of energy to proceed, and what type of reaction is this?

a. Graph 1, because it is an endergonic reactionb. Graph 1, because it is an exergonic reaction.c. Graph 2, because it is an endergonic reactiond. Graph 2, because it is an exergonic reaction

66. Cells are classified based upon a variety of characteristics, one of which is oxygen requirement. The following statements identify a type of cell and it’s oxygen requirement. Which of the following is accurate?

a. Obligate aerobes can survive in the presence or absence of oxygen.b. Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.c. Obligate aerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.d. Obligate anaerobes can survive in the presence or absence of oxygen.


The image below represents the steps of one of the processes of cellular respiration. Use this illustration to respond to the next two questions.

67. Identify the process shown in the image above.a. photosystem 2b. glycolysisc. electron transport chaind. citric acid cycle

68. How many net ATP are produced through the process shown in the image above?

a. 38b. 4c. 6d. 2

69. By the end of the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, one molecule of glucose has produced ATP. However, the vast majority of the potential energy is stored in the form of

a. ADP and FADb. CO2 and NADHc. NADH and FADH2

d. Pyruvate and NAD

70. Cellular respiration is made up of four stages. Which of the following lists 3 of these stages accurately and in the correct order?

a. Glycolysis, electron transport, Krebs cycleb. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chainc. Electron transport chain, glycolysis Krebs cycled. Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis


71. Anaerobic respiration occurs ____________________________________.a. when oxygen is presentb. when oxygen is absentc. when NAD is present d. when carbon dioxide is absent

72. Which of the following equations represents the reactants and products of the Light Dependent Reactions of photosynthesis?

a. 2H2O + 2NADP- + 3ADP + 3P O2 + 2NADPH + 3 ATPb. O2 + 2NADPH + 3 ATP light energy +2H2O + 3ADP + 3P c. C6H12O6 + 6O2 + light energy 6H2O + 6CO2

d. light energy + 6H2O + 6CO2 C6H12O6 + 6O2

73. The illustration below represents a process considered to be the first type of photosynthesis to originate.

Which system is utilized to perform the process shown in the image above?a. the mitochondriab. the chloroplastc. photosystem IId. photosystem I

74. Carbon fixing is best described as:a. Carbon dioxide, as a gas in the atmosphere, is converted into glucose.b. Oxygen is utilized to produce the carbon compound, glucose.c. The carbon compound glucose is utilized to produce oxygen gas.d. Carbon dioxide, as a gas in the atmosphere, is converted into free

carbon.


Use the image of the Calvin Cycle below to respond to question 78.75.To

make one glucose molecule, how many ATP, NADPH and CO2 molecules are needed?

a. 3CO2, 9ATP and 6NADPHb. 6CO2, 18ATP and 12NADPHc. 9CO2, 27ATP and 18NADPHd. CO2, 3ATP and 2NADPH

NAD+ and FAD are key molecules involved the process of cell respiration. Their chemical reactions are shown below. Use these equations to respond to questions 79 and 80.

NAD+ + 2H+ +2e- + energy NADH + H+

FAD + 2H+ +2e- + energy FADH2

76. When the reaction proceeds to the right, energy is:a. releasedb. createdc. destroyedd. stored

77. When the reaction proceeds to the left, and electrons are removed, this is referred to as the process of:


a. oxidationb. phosphorylationc. electronizationd. reduction

78. What role do enzymes play in the metabolism of a cell?a. They catalyze the steps of anabolic pathways allowing the release of

energy to power other reactions.b. They catalyze the steps of a pathway, allowing the pathway to proceed

more quicklyc. They catalyze catabolic pathways, as energy is required for the

reactions to occur.d. They catalyze the breakdown of molecules but not the synthesis of

molecules.

79. The production of lactic acid, such as in muscles after vigorous exercise, is an example of which of the following processes?

a. aerobic respirationb. fermentationc. cyclic energy transferd. Krebs cycle

80. What is the approximate percentage of ATP produced during the electron transport chain (oxidative phosphorylation) compared to that produced by all stages of aerobic respiration combined?

a. 5.5%b. 11.1%c. 89.5%d. 99.9%

81. If oxygen is present one NADH yields 3 ATPs and one FADH2 yields 2 ATPs. What combination of NADH molecules and FADH2 molecules listed below, will generate 60 ATP molecules?

a. 10 NADH + 10 FADH2

b. 10 NADH + 15 FADH2

c. 15 NADH + 10 FADH2 d. 5 NADH + 15 FADH2

82. The image below is a representation of the relationships of bacteria, archaea and eukaryotes.


http://www.sciencepartners.info/?page_id=348

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between these three domains?

a. Eukaryotes and bacteria are more closely related than eukaryotes and archaea.

b. Bacteria and archaea are both related to eukaryotes, which bacteria being more closely related to eukaryotes.

c. Bacteria and archaea are both related to eukaryotes, with archaea being more closely related to eukaryotes.

d. Bacteria and archaea are considered non-living, therefore are not closely related to eukaryotes.

83. Based upon the structure seen below, what is the genus name of this organism?

a. staphylococcusb. staphylobaccilic. streptococcusd. streptobacilli

84. Prokaryotic cells are similar to and yet different from eukaryotic cells. What are one major difference and one similarity?

a. Difference: Prokaryotic cells have a cell membrane; Same = both have cell organelles

b. Difference: Prokaryotic cell DNA is single stranded; Same = both have cell walls

c. Difference: prokaryotic cells have a single circular DNA chromosome; Same = both have cell membranes

d. Difference: eukaryotic cells are larger; Same = both have a nucleus

85. Plasmids are small circular pieces of DNA found within certain cells. How does the R plasmid benefit prokaryotes?


a. provides resistance to sexual reproductionb. provides resistance to certain antibioticsc. provides resistance to mutationsd. provides ability to produce ribosomes

86. If we assume that a bacterium can double every hour and all of the bacteria survive and reproduce at the same rate, how long will it take for one bacterium to reproduce into 500 bacteria?

a. Approximately 5 hoursb. Approximately 6 hoursc. Approximately 9 hoursd. Approximately 10 hours

87. A bacterial population doubles every 20 minutes. Assuming that the same pattern of bacterial reproduction continues, and we start with a population of 100 bacteria, what can we project the bacterial population to be after 80 minutes?

a. 400 bacteriab. 1,600 bacteria c. 800 bacteriad. 300 bacteria

88. The image below represents a particular section of a prokaryotic chromosome.

What is the role of the operator, as seen in the image above?a. The operator acts as an on/off switch.b. The operator is where the RNA polymerase binds.c. The operator is direct coding for the amino acid within the protein.d. The operator alone determines whether or not the protein will be

produced.

89. The normal populations of bacteria both on and in humans, exhibit what types of relationships with humans?

a. primarily parasitic and pathogenicb. primarily mutualistic and pathogenicc. primarily commensalistic and pathogenicd. primarily mutualistic and commensalistic


The image below illustrates the major steps of Griffith’s experiments. Use this image to respond to questions 93 and 94 below.

90. Frederick Griffith took the S (smooth) strain of bacteria from the dead mice seen in Experiment 2 above. He then killed the bacteria using heat. Why, then, were the mice in Experiment 3 able to survive?

a. The mice had developed a resistance to the S strain bacteria so they could not be affected.

b. The heat killed S strain could not produce any products in order to affect the mice.

c. The heat killed S strain shared genetic information causing the mice to resist the disease.

d. The heat killed S strain bacteria were non-pathogenic to begin with.

91. What were Griffith’s experiments designed to test?a. The hypothesis that one cell can transform another by sharing genetic

information, even if deadb. The hypothesis that mice are resistant to some bacteria but not to

others.c. The hypothesis that only living organisms can transfer genetic

material to other cellsd. The hypothesis that bacteria and viruses sometimes work together to

kill organisms.

92. Which of the following are characteristics of viruses?


a. They can only infect eukaryotic cells.b. They can infect any and all types of cells.c. They are living organisms, considered to be parasites.d. They use cellular materials from the host to reproduce.

93. Below is a list of steps associated with one type of life cycle of a phage. i. The particle releases its genetic instructions into the host cell.ii. The new particles break free from the host cell.

iii. A virus particle attaches to a host cell iv. The injected genetic material recruits the host cell's enzymes.v. The enzymes make parts for more new virus particles.

vi. The new particles assemble the parts into new viruses.

Which of the following correctly lists the order of these steps as shown above?

a. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vib. vi, i, ii, v, iii, ivc. ii, iv, vi, i, ii, iiid. iii, i, iv, v, vi, ii

94. Some bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics because of their external structure. Which type of bacteria is more susceptible?

a. Gram-positive bacteria b. Gram-negative bacteriac. They are equally susceptible.d. Gram-indeterminate

95. A certain bacterial strain is particularly virulent. They bacteria are able to divide every 20 minutes, at body temperature conditions. A woman has a small open cut on her leg, which is exposed to 100 of these bacteria. She does not wash her leg until she takes a shower 4 hours later. Estimate how many bacterial cells are embedded inside of her cut by the time she takes a shower.

a. 496b. 4,096c. 1,200d. 12,000


96. There are some structures that can be found in all cells, whether prokaryote or eukaryote, plant or animal. What are these four structures?

a. Chromosomes, ribosomes, cell wall, and a cell membrane.b. Cell organelles, ribosomes, vacuoles, and a cell membrane.c. DNA, lysosomes, ribosomes, and a cell membrane.d. Chromosomes, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane.

97. Eukaryotic cells contain DNA, and, therefore, genes. What portions of DNA are contained within each cell of a multicellular organism?

a. Each cell contains only the portions of the DNA material needed to perform its function.

b. Each cell contains all of the genes required for the entire organism, but only certain genes are expressed in each cell.

c. Each cell contains half of the total number of chromosomes of the eukaryotic organism.

d. Each cell contains all of the genes required for the entire organism, and so can change from one type of cell to another quickly.

98. When and where does mRNA processing occur?a. It occurs in the nucleus when transcription begins.b. It occurs in the cytoplasm after transcription is complete. c. It occurs in the nucleus after transcription is complete.d. It occurs in the nucleus during transcription.

99. What are the two primary steps of mRNA processing?a. alteration of the mRNA ends and removal of intronsb. Splicing of mRNA, removing exons and leaving introns.c. alteration of the mRNA ends and attachment of RNA polymerased. methylation of the RNA and degradation of RNA.


The illustration below represents an organelle, which is part of the endomembrane system. Use this illustration to respond to questions 103 and 104 below.

100. In the illustration above, substances arriving at the Golgi apparatus and then are leaving the Golgi apparatus. What is contained within the incoming transport vesicle, and where is it arriving from?

a. glycolipids, from the mitochondriab. sugars, from the chloroplastc. glycoproteins, from the rough ERd. RNA, from the nucleus

101. Once the Golgi apparatus has processed the incoming substances what can happen to these substances?

a. They go to smooth ER or rough ER for more processing, or to ribosomes to make proteins

b. They become a part of cell membrane, are secreted from cell, or are retained for cell use

c. They become a part of cell wall, move to the nucleus to produce more DNA, or are retained in the cell for cell use

d. They go to lysosomes or peroxisomes to break down materials, or go to ribosomes to make proteins

102. What role do lysosomes play within the cell?a. They carry sugars to help digest food materials within a vacuole.b. They can lyse part of the cell membrane to allow molecules to pass.c. They contain enzymes that can hydrolyze molecules.d. They contain proteins that can be used to synthesize other molecules.


b c da

103. Peroxisomes contain substances that perform a specific function for cells. What are these substances and what do they do?

a. They contain enzymes that hydrolyze hydrogen peroxide. b. They contain enzymes that synthesize hydrogen peroxide.c. They contain enzymes that change peroxide to hydrogen peroxide.d. They contain hydrogen and oxygen, to synthesize hydrogen peroxide.

104. For endocytosis and/or exocytosis to occur, what must be the structure of vesicles?

a. Their membrane is made up of a single layer of phospholipids.b. Their membrane is made up of a double layer of phospholipids.c. They must contain sugars needed for metabolism.d. They must contain enzymes to digest the cell membrane.

The illustration below represents three possible transport mechanisms through the plasma membrane.

Studyblue.com

105. Examples of types of transport across the cell membrane are shown in the illustration above. In which of these types of transport are molecules moved from lower concentration to higher concentration?

a. a.b. b.c. c.d. d.

106. In the illustration above, which type of transport could accurately represent the movement of water across the cell membrane?

a. a.b. b.c. c.d. d.


a1

107. Chloroplasts and mitochondria both play a role in energy processing for the cell. What are the roles that each of these organelles play?

a. Chloroplasts convert solar energy into chemical energy while mitochondria convert chemical energy into ATP.

b. Mitochondria convert solar energy into chemical energy while chloroplasts convert chemical energy into ATP.

c. Both convert chemical energy into ATP, but using different methods.d. Chloroplasts convert solar energy into ATP while mitochondria

convert chemical energy into heat.

Images of a mitochondrion and a chloroplast are shown below.

108. Which of the images above represents a mitochondrion and why?a. Image 2, because the highly folded structure allows both anaerobic

and aerobic respiration to occur.b. Image 2, because aerobic cell respiration occurs within the membrane

folds.c. Image 1, because photosynthesis occurs within the intermembrane

space.d. Image 1, because the aerobic reactions occur within the thylakoids.

109. How do plants cells communicate and transfer materials between cells?a. materials cannot pass between cells because of cell wallsb. adhering junctions fasten plant cells into sheets c. communicating gap junctions allow materials to pass d. plasmodesmata are channels between plant cells

110. What type of cell junction allows for passage of materials between animal cells?

a. plasmodesmata allow for transfer of materials between animal cellsb. gap junctions are totally leaky and allow substances to flow between

animal cellsc. tight junctions allow material to flow between animal cellsd. adhering junctions allow material to flow between animal cells


111. Based upon the animal cell vs. plant cell lab, and the images provided below, which photo represents a human check cell and why?

a. Cell 1, because you can see numerous ribosomes b. Cell 1, because the cells are not square shapedc. Cell 2, because there is no cell walld. Cell 2, because there are no chloroplasts seen

112. Which of the above cells would you expect to contain a central vacuole, and what is the purpose of this organelle?

a. Cell 1, serves as a storage location for starch b. Cell 1, helps maintain the turgor pressure of the cellc. Cell 2, contains food for the celld. Cell 2, expels excessive water from the cell


njctlcontent.njctl.org/courses/science/biology/midterm/... · web view2014/01/22 · extinction of...

Documents