Cloud Computing Questions 1. What is a key benefit of virtualization technology?

a. Capacity planning b. Flexible metering c. Policy complianced. Rapid elasticity

2. Which tool helps to create Cloud services? a. Service management tool b. Service creation toolc. Service monitoring toold. Service planning tool

3. Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?

a. Grid Computingb. Utility computingc. Virtualization d. Self provisioning

4. Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?a. Resource utilizationb. Resource pooling c. Resource planningd. Resource reservation

5. Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?a. Centralize services and resourcesb. Automate resource classificationc. Automate service provisioning d. Customize services and resources

6. Which is a benefit of RAID? a. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set b. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set c. Improves storage system performance d. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks

7. Which statement is true about FC SAN? a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DASb. Has limited ability to share resourcesc. Enables object level access to datad. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes

8. Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?

a. Manageabilityb. Availabilityc. Capacityd. Flexibility

9. Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

a. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level b. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drivec. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation d. Number of drives in a RAID set and Type of RAID implementation

10. Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?

a. Scalabilityb. Flexibilityc. Securityd. Availability

11. What is stored in virtual machine log file? a. Information of virtual machine’s activities b. Virtual machine’s RAM contentsc. Virtual machine BIOS informationd. Information of virtual machine’s configuration

12. Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual machine can consume?

a. Shareb. Limit c. Reservationd. Priority

13. Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?

a. Hyper-threading b. Multi-corec. Load balancingd. Ballooning

14. Which optimization technique is used to detect identical pages in the memory?

a. Transparent page sharingb. Memory ballooningc. Memory swapping

d. Cache flushing

15. Which is the primary function of hypervisor? a. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a

physical machine b. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual

machinec. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual

machined. Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users

16. Which method enables a virtual machine to directly access a LUN on a storage array?

a. File system lockingb. Virtual machine clusteringc. Raw device mapping d. Virtual storage mapping

17. What are the three major building blocks for automated storage tiering?

a. RAID type, storage type, policiesb. Storage type, storage group, policies c. Storage group, RAID group, storage typed. Storage group, RAID group, group policy

18. What is used to create secondary cache in cache tiering mechanism?a. DRAMb. FC drivec. Solid state drive d. SATA drive

19. When is thin LUN preferred over traditional LUN?a. Performance is predominant b. Security is more importantc. Storage space efficiency is paramount d. High availability is predominant

20. What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a time to a thin LUN from a thin Pool?

a. Thin LUN extent b. Thin LUN capacityc. Thin LUN factord. Thin LUN set size

21. Which is a benefit of network virtualization?a. Enhanced storm controlb. Increased resource acquisition

c. Improved manageability d. Better policy control

22. Which network parameter sets maximum data transfer rate across a virtual machine port group without queuing or dropping frames?

a. Burst sizeb. Peak bandwidth c. Shared. Limit

23. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?

a. Power and energyb. Management c. Infrastructure d. Operational

24. Which technique allows traffic from multiple VLANs to traverse over a single network connection?

a. NIC Teamingb. Multipathingc. Port groupd. Trunking

25. What is enabled by using NIC teaming? a. Balance traffic across physical serversb. Allocate bandwidth to traffic based on priority c. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a

physical NIC failure d. Transfer data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple

network links

26. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?

a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.b. Services are provisioned based on their demanc. Metering services are created when required from the resource

pools.d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource

usage.

27. Which correctly describes N_Port ID Virtualization technology?a. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual

N_ports b. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual E_ports

c. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical N_portsd. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical E_ports

28. What correctly describes application virtualization?a. Encapsulates operating system resources and the application b. Increases application and CPU utilizationc. Provides interoperability between different application versionsd. Breaks dependencies between application interface and

processing logic

29. What is true about application encapsulation?a. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machineb. Requires a built-in agent at the remote serverc. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS d. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a

built–in agent

30. What is true about application streaming?a. Requires no agent at client machineb. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a

built–in agent on the applicationc. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine d. All the data is delivered to the client after application starts

31. When is a connection broker a mandatory component of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure architecture?

a. Desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool b. High-end graphic applications are usedc. Additional security is requiredd. Dedicated desktop VM is assigned to each user

32. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?

a. On-premise Private Cloudb. External Private Cloudc. Public Cloudd. Hybrid Cloud

33. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy?

a. Software-as-a-Serviceb. Platform-as-a-Servicec. Infrastructure-as-a-Serviced. Virtualization-as-a-Service

34. What is true about virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?a. Involves hosting desktop which runs as hypervisor on the serverb. Requires hypervisor based VDI agent supportc. Each desktop has its own OS and applications in a VM on server d. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on client

machine

35. What is an advantage of image based backup approach?a. Single pass information collection b. Reduced RPOc. Eliminate site failuresd. Reduced VM failures

36. Which is true about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance mechanism?a. Both primary and secondary VMs share same virtual disks b. Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disksc. Only primary VM can access the shared virtual diskd. Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk

37. What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a virtual machine is reverted from its snapshot?

a. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot creation

b. Current guest OS configurations are preservedc. Reference VM Settings are used to configure guest OS d. Settings are lost and need manual configuration

38. What is the Cloud service model offered by Cloud Foundry?

a. Software-as-a-Serviceb. Platform-as-a-Servicec. Infrastructure-as-a-Service d. Virtualization-as-a-Service

39. What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a virtual machine after an array-to-array migration is performed?

a. Virtual disks are maintained at both source and target arraysb. Virtual disks are only maintained at the source arrayc. Virtual disks are deleted from the source array after they are

copied to the target arrayd. Virtual disks are deleted from both source and target arrays

40. Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new virtual machine (VM)?

a. VM template b. VM snapshot

c. VM cloned. VM backup

41. Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model?a. Operating systemb. Storage space c. Middlewared. Database

42. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Syncplicity?

a. Software-as-a-Serviceb. Platform-as-a-Servicec. Infrastructure-as-a-Serviced. Virtualization-as-a-Service

43. Which is an example of platform-as-a-service? a. EMC Atmos onlineb. Salesforce.comc. Google App Engine d. EMC Mozy

44. Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering? a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud b. Google App Enginec. Salesforce.comd. EMC Mozy

45. Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering? a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloudb. Google App Enginec. Microsoft Azure d. EMC Mozy

46. Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a group of organizations with shared concerns?

a. Private Cloudb. Hybrid Cloudc. Public Cloudd. Community Cloud

47. Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in Cloud?a. Management softwareb. Storage arrayc. Network identity pool d. Service catalog

48. Which option best describes ‘resource bundling’ in Cloud service creation procedure?

a. Bundling application, platform software, and migration toolsb. Integrating virtual machine, virtual network, and virtual volumec. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools

49. Which is a key activity in ‘problem management’? a. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possibleb. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures c. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDBd. Transferring problem history to incident management

50. Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing utilization of IT resources?

a. Service asset and configuration managementb. Financial managementc. Compliance managementd. Capacity management

51. Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?

a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers

b. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory, and storage capacityc. Create zone sets and include nodes into zonesd. Create virtual machines and allocate them specified resources

52. Which security mechanism provides an effective control for data confidentiality and integrity?

a. Copy and move restrictions b. Authorizationc. Trusted computing based. Encryption

53. What is the primary goal of a security audit? a. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement b. Evaluate effectiveness of data confidentialityc. Evaluate effectiveness of data integrityd. Evaluate effectiveness of data availability

54. Which security goal is achieved by data shredding technique? a. Preventing data lossb. Preventing data manipulationc. Ensuring data confidentiality d. Enabling data encryption

55. Which GRC process determines scope of adoption of Cloud services?a. Anti-virus protection measures in Cloudb. Business Continuityc. Risk Assessment d. Disaster management

56. How is intrusion detection implemented under software-as-a-service model?

a. Implemented by the Cloud Consumerb. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider c. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider and Consumer

togetherd. Implemented by a 3rd party provider

57. Which Cloud model is best suited for small and medium businesses?a. Publicb. Privatec. Hybrid d. Community

58. Which Cloud adoption phase enables consumer to explore the geographic location to store their data?

a. Assessment b. Proof of concept c. Migrationd. Optimization

59. Which Cloud migration strategy is recommended for tightly coupled applications?

a. Hybridb. Forklift c. Privated. Public

60. Which application is perceived as a good candidate for migrating to the public Cloud?

a. Proprietary and mission-critical applicationb. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical application c. Mission critical and I/O intensive applicationd. Mission critical and security sensitive application

61. What factor could lead to Cloud vendor lock-in for consumers?a. Lack of open standards in Cloud operationsb. Lack of security compliancec. Mission critical nature of the applicationsd. Performance sensitivity of the business operations

62. What is the process of grouping several smaller physical drives and presenting them to the host as one logical drive?

a. Partitioningb. LUN creationc. LUN maskingd. Concatenation

63. A company plans to hosts a video streaming application and you are asked to recommend a RAID level that can be used for this application. Which RAID level should you recommend?

a. 1b. 3c. 5d. 6

64. Which data access pattern has the most significant impact on performance due to slow seek times?

a. Random, large readsb. Random, small writesc. Sequential, large writesd. Sequential, small reads

65. What is the stripe width for a six disk RAID 6 LUN?

a. 3b. 4c. 5d. 6

66. Which storage array mechanism prevents two hosts from accessing the same LUN?

a. Virtual provisioningb. Partitioning c. Zoningd. LUN masking

67. Which statement applies to NAS?

a. General purpose server for block and content addressed datab. General purpose server for block and file level accessc. Specialized server for block and content addressed data

d. Specialized server for the file level data access

68. What is a benefit of VLAN?

a. Eliminates collisions within the collision domain b. Provides higher network bandwidthc. Enhances security by restricting user access d. Enables transmission of broadcast traffic from one VLAN to

another

69. Which best describes “business continuity?”

a. Operating the infrastructure in a degraded mode after a failure occurs

b. Securing the storage infrastructure from internal and external attacks

c. Recovering the systems, data, and infrastructure after a disaster that adversely affects business operations

d. Preparing for, responding to, and recovering from an application outage that adversely affects business operations

70. Which Cloud service model includes the complete stack provided as a service, including all the layers of the service model?

a. Software-as-a-Serviceb. Infrastructure-as-a-Servicec. IT-as-a-Serviced. Platform-as-a-Service

71. In which compute virtualization technique is the guest operating system kernel modified to eliminate the need for binary translation?

a. Paravirtualizationb. Software assisted virtualizationc. Hardware assisted virtualizationd. Full virtualization

72. A storage administrator wants to know about the current and historic utilization of storage in their data center. Which report will provide this information?

a. Routine reportb. Performance reportc. Chargeback reportd. Capacity planning report

73. A Cloud service provider is considering offering both a SaaS and a PaaS service to their customers. Would their security concerns about virtualization differ if they were to choose only one of these services, and why?

a. Yes; PaaS implementations require an API for authenticating users with external identity systems; SaaS implementations do not

b. Yes; SaaS implementations require an API to encrypt data at rest; PaaS implementations do not

c. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require that the customer is responsible for data security

d. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require the same attention to virtualization security

74. What is a primary goal of incident management?

a. Identifying the root cause of recurring incidents that exhibit common symptoms

b. Restoring Cloud services to consumers as quickly as possiblec. Analyzing incident history and identifying impending service

failuresd. Reporting incidents to the Cloud service provider

75. What are the two key expenses involved in running a business from the Cloud?

a. Migration and operational costsb. Infrastructure and management costsc. Backup and service deployment costsd. Management and compliance costs

76. Which mechanism enables a virtual machine to directly access LUNs in a storage system?

a. Virtual Machine File Systemb. Thin provisioningc. Raw Device Mappingd. Block-level virtualization

77. Which is used to statically identify a hardware port device in an FC SAN?

a. MACb. Channelc. WWNd. IP

78. Which is a benefit of automatic site failover capability in a data center environment?

a. Elimination of site failuresb. Reduced Recovery Point Objectivec. Elimination of Virtual Machine File System failuresd. Reduced Recovery Time Objective

79. What is a key performance consideration for migrating operations to the Cloud?

a. Resource utilization matrixb. Availability of different storage performance tiersc. Latency of the network between consumer and service providerd. Availability of target based de-duplication capability

80. Which statement is true about a Trunk link in a VLAN environment?

a. It transfers untagged Ethernet frames from different VLANsb. It is a single network connection that carries multiple VLAN trafficc. It is a dedicated link for transferring traffic belonging to a single

VLANd. It is a link between two virtual switches that carries tagged

Ethernet frames

2. Which is a characteristic of channel technology?a. Loose couplingb. Long distance transmissionc. Dynamic connection establishmentd. Low protocol overhead

3. Which is a best practice for selecting drives for a thin pool?a. Drive speed should be 15000 rpm or higherb. Drives should run at the same RPMc. The pool should be created from mix of FC, SATA, and Flash drivesd. Drives should be supplied by the same vendor

4. Which statement about Cache tiering is true?a. It increases the performance of the primary cacheb. It enables the use of solid state drives as secondary cachec. It enables the movement of data at the sub-LUN leveld. It increases the size of the primary cache

5. What is a limitation when using a backup agent on a hypervisor for backing up virtual machine data?

a. Backing up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using Raw Device Mapping is very slow

b. Backing up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System is very slow

c. It is not possible to back up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using Raw Device Mapping

d. It is not possible to back up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System

6. What enables a LUN that has more capacity than is physically allocated to be presented to a compute system?

a. Global namespace mappingb. Raw Device Mappingc. Virtual provisioningd. Automated storage tiering

7. What are the three building blocks of automated storage tiering?a. Storage type, storage group, storage poolb. Storage type, storage group, policyc. Storage pool, policy, storage groupd. Storage pool, policy, storage type

8. Which attack could enable an attacker to install a rogue hypervisor that can take control of the underlying server resources?

a. Side channel attackb. Hyperjackingc. VM theftd. VM escape

9. Which statement is true about User State virtualization?a. Operating system refreshes and migrations become easier to

deployb. Templates are used to create User Statesc. Common User States are used for all the desktopsd. User States are preserved as temporary files

10. Which Cloud service management process maintains information about used and available capacity of configuration items in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

a. Capacity Managementb. Service Asset and Configuration Managementc. Service Catalog Managementd. Availability Management

11. Which parameters need to be configured to control the resources consumed by virtual machines?

a. Share, Limit, and Reservationb. Threshold, Priority, and Sharec. Reservation, Threshold, and Priorityd. Limit, Reservation, and Threshold

12. An organization needs to migrate all of their applications at the same time. Which migration strategy should the organization use?

a. Forkliftb. Hybridc. Proprietary strategyd. Vendor-specified

13. Which backup solution provides support only for source-based deduplication?

a. EMC Avamarb. EMC Data Domainc. EMC Networkerd. EMC SourceOne

14. Which RAID type uses a dedicated parity disk? RAID 1 RAID 3 RAID 5 RAID 6

15. Which issues are addressed by RAID technologies? Performance and data backup Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failure and

performance Data corruption and backup Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failures and data corruption

16. Which is a feature of EMC PowerPath/VE? Traffic Shaping Dynamic Load Balancing Storm Control Integrated Traffic Steering

17. Which is responsible for creating Cloud services? User access management Virtual infrastructure management Unified management Cloud deployment

18. Which FC port type would only be used to connect an FC switch to another switch? F_port E_port G_port N_port

19. What is a reason for monitoring data center elements? To ensure that the IT support staff performs efficiently To ensure that no data is lost if there is a disaster or service disruption To eliminate threats to storage infrastructure security To determine that the components are available and

functioning properly

20. Which product provides a desktop virtualization solution?a. VMware Viewb. VMware ThinAppc. VMware Workstationd. VMware Server

21. How does a domain name server balance client traffic across a cluster of servers?

a. By translating the domain name to the IP address of higher throughput servers

b. By mapping the domain name to the IP address of a load balancing device

c. By sending client traffic to each server that uses a driver to filter client traffic

d. By mapping the domain name to the IP address of servers in round-robin fashion

22. An administrator has configured the following Share values for different types of traffic at the distributed virtual switch:

Virtual machine traffic: 3000IP storage traffic: 1000Virtual machine migration traffic: 2000Management traffic: 1000The available network bandwidth is 10 Gb/s, and the listed traffic types contend for the bandwidth. How much bandwidth will be allocated to the virtual machine traffic?

a. 2.8 Gb/sb. 10.0 Gb/sc. 4.2 Gb/sd. 1.4 Gb/s

23. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing a hot conversion from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?

a. The converter server creates a VM on the destination machineb. The agent clones the physical disk of the source machine to the

virtual disk of the destination VMc. The agent synchronizes the data and installs the required drivers

to allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalize the VMd. The converter server installs the agent on the source physical

machine

24. Which block storage over IP protocol requires a pair of bridges that uses IP as the transport protocol?

a. iSCSIb. FCoEc. FCIPd. iFCP

25. What is a key advantage of pointer-based virtual replication compared to pointer-based full volume replication?

a. The replica can be used even when the source device has failedb. The source device is not required for the restore operationc. The replica device requires less spaced. The replica is immediately accessible

26. Which is a benefit of data striping in RAID?a. Efficient allocation of sequential reads and writesb. Independent disks allow multiple reads and writes to take place

simultaneouslyc. Improved security by creating multiple identical copies of datad. Efficient allocation of random reads and writes

27. Which statement is true about user access management software?a. It informs the user about incident and problem statusb. It enables creating and publishing a service catalogc. It enables the user to configure pools and virtual resourcesd. It provides a consolidated view of existing virtual resources

28. Which functionality is enabled by N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)?a. A virtual N_port can access the FC Raw Device Mapping LUN

assigned to a physical HBAb. A virtual N_port can act as multiple physical HBA portsc. A physical NIC port can operate as multiple virtual N_portsd. A physical FC HBA port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports

29. What needs to be assessed by an organization before migrating business operations to the Cloud?

a. Financial strength of the service providerb. Value added services provided by the service providerc. Required Quality of Service (QoS) leveld. Capacity of the service provider’s physical infrastructure

30. An administrator is concerned about Denial of Service attacks on their virtual machines (VMs). What should be your recommendation to reduce the impact of this type of attack?

a. Harden all VMsb. Limit the resource consumption of a VMc. Perform regular hypervisor updatesd. Deploy role-based access control on the VMs

31. Which Cloud deployment model provides the highest level of security and control?

a. External Private Cloudb. Hybrid Cloudc. Public Cloudd. On-premise Private Cloud

32. Which product provides a dashboard showing Vblock infrastructure configuration and resource utilization?

a. VMware vCloud Directorb. Cisco Nexus 1000Vc. VMware vCenter Chargebackd. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

33. An organization performs full backup of its data every week. They are experiencing long backup windows and huge network bandwidth consumption during the backup process. What should the organization do?

a. Use source-based deduplicationb. Use target-based deduplicationc. Change the backup softwared. Use backup to tape

34. Which is a benefit of the Public Cloud?a. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)b. Simplification of regulatory compliancec. Self-service resource requestsd. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations

35. Which data center management activity helps ensure business continuity by eliminating single points of failure?

a. Availability managementb. Security managementc. Capacity managementd. Performance management

36. An organization is deploying desktop virtualization using the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure technique. Which cost component increases for the organization?

a. Compute infrastructureb. Desktop hardwarec. Application deploymentd. IT management

37. If an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense would be expected to grow larger?

a. Management costsb. Operational expendituresc. Infrastructure costsd. Capital expenditures

38. Consider the following steps: Harden the VM image to create a known security baseline Remove unneeded devices and functions Utilize up-to-date VM patches and security updates Configure access permissions for a select group of administrators

Which of the steps are specific to making VM templates more resistant to attack?

a. 1 and 3b. 1 and 4c. 2 and 4d. 3 and 4

39. What is the basis for determining the size of the virtual machine swap file?

a. The sum of the virtual machine memory limit and the reserved memory

b. The physical machine memory size onlyc. The difference between the physical machine memory size and the

virtual machine memory limitd. The difference between the virtual machine memory limit and the

reserved memory40. What does the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) define?

a. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause

b. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage

c. Amount of data loss that a business can endure after an outaged. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to

restore after an outage

41. Which is a consideration for a Cloud user who is drafting a Cloud Service Termination Agreement?

a. Cost of transferring the ownership of infrastructure back to the client

b. Service performance levelsc. Data migration pland. Time required for the server provider to restart operations

42. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should it be verified that an application behaves as expected in the Cloud?

a. Proof of Conceptb. Assessmentc. Automationd. Optimization

43. Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true?a. It does not use the VM file system for protectionb. It provides faster backup of VM disk filesc. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardwared. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the primary

VM

44. Which mechanism provides protection against NIC failure?a. NIC trunkingb. VLAN taggingc. NIC teamingd. Port grouping

45. What enables the storage of virtual machine files on a NAS device?a. Virtual machine monitorb. Virtual Machine File Systemc. Network File Systemd. Guest operating system

46. You are asked to create three VLANs on a newly installed physical Ethernet switch. Which operations should you perform to configure the VLANs?

a. Add three VLAN IDs to the hypervisor’s VLAN ID pool, then assign each VLAN ID to one or more switch ports

b. Configure a trunk port on the switch, then assign three VLAN IDs to the trunk port

c. Activate VLAN trunking and tagging on the switch, then define three VLAN IDs on the switch

d. Define three VLAN IDs on the switch, then assign each VLAN ID to one or more switch ports

47. What is a limitation of a server-based Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

a. It monitors network traffic for multiple hostsb. It runs on the same system with malicious softwarec. It cannot access logs written by privileged processesd. It cannot observe encrypted traffic

48. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance process needs to be performed by a client to determine the scope of adoption of Cloud services?

a. Compliance penalty assessmentb. Regulatory compensation assessmentc. Enlisting anti-virus protection measuresd. Risk assessment

49. Which process categorizes resource pools based on their performance and capacity?

a. Resource Catalogingb. Resource Distributionc. Resource Gradingd. Resource Bundling

50. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?

a. On-premise Private Cloudb. External Private Cloudc. Public Cloudd. Hybrid Cloud

51. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?

a. Power and energyb. Management c. Infrastructure d. Operational

52. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?

a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.b. Services are provisioned based on their demanc. Metering services are created when required from the resource

pools.d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.

53. Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?

a. Platform-as-a-Serviceb. Infrastructure-as-a-Servicec. Software-as-a-Serviced. IT-as-a-Service

54. Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?

a. Infrastructure-as-a-Serviceb. Platform-as-a-Service c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service

55. An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their problem.Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?

a. Infrastructure-as-a-Serviceb. Platform-as-a-Service c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service

56. Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?a. Data corruptionb. Data backupc. Data lossd. Data security

57. Which is a benefit of server clustering?a. High CPU utilizationb. High availabilityc. High memory utilizationd. High security

58. Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?a. RAID 3b. RAID 0

c. RAID 1d. Nested

59. Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?a. RAID 1 and Nestedb. RAID 0 and RAID 6c. RAID 3 and RAID 5d. RAID 5 and Nested

60. Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?

a. Front-endb. Cachec. LUNd. Back-end

61. Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?

a. Volume Manager b. Operating System c. DBMSd. Application

62. Which is used to logically group FC ports?a. Zone b. VLAN c. Mask d. ISL

63. Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?a. Area IDb. Port IDc. Domain IDd. WWN

64. Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-compute communication?

a. TCP/IPb. FCc. FCIPd. iSCSI

65. Which term is used to describe the virtual space in which all nodes communicate with each other in a SAN environment?

a. Fabricb. Fibre Channel

c. Loopd. Trunking

66. What is a benefit of an Object based storage system?a. It uses multiple object IDs for high securityb. It provides fast replicationc. It ensures data integrityd. It enables fast backup

67. Which are components of FCoE?a. Converged Network Adapter and Fibre Channel Forwarderb. Bridging and E_portc. E_port and Zoningd. TCP/IP and Fibre Channel

68. A compute resource is accessing data from storage over a network at the block level. Which statement is true about the associated file system?

a. It is managed by the compute resource.b. It is managed by the storage.c. It is part of the network.d. It is managed by the application.

69. Which enables distributed FC SAN islands to interconnect over a WAN?a. FCoEb. CEE c. ISCSI d. FCIP

70. Which FC port type is located on the compute system's HBA?a. N_portb. E_portc. F_portd. G_port

71. Which port type should be designated to allow an FC switch port to automatically determine its functionality during initialization?

a. G_portb. N_portc. F_portd. E_port

72. What does the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) define?a. Amount of data loss that a business can endure between an outage

and recoveryb. Period of time by which systems and applications must be

recovered after an outage

c. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to recover after an outage

d. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause prior to recovery

73. An administrator wants to perform replication between heterogeneous storage arrays over a WAN. Which technology should you recommend to the administrator?

a. SAN-based replicationb. Three site replicationc. Array-based replicationd. Silvering

74. What is a key advantage of pointer-based, full volume replication in Copy on First Access (COFA)mode compared to Full Volume mirroring?

a. The replica device size is smaller than the original.b. The source device is not required for restore.c. The replica is immediately accessible.d. The replica only holds pointers to the source data.

75. Which data center management activity ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure?

a. Availability managementb. Capacity managementc. Performance managementd. Security management

76. Which is a key benefit of implementing an ILM strategy?a. Lower total cost of ownershipb. Lower recovery timec. High performanced. High security

77. Which metric can be used for monitoring performance bottlenecks?a. Number of replication task failuresb. Number of I/Os to the diskc. Number of login failuresd. Number of used and free ports on a switch

78. A storage administrator receives an alert message that a new LUN has been create Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?

a. Warningb. Fatalc. Informationd. Normal

79. A storage administrator receives an alert message that a disk has faile Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?

a. Fatalb. Warningc. Informationd. Normal

80. Which is a benefit provided by Hyper-threading in a virtualized server environment?

a. Improved CPU utilizationb. Logical CPU load balancingc. Improved memory utilizationd. Improved virtual machine security

81. Transparent page sharing is employed in a compute system. What occurs if a write to a shared page is attempted?

a. Data is overwritten on the page.b. A shared copy of the page is createc. The shared page size is extended. A private copy of the page is create

82. What is the key function of the balloon driver in the memory ballooning technique?

a. To demand memory from guest OS and later relinquish it under the control of the hypervisor

b. To demand memory from the hypervisor and later relinquish it under the control of the virtual machine

c. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the hypervisor

d. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the virtual machine

83. What happens to a swap file if the associated virtual machine is powered off?

a. The swap file is deleteb. The content of the swap file is preservec. The swap file is emptied. The swap file remains open for use by the hypervisor.

84. What is required to convert a physical machine to a virtual machine when using cold mode?

a. Converter switchb. Converter Boot CD

c. Converter serverd. Converter agent

85. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing cold conversion from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?

a. The converter application creates a new VM on the destination physical machine.

b. The converter application copies volumes from the source machine to the destination machine.

c. Boot the source machine from the converter boot CD and use converter software to defineconversion parameters.

d. The converter application installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalizes the VM.

86. How does a virtual machine appear to a hypervisor?a. As a discrete set of files b. As a physical machine c. As a remote serverd. As a file system

87. Which type of hypervisor is recommended if the organization’s primary concern is performance of virtual machines?

a. Bare-metalb. Hostedc. Built-ind. Encapsulated

88. Which statement is true about a virtual machine (VM) swap file?a. It stores the state of the VM BIOS.b. It exists only when the VM is running.c. It stores configuration information of VMs.d. It is used for troubleshooting VMs.

89. Which component provides the ability to power off the virtual machine?a. Virtual Machine Consoleb. Virtual Machine Monitorc. Virtual Machine Controllerd. Virtual Machine BIOS

90. What is a function of Virtual Machine Monitor?a. Binary translationb. File system managementc. Virtual machine troubleshootingd. Process scheduling

91. Which component optimally assigns physical CPU resources to virtual machines?

a. Guest OS kernelb. CPU load balancerc. Hypervisor schedulerd. Virtual machine controller

92. An administrator decides to power on a virtual machine (VM) that has less memory available in a resource pool than the configured reservation parameter.What would be the expected outcome?

a. The VM will fail to power on.b. The VM will crash after boot up.c. The VM will power on in safe mode.d. The VM will power on normally but perform poorly.

93. Which statement about automated storage tiering is true?a. Data movement is performed non-disruptively. b. Total size of the required storage is reduce c. It provides automated storage provisioning.d. It is performed only within a storage array.

94. Which network component performs physical-to-virtual volume mapping?

a. Logical Volume Managerb. Virtualization appliancec. Virtual Machine File Systemd. Virtual machine

95. What are the three deployment models offered by EMC VPLEX?a. Local, metro, and geob. Local, remote, and multi-sitec. Local, remote, and geod. Local, metro, and wide

96. Which statement about virtual machines is true?a. They are not aware of the underlying storage technology

useb. They are not aware of the size of the virtual disk.c. They are aware of the underlying storage technology used. They are aware of the type of storage media use

97. In file-level storage virtualization, what maps the logical path of a file to the physical path name?

a. Virtual Machine File Systemb. Raw Device Mappingc. Global namespace

d. File system extent

98. Which technique ensures that the used capacity of the disk drives in a thin pool is uniform after a new drive is added?

a. Rebalancing b. Reordering c. Levelingd. Resizing

99. Which network component is used to connect a virtual machine to a virtual switch?

a. Virtual NIC b. Virtual HBA c. Physical NIC d. Uplink port

100. Which event occurs when network broadcast traffic reaches the Storm Control threshold, assuming Storm Control is enabled at the switch?

a. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured peak bandwidth.

b. The switch port forwards broadcast traffic partially, maintaining the traffic rate below the threshold level.

c. The switch port blocks broadcast traffic and drops subsequent broadcast frames over the next time interval.

d. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured share value.

101. What is enabled by using NIC teaming?a. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a

physical NIC failureb. Balancing of traffic across both active and standby NIC team

membersc. Allocation of bandwidth to broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic,

based on priorityd. Transfer of data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple

network links

102. An administrator has configured the following traffic shaping parameters for a distributed virtual switch:

Average bandwidth: 1 Kb/s Peak bandwidth: 4 Kb/s Burst size: 3 KbWhat happens if a 6 Kb/s burst of data arrives at the switch port?

a. Some of the frames of the burst will be queued or dropped by the switch.

b. The burst will remain for 0.5 seconds without queuing or dropping frames.

c. The burst will remain for 1.5 seconds without queuing or dropping frames.

d. All the frames of the burst will be dropped

103. Which is a component of Cisco Nexus 1000V?a. Virtual Switch Nodeb. Virtual Supervisor Modulec. Virtual Internet Moduled. Virtual Service Node

104. Under which condition of communicating nodes does routing occur across virtual networks?

a. When they are on different virtual networks, but belong to the same physical network

b. When they are on the same virtual network, but belong to different physical networks

c. When they are on the same virtual network and physical networkd. When they are located on different geographic locations, but

belong to the same virtual network

105. Which is a function of a virtual switch?a. Directs network traffic to and from virtual machinesb. Maintains MAC address table to perform OSI layer 3 operationsc. Shares bandwidth of a physical NIC with other virtual switchesd. Enables configuring load balancing policies across virtual HBA ports

106. What is a purpose of uplink ports on a virtual switch?a. To provide connectivity between a virtual switch and virtual NICsb. To enable inter-switch links (ISLs) between virtual switches in a

physical serverc. To enable the hypervisor kernel to access FC storaged. To provide connectivity between a virtual switch and

physical NICs

107. Which statement best defines the term "virtual machine port group"?a. It is a mechanism for applying uniform network policy

settings to a group of virtual machine ports.b. It is a method for transferring virtual machine traffic through a

single network connection. c. It is a method for enabling communication between virtual

machines, regardless of their location.d. It is a mechanism for assigning a VSAN ID to a group of virtual

machine ports.

108. What is a principal benefit of deploying a distributed virtual switch?a. It maintains consistent network policies when virtual

machines migrate across physical servers.b. It aggregates both physical and virtual switches distributed across

virtualized data centers.c. It enables physical NICs to use MAC addresses for transmission of

frames.d. It eliminates the requirement of individually configuring policies to

hypervisor kernel ports.

109. Which statement is true about physical NICs on a physical server running hypervisor?

a. They offload iSCSI processing from the hypervisor.b. They are not assigned IP addresses.c. They are used as links between virtual machines.d. They encapsulate SCSI data into Ethernet frames.

110. What are the three key components of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)?

a. Endpoint device, VM hosting server, and Connection brokerb. VM hosting server, VM management server, and Endpoint devicec. VDI console, VM management server, and Connection brokerd. VM management server, VDI console, and VM execution server

111. What is a role of Connection Broker in desktop virtualization?a. Connects end point device to the assigned virtual machineb. Establishes connection between end point devicesc. Connects virtual machines to virtual machine hosting serverd. Establishes connection between two virtual machine hosting

servers

112. Which technology enables desktop virtualization?a. Operating system virtualizationb. User state virtualization c. File system virtualization d. Memory virtualization

113. What is a benefit of Application Virtualization?a. It simplifies application deployment/retirement.b. It increases application and CPU utilization.c. It enables communication among different applications.d. It breaks dependencies between the application interface and

processing logi

114. An application’s data has been corrupte Associated files must be restored from the last virtual machine backup.Which restoration approach would be most efficient?

a. Using an agent running on the storage arrayb. Using an agent running on the hypervisorc. Using an agent running on the virtual machined. Using storage array-based restoration

115. Which method is used to create a linked clone of a virtual machine (VM)?

a. Using a snapshot of the source VMb. Using a template of the source VMc. Sharing the network identity with the source VMd. Making a separate copy of the source VM virtual disk

116. Which tool can be used for live migration of virtual machine disk files between two EMC CLARiiONarrays?

a. VMware Storage vMotionb. VMware HAc. VMware vMotiond. VMware FT

117. Which functionality is provided by a Virtual Machine File System when virtual machines are running on clustered servers?

a. Pool of running virtual machines to be shared among hypervisors b. Pool of virtual disks to be shared among running virtual machines c. Automated locking of virtual machine filesd. Virtual machine namespace resolution

118. Which virtual machine technique provides zero downtime in case of a virtual machine failure?

a. Fault toleranceb. Clonec. Snapshotd. Backup

119. Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true?a. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the

primary VM.b. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardware.c. It provides faster backup of VM disk files.d. It does not use the VM file system for protection.

120. A multipathing option is enabled on a hypervisor. What is required for successful failover to occur?

a. Virtual machine configuration files must include multipathing settings.

b. The Virtual Machine File System must support multipathing.c. All the HBA ports must share the same network path to the storage.d. HBA ports must be set up with multiple storage controllers.

121. An organization requires backup of virtual CPU configurations for each of its virtual machines. In a compute based backup approach, where should the backup agent be installed?

a. On the hypervisorb. On each virtual machinec. No backup agent is requiredd. On the Virtual Machine File System

122. Which provides a consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure resources across virtualized data centers?

a. Unified management softwareb. Cloud integration management softwarec. User access management softwared. Cloud resource management software

123. Which service management process maintains information about the attributes of Cloud infrastructure resources?

a. Service Catalog Managementb. Capacity Managementc. Service Asset and Configuration Managementd. Infrastructure Management

124. Which Cloud service management process ensures that configuration best practices are followed when creating Cloud services?

a. Service Asset and Configuration Managementb. Compliance Managementc. Capacity Managementd. Performance Management

125. Which tool enables consumers to deploy their applications and platform software to the Cloud?

a. Migration toolb. Shredding toolc. Configuration toold. Service Creation tool

126. Which Cloud service management process is used to perform trend analysis of resource consumption and to plan future resource requirements?

a. Capacity Management

b. Service Asset and Configuration Managementc. Resource Planning Managementd. Availability Management

127. Which statement describes the resource distribution process performed by unified management software?

a. Create attributes of all Cloud services from different bundlesb. Create service instances and allocate resources from

bundles to service instancesc. Integrate a graded compute pool with graded storage and network

poold. Categorize pools based on performance and capacity

128. Which statement describes the Resource Grading process?a. Integrating a graded compute pool with a graded network pool and

a graded storage poolb. Grading attributes of all Cloud services to be created from different

bundlesc. Categorizing resource pools based on their capabilitiesd. Allocating graded resources from bundles to service instances

129. Which operation is performed by user access management software?a. Monitor allocation and usage of resources associated with Cloud

service instancesb. Manage bundling of application and platform softwarec. Manage multiple grade levels for each type of user resource poold. Enable users to create virtual infrastructure from physical

infrastructure

130. Which product provides a solution for Cloud user access management?a. VMware vCloud Directorb. VMware Service Managerc. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Managerd. EMC Ionix Cloud Manager

131. Which security mechanism(s) defines the boundary between security critical and non-critical parts of an information system?

a. Trusted Computing Baseb. Encryptionc. Authentication, Authorization, and Auditingd. Defense-in-Depth

132. How does the VMware vShield Endpoint product streamline and accelerate anti-virus and anti- malware deployment?

a. All anti-virus and anti-malware mitigation is performed in a single place.

b. Engines and signature files can be deployed to a common share available to all clients.

c. Running detection software against client disk partitions finds infections earlier.

d. The engines and signature files are only updated within the special security virtual machine.

133. Which security measures should be adopted to prevent virtual machine (VM) theft?

a. VM copy and move restrictionsb. VM reservationc. Mutual client isolationd. Sandboxing of the guest OS

134. Which product provides a solution for one-time password based authentication?

a. RSA SecurIDb. RSA Archer eGRCc. RSA Envisiond. RSA BSAFE

135. Which product provides a solution for multi-factor authentication?a. RSA Archer eGRCb. RSA envision c. RSA SecurIDd. RSA BSAFE

136. Which security aspect ensures that unauthorized changes to data are prevented?

a. Integrityb. Confidentialityc. Authenticityd. Availability

137. Which measure should an administrator adopt to mitigate multitenancy-based security concerns in a Cloud environment?

a. Mutual client isolationb. Virtual machine reservationc. Sandboxingd. Virtual firewall

138. Which measure should be adopted to mitigate the challenge of "velocity of attack" in the Cloud?

a. Sandboxingb. Virtual firewallc. Client based security protectiond. Defense-in-depth

139. What is a major reason for auditing?a. To ensure that only authorized individuals can access the systemb. To evaluate the effectiveness of security enforcement

controls and processesc. To measure and charge for computer usaged. To ensure that individuals are provided with privileges appropriate

for their role

140. Which is a recommended method for virtual machine (VM) hardening?a. Use a directory service for authenticationb. Use VM only for proprietary applicationsc. Use a VM snapshot to provision a new VMd. Disable VM access to the management console

141. A Cloud service provider decides to close its business due to legal litigation. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) document would safeguard the interests of its clients?

a. Termination Agreementb. Service Implementation Guide c. Business Continuity Agreement d. Service Level Agreement

142. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) aspect may limit adoption of public Clouds for applications handling sensitive data?

a. SAN Security Regulationsb. Information Flow Regulationsc. Inadequate anti-virus protectiond. Lack of robust data encryption standards

143. Which security process defines the scope of the access rights for a resource?

a. Authorization b. Authentication c. Encryptiond. Auditing

144. From which level should a Distributed Denial of Service attack be prevented?

a. Networkb. Access controlc. Perimeterd. Compute

145. Consider the following actions: Exhausting resources such as CPU cycles or network bandwidth Exploiting weaknesses in communication protocols

Hijacking of user identities Intercepting communications trafficWhich of these actions are involved in a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?

a. 2 and 3b. 2 and 4c. 1 and 3d. 1 and 2

146. What statement related to a Virtual Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is true?a. A virtual DMZ can support multiple trust zones.b. DMZ virtual machines should be in separate sub-networks.c. Virtual DMZ subnets do not use a firewall to protect traffid. Trusted nodes in the DMZ are not accessible from outside

networks.

147. Which security mechanism removes the need for services to provide their own identity system and allows users to consolidate their digital identities?

a. OpenIDb. Federated Identity Managementc. One-time passwordsd. Shared LDAP directory

148. Review the following considerations: A contingency plan for handling data in the Cloud A process for migrating the data back into the organization or to

another Cloud Whether or not data can be moved over the network in a reasonable

amount of time Cost of transferring ownership of the infrastructure back to the client

Which considerations should apply before terminating a Cloud service agreement?

a. 2 and 4 onlyb. 1, 2, and 3c. 2, 3, and 4d. 1 and 4

149. What is an advantage of adopting Cloud Open Standards?a. It enables mission critical applications to be run on the Cloudb. It prevents vendor lock-in issues c. It increases security compliance d. It improves performance

150. What action should be part of a security and compliance assessment prior to migrating business operations to the Cloud?

a. Selecting the geographic location of data storage

b. Reviewing disaster recovery optionsc. Understanding the vendor lock-in periodd. Negotiating the service charge rate

151. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should business application compatibility withCloud infrastructure be evaluated?

a. Technical Assessmentb. Security and Compliance Assessmentc. Proof of Conceptd. Optimization

152. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should the usage pattern of an application be determined?

a. Proof of Conceptb. Assessment c. Optimization d. Migration

153. What are the three key Quality of Service (QoS) parameters that need to be assessed by an organization before moving operations to the Cloud?

a. Performance, Availability, and Securityb. RPO, RTO, and Securityc. Service Charge Rate, RTO, and Performanced. Performance, Availability, and Service Duration

154. Which trade-off needs to be evaluated to determine how Cloud computing fits into an organization’s overall business strategy?

a. Risk versus convenience b. Security versus penalty c. Risk versus complianced. Security versus compliance

155. Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered suitable for most start-up organizations?

a. Private Cloud only b. Hybrid Cloud only c. Public Cloudd. Both Private and Hybrid Cloud

156. Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered most suitable for Tier 1 applications for the small to medium sized business (SMB) segment?

a. Private Cloudb. Public Cloud onlyc. Hybrid Cloud onlyd. Both Public and Hybrid Cloud

157. Which type(s) of application involves higher risk when moving to the Cloud?

a. Proprietary and mission criticalb. Backup and testingc. Proprietary but not mission criticald. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical

158. Which document defines the quality and reliability of Cloud services?a. Regulatory Compliance b. Document Service Charge Rate Specification c. Service Level Agreementd. Service Contract Agreement

159. An organization is planning to migrate its operations to the ClouThere are several Cloud vendors that can provide the required services.Which is the primary factor that the organization should consider when selecting the vendor?

a. Ease of adding or removing services from the vendorb. Identity of the vendor's existing clientsc. Range of value added services the vendor providesd. The current market share of the vendor

160. Which step of the "Journey to the Cloud" allows pooling of resources?a. Virtualizing the IT environmentb. Automating resource management processesc. Delivering IT-as-a-Serviced. Policy-based provisioning

161. Which is a benefit of a virtualized environment?a. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrationsb. Optimized utilization of IT resourcesc. Simplification of regulatory complianced. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)

162. An organization must meet government requirements prohibiting export of data outside its territory. Which Cloud deployment model would be most appropriate for this organization?

a. On-premise Private Cloudb. External Private Cloudc. Public Cloudd. Hybrid Cloud

163. Which technology provides user-level authentication and file locking functionality?

a. NAS b. FCIP

c. iSCSId. FCoE

164. Which storage platform supports file, block, and object level access?a. Unifiedb. Convergedc. Virtuald. SOAP

165. Which provide file-level access to storage on a NAS device?a. CIFS and NFS b. CIFS and FCIP c. iSCSI and FCoEd. SATA and SCSI