xi foundation revision - test-01 (pcb) - 16.03goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image263.pdf · b-58,...

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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 1 ]

01. Astronomical unit (Au) is the average distance

between the earth and sun, approximately

1.5 × 108 km. The speed of light is about

3.0 × 108 m/s. The speed of light in astronomical

unit per minute is :

(1) 0.012 Au/min (2) 0.12 Au/min

(3) 1.2 Au/min (4) 12.0 Au/min

02. The SI unit of intensity of wave is :

(1) W m2 (2) J m–1 s–2

(3) W m–2 (4) J m–2 s

03. The SI unit of thermal conductivity is :

(1) J s m–1 K–1 (2) W–1 m–1 K–1

(3) W m–1 K–1 (4) W m–2 K–1

04. A body accelerates from rest with a uniform

acceleration a for a time t. The uncertainty in

‘a’ is 8% and the uncertainty in ‘t’ is 4%. The

uncertainty in the speed is :

(1) 32% (2) 12%

(3) 8% (4) 2%

05. Smallest division on the main scale of given

vernier callipers is 0.5 mm. Vernier scale has

25 divisions and these coincide with 24 main

scale divisions. The least count of vernier

callipers is :

(1) 0.001 cm (2) 0.002 cm

(3) 0.01 cm (4) 0.02 cm

06. When a current of (2.5 ± 0.5) A flows through a

wire, it develops a potential difference of

(20 ± 1)V, the resistance of the wire is :

(1) (8 ± 2) (2) (8 ± 1.6)

(3) (8 ± 1.5) (4) (8 ± 3)

07. A student measures the distance traversed in

free fall of a body, initially at rest, in a given

time. He uses this data to estimate g, the

acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum

percentage errors in measurement of the

distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively,

the percentage error in the estimation of g is :

(1) e2 – e1 (2) e1 + 2e2

(3) e1 + e2 (4) e1 – 2e2

08. Error in measurement of radius of a cylinder is

3% and in length is 1%, then find the error in

measurement of volume of cylinder ?

(1) 4% (2) 5% (3) 7% (4) 1%

09. Number of significant figures in 0.0006702 is :

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 7

10. Which of the following has the highest number

of significant figures ?

(1) 0.007 m2 (2) 2.64 × 1024 kg

(3) 0.0006032 m2 (4) 6.3200 J

11. The dimensions of heat capacity are :

(1) [ML–2T–2K–1] (2) [ML2T–2K–1]

(3) [M–1L2T–2K–1] (4) [MLT–2K]

12. A dimensional constant is :

(1) Poisson’s ratio

(2) Universal gravitational constant

(3) Relative density

(4) Refractive index

13. Dimensions of torque is :

(1) [ML2T–1] (2) [ML2T–2]

(3) [MLT–2] (4) [ML–1T–2]

14. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are :

(1) [ML–1T–1] (2) [MLT–2]

(3) [MLT–1] (4) [ML2T–2]

15. The dimensions of energy density are :

(1) [ML–1 T–2] (2) [MLT–2]

(3) [ML–2 T–1] (4) [M2L–1T–2]

16. [ML2T–3] is the dimensions of :

(1) work (2) power

(3) force (4) momentum

17. Which of the following pairs does not have

similar dimensions ?

(1) Stress and pressure

(2) Tension and surface tension

(3) Angle and strain

(4) Planck’s constant and angular momentum

18. If g = acceleration due to gravity and R = radius

of the earth, then 1/2

g

R

represents the

dimensions of :

(1) angular speed (2) escape speed

(3) orbital speed (4) acceleration

[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720

XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB) - 16.03.2020



19. The dimensional formula of physical quantity is

[Ma Lb Tc]. Then that physical quantity is :

(1) surface tension if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2

(2) force if a = 1, b = 1, c = 2

(3) angular frequency if a = 0, b = 0, c = –1

(4) spring constant if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2

20. If velocity (v), acceleration (a) and force (F) are

taken as fundamental quantities, the

dimensions of Young’s modulus (Y) would be :

(1) [Fa2v–2] (2) [Fa2v–3]

(3) [Fa2v–4] (4) [Fa2v–5]

21. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He

takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and

so on. Each step is 1 m long and takes 1 s. There

is a pit on the road 11 m away from the starting

point. The drunkard will fall into the pit after :

(1) 21 s (2) 29 s

(3) 31 s (4) 37 s

22. An object moves in a straight line along x-axis,

its distance from the origin is given by x = 10t2 m.

The average velocity in the time interval from t

= 2 s to t = 3 is :

(1) 50 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1

(3) 20 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1

23. A particle covers half of its total distance with

speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed

v2. Its average speed during the complete journey

is :

(1)1 2v v

2

(2)

1 2

1 2

v v

v v

(3)1 2

1 2

2v v

v v (4)

2 21 2

2 21 2

v v

v v

24. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same

time in a straight line and their positions are

represented by xP(t) = (at + bt2) and xQ(t) = (ft – t2).

At what time do the card have the same velocity:

(1)a f

1 b

(2)

a f

2(b 1)

(3)a f

2(1 b)

(4)

f a

2(1 b)

25. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where

A and B are constants, then the distance

travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is :

(1)3 7

A B2 3

(2)A B

2 3

(3)3

A 4B2

(4) 3A + 7B

26. The distance x of a particle moving in one

dimension under the action of constant force is

related to the time by the relation, t x 3 .

Find the displacement of the particle when its

velocity is 6.0 m/s.

(1) 9.0 m (2) 6.0 m (3) 4.0 m (4) 0.0 m

27. The displacement of a body along x-axis depends

on time as x t 1 . Then the velocity of body

(1) increases with time

(2) decreases with time

(3) independent of time

(4) none of these

28. Which of the following velocity-time graphs

shows a realistic situation for a body in motion?

(1) v

t

(2) v

t

(3) v

t

(4) v

t

29. The displacement of a particle as a function of

time is shown in figure. It indicates that :

30

20

10

Dis

pla

cem

en

t in

m

10 20 30 40 50

Time in sec

(1) the velocity of the particle is constant

throughout

(2) the acceleration of the particle is constant

throughout

(3) the particle starts with a constant velocity

and is accelerated

(4) the motion is retarded and finally the particle

stops



30. A particle moves along x-axis and its

displacement at any time is given by

x(t) = 2t3 – 3t2 + 4t in SI units. The velocity of

the particle when its acceleration is zero, is

(1) 2.5 ms–1 (2) 3.5 ms–1

(3) 4.5 ms–1 (4) 8.5 ms–1

31. The velocity of a particle is given by

v 180 16x m/s. Its acceleration is :

(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 16 m/s2

(3) –8 m/s2 (4) –16 m/s2

32. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at

time t = 0 is 16 m/s2 which varies with time as

shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the

particle will be :

16 m/s2a

0 10st

(1) 7.5 m/s (2) 80 m/s

(3) 30 m/s (4) 37.5 m/s

33. A particle moves in a straight line so that its

displacement x m in t s is given by x2 = t2 + 1. Its

acceleration in ms–2 is :

(1) 3

1

x(2)

2

2

t

x

(3) 2

1 1

x x (4)

2

3

t

x

34. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration

f, at time t, given by 0t

f f 1T

, where f0 and

T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero

velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and

the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity

(vx) is :

(1)2

01

f T2

(2) f0T2

(3) 01

f T2

(4) f0T

35. The engine of a motor cycle can produce a

maximum acceleration 5 ms–2. Its brakes can

produce a maximum retardation 10 ms–2. What

is the minimum time in which it can cover a

distance of 1.5 km ?

(1) 5 s (2) 10 s (3) 15 s (4) 30 s

36. A person walks up a stationary escalator in time

t1. If he remains stationary on the escalator,

then it can take him up in time t2. How much

time would it take him to walk up the moving

escalator ?

(1)1 2t t

2

(2) 1 2t t

(3)1 2

1 2

t t

t t (4) t1 + t2

37. A particle moves with constant acceleration

along a straight line starting from rest. The

percentage increase in its displacement during

the 4th second compared to thawt in the 3rd

second is :

(1) 33% (2) 40%

(3) 66% (4) 77%

38. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at

t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another

ball is thrown downwards from the same platform

with a speed v. The two balls meet at

t = 18 s. What is the value of v ?

(Take g = 10 ms/2)

(1) 75 m/s (2) 55 m/s

(3) 40 m/s (4) 60 m/s

39. A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground

with a velocity v0 and another body B is

simultaneously dropped from a height H. They

meet at a height H

2 if v0 is equal to :

(1) 2gH (2) gH (3)1

gH2

(4)2g

H

40. A particle is thrown vertically up with a certain

velocity. Assuming the air resistance to be

negligible, which one of the following represents

the velocity (along y-axis)-time (along x-axis)

graph for the entire motion of the particle till it

reaches back to the ground.

(1)

Velo

cit

y

Timex

y

(2)

Velo

cit

y

Timex

y

(3)

Velo

cit

y

Timex

y

(4)

Velo

cit

y

Timex

y



41. A body is projected vertically upwards. The times

corresponding to height h while ascending and

while descending are t1 and t2 respectively.

Then the velocity of projection is (g is

acceleration due to gravity)

(1)1 2g t t

2(2)

1 2g(t t )

2

(3) 1 2g t t (4)1 2

1 2

gt t

t t

42. A body starting from rest moves with uniform

acceleration. The distance covered by the body

in time t is proportional to :

(1) t (2) t3/2

(3) t2/3 (4) t2

43. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a

straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the

bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of

1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should

the scooterist chase the bus ?

(1) 40 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1

(3) 10 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1

44. Which of the following pairs of vectors are parallel ?

(1)^ ^^ ^

A i 2 j; B i 5 j

(2)^ ^^ ^

A i 10 j; B 2 i 5 j

(3)^ ^^ ^

A i 5 j; B i 10 j

(4)^ ^^ ^

A i 5 j; B 2 i 10 j

45. If ^^^

A i j k and

^^^B i j k . Then angle

made by (A B) with A

is :

(1) 0° (2) 180° (3) 90° (4) 60°

46. Six vectors, a

through f

have the magnitudes

and directions indicated in the figure. Which of

the following statements is true ?

a b

c

d

e f

(1) b c f (2) d c f

(3) d e f (4) b e f

47. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal

to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors,

the angle between these vectors is :

(1) 45° (2) 180°

(3) 0° (4) 90°

48. If vectors A

and B

are such that

|A B| |A| |B| , then |A B|

may be

equated to :

(1)3

|A|2

(2) |A|

(3) 2|A|

(4) 3|A|

49. The position vector of a particle R

as a function

of time is given by ^^

R 4 sin(2 t) i 4cos(2 t) j .

Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and ^i and

^j denote unit vectors along x-and

y-directions, respectively. Which one of the

following statements is wrong for the motion of

particle ?

(1) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8

meter/second.

(2) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4

meter.

(3) Acceleration vector is along R

.

(4) Magnitude of acceleration vector is 2v

R,

where v is the velocity of particle.

50. A particle starts moving from point (2, 10, 1).

Displacement for the particle is ^ ^ ^

8 i 2 j k .

The final coordinates of the particle is :

(1) (10, 8, 2) (2) (8, 10, 2)

(3) (2, 10, 8) (4) (8, 2, 10)



51. A particle is moving on circular path as shown

in the figure. Then displacement from P1 to P2is :

r

r

P2

P1O

(1) 2r cos2

(2) 2r tan

2

(3) 2r sin (4) 2r sin2

52. A ball is dropped from the top of a building

100 m high. At the same instant another ball is

thrown upwards with a velocity of 40 m/s from

the bottom of the building. The two balls will meet

after :

(1) 3 s (2) 2 s

(3) 2.5 s (4) 5 s

53. Let ^^ 2

1r (t) 3 i 4t j

and ^^2

2r (t) 4t i 3t j

represent the positions of particles 1 and 2

respectively as function of time t; 1r (t)

and 2r (t)

are in metre and t in second. The relative speed

of the two particles at the instant t = 1 s, will be :

(1) 1 m/s (2) 78 m/s

(3) 89 m/s (4) 7 2 m/s

54. Three projectiles A, B and C are projected at an

angle of 30°, 45°, 60° respectively. If RA, RB and

RC are ranges of A, B and C respectively then

(velocity of projection is same for A, B and C)

(1) RA = RB = RC (2) RA = RC > RB

(3) RA < RB < RC (4) RA = RC < RB

55. The horizontal range is four times the maximum

height attained by a projectile. The angle of

projection is :

(1) 90° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 30°

56. A particle is projected at an angle of 60° above

the horizontal with a speed of 10 ms–1. After

some time the direction of its velocity makes

an angle of 30° above the horizontal. The speed

of the particle at this instant is :

(1)–15

ms3

(2) 15 3 ms

(3) 5 ms–1 (4)–110

ms3

57. A particle is projected with a velocity v so that

its horizontal range twice the greatest height

attained. The horizontal range is :

(1)

22v

3g(2)

2v

2g

(3)

2v

g(4)

24v

5g

58. A missile is fired for maximum range with an

initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the

range of the missile is :

(1) 40 m (2) 50 m (3) 60 m (4) 20 m

59. A bullet is fired with a velocity u making an angle

of 60° with the horizontal plane. The horizontal

component of the velocity of the bullet when it

reaches the maximum height is :

(1) u (2) 0 (3)3

u2

(4)u

2

60. The maximum height attained by a projectile

when thrown at angle with the horizontal is

found to be half the horizontal range. Then =

(1) tan–1 (2) (2) /6

(3) /4 (4) tan–1(1/2)

61. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) When a chemical bond is formed energy is

always released

(2) Atoms combine because they want to achieve

stability

(3) Atoms achieve stability by raising their

potential energy

(4) Atoms combine because they want to achieve

two or eight electrons in the valency shell

62. The electronic configurations of four elements

are :

A : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p4

B : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5

C : 1s2, 2s2 sp6, 3s1

D : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2

The formulae of ionic compounds that could be

formed between them are :

(1) A2C, DA, CB, D2B (2) C2A, DA, CB, DB

(3) AC, D2A, C2B, DB (4) C2A, DA, CB, DB2



63. The correct order of lattice energies of the

following compounds is :

(1) NaCl > MgCl2 > MgO > Al2O3

(2) Al2O3 > MgCl2 > MgO > NaCl

(3) Al2O3 > MgO > MgCl2 > NaCl

(4) MgCl2 > Al2O3 > MgO > NaCl

64. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) A covalent bond is not possible between

dissimilar elements

(2) An electrovalent compounds is possible

between dissimilar elements

(3) A covalent bond is possible between similar

elements

(4) Both electrovalent and covalent bonds are

strong chemical bonds

65. A metal ‘M’ forms chlorides in its +2 and +4

oxidation states. Which of the following

statements about these chlorides is correct ?

(1) MCl2 is more easily hydrolysed than MCl4

(2) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4

(3) MCl2 is more soluble in anhydrous ethanol

than MCl4

(4) MCl2 is more ionic than MCl4

66. Which has zero dipole moment ?

(1) ClF (2) PCl3

(3) SiF4 (4) CFCl3

67. According to Fajan rules, the covalent character

is moslt favoured in :

(1) small cation, large anion

(2) small cation, small anion

(3) large cation, large anion

(4) large cation, small anion

68. The bonds present in N2O5 are :

(1) only ionic

(2) only covalent

(3) covalent and coordinate

(4) ionic and covalent

69. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having

same molecular formula. This is due to :

(1) intermolecular H-bonding in ethers

(2) intermolecular H-bonding in alcohols

(3) dipolar character of ethers

(4) resonance srtructure in alcohols

70. Which one of the following has pyramidal

structure ?

(1) NH3 (2) SiF4 (3) H2O (4) BF3

71. The high boiling point of water is due to :

(1) its high specific heat

(2) hydrogen bonding between the molecules

(3) weak dissociation of water molecules

(4) its high dielectric constant

72. In sp3d3 hybridization, which d-orbitals are

involved ?

(1) 2 2 2 xyx y zd , d , d

(2) 2 2 xy yzx y

d , d , d

(3) 2 yz xyzd , d , d (4) xy yz zxd , d , d

73. Paramagnetism of oxygen is explained on the

basis of its electronic configuration of :

(1)1 1

x y(2 p ) (2 p ) (2) (2px)1 (2py)

1

(3) (2pz)1 (2py)

1 (4)1 1

y x(2 p ) (2 p )

74. Molecular orbital electronic configuration for ‘x’

anion is :

2 2 2 2 2 1x y z xKK( 2s) ( 2s) ( 2p ) ( 2p ) ( 2p ) ( 2p )

(1) 2N (2) 2O

(3) 22N (4) 2

2O

75. Using MO theory predict which of the following

species has the shortest bond length ?

(1) 22O (2) 2O (3) –

2O (4) 2–2O

76. The electronic configuration of gadolinium

(atomic number 64) is :

(1) [Xe]4f3 5d5 6s2 (2) [Xe]4f7 5d2 6s1

(3) [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe]4f8 5d0 6s2

77. The statement that is not correct for periodic

classification of elements is :

(1) the properties of elements are periodic

function of their atomic numbers.

(2) non-metallic elements are less in number

than metallic elements.

(3) for transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are

filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and

before 4s-orbitals.

(4) the first ionisation enthalpies of elements

generally increase with increase in atomic

number as we go along a period.

78. Diagonal relationship in periodic table is shown

by the elements of ........ and ........ periods :

(1) I and II (2) II and III

(3) III and IV (4) I and III



79. The screening effect of d-electrons is :

(1) much more than s-electrons

(2) equal to s-electrons

(3) equal to p-electrons

(4) much less than s-electrons

80. Which of the following set of ions represents a

collection of isoelectronic species ?

(1) Ba2+, Sr2+, Ca2+, K+

(2) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+

(3) N3–, O2–, F–, S2–

(4) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+

81. Which one is the correct order of size of the

iodine species ?

(1) I > I+ > I– (2) I > I– > I+

(3) I– > I > I+ (4) I+ > I– > I

82. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic.

Then :

(1) their sizes are same

(2) Cl– ion is bigger than K+ ion

(3) K+ ion is relatively bigger

(4) none of the above

83. The correct order of atomic radii/ionic radii is:

(1) Na < Be < B (2) F– < O2– < N3–

(3) Na < Li < K (4) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+

84. Which of the following elements has the least

ionisation enthalpy ?

(1) Li (2) Mg

(3) Ca (4) Cs

85. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the

lowest ionisation energy ?

(1) S2– (2) Cl–

(3) K+ (4) Ca2+

86. The correct order of increasing electron gain

enthalpy of halogens is :

(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) I < Br < F < Cl

(3) I < Br < Cl < F (4) Br < I < F < Cl

87. In each period, the most electronegative

element belongs to :

(1) group 18 (2) group 17

(3) group 14 (4) group 1

88. In the series carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and

fluorine electronegativity :

(1) decreases from carbon to fluroine

(2) remains constant

(3) decreases from carbon to oxygen and then

increases

(4) increases from carbon to fluorine

89. An element with high electronegativity has :

(1) high IE and high Eeg

(2) high IE and low Eeg

(3) low IE and high Eeg

(4) low IE and low Eeg

90. Ionisation energy of Cl– is 349 kJ mol–1. The

electron gain enthalpy of chlorine would be :

(1) –349 kJ mol–1 (2) –175 kJ mol–1

(3) +349 kJ mol–1 (4) +175 kJ mol–1

91. If ten volumes of dihydrogen gas reacts with five

volumes of oxygen to produce water vapour :

2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)

then how many water volumes would be produced ?

(1) 5 volumes (2) 10 volumes

(3) 15 volumes (4) 20 volumes

92. Which of following is wrong ?

(1) 1 amu = 1 u

(2) 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g

(3) 1 g = 6.022 × 1023 amu

(4) 1 amu = 1 g atomic mass

93. Chlorine has two isotopes 3517 Cl (34.9689) and

3717 Cl (36.9659 amu); their percentage natural

abundances are 75.77 and 24.23 respectively.

The average atomic mass of chlorine is :

(1) 35.45 amu (2) 35.55 amu

(3) 35.54 amu (4) 35.40 amu

94. The mass of one mole of a substance in grams

is called its :

(1) formula mass (2) molecular mass

(3) molar mass (4) Berzelius mass

95. Which of the following will contain largest

number of atoms ?

(1) 1 g O2 (2) 1 g N2

(3) 1 g H2 (4) 1 g Na

96. How many electrons will be present in 1.8 g H2O?

(1) 6.022 × 1022 (2) 6.022 × 1023

(3) 3.011 × 1022 (4) 3.011 × 1023

97. What mass of copper will contain 3.22 × 1024

atoms of copper ? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.54

amu)

(1) 170 g (2) 180 g

(3) 340 g (4) 380 g

98. What will be the volume of 1 g CO2 at STP ?

(1) 0.51 L (2) 22.4 L (3) 1 mL (4) 51 mL



99. Which of the following has maximum number of

helium atoms ?

(1) 52 amu He (2) 52 g He

(3) 52 mol He (4) 52 litre at STP

100. Select the correct statement about Avogadro’s

hypothesis :

(1) In a gaseous reaction, reactants react in

simple ratio by volume under identical

condition of temperature and pressure.

(2) Equal volumes of gases at the same

temperature and pressure should contain

equal number of molecules.

(3) All gases contain same number of molecules

at NTP only.

(4) Avogadros hypothesis is valid at STP only.

101. The percentage composition of carbon and

oxygen in carbon dioxide are :

(1) C (72.72%); O(72.72%)

(2) C(27.27%); O(72.72%)

(3) C(27.27%); O(27.27%)

(4) C(72.27%); O(27.27%)

102. Empirical formula of a compound is (CH); what

will be its molecular formula if its molecular

mass is 78 amu ?

(1) C7H8 (2) C6H6

(3) C3H3 (4) C8H10

103. What mass of oxygen is required in the complete

combustion of 450 g of ethane (C2H6) ?

(1) 3 kg (2) 1.68 kg

(3) 1.12 kg (4) 3.36 kg

104. What volume of dioxygen gas is required at STP

for complete combustion of 3.2 volume of ethyne

at STP ?

(1) 4 volume (2) 8 volume

(3) 6 volume (4) 2 volume

105. The resultant molarity of a solution obtained by

mixing 100 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 150 mL of 0.25

M HCl is :

(1) 0.35 (2) 0.45

(3) 0.55 (4) 0.25

106. A photon of wavelength 4 × 10–7 m strikes a

metal surface whose work function is 2.13 eV.

The kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron will

be :

(1) 1.97 eV (2) 0.97 eV

(3) 1.12 eV (4) 3.14 eV

107. Which of the following pair of informations is not

correct ?

(1) Balmer series — Visible region

(2) Lyman series — Ultraviolet region

(3) Paschen series — Near IR region

(4) Brackette series — Ultraviolet region

108. Energy of electron in hydrogen like atom does

not change with :

(1) number of shell (2) atomic number

(3) time (4) all of these

109. In the Rydberg equation :

2 21 2

1 1v 109.677

n n

The spectral line corresponding to n1 = 2 and n2= may be called as :

(1) line of longest wavelength in Balmer series

(2) line of shortest wavelength in Lyman series

(3) series limit of Balmer series

(4) series limit of Lyman series

110. An electron in 3rd Bohr orbit is associated with

wavelength (); the circumference of the orbit

will be :

(1) (2) 2

(3)2

(4) 3

111. Which of the following particles has shortest

wavelength, if they are travelling with same

velocity ?

(1) proton (2) electron

(3) neutron (4) -particle

112. What is the lowest value of ‘n’ that allows ‘g’

orbitals to exist ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 7

113. How many electrons in an atom may have the

following quantum numbers ?

n = 4, s1

m2

(1) 8 (2) 16

(3) 32 (4) 4

114. How many subshells and electrons are

associated with n = 4 ?

(1) 4, 32 (2) 4, 16

(3) 4, 8 (4) 4, 4



115. Match Column I with Column II and select the

correct answer :

Column I Column II

(Quantum numbers) (Notations)

(a) n = 1, l = 0 (i) 4f

(b) n = 3, l = 1 (ii) 4d

(c) n = 4, l = 2 (iii) 3p

(d) n = 4, l = 3 (iv)1s

(1) (a–iv), (b–iii), (c–ii), (d–i)

(2) (a–i), (b–ii), (c–iii), (d–iv)

(3) (a–iii), (b–iv), (c–ii), (d–i)

(4) (a–iv), (b–i), (c–ii), (d–iii)

116. Which of the following set of quantum numbers

is not possible ?

n l ml

ms

(1) 2 1 0 –1/2

(2) 1 0 0 –1/2

(3) 3 3 –3 +1/2

(4) 3 1 0 +1/2

117. What is the orbital angular momentum of an

electron in 3s orbital ?

(1) One (2) Zero

(3) Two (4) Three

118. Which among the following orbitals are not

possible ?

1p, 2s, 2p, 3f, 2d, 4s, 4f

(1) 2d, 4f, 2p (2) 3f, 1p, 4f

(3) 1p, 3f, 2d (4) 1p, 2p, 4f

119. Which one of the following is the correct

sequence of orbitals in increasing order of energy

?

(1) 3s 3p, 4s 3d, 4p, 5s 4d, 5p

(2) 3p, 3s, 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s, 5p

(3) 3s 3p 3d, 4s 4p 4d, 5s 5p

(4) 4s, 3d, 3s, 3p, 4p, 4d, 5s, 5p

120. Atom of an element has 29 electrons, which is

the correct configuration of outermost shell ?

(1) 4s2 (2) 3d10 (3) 4s1 (4) 3d9

121. The anatomy of seed plants by Katherine Esau

was published in :

(1) 1960 (2) 1970 (3) 1980 (4) 1990

122. Who reported that cell had a plasma membrane ?

(1) British Zoologist Schleiden

(2) British Zoologist Schwann

(3) German Zoologist Schwann

(4) German Botanist Schwann

123. Which of the following element is present in

maximum in earth’s crust as well as human

body ?

(1) Carbon (2) Silicon

(3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen

124. Actual cell division occurs in :

(1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase

(3) M-phase (4) S phase

125. Bomb calorimeter is a :

(1) A closed metal chamber filled with N2

(2) A closed metal chamber filled with O2

(3) A closed non-metal chamber filled with O2

(4) All of the above

126. Frogs do not respire through :

(1) Gill (2) Lungs

(3) Skin (4) Both (2) & (3)

127. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the function

of :

(1) Respiratory rhythm centre

(2) Pons

(3) Chemosensitive area

(4) Both (1) & (2)

128. Vomiting is the :

(1) Ejection of stomach contents through the

mouth

(2) Ejection of small intestinal contents through

the mouth

(3) Ejection of large intestinal contents through

the mouth


129. _____ is marked by terminalisation of chaismata.

(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis

(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene

130. What is unique about succinic dehydrogenase?

(1) It is located in mitochondrial matrix

(2) It oxidises only succinate to fumrate

(3) Malonate act as competitive inhibitor for

succinate dihydrogenase


131. Which is not a constriction ?

(1) 2° constriction (2) Satellite

(3) Centromere (4) None of the above

132. G1 is seen in all except :

(1) Sunhemp (2) Trifolium

(3) Petunia (4) Sem



133. Match the following.

Column I Column II

(a) typical Eukaryotic (i) 1 – 4.1 µm

cell

(b) PPLO (ii) 5 – 10 µm

(c) length of chloroplast (iii) About 0.1 µm

(d) length of Mitochondria (iv) 1–20 µm

(v) 1 – 20 nm

a b c d a b c d

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (2) (iv) (iii) (v) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (v) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

134. All are secondary metabolites except

(1) Alkaloids (2) Antibiotics

(3) Curcumin (4) None of the above

135. Choose the correct option.

(1) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous

chromosomes & recombination between

sister chromatids of homologous chromosome

(2) In animal cell, furrow gradually deepens &

ultimately joins in the centre dividing the

cell cytoplasm into two

(3) A very significant contribution of mitosis is

variation

(4) None of the above

136.

A

B

C

D

Which one represent “cystic duct” ?

(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) D

137. Match the following.

(a) Body surface (i) Insects

(b) Moist cuticle (ii) Sponges

(c) Tracheal tubes (iii) Earthworms

(d) Gills (iv)Reptiles

(e) Lungs (v) Molluscs

(vi)Mammals

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (v) (iv, vi)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (vi)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (iv, vi)

138. Which conditions is favourable for dissociation

of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin ?

(1) PO2 (2) H+

(3) CO2 (4) Temperature

139. Absorption of drugs occurs in :

(1) Mouth (2) Stomach

(3) S.I. (4) Anus

140. Which of the following phase is typically longer

& more complex ?

(1) Prophase (2) Prophase I

(3) Prophase II (4) Anaphase II

141. All are cofactors except :

(1) Prosthetic group (2) Co-enzyme

(3) Apoenzyme (4) Metal ions

142. 70 s ribosome occurs in :

(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria

(3) Bacteria (4) All of the above

143. Choose the correct pair.

(1) Opposite phyllotaxy — Alstonia

(2) Parallel venation — Onion

(3) Modification of root — Solanum tuberosum

(4) Imbricate Aestivation — Pisum sativum

144. After fertilisation the 'a '

develop into seed

& the 'b '

into fruit.

‘a’ & ‘b’ represent.

(1) a – ovary, b – ovules

(2) a – ovary, b – ovary

(3) a – ovules, b – ovary

(4) a – ovules, b – ovule

145. Choose the incorrect statement for fluid mosaic

model.

(1) Proposed by Singer & Nicolson

(2) According to model the quasi-fluid nature of

lipid enables rotational movement of protein

(3) Proposed in 1972


146. Most abundant protein is present in whole of the

biosphere.

(1) Collagan (2) Ribulose

(3) RuBisco (4) Both (2) & (3)



147. Mitotic Apparatus formed from :

(1) One asters with spindle fibres.

(2) Two asters together with spindle fibres.

(3) Two asters together with microfilament.

(4) Chromosome with centrosome.

148. All are present in mucosa layer except.

(1) Goblet cell (2) Brunner’s glands

(3) Parietal cell (4) Peptic cell

149. (i) The lungs are situated in the thoracic

chamber which is anatomically an air-tight

chamber.

(ii) Each terminal bronchiole give rise to a

number of very thin, irregular walled &

vascularised bag-like structure called alveoli.

(iii) Inspiration can occur if pressure within

lungs is negative.

(iv)Utilisation of O2 by cells for anabolic reaction

& resultant release of CO2.

(v) Thickness of diffusion membrane is much

less than a micrometer.

How many statement are incorrect.

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3

150.

Identify the figure.

(1) Oxygen association curve

(2) Oxygen dissociation curve

(3) Oxygen association-dissociation curve


151. Choose the correct option.

(1) Mouth, Starch Sali var y

Amylase (pH 7.8)Maltose

.

(2) Stomach, Pepsin HCl

pH 7.8 Pepsinogen

(3) Intestine Polysaccharides Amylase

pH 7.8

Disaccharide

(4) Intestine Maltose Maltase

pH 7.8 Glucose +

Glactose

152. Sexually reproducing organism starts its life

cycle from a __________ zygote.

(1) Single cell (2) Double cell

(3) Triple cell (4) None of the above

153. Which one of the following A.A. contain

CH2–OH

(1) Glycine (2) Serine

(3) Alanine (4) Serotonin

154.

A

B

C

D

SER is represented by :

(1) D (2) C (3) B (4) A

155. Which one is the ornamentals plant of liliaceae

family ?

(1) Tulip (2) Petunia

(3) Lupin (4) Sweet pea

156. Which one show inflorescence ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



157. G.N. Ramachandran, an outstanding figure in

the field of protein structure was the founder of

the :

(1) Conformational analysis of Biochemistry

(2) Conformational analysis of Biotechnology

(3) Conformational analysis of Biopolymer

(4) Conformational analysis of Biodegradable

158. All are non-membrane organ except :

(1) Prokaryotic ribosome

(2) Centrosome

(3) Eukaryotic ribosome

(4) Mitochondria

159. Which one is the polymer of fructose ?

(1) Inulin (2) Cellulose

(3) Insulin (4) Both (1) & (3)

160. _______ stage is characterised by appearance of

recombination nodules.

(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene

161.

A

D

B

C

E

Choose the correct option for given diagram.

(1) A = Incisor, D = Canine

(2) B = Incisor, C = Premolars

(3) C = Molar, D = Premolars

(4) A = Incisor, D = Molar

162. Total lung capacity is :

(1) RV + ERV + TV + IRV

(2) RV + EC + IRV

(3) FRC + TV + IRV


163. Trachea divides at the level of :

(1) 5th cervical (2) 5th thoracic

(3) 5th lumbh (4) 5th sacrum

164. Choose the correct option for PEM.

(1) Dietary deficiencies of protein & total food

calories are widespread in many developed

countries of South & South-east Asia, South

America & West & Central frica.

(2) PEM affects infants & adult to produce

marasmus & kwashiorkar

(3) PEM may affects large sections of populations

during drought, famine & political turnouts


165.

Identify the figure.

(1) Metaphase (2) Metaphase I

(3) Metaphase II (4) All of the above

166. C—C x—y + C == C

x y

This reaction is carried out by which enzyme.

(1) Lyases (2) Ligase

(3) Transferases (4) Amylase

167. Chlorophyll is present in :

(1) Stroma (2) Chloroplast

(3) Thylakoids (4) Inner membrane

168. Drupe fruit develop from :

(1) Monocarpellary Hypogynous ovary

(2) Monocarpellary Perigynous ovary

(3) Monocarpellary Epigynous ovary


169. present in :

(1) Gram (2) Moong

(3) Muliathi (4) Tobacco

170. Calyx & corolla are not distinct and are termed

as :

(1) Epiphyllous (2) Perianth

(3) Staminode (4) Epipetalous

171. Choose the correct statement for Rudolf Virchow.

(1) Examined a large number of plants & observed

that all plants are composed of different kinds

of cells.

(2) Gave cell theory.

(3) 1st explained that cells divided & new cells

are formed from pre-existing cells


172. Shape of Mesophyll cells is :

(1) Round (2) Oval

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Elongated



173. Which one is represent Zwitterionic form ?

(1)

R

3H N — CH — COOH

(2)

R

3H N — CH — COO

(3)

R

H N—CH—COO2

–


174. Which phase is marked by the initiation of

condensation of chromosomal material ?

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

175. (i) The enzyme releases to products of the

reaction & the free enzyme is ready to bind

to another molecules.

(ii) Substrate binds to the active site of enzyme,

fitting into the active site.

(iii) the active site of enzyme, now in close

proximity of the substrate breaks the

chemical bonds of substrate & the new

enzyme–product complex is formed.

(iv)The binding of substrate induces the enzyme

to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around

the substrate.

Arrange the following :

(1) ii i iii iv (2) ii iv iii i

(3) i ii iii iv (4) ii iii iv i

176. Oesophagus is a :

(1) Thin, long tube which extends posteriorly

passing through the neck.

(2) Thin, long tube which extends anteriorly

passing through the neck.

(3) Thick, long tube which extends posteriorly

passing through the neck


177. Bile activates :

(1) Amylase (2) Lipase

(3) Emulsification of fat(4)All of the above

178. During inspiration, the diaphragm :

(1) Relaxes (2) Contracts

(3) Expands (4) Gets folded

179. The ultimate end parts of the respiratory system

in human are known as :

(1) Alveoli (2) Bronchioles

(3) Tracheoles (4) Bronchi

180. Racemose inflorescence is seen in all except :

(1) Pisum (2) Gloriosa

(3) Gram (4) Arhar

If you find any probable mistake in the Question, you can send at :

whatsapp/ message on 7564901784

with following details:

Date of Test

Name, Roll No., Contact No. and Explanation of the mistake.

Note: All the request will be accepted till

Tomorrow 5 PM.

SOLUTION / DISCUSSION CLASSon

17 MARCH 2020at

03.30 P.MVenue

All GOAL Branches



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XI - Foundation Revision Test - 01st

PCB - 16.03.2020

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