- fathima school - chennai om i atomic structure periodic classification p-block elements d-block...

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R.ANNAMALAI

HIGHER SECONDARY - SECOND YEAR

CHEMISTRY

Compiled by:

Mr.R.ANNAMALAIM.Sc(Chem).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed., B.Music.,

P.G. TEACHER IN CHEMISTRYGOVT. GIRLS HR.SEC.SCHOOL,

GINGEE. VILLUPURAM DIST.email:[email protected]

ONE MARKQUESTION & ANSWER

Design:

Raasi Computers 199, Balaji Complex, Gandhi Bazaar, Gingee - 604 202.Mobile No.94442 82044

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R.ANNAMALAI

Atomic Structure

Periodic Classification

p-Block elements

d-Block elements

f-Block elements

Co-ordination & Bio-coordination

Compounds

Nuclear Chemistry

Solid state

Thermodynamics-II

Chemical equilibrium-II

Chemical Kintics-II

Surface Chemistry

Electrochemistry - I

Electrochemistry-II

Isomerism in Organic Chemistry

Hydroxy Derivatives

Ethers

Carbonyl Compounds

Carboxylic Acids

Organic Nitrogen Compounds

Bio molecules

Chemistry in Action

Problem in Chemistry

S.No

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OBJECTIVES KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING APPLICATION SKILL TOTAL

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233

E/LA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O

TOTAL

Time : 180 Mins. Maximum Marks : 150

No. of Questions Marks

Knowledge : 24% Application : 24%Understanding : 34% Skill : 18%

Scheme of optionsScheme of Sections

Part-I MCQ - 30 / 30Part-II VSA - 15 / 21Part-III SA - 7 / 12Part-IV E / LA - 3 / 6 & 1 Compulsory (Either or Type)

Summary / E / LA 8 80Short Answer (SA) No. 12 60Very Short Answer (VSA) No.21 63Objective(O) 30 30

233

Higher Secondary - Second YearBLUE PRINT - CHEMISTRY

v

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R.ANNAMALAI

INDEX

S.No. LESSON Page No

123456

789

1011121314151617181920212223242526272829303132333435363738394041424344

viiR.ANNAMALAI M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed. PGT(CHE), G(G)HSS, GINGEE,DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DT

ATOMIC STRUCTURE - IIPERIODIC CLASSIFICATION - II p - BLOCK ELEMENTSd - BLOCK ELEMENTSf - BLOCK ELEMENTSCOORDINATION COMPOUNDS ANDBIO-COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

NUCLEAR CHEMISTRYSOLID STATE - IITHERMONYNAMICS - IICHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - IICHEMICAL KINETICS - IISURFACE CHEMISTRYELECTRO CHEMISTRY - IHYDROXY DERIVATIVESETHERSCORBONYL COMPOUNDSCARBOXYLIC ACIDSORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDSBIOMOLECULESGOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2006GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2006GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2006GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2007GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2007GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2007GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2008GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2008GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2008GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2009GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2009GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2009GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2010GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2010GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2010GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2011GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2011GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2011GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2012GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2012GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2012GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2013GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2013GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2013GOVERNMENT P.T.A MODEL QUESTION PAPER I - V

12346

7

89101011121315171820222426283032343638404244464850525456586062646668707274

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HIGHER SECONDARY - SECOND YEAR

1. En= - 313.6 , If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value ‘n’ corresponds n2

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

2. Dual character of an electron was explained by

a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) de-Broglie d) Pauli

4. The value of Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is

a) 0.529 x 10-8cm b)0.529 x 10-10cm c)�0.529 x 10-6cm d)�0.529 x 10-12cm

5. Which of the following particle having same kinetic energy, would have the maximum de-Broglie wavelength

a) α - particle b) proton c) β - particle d) neutron

Choose the correct answer

6. If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H-atom is - E, what is the energy of the electron in the Bohr’s first orbit?

a) 2E b) -4E c) -2E d) 4E

3. de-Broglie equation is

a) b) λ=hmv c) d)λ= mv

h λ= hv

mλ=

h mv

8. The bond order of Oxygen molecule is

a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2

9. The hybridisation in SF6 molecule is

a) sp3 b)�sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp3d3

10. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitro phenol c) p-nitrophenol d) None

1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II

- 4π2me4

n2h2

7. The energy of electron in an atom is given by En=

a) b) c) d) - 2π2me2

n2h2 - 2π2me4

n2h2 -

2πme4

n2h2

CHEMISTRY

2 x 1= 2

Page : 1R.ANNAMALAI M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed. PGT(CHE), G(G)HSS, GINGEE,DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DT

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

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R.ANNAMALAI

2. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION - IIChoose the correct answer:-1. The value of C-C distance found experimentally in a saturated hydrocarbon is

a) 1.34Å b) 1.36Å c) 1.54Å d) 1.56Å2. On moving down the group, the radius of an ion

a) Decreases b) Increases c) No change d) None of these3. Effective nuclear charge (Z*) can be calculated by using the formula

a) Z* = Z - S b) Z* = Z + S c)� Z* = S - Z d)�Z = Z* - S

4. Pick the correct statement

a) Carbon having more nuclear charge than boron

b) The size of carbon atoms is larger than boron

c) Carbon forms electron deficient compounds

d) Carbon forms ionic compounds

5. Comparing the ionisation energy of fluorine with carbon, fluorine has

a) higher ionisation energy b) lower ionisation energy

c) same ionisation energy d) none of these

6. Among the following which has the maximum ionisation energy

a) Alkali elements b) Alkaline elements c) Halogens d) Noble gases

7. The electron affinity of an atom

a) directly proportinal to its size b) inversely proportional to its size

c) is independent of its size d) none of these

8. Among the following which has higher electron affinity value

a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Bromine d) Iodine

9. The scale which is based on an empirical relation between the energy of a bond and the electrongativities of bonded atoms is

a) Pauling scale b) Mulliken’s scale

c) Sanderson’s scale d) Alfred and Rochow’s scale10. Electron affinity is expressed in

a) KJ b) J c) KJ mol d) KJ mol-1

11. The bond length of Cl2 molecule is

a) 0.74 b) 1.44 c) 1.98 d) 2.28

12. The order of ionization energy

a)s<p<d<f b) s>p>d>f c) s>d>p>f d) s<d<p<f

13. Across the period, electron affinity

a) decreases b) increases c) decrease and the increases d) increase and then decreases

14. Noble gases have .................. electron affinity

a) High b) Low c) Zero d) Very low

15. When XA>> X

B, A - B bond is

a) polar covalent b) non-polar covalent c) Ionic d) metallic

1 x 1= 1


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3. p - BLOCK ELEMENTS 1 x 1= 1

Page : 3

15. Which of the following has highest first ionisation energy?

a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr

14.The lightest gas which is non-inflammable is

a) He b) H2

c) N2

d) Ar

13. Which is not known?

a) XeF6

b) XeF4

c) XeO3

d) ArF6

12. The shape of XeF4 is

a) tetrahedral b) octahedral c) square planar d) pyramidal

11. The noble gases are unreactive because they

a) have same number of electrons

b) have an atomicity of one

c) are gases with low densities

d) have stable electronic configuration

10. Halogens belong to the group number

a) 14 b) 15 c) 17 d) 18

9. Among the halogen acid, the weakest acid is

a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) HI

8. One can draw the map of building on a glass plate by

a) HI b) HF c) HBr d) HCl

7. Which shows only - 1 oxidation state?

a) F b) Br c) Cl d) I

6. The compound used as smoke screen

a) PCl3

b) PCl5

c) PH3

d) H3PO

3

5. The shape of PCl5 is

a) pyramidal b) trigonal bipyramidal c) linear d) tetrahedral

4. The compound with garlic odour is

a)P2O

3b)P

2O

5c) H

3PO

3d) H

3PO

4

3.An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acid. B Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipilate with AgNO

3 solution A is

a) SO2

b) NO2

c) P2O

3d) SO

3

2. Which of the following is most abundant in earth’s crust?

a) C b) Si c) Ge d) Sn

Choose the correct answer:1. Which of the following does not belong to group 13?

a) B b) Al c) Ge d) In

R.ANNAMALAI M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed. PGT(CHE), G(G)HSS, GINGEE,DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DT

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R.ANNAMALAI

4. d - BLOCK ELEMENTSChoose the correct answer:

1. The general electronic configuration of d-block element is

a) (n-1)d1-10 ns0-2 b) (n-1) d1-5 ns2 c) (n-1)d0

ns1 d) None of these

2. Formation of coloured ions is possible when compounds contains

a) paired electrons b) unpaired electrons c) lone pairs of electrons d) none the above

3. Paramagnetism is common in

a) p-block elements b) d-block elements c) s-block elements d) f-block elements

4. The colour of Ti(H2O)

63+ion is due

a) d-d transistion b) Presence of water molecules

c) Inter atomic transfer of electrons d) none the above

5. The electronic configuration of chromium is

a) 3d6 4s0 b) 3d5 4s1 c) 3d4 4s2 d) 3d3 4s2 4p1

6. Paramagnetism is the property of

a) paired electrons b) completely filled electronic subshells

c) unpaired electrons d) completely vacant electronic subshells

7. d-block elements form coloured ions because

a) They absorb some energy for d-s transition

b) They absorb some energy for p-d transition

c) They absorb some energy for d-d transition

d) They do not absorb any energy

8. The correct electronic configuration of copper atom is

a) 3d10 4s1 b) 3d10 4s2 c) 3d9 4s2 d) 3d5 4s2 4p4

9. Copper is extracted from

a) cuprite b) copper glance c) malachite d) copper pyrites

10. Silver salt used in photography is

a) AgCl b) AgNO3

c) AgF d) AgBr

11. Sodiumthiosulphate is used in photography because of its

a) Oxidizing behaviour b) Reducing behaviour

c) Complexing behaviour d) Photochemical behaviour

12. Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form

a) ZnH2

b) Na2 ZnO

2c) ZnO d) Zn(OH)

2

13. Which of the following compounds will not give positive chromyl chloride test?

a) CuCl2

b) HgCl2

c) ZnCl2

d) C6H

5Cl

14. Which of the ions will give colourless aqueous solution?

a) Ni2+ b) Fe2+ c) Cu2+ d) Cu+

15. Which of the following compounds is not coloured?

a) Na2CuCl

4 b) Na

2CdI

4 c) K

4 [Fe(CN)

6] d) K

3[Fe(CN)

6]

2 x 1= 2


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R.ANNAMALAI20. The correct statement in respect of d-block elements is

a) They are all metals

b) They sho variable valency

c) They form coloured ions and complex salts

d) All above statement are correct

22. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

a) Mn2+ b) Ti3+ c) V3+ d) Fe2+

24. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is

a) Cu2O+FeS b) FeSiO

3c) CuFeS

2d) Cu

2S+FeO

26. Which transition element show highest oxidation state

a) Sc b) Ti c) Os d) Zn

16. In the extraction of Cu, the reaction which does not take place in the Bessemer converter is

a) 2CuFeS2+ O

2 Cu

2S + FeS + SO

2b) 2Cu

2S

+ 3O

2 2Cu

2O + 2SO

2

c) 2Cu2O

+ Cu

2S 6Cu + SO

2d) 2FeS

+ 3O

2 2FeO + 2SO

2

17. Select the wrong statement

a) All cuprous salts are blue in colour

b) Transition metals are highly reactive

c) All cuprous salts are white in colour

d) Mercury is a liquid metal

18. Choose the wrong statment regarding K2Cr

2O

7

a) It is a powerful oxidizing agent

b) It is used in tanning industry

c) It is soluble in water

d) It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate

19. For a transition metal ion, the effective magnetic moment in BM is given by the formula

a) n(n-1) b) n(n+1) c) n(n+2) d) n(n+1) (n+2)

21. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate

a) Cu2 (CN)

2b) K

2 [Cu(CN)

6] c) K

[Cu(CN)

2 ] d) Cu

2 (CN)

2 + (CN)

2

23. Among the following statement, the incorrect one is

a) Calamine and siderite are carbonates

b) Argentite and cuprite are oxides

c) Zine blende and pyrites are sulphides

d) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper

25. The transition element with the lowest atomic number is

a) Scandium b) Titanium c) Zinc d) Lanthanum


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R.ANNAMALAI

5. f - BLOCK ELEMENTSChoose the correct answer:1. The electronic configuration of Lanthanides is

a) [Xe]4f0 5d0 6s0 b) [Xe]4f1-7 5d1 6s1

c) [Xe]4f1-14 5d1 6s2 d) [Xe]4f1-14 5d1-10 6s2

2. The electronic configuration of Actinides is

a) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0 7s0 b) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s0

c) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s1 d) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s2

3. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

a) Zn and Y have about the same radius b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state

c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

4. The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is

a) +2 b) +1 c) +3 d) +4

5. Lanthanides are extracted from

a) Limonite b) Monazite c) Magnetite d) Cassiterite

6. The elements in which the extra electron enters (n-2) f orbitals are called

a) s - block elements b) p - block elements

c) d - block elements d) f - block elements7. The Lanthanides contraction is due to

a) Perfect shielding of 4f electron b) Imperfect shielding of 4f electron

c) Perfect shielding of 3d electron d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electron

8. Ceria is used in

a) toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp materials d) none of the above

9. .................. is used in gas lamp material

a) MnO2

b) CeO2

c) N2O

5d) Fe

2O

3

10. Alloys of Lanthanides are called as

a) Mish - metals b) Metalloids c) Plate metals d) Actinides

11. Metallothermic processes involving Lanthanides are called as

a) Aluminothermic process b) Lanthanido - thermic process

c) Reduction process d) Oxidation process

12. ................... form oxocations

a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkalimetals

13. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Lanthanides is

a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4

14. Lanthanides are separated by

a) Fractional distillation b) Steam distillation

c) Fractional Crystallisation d) Sublimation

2 x 1= 2


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R.ANNAMALAI

Choose the correct answer1. Which a double salt

a) K2SO

4.Al

2(SO

4)

3.24H

2O b)NaCl c) K

4[Fe(CN)

6] d) KCl

2. An example of a complex compound having coordination number 4

a) K4[Fe(CN)

6] b)[Co(en)

3]Cl

3c) [Fe(H

2O)

6]Cl

3d) [Cu(NH

3)

4]Cl

2

3. The geometry of [Cu(NH3)

4]2+ complex ion

a) Linear b) Tetrahedral c) Square planar d) Angular

4. An example of a chelating ligand is

a) NO-2

b) Chloro c) Bromo d) en

5. The geometry of complex ion [Fe(CN6]4- is

a) tetrahedral b) square planar c) Octahedral d) triangular

6. The oxidation number of Nickel in the complex ion, [NiCl4]2- is

a) +1 b) -1 c) +2 d) -2

7. Which is not an anionic complex?

a) [Cu(NH3)

4]Cl

2b) K

4[Fe(CN)

6] c) K

3[Fe(CN)

6] d) [NiCl

4]2-

8. The geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2- is

a) Tetrahedral b) Square planar c) Triangular d) Octahedral

9. An example of an ambidentate ligand is

a) CN- b) Cl- c) NO2- d) I-

10. [FeF6]4- is paramagnetic because

a) F-is a weaker ligand b) F-is a strong ligand

c) F - is a flexidentate ligand d) F - is a chelating ligand

11. In [FeII(CN)6]4- the central metal ion is

a) Fe b) Fe+2 c) Fe+3 d) CN-

12. The coordination number of Ni (II) in [Ni(CN)4]2- is

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

13. The name of [PtIV(NH3)

2Cl

2]2+ is

a) Diamminedichloroplatinum (IV) ion b) Diamminedichloroplanitate (IV)

c) Diamminedichloroplatinum d) Dichlorodiammineplatinum (IV) ion

14. For a compound K4[Fe(CN)

6] 4K++ [Fe(CN

6]4-, the complex ion is

a) K+ b) CN- c) FeII d) [Fe(CN)6]4-

15. A metal ion from the first transition series forms an octahedral complex with magnetic moment of 4.9 BM and another octahedral complex which is diamagnetic. The metal ion is

a) Fe2+ b) Co2+ c) Mn2+ d) Ni2+

16. Paramagnetic moment is expressed in

a) Debye unit b) K Joules c) BM d) ergs

6. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS ANDBIO-COORDINATION COMPOUNDS 1 x 1= 1


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R.ANNAMALAI

17. The type of isomerism found in the complexes [Co(NO2)(NH

3)

5]SO

4 and [Co(SO

4)(NH

3)

5]NO

2

a) Hydrate isomerism b) Coordination isomerism

c) Linkage isomerism d) Ionisation

18. Valence bond theory does not explain the property of complex compound

a) geometry b) magnetic c) nature of ligand d) colour

7. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRYChoose the correct answer:-

1. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by

a) Mada curie b) Pierre curie c) Henry Becquerrel d) Rutherford

2. The most penetrating radiations are

a) α rays b) β rays c) γ rays d) All are equally penetrating

4. Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13

Al27 to give 15

p30 and a neutron

a) α particle b) deuteron c) proton d) neutron

5. The reaction 5B8

4Be8 takes place due to

a) α decay b) β decay c) electron capture d) positron decay

3. In the nuclear reaction, 92

U23882

Pb206, the of α and β particles emitted are

a) 7α, 5β b) 6α, 4β c) 4α, 3β d) 8α, 6β

6. Radioactivity is due to

a) Stable electronic configuration

b) Stable nucleus

c) Unstable nucleus

d) Unstable electronic configuration

7. In the following radioactive decay, 92

X232 89

y220 , how many α and β Particles are ejected.

a) 3α, 3β b) 5α, 3β c) 3α, 5β d) 5α, 5β

8.92

U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into54

Xe139,38

Sr94 and x. What will be theproduct x?

a) 3 neutrons b) 2 neutrons c) α particle d) β particle

9. Loss of a β-particle is equivalent to

a) Increase of one proton b) Decrese of one neutron only

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

10. Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?

a) Water b) Deuterium c) Some compound of uranium d) Cadmium

1 x 1= 1


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8. SOLID STATE - IIChoose the correct answer.

1. The number of chloride ions that surrounds the central Na+ ion in NaCl crystal is ..............

a) 12 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4

2. The Bragg’s equation is

a) λ=2d sinθ b) nd=2λsinθ c) 2λ=nd sinθ d) nλ=2d sinθ

3. A regular three dimensional arrangement of indentical points in space is called

a) Unit cell b) Space lattice c) Primitive d) Crystallography

4. The smallest repeating unit in space lattice which when repeated over and again results in the crystal of the given substance is called

a) Space lattice b) Crystal lattice c) Unit cell d) Isomorphism

5. The crystal structure of CsCl is

a) Simple cubic b) face-centred cubic c) Tetragonal d) Body centred cubic

6. An example for Frenkel defect is

a) NaCl b) AgCl c) CsCl d) FeS

7. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called

a) Super conductors b) n-type semiconductors c) p-type semiconductors d) Insulators

8. In the Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X-rays, ‘n’ represents

a) The number of moles b) Avogadro number c) A quantum number d) Order of reflection

9. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical sphares is

a) 6 b) 4 c) 12 d) 8

10. The crystals which are good conductors of electricity and heat are

a) Ionic crystals b) Molecular crystals c) Metallic crystals d) Covalent crystals

11. In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is shared by

a) One unit cell b) Two unit cell c) 8 unit cell d) 4 unit cell

12. The ability of certain ultra cold substances to conduct electricity without resistance is called

a) Semiconductor b) Conductor c) Superconductor d) Insulator

13. The total number of atoms per unit cell is bcc is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

14. Rutile is

a) TiO2

b) Cu2O c) MoS

2d) Ru

15. Semiconductors are used as

a) rectifiers b) transistors c) solar cells d) all the above

16. An example of metal deficiency defect


1 x 1= 1


PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

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9. THERMONYNAMICS - IIChoose the correct answer.

1. The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called

a) Δ E b) Δ H c) Δ S d) Δ G

2. All the naturally occuring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to

a) decrease of entropy b) increase in enthalpy

c) increase in free energy d) decrease of free energy

3. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?

a) q = w b) q = 0 c) ΔE = q d) PΔV = 0

4. When a liquid boils, there is

a) an increase in entropy

b) a decrease in entropy

c) an increase in heat of vapourisation

d) an increase in free energy

5. If ΔG for a reaction is negative, the change is

a) Spontaneous b) Non-spontaneous

c) Reversible d) Equilibrium

6. Which of the following does not results in an increase in the entropy?

a) crystallisation of sucrose from solution

b) rusting of iron

c) conversion of ice to water

d) vaporisation of camphor

7. In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible?

a) ΔH>0, ΔS>0 b) ΔH<0, ΔS>0

c) ΔH>0, ΔS<0 d) ΔH<0, ΔS<0

8. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by

a) ΔG = ΔH + TΔS b) ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

c) ΔG = ΔH x TΔS d) None of the above

9. For the reaction 2Cl(g)

Cl2(g)

, the signs of Δ H and Δ S respectively are

a) +, – b) +, + c) –,– d) –, +

10. CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - IIChoose the correct answer.

1. State of chemical equilibrium is

a) dynamic b) stationery c) none d) both

2 x 1= 2

2 x 1= 2


2. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions are 2A B is K1 and B 2A is K

2, then

a) K1 = 2K

2b) K

1 = 1/K

2c) K

2 = (K

1)2 d) K

1 = 1/K

22

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3. In the reversible reaction 2HI H2 + I

2, is

a) greater than Kc

b) less than Kc

c) Equal to Kc

d) Zero

4. In the equilibrium N2+ 3H

2 2NH

3 , the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the

process having

a) low pressure and high temperature b) low pressure and low temperature

c) high temperature and high pressure d) high pressure and low temperature

5. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K

4NH3(g) + 5O

2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H

2O(g)

a) (mol dm-3)-2 b) (mol dm-3) c) (mol dm-3) 10

d) (mol dm-3)-9

6. Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which itpartially dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibriumconstant Kc for the dissociation is

a) 27/16 (mole dm-3)2 b) 27/8 (mole dm-3)2

c) 27/4 (mole dm-3)2 d) None

7. An equilibrium reaction is endothermic if K1 and K

2 are the equilibrium constants at T

1 and T

2

temperature respectively and if T2 is greater than T

1 than

a) K1 < K

2b) K

1 > K

2c) K

1 = K

2 d) None

11. CHEMICAL KINETICS - II


1. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for

(a) Second order reaction (b) zero order reaction

(c) pseudo first order reaction (d) first order reaction

2. The unit of zero order rate constant is

(a) litre mol–1sec–1 (b) mol litre–1 sec–1 (c) sec–1 (d) litre2 sec–1

3. The excess energy which a molecule must process to becom active is known asty

(a) kinetic energy (b) threshold energy(c) potential energy (d) activation energy

4. Arrhenius equation is

(a) k = Ae–1/RT (b) k = Ae–RT/Ea (c) k = Ae–Ea/RT (d) k = AeEa/RT

5. The term A in arrhenius equation is called as

(a) Probability factor (b) Activation of energy(c) Collision factor (d) Frequency factor

6. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms that occur in the rate equation is called

(a) molecularity (b) Order(c) rate (d) rate constant

1 x 1= 1


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7. Reactions in which the reacting molecules resact in more than one way yielding different set of productsare called

(a) consecutive reactions (b) parallel reactions

(c) opposing reactions (d) chain reactions

8. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. Then its rate constant is

(a) 6.93 x 102 min–1 (b) 0.693 x 10–2 min–1

(c) 6.932 x 10–2 min–1 (d) 69.3 x 10–1 min–1

9. For a reaction : aA bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentratin of A is increasedby your times. The rate of reaction is equal to

(a) k [A]a (b) k [A]½ (c) k [A]1/a (d) k [A]

10. 2N2O

54NO

2 + O

2,

d [N2O5] = k1[N

2O

5],

d [NO2] = k2 [N

2O

5] and

d [O2

] = k

3 [N

2O

5], the relation between k

1, k

2 and k

3 is

(a) 2k1 = 4k

2 = k

3(b) k

1 = k

2 = k

3(c) 2k

1 = k

2 = 4k

3(d) 2k

1 = k

2 = k

3

11. For a reaction, Ea = 0 and k = 4.2 x 105 sec–1 at 300 K, the value of k at 310K will be

(a) 4.2 x 105 sec–1 (b) 8.4 x 105 sec–1

(c) 7.4 x 104 sec–1 (d) unpredictable

dt

dt

dt

12. SURFACE CHEMISTRYChoose the correct answer

1. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as

(a) electroosmosis (b) cataphoresis

(c) electrodialysis (d) electrophoresis

2. Which one is the correct factor that explains the increase of rate of reaction by a catalyst

(a) shap selectivity (b) particle size

(c) increase of free energy (d) lowering of activation energy

3. Fog is a colloidal solution of

(a) gas in liquid (b) liquid in gas (c) gas in solid (d) solid in gas

4. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in

(a) emulsion (b) colloidal solution

(c) true solution (d) None

5. The Tyndall’s effect associated with colloidal particles is due to

(a) presence of change (b) scattering of light

(c) absorption of light (d) reflection of light

6. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when

(a) temperature increases (b) temperature decreases

(c) pressure increases (d) concentration increases

3 x 1= 3


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7. Colloidal medicines are more effective because(a) they are clean (b) they are easy to prepare

(c) the germs more towards, them (d) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed

8. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulsion remains colourless then, the emulsion is

(a) O/W (b) W/O (c) O/O (d) W/W

9. For selective hydrogenation of alkyness into alkene the catalyst used is

(a) Ni / 250°C (b) Pt / 25°C

(c) Pd, partially inactivated by quinoline (d) Raney nickel

10. For chemisorption, which is wrong

(a) irreversivle

(b) it requires activation energy

(c) it forms multimolecular layers on adsorbate

(d) surface compounds are formed

11. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of

(a) two solids (b) two liquids (c) two gases (d) one solid one liquid

12. Colloids are purified by

(a) precipitation (b) coagulation (c) dialysis (d) filtration

13. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY - IChoose the correct answer

1. The process in which chemical change occurs on passing electricity is termed as ................

(a) neutralisation (b) hydrolysis (c) electrolysis (d) ionisation

2. The laws of electrolysis were enunciated first by ...................

(a) Dalton (b) Faraday (c) Kekule (d) Avogadro

3. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on theelectrode is equal to ........................

(a) equivalent weight (b) molecular weight

(c) electrochemical equivalent (d) one gram

4. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to ...............

(a) atomic number of the cation (b) atomic number of the anion

(c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte (d) speed of the cation

5. The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm–1 cm–1 at 25oC. Its equivalentconductance is ..................

(a) 14 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 (b) 140 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1

(c) 1.4 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 (d) 0.14 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1

6. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25

oC is 80 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 and at infinite dilution 400

ohm–1 cm2 eq–1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is ......................

(a) 1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.3

1 x 1= 1


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7. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid ................

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (d) becomes zero

8. NH4OH is a weak base because ...............

(a) it has low vapur pressure (b) it is only partially ionised

(c) it is completely ionised (d) it has low density

10. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of ................

(a) CH3COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H

2SO

4

11. Which one of the following relationship is correct?

1(a) pH = (b) pH = log

10 [H+][H+]

1(c) log

10 pH = [H+] (d) pH = log

10 [H+]

12. When 10–6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of the solutionis ......................

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) less than 6 (d) more than 7

9. Which one of the following formulae represents Ostwald’s dilution law for a binary electrolyte whosedegree of dissociation is α and concentration C.

(1-α) C α2C(a) K = (b) K =α 1-α

(1-α)C α2C(c) K = (d) K =

α2 (1- α)C

13. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre - 1 is ..............

(a) 1 X 10–12 (b) 1 X 10–2 (c) 1 X 10–7 (d) 1 X 10–4

14. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is .................

(a) 1 (b) 10–1 (c) 13 (d) 10–13

15. A solution which is resistant to changes of pH on addition of small amounts of an acid or a base isknown as .................

(a) buffer solution (b) true solution

(c) isohydric solution (d) ideal solution

16. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salt is given by.................

[Acid](a) [H+] = K

a(b) [H+] = K

a [Salt]

[Salt]

[Salt](c) [H+] = K

a [Acid] (d) [H+] = K

a [Acid]

17. Indicators used in acid - base titrations are ..................

(a) strong organic acids (b) strong organic bases

(c) weak organic acids or weak organic bases (d) non-eletrolysis


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18. For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used in ...............

(a) potassium permanganate (b) phenolphthalein

(c) litmus (d) methyl orange

16. HYDROXY DERIVATIVESChoose the correct answer.

1. Which has the highest boiling point?

(a) CH3CH

3(b) CH

3OH (c) C

2H

5OH (d) C

3H

8

2. Which is soluble in H2O?

(a) Phenol (b) Alkanes (c) Alcohols (d) Alkenes

3. Order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is

(a) primary < secondary > tertiary

(b) primary > secondary > tertiary

(c) primary < secondary < tertiary

(d) primary > secondary < tertiary

4. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than that of

(a) propane (b) formic acid

(c) dimethyl ether (d) None of the above

5. Ethyl alcohol cannot be used as a solvent for CH3MgI because

(a) CH3MgI reacts with alcohol giving methane

(b) The reaction between them is explosive in nature

(c) CH3MgI is converted to C

2H

5MgI

(d) Alcohol is immicible with CH3MgI

7. On oxidation of an alcohol gives an aldehyde having the same number of carbon atoms as that of alcohol. The alcohol is

(a) 1o alcohol (b) 2o alcohol (c) 3o alcohol (d) None

8. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is

(a) 1-pentanol (b) 2-pentanone

(c) 3-pentanone (d) pentanal

9. The compound that racts fastest with Lucas reagent is

(a) butan - 1 - ol (b) butan - 2 - ol

(c) 2 methyl propan - 1 - ol (d) 2 - methyl propan - 2 - ol

6. When alcohols are converted to alkyl chlorides by thionyl chloride in presence of pyridine theintermediate formed is

(a) sulphonium ion (b) chlorosulphonic acid

(c) alkyl chlorosulphite (d) chlorosulphite

1 x 1= 1


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10. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because

(a) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide

(b) phenoxide ion is sronger base than ethoxide

(c) phenoxide ion is stablized through delocalisation

(d) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion

13. p-nitrophenol is having lower pKa value than phenol because

(a) phenol is more acide than p-nitro phenol

(b) anion of p-nitrophenol is more stabilised by resonance than that of phenol

(c) degree of ionisation of p-nitro phenol is less than that of phenol

(d) anion of p-nitrophenol is less stable than that of phenol

14. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with

(a) (CH3)

3COH (b) (CH

3)

2CHOH (c) CH

3(CH

2)

2OH (d) CH

3CH

2OH

15. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives

(a) benzaldehyde (b) benzoic acid (c) toluene (d) benzene

16. A compound that undergoes bromination easily is

(a) benzoic acid (b) benzene (c) phenol (d) toluene

17. Isomerism exhibited by ethylene glycol is

(a) position isomerism (b) chain isomerism

(c) functional isomerism (d) both (a) and (c)

18. Ethylene diamine is converted to ethylene glycol using

(a) Na2CO

3 solution (b) nitrous acid (c) NaHCO

3 (aqueous) (d) Baeyer’s reagent

19. Ethylene glycol forms terylene with

(a) adipic acid (b) phthalic anhydride (c) terephthalic acid (d) oxalic acid

20. 1 - propanol and 2 - propanolcan be best distinghished by

(a) oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution

(b) oxidation with acid dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution

(c) oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution

(d) oxidation with concentrated H2SO

4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution


12. The most unlikely representation of resonance structures of p-nitrophenoxide ion is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

o-

N+

o o

o

N+

o- o

-

o

N+

(-)o o(-)

o-

N

o o(-)

11. Among the following compounds strongest acid is

(a) HC = CH (b) C6H

6(c) C

2H

6(d) CH

3OH

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21. Glycerol is used

(a) as a sweeteing agent

(b) in the manufacture of good quality soap

(c) in the manufacture of nitro glycerin

(d) in all the above

22. The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is

(a) pentanol (b) propanol (c) glycerol (d) glycol

23. The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

24. The active component of dynamite is

(a) Keiselghur (b) Nitro glycerine

(c) Nitro benzene (d) Trinitro toluene

25. The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives

(a) ICH2CH

2I (b) CH

2 = CH

2(c) CH

2 = CHI (d) ICH = CHI

17. ETHERSChoose the correct answer:

1. The isomerism exhibited by C2H

5OC

2H

5 and CH

3 – O – CH – CH

3 is

|CH

3

(a) Functional (b) metamerism (c) position (d) chain

2. Which one of the following is simple ether?

(a) CH3 – O – C

2H

5(b) C

2H

5 – O – CH

3

(c) C2H

5 – O – C

2H

5(d) C

3H

7 – O – C

2H

5

3. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with

(a) HI (b) KMnO4

(c) NaOH (d) H2O

4. Oxygen atom of ether is

(a) very active (b) Replacable (c) oxidising (d) Comparatively inert

5. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are

(a) Neutral (b) Acidic (c) Basic (d) Amphoteric

6. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in

(a) CH3COOH (b) C

2H

5OC

2H

5(c) CH

3CH

2OH (d) C

2H

5NH

2

2 x 1= 2


7. When ethyl Iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) diethylether (c) silver ethoxide (d) ethylmethyl ether

8. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of

(a) nucleophilic addition (b) electrophilic addition

(c) electrophilic substitution (d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

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9. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is

(a) peroxide (b) oxide (c) TNT (d) superoxide

10. Ether is formed when alkylhalide is treated with sodium alkoxide. This method is known as

(a) Hoffmann reaction (b) Williamson’s synthesis

(c) Wurtz synthesis (d) Kolbe’s reaction

18. CORBONYL COMPOUNDSChoose the correct answer

1. The chain isomer of 2-methyl propanal is

(a) 2-butanone (b) butanal

(c) 2-methyl propanol (d) but 3 - ene - 2 - ol

2. Schiffs reagent gives pink colour with

(a) acetone (b) acetaldehyde (c) ethyl alcohol (d) methyl acetate

3. Isopropyl alcohol vapours with air over silver catalyst at 520 K give

(a) tert.butyl alcohol (b) acetaldehyde

(c) acetone (d) 2-propanol

4. Methyl ketones are usually characterised by

(a) the Fehling’s solution (b) the iodoform test

(c) the Schiff’s test (d) the Tollen’s reagent

5. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to give ethyl methyl ketone?

(a) 2-propanol (b) 2-pentanone (c) 1-butanol (d) 2-butanol

6. Formaldehyde polymerises to give

(a) paraldehyde (b) paraformaldehyde (c) formalin (d) formic acid

7. Tollen’s reagent is

(a) ammoniacal cuprous chloride (b) ammoniacal cuprous oxide

(c) ammoniacal silver nitrate (d) ammoniacal silver chloride

1 x 1= 1


8. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it gives a precipitate of

(a) Cu2O (b) CuO (c) CuO + Cu

2O (d) Cu

9. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is

(a) formaldehyde (b) acetaldehyde

(c) benzaldehyde (d) trimethyl acetaldehyde

10. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of

(a) electrophilic addition (b) nucleophilic addition

(c) nucleophilic substitution (d) electrophilic subtitution

11. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presernce of Pd on BaSO4 gives

(a) phenol (b) benzoic acid (c) benzyl alcohol (d) benzaldehyde

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12. From which of the following, tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesiumiodide?

(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH

3COCH

3(d) CO

2

13. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and C2H

5ONa the product formed is

(a) R–CH = N–NH2

(b) R–C = N

(c) R – C – NH2

(d) R – CH3

||O

14. Aldol is

(a) 2-hydroxy butanol (b) 3-hydroxy butanol

(c) 3-hydroxy butanal (d) 2-hydroxy butanal

15. In the reduction of acetaldehyde using LiAlH4 the hydride ion acts as

(a) electrophile (b) nucleophile (c) both (a) and (b) (d) a free radical

16. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(a) 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone are position isomers

(b) aqueous solution of formaldehyde is known as formalin

(c) aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic substitution

(d) aldehydes act as reducing agents

17. A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid. THe X is

(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) (CH

3)

2 CO (d) C

6H

5CH

2CHO

18. The IUPAC name of CH3 – C = CH – C – CH

3 is

| || CH

3 O

(a) 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one (b) 2-methylpent-3-en-2-one

(c) 3-methylpent-2-en-1one (d) None of these


20. The compound which does not reduce Fehling solution is

(a) formaldehyde (b) acetaldehyde

(c) benzaldehyde (d) propionaldehyde

19. Which of the following does not give iodoform test?

(a) aceto phenone (b) benzophenone

(c) CH3 – CHOH (d) CH

3 – CH – CH

2 CH

2 – CH

3

| |CH

3OH

21. CH3COCH

3The product is

(a) mesitylene (b) mesityl oxide

(c) phorone (d) paraldehyde

Conc. H2SO

4

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23. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is

(a) acetone (b) acetophenone

(c) isopropyl alcohol (d) glycol

25. Bakelite is a product of reaction between

(a) formaldehyde and NaOH (b) phenol and methanal

(c) aniline and NaOH (d) phenol and chloroform

Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is least acidic

(a) C2H

5OH (b) CH

3COOH (c) C

6H

5OH (d) ClCH

2COOH

2. Weakest acid among the following is

(a) Acetic acid (b) Phenol (c) Water (d) Acetylene

19. CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

22. Which compound on strong oxidation gives propionic acid?

(a) CH3 – CH – CH

3(b) CH

3 – CO – CH

3

|

OH

(c) CH3

(d) CH3 CH

2 CH

2 OH

|CH

3 – C – OH

| CH

3

24. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate gives

(a) benzophenone (b) benzaldehyde

(c) acetophenone ` (d) phenyl benzoate

distillation

3. Ester formation involves the reaction of

(a) an aldehyde and a ketone

(b) an alcohol with RMgX

(c) Two molecules of an acid with dehydrating agent

(d) an acylhalide with an alcohol

1 x 1= 1


4. Heating a mixture of sodium acetate and soda lime gives

(a) methane (b) ethane (c) acetic acid (d) oxalic acid

5. The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is

(a) acetic acid (b) benzoic acid (c) formic acid (d) oxalic acid

CH3 |6. The IUPAC name of CH

3 – CH

2 – CH – COOH is

(a) α - methyl butric acid (b) 3-methyl butanoic acid

(c) 2-methyl butanoic acid (d) Iso pentanoic acid

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7. The Isomerism exhibited by CH3CH

2COOH and CH

3COOCH

3 is

(a) metamerism (b) position (c) chain (d) functional

8. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent

(a) acetic acid (b) formic acid (c) butyric acid (d) benzoic acid

9. Which order of arrangement is correct iterms of the strength of the acid

(a) CH3–CH

2COOH > CH

3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH

2COOH

(b) ClCH2COOH < HCOOH < CH

3COOH < CH

3CH

2COOH

(c) CH3–CH

2COOH < CH

3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH

2COOH

(d) HCOOH > CH3CH

2COOH < CH

3COOH > ClCH

2COOH

10. The compound which does not undergo intermolecular dehydration with P2O

5 is

(a) acetic acid (b) formic acid (c) propionic acid (d) Butyric acid H

11. C = O The product is

HO

(a) CO + H2O (b) HCOOH (c) H

2 + CO

2(d) HCHO + O

2

160oC

12. When chlorine is passed through acetic acid in presence of red P, it forms.

(a) acetyl chloride (b) Trichloro acetaldehyde

(c) Trichloro acetic acid (d) Methyl chloride

13. Which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt and CO

2 ?

(a) acetic acid (b) n-hexanol (c) phenol (d) both (a) and (c)

14. When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium - bicarbonatate, CO2

is liberated. The “C” ofCO

2 comes from

(a) methyl group (b) carboxylic acid group

(c) methylene group (d) bicarbonate

15. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of

(a) inter molecular hydrogen bonding (b) formation of dimers

(c) highly acidic hydrogen (d) greater resonance stabilisation of their conjugate base

16. Among the following the strongest acid is

(a) ClCH2COOH (b) Cl

3CCOOH (c) CH

3COOH (d) Cl

2CHCOOH

17. Which of the following compound is optically active?

(a) CH3CH

2COOH (b) HOOC–CH

2–COOH

(c) CH3CH(OH)COOH (d) Cl

2CHCOOH

18. CH3CH(OH)COOH ? The product is

H2O

2/Fe2+

(a) CH3COCOOH (b) CH

3CH

2COOH

(c) CH3CHOHCHO (d) HOOCCH

2COOH


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19. The compound found in some stony deposit in kidneys is

(a) potassium oxalate (b) oxalic acid

(c) potassium succinate (d) calcium oxalate

20. Ethylene cyanide on hydrolysis using acid gives

(a) oxalic acid (b) succinic acid

(c) adipic acid (d) propionic acid

20. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS


1. Bromo ethane reacts with silver nitrite to give

(a) C2H

5NO

2(b) C

2H

5–O–NO (c) C

2H

5Ag + NaBr (d) C

2H

5NC

O

2. The isomerism exhibited by CH3 – CH

2 – N and CH

3 CH

2 – O – N = O is

O(a) position (b) chain (c) functional (d) tautomerism

3. In nitro alkanes –NO2 group is converted to – NH

2 group by the reaction with

(a) Sn/HCl (b) Zn dust (c) Zn/NH4Cl (d) Zn/NaOH

4. When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl in neutral medium, we get

(a) CH3NH

2(b) C

2H

5NH

2

(c) CH3NHOH (d) C

2H

5COOH

5. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

(a) Toluene (b) benzene (c) benzoic acid (d) nitrobenzene

6. Nitromethane condenses with acetaldehyde to give

(a) nitro propane (b) 1-nitro-2-propanol

(c) 2-nitro-1-propanol (d) 3-nitro propanol

7. Which of the following compounds has the smell of bitter almonds?

(a) aniline (b) nitro methane(c) benzene sulphonic acid (d) nitrobenzene

8. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in

(a) o-dinitro benzene (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene

(c) p-dinitro benzene (d) m-dinitro benzene

9. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in con. sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is

(a) C6H

5NH – NHC

6H

5(b) C

6H

5 – NHOH

(c) C6H

5 – N = N – C

6H

5(d) C

6H

5.HSO

4

10. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is

(a) hydronium ion (b) sulphonic acid

(c) nitronium ion (d) bromide ion

3 x 1= 3


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11. The reduction of CH3 – CH

2 – C = N with sodium and alcohol results in the formation of

(a) CH3 – CH– CH

3(b) CH

3 – CH

2 – CH

2 – OH + N

2

NH2

(c) CH3 – CH

2 – CH

2 – NH

2(d) CH

3 – CH

2 – NH

2

12. The basic character of amines is due to the

(a) tetrahedral structure

(b) presence of nitrogen atom

(c) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom

(d) high electronegativity of nitrogen

13. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is

(a) (C2H

5)

2NH (b) C

2H

5NH

2

(c) (C2H

5)

3N (d) (C

2H

5)

4 N+ I–

14. Primary amine acts as

(a) Electrophile (b) lewis base

(c) Lewis acid (d) Free radical

15. Oxidation of aniline with acidified potassium dichromate gives

(a) p-benzo quinone (b) benzoic acid

(c) benzaldehyde (d) benzyl alcohol

16. Which one of the following is a secondary amine?

(a) aniline (b) diphenyl amine

(c) sec.butylamine (d) tert.butylamine

NaNO2/HCl17. C

6H

5NH

2X. Identify X.

(a) C6H

5Cl (b) C

6H

5NHOH

(c) C6H

5N

2Cl (d) C

6H

5OH

18. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?

(a) m-toluidine (b) aniline

(c) p-amino (d) benzyl amine

19. Anilin differs from ethylamine by the reaction with

(a) metallic sodium

(b) an alkyl halide

(c) chloroform and caustic potash

(d) nitrous acid

20. When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled the product formed is

(a) benzyl alcohol (b) benzene + N2

(c) phenol (d) phenyl hydroxylamine


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21. BIOMOLECULESChoose the correct answer.

1. Which is a mono saccharide among the following

(a) Sucrose (b) Cellulose (c) Maltose (d) Glucose

2. Identify the reducing sugar.

(a) Sucrose (b) Cellulose (c) Starch (d) Glucose

3. Sucrose is not

(a) a di saccharide (b) a non - reducing sugar

(c) hydrolysed to only glucose (d) hydrolysed to glucose & fructose

4. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by

(a) C1 – C

1(b) C

1 – C

2(c) C

1 – C

4(d) C

1 – C

6

5. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by

(a) Br2/H

2O (b) Fehling solutions (c) Tollen’s reagent (d) Conc. HNO

3

6. Inversion of sucrose refers to

(a) oxidation of sucrose (b) reduction of sucrose

(c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose (d) polymerisation of sucrose

7. Glucose forms __________with acetic anhydride and sodium acetate.

(a) di acetate (b) tetra acetate (c) penta acetate (d) hexa acetate

8. The amino acid without chiral carbon is

(a) Glysine (b) Alanine (c) Proline (d) Thyrosine

9. The building block of proteins are

(a) α-hydroxy acids (b) α-amino acids (c) β-hydroxy acids (d) β-amino acids

10. Which is not true of amino acid?

(a) amino acid forms Z witter ion (b) has isoelectric point

(c) dual behaviours (d) amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution

11. Two amino acids say A, B - react to give

(a) two dipeptides (b) three dipeptides (c) four dipeptides (d) only one

12. A di peptide does not have

(a) two peptide units (b) portions of two amino acids

(c) an amido group (d) salt like structure

13. Proteins are not sensitive to

(a) acids (b) bases (c) elevated temperature (d) water

14. Denaturation does not involve

(a) breaking up of H - bonding in proteins

(b) the loss of biological action of enzyme

(c) the loss of secondary stucture

(d) loss of primary structure of proteins

2 x 1= 2


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15. Specificity of enzyme is due to

(a) the sequence of amino acids (b) secondary structure

(c) tertiary structure (d) all of the above

16. Ultimate products of hydrolysis of proteins is

(a) aniline (b) aliphatic acid (c) amino acid (d)aromatic acid

17. Proteins are

(a) polypeptides (b) polyacids (c) poly phenols (d) poly esters

18. Which of the following contains a lipid?

(a) starch (b) mineral oil (c) edible oil (d) peptide

19. Which among the following contains triglyceride?

(a) Wax (b) Cooking oil (c) Essential oil (d) Albumin

20. Which contains a long chain ester?

(a) wax (b) cooking oil (c) turpentine oil (d) cellulose

21. An example of a fatty acid obtained from a cooking oil is

(a) acetic acid (b) stearic acid (c) benzoic acid (d) oxalic acid

22. Which is not a saturated fatty acid?

(a) Palmitic acid (b) Stearic acid (c) Olei acid (d) Glyceric acid

23. Alkaline hydrolysis of cooking oil gives

(a) soap (b) glycerol (c) fatty acid (d) both (a) and (b)

24. Hair and nail contains

(a) cellulose (b) fat (c) keratin (d) lipid

25. Important constituent of cell wall is

(a) lipid (b) cellulose (c) protein (d) vitamin

ALL THE BEST

“ All the Glitters are not Gold “”

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March - 2006O

1. The isomerism exhibited by CH3- CH

2- N and CH

3- CH

2- O - N=O is

Oa) position b) chian c) functional d) tautomerism

2. Which of the following nitro - compounds behave as an acid in the presence of strong alkali?

a) Primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) both (a) and (b)

3. Conversion of diazonium chloride to chlorobenzene is called

a) Sandmeyar’s reaction b) Stephan’s reaction

c) Gomberg reaction c) schotten - Baumann reaction

4. Proteins are

a) polypeptides b) polyacids c) polyphenols d) polyesters

5. Mixture of equal molecules of D (+) glucose D (-) fructose in called

a) fruit sugar b) invert sugar c) cane sugar d) non-sugar

6. Oxidation of glycerol with bismuth nitrate gives

a) meso-oxalic acid b) glyceric acid

c) tartronic acid d) both (b) and (c)

7. According to lewis concept of acid and bases, ethers are

a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric

8. The compound mixed with ethanol to serve as substitute for petrol is

a) methoxy methane b) ethoxy ethane c) methanol d) ethanal

9. Aldol is

a) 2 - hydroxy butanol b) 3-hydroxy butanol

c) 3-hydroxy butanal d) 2-hydroxy butane

H2O

2/Fe2+

10. CH3CH(OH)COOH X. The X is

a) CH3COCOOH b) CH

3CH

2COOH c) CH

3CHOHCHO d) CH

2(COOH)

2

11. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K=4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be.

a) 4.2x105 sec-1 b) 8.4x105 sec-1 c) 8.4x10-5 sec-1 d) unpredictable

12. The iron catalyst used in the Haber’s process is poisoned by

a) Pt b) H2

c) H2S d) As

2O

3

13. Curd is a colloidal solution of

a) liquid in liquid b) liquid in solid c) solid in liquid d) solid and liquid

14. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of

a) two solids b) two gases c) two liquids d) solid and liquid

15. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on theelectrode is equal to

a) Equivalent weight b) molecular weight c) Electrochemical equivalent d) one gram

HIGHER SECONDARY SECOND YEARChemistry


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a) One unit cell b) two unit cells c) eight unit cells d) four unit cells

17. The change of entropy for the process H2O

(liq)H

2O

(vap) involving Δ H

(vap) = 40850Jmol-1 at

373K is

a) 120 J mol-1 K-1 b) 9.1 x 10-3 J mol-1 K-1

c) 109.52 J mol-1 K-1 d) 9.1 x 10-4 J mol-1 K-1

18. Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy?

a) Rusting of iron b) crystallization of sucrose from solution

c) Vaporization of camphor d) conversion of ice to water

19. For the homogenous gas reaction at 600K, 4NH3(g)

+ 5O2(g)

4NO(g)

+ 6H2O

(g) the equilibrium

constant Kc has the unit

a) mol dm-3 b) (mol dm-3)-1 c) (mol dm-3)10 d) (mol dm-3)9

20. 2H2O

(g) + 2Cl

2(g)4 HCl

(g) + 5O

2(g)

a) KP = K

Cb) K

P > K

Cc) K

P < K

Cd) K

P = K

C= 0


a) Scandium b) titanium c) zinc d) lanthanum

22. The elements in which extra electron enter (n-2)f orbital are

a) s-block elements b) p-block elements

c) d-block elements d) f-block elements

23. The isotope used as a power source in long mission space probes is

a) U-235 b) Pu-235 c) Pu-238 d) U-238

24. The type of isomerism found in the complexes (Pt (NH3)

4 [CuCl

4] and (Cu(NH

3)

4 [PtCl

4]

a) ionization isomeirsm b) co-ordination isomerism

c) linkage isomerism d) ligand isomerism

25. After 24 hours 0.125g of the initial quantity of 1g of a radioactive isotope is left out. The half - lifeperiod is

a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 8 hours d) 16 hours


a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) De Broglie d) Pauli

27. The momentum of a particle which has De Broglie wavelength of 1Ao( h = 6.626 x 10-34 Kgm2s-1) is

a) 6.66 x 10-23 Kg ms-1 b) 6.66 x 10-24 Kg ms-1

c) 6.66 x 10-34 Kg ms-1 d) 66.6 x 10-23 Kg ms-1

28. The order of ionization energy is

a) s < p < d < f b) s > p > d > f c) s > d > p > f d) s < d < p < f

29. The general electronic configuration of carbon family is

a) ns2 np2 b) ns2 np3 c) ns2 np1 d) ns2 np4

30. Which of the following compounds will not positive chromyl chloride test?

a) Cu Cl2

b) C6H

5Cl c) Zn Cl

2d) HgCl

2


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June - 2006

1. Ethylene diamine forms glycol with

a) nitrous acid b) Na2Co

3 solution c) NaHCO

3 solution d) Bayer’s reagent

2. When ethers are exposed to air for a long time, they form

a) peroxides b) halides c) oxides d) superoxides

3. The isomerism exhibited 1 propanal and methoxy ethane is

a) chain b) position c) functional d) metamerism

4. The compound that does not answer idofom test is

a) acetophenone b) isopropyl alcohol c) 2-pentanol d) benzophenone

5. The compound found as stony deposits in kidneys is

a) Potassium Oxalate b) Oxalic acid

c) Potassium Succinate d) calcium oxalate

6. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negatively charged electron arecalled

a) Super conductors b) n-type semiconductors

c) p-type semicondictors d) insulators

7. The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called


8. If Δ G of a reaction is negative, the change is

a) spontaneous b) non - spontaneous c) reversible d) none of these

9. For the homogenous gaseous reaction at 600K 4NH3(g)

+ 5O2(g)

4NO(g)

+ 6H2O

(g), the

equilibrium constant Kc has the unit

a) (mol dm-3)-1 b) mol dm-3 c) (mol dm-3)-4 d) (mol dm-3)-2

10. If the equilibrium constant for the formation of a product is 25, the equilibrium constant for thedecomposition of the same product is

1a) 25 b) 25 c) 5 d) 625

11. De Broglie equation is

a) λ = mv / h b) λ = hmv c) λ = hv / m d) λ = h / mv

12. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

13. Effective nuclear charge Z* can be calculated using the formula

a) Z* = Z - S b) Z* = Z + S c) Z* = S - Z d) Z = Z* - S

14. The metalloid among the following is

a) Pb b) P c) Ge d) Sn

15. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is

a) Cu2O + FeS b) Fe SiO

3c) Cu Fe S

2d) Cu

2S + FeO



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16. Organic compounds that does not undergo diazotization is

a) m - toluidine b) aniline c) p - aminophenol d) benzyl amine

17. The intermediate formed on electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in conc. H2SO

4 is

a) C5H

5NH - NHC

6H

5b) C

6H

5 - NHOH

c) C6H

5 - N = N - C

6H

5d) all of these

18. The compound that does not show tautomerism is

a) Nitrobenzene b) nitro-methane c) nitro-ethane d) 2-nitropropane

19. The reducing sugar is

a) sucrose b) cellulose c) starch d) glucose


a) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) tyrosine

21. The half - life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. The rate constant is

a) 6.93 x 102min-1 b) 0.693 x 10-2min-1

c) 6.932 x 10-2min-1 d) 69.3 x 10-1min-1

22. Tyndall’s effect is not observed in

a) emulsions b) colloidal solutions c) true solutions d) none of these

23. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is retarded in the presence of

a) alcohol b) glycerin c) MnO2

d) MO

24. An example of gel is

a) Paint b) Pumice - Stone c) Milk d) curd

25. The indicator suitable for the titration of oxalic acid against NaOH is

a) methyl orange b) potassium permanganate

c) Phenophthalein d) litmus

26. The transition element showing maximum oxidation state is


27. Elements that form oxocations are

a) lanthanides b) actinides c) noble gases d) base metals

28. The radioactive lanthanide is

a) terbium b) lutetium c) promethium d) gadolinium

29. An example of ambidentate ligand is

a) Cl b) NO-2

c) H2O d) NH

2

30. Which is one of the following particles is used to bombard 13

Al27 to give 15

P30 and a neutron?

a) α - particle b) β - particle c) neutron d) proton


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October - 2006

1. The metal used in galvansing iron sheets is

a) chromium b) zinc c) copper d) silver

2. Among the lanthanides elements, with the increase in atomic number the tendency to act as reducingagent

a) increase b) decrease c) no change d) none of these

3. The long mission space probes use __________ as power source

a) Pu b) U c) Th d) Pm

4. Which if the following is cationic complex?

a) K4 [Fe(Cn)

6b) [Cu(NH

3)

6]Cl

2c) K

3 [Cr(C

2O

4)

3] d) K

3[Fe(CN)

6]

5. Loss of - particle is equivalent to

a) increase of one proton only b) decrease of one neutron

c) loss of proton d) both (a) and (b)

6. The first order rate constant of a reaction is 0.0693 min-1. Then the required for 50% completion ofa reaction is

a) 10 min b) 1 min c) 100 min d) 50 min


a) Temperature increase b) Temperature decrease

c) Pressure increase d) concentration increase

8. Smoke is a colloidal solution of

a) gas in solid b) solid in gas c) gas in liquid d) liquid in gas

9. Colloidal medicine are more effective because

a) they are clean b) they are easy to prepare

c) the germs move towards them d) the are easily assimilated and adsorbed

10. When sodium acetate is added to a solution of acetic acid, the degree of ionization of acetic acid

a) increases b) decrease c) does not change d) becomes unity

11. The nitro group can be reduced to primary amino group by

a) Sn/con.Hcl b) Zn dust c) Zn/NH4Cl d) Zn/NaOH


a) (C2H

5)

2NH b) C

2H

5NH

2c) (C

2H

5)

3N d) (C

2H

5)

4N+I-

13. The nitrogen compound used in the preparation of sulpha drugs is

a) methylamine b) nitromethane c) amino benzene d) nitrobenzene

14. Nucleic acid is made up of

a) an organic base b) sugar unit c) phosphoric acid d) all of these

15. Ultimate product of hydrolysis of protein is

a) aniline b) aliphatic acid c) amino acid d) aromatic acid



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16. The circumference of the circular orbit of electron is an integral multiple of its

a) frequency b) momentum c) mass d) wavelength

17. The nature of hybridization in IF7 molecule is

a) Sp2d2 b) Sp3d4 c) Sp3d3 d) sp2d4

18. On moving down a group, the radius of an ion

a) decreases b) increase

c) first increases and then decreases d) remains a constant

19. The toxin element of boron family is

a) boron b) indium c) thallium d) gallium

20. The general outer electronic configuration of d block element is

a) (n - 1) d1-10 b) (n - 1) d1-10 ns1-2 c) (n - 1) d10 ns1-2 d) (n - 1)d5 ns1

21. The crystal structure of CsCl is

a) simple cube b) face - centred cube

c) body - centred cube d) edge centred cube

22. Change in Gibbs free energy is given by

a) Δ G = Δ H + T Δ S b) Δ G = Δ H -T Δ S

c) Δ G = Δ H. T Δ S d) none of these

23. For the reaction constant 2Cl(g)

Cl2(g)

the signs of Δ H and Δ S are respectively.

a) +, - b) +, + c) -, - d) -, +

24. If the equilibrium constants of the reactions 2A B is K1and B 2A is K

2, then

a) K1=2K

2b) K

1= 1/K

2c) K

1 = ( K

2)2 d) K

1= (1/K

1)2

25. When Δ ng in a homogeneous gaseous equilibrium is positive, then

a) Kp = K

cb) K

p < K

cc) K

p > K

cd) K

p = K

c / 2

26. The characteristic odour of lower phenols is _________

a) carbolic acid b) fruity c) oil of bitter almonds d) rotten fish


a) Very active b) inert c) oxidizing d) replaceable

28. Diethyl ether behaves as a

a) Lewis acid b) lewis base c) neutral compound d) bronsted acid

29. The formation of a cyanohydrins with a ketone is example of

a) electrophilic substitution b) nucleophilic addition

c) nuclerophilic substitution d) electrophilic addition

30. The isomerism exhibited by CH3CH

2COOH and CH

3COOCH

3 is

a) metamerism b) functional isomerism

c) chain isomerism d) position isomerism


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1. Aniline differs from ethylamine in its reaction with

a) CH3 I b) CHCl

3 and caustic KOH

b) HNO2

d) CH3 COCl

2. The compound most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

a) Methyl benzene b) Benzene c) Benzoic acid d) Nitrobenzene.

3. Nitro-acinitro tautomerism is exhibited by

a) nitromethane b) nitrobenzene c) chloropicrin d) o-toluidine

4. The reducing sugar among the following is

a) sucrose b) cellulose c) glucose d) starch

5. Which is not true of amino acid?

a) It forms Zwitterion b) Has isoelectric point

c) Dual behaviour d) Insoluble in NaOH solution

6. The compound that reacts the fastest with Lucas reagent is

a) 1-butanol b) 2-butanol

c) 1-propanol d) 2-methyl -2-propanol.


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) amphoteric

8. Zeisel’s method of detection and estimation of alkoxy group in alkaloids involves the reaction of ether with

a) HI b) Cl2

c) PCl5

d) AlCl3

9. Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with

a) acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethanol d) ether.

10. The acid that cannot be prepared from Grignard reagent is

a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid c) propionic acid d) Benzoic acid

11. 50% of a fist order reaction is completed in 20 minutes. The time required for 75% completion is

a) 60 minutes b) 10 minutes c) 40 minutes d) 80 minutes


a) precipitation b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration


a) temperature decreases b) temperature increases

c) pressure increases d) concentration increases


a) liquid in gas b) gas in Liquid c) gas in solid d) solid in gas.

15. The indicator used in the titration of ammonium hydroxide with hydrochloric aicd is

a) KMnO b) Methyl oranre c) phenolphthalein d) Litmus.

MARCH-2007



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. An ion leaves its regular site and occupies a position in the space between the lattice sites. This defectis called as

a) Schottky defect b) Frenkal defect c) Impurity defect d) Vacancy defect


a) an increase in entropy b) a decrease in entropy

c) an increase in heat of vaporisation d) an increase in free energy

18. The amount of heat exchanged with the surroundings at constant pressure is called



2, Kp is

a) greater than kc b) less then kc c) equal to kc d) zero

20. Which of the following gaseous equlibria is favoured by increase temperature ?

a) N2O

4 2NO

2; Δ H =+59 kJ mol-1

b) N2+ 3H

22NH

3; Δ H =-22 k cal mol-1

c) 2SO2+ O

22SO

3; Δ H =-47 k cal mol-1

d) Both (b) and (c)

21. Bordeaux mixture contanins

a) AgNO3+HNO

3b) ZnSO

4+H

2SO

4c) CuSO

4+Ca(OH)

2d) KMnO

4+HCl

22. The compound used in gas lamp meterial is

a) MnO2

b) CeO2

c) N2O

5d) Fe

2O

3


a) Gadolinium b) Lutetium c) promethium d) Cerium


a) chloro b) Bromo c) en d) NO2-

25. Radioactivity is due to

a) Stable electronic confiuration b) stable nucleus

c) unstable nucleus d) unstable elctronic configuration.

26. Which of the particles having same kinetic enargy, would have the maximum de Brogile de wavelength.

a) Proton b) neutron c) α particle d) β particle

27. Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding is present in

a) HF b) H2o c) ethanol d) all of these

28. The scale which is based on an empirical realition between the energy of a bond and theelectronegativities of bonded atoms is that of

a) Pauling b) Mulliken d) Sanderson d) Alfred Rochow.

29. An element is burnt in limited supply of air to given oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acldB. Acid B on hearting gives and C which gives yellow prectipilite with silver nitatate Solution. Oxide Ais

a) P2O

3b) SO

2c) CO

2d) NO

2

30. The ion with maximum number of unpaired electons is

a) Mg2+ b) Ti3+ c) V3+ d) Fe2+


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1. Nitromethane on condensation with acetaldehyde gives

a) 1-nitropropane b) 1-nitro-2-propanol

c) 2- nitro -1-propanol d) 3- nitropropanol

2. The basic character of amines is due to the

a) tetrahedral structure b) presence of nitrogen atom

c)electronegativity of nitrogen d) presence of lone pair of electrons.

3. Which of the following compounds has the smell of bitter almonds?

a) Aniline b) Nitromethane

c) Benzene sulphonic acid d) Nitrobenzene

4. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by

a) C1-C

1 carbon b) C

1-C

2 carbon c) C

1-C

4 carbon d) C

1-C

6 carbon

5.The building blocks of proteins are

a) α -hydroxy acid b) α -amino acid c) β -hydroxy acid d) β-amino acid

6. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is

a) butan -1-ol b) butan-2-ol

c) 2-methyl-1- propanol d) 2-methyl-2- propanol.


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) amphotreic.

8. The ether used in perfumery is

a) dithyl ether b) dimethyl ether c) methyl phenyl ether d) diphenyl ether

9. Tertiary butyl alcohol can be prepared by treating methyl magnesium iodide with

a) formaldehyde ( HCHO ) b) acetaldehyde ( CH3CHO )

c) acctone ( CH3COCH

3 ) d) carbon dixdde ( CO

2 )

10. The strongest acid among the following is

a) Cl CH2 COOH b) Cl

3 C COOH c) CH

3COOH d) Cl

2 CH COOH

11. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCI is an example for

a) zero order rection b) first order rection

c) pseudo - first order rection d) second order rection

12.Colloidal modicines are more effective because

a) they are clean b) they are aesy to prepare

c) the germs move towards them d) they are easily assimilated and absorbed

13. Which type of colloid is a sol?

a) Solid in liquid b) liquid in solid c) Solid in Solid d) Gas in Solid

14. The platinum catalyst used in the oxidation of SO2 by contact process is poisoned by

a) As2O

3b) V

2O

5c) Fe

2O

3d) CuCl

2.

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R.ANNAMALAI

15. If 0.2 ampere can deposit 0.1978 g of copper in 50 minutes, how much of copper will be depositedby 600 coulombs?

a) 19.78 g b) 1.978 g c) 0.1978 g d) 197.8 g.

16. In a simple cubic cell, each point in a corner is shared by

a) one unit cell b) two unit cells c) four unit cells d) eight unit cells.



c) an increase in free energy d) an increase in heat of vaporisation.

18. The entropy change involved in the process of H2O (s) H

2O (l) at 00c and 1atm pressure

involving Δ H fusion

= 6008 J mol-1 is

a) 22.007J mol-1 K-1 b) 22.007J mol K-1

c) 220.07 J mol-1 K-1 d) 2.2007 J mol K-1

19. In an endothermic equilibrium reaction. if K1 and K

2 are the equilibrium constants at T

1 and T

2

temperatures repectivly and if T2 is greater than T

1 than

a) K1 < K

2b) K

1 > K

2c) K

1 = K

2d) none of these.

20. The maximum yield of ammonia by Haber’s process is

a) 78 % b) 97% c) 37% d) 89%

21. K2Cr

2O

7 reacts with KI and dilute sulphuric acid and liberates

a) O2

b) I2

c) H2

d) SO2

22. The oxide used in gas lamp material is

a) MnO2

b) N2O

5c) CeO

2d) Fe

2O

3

23. Radioactive element of lanthanide is

a) Cerium b) Promethium c) Gadolinium d) Lutetium.

24. In [Fe(CN)6]-4 the central metal ion is

a) Fe b) Fe+2 c) Fe+3 d) (CN)-

25. When 7N15 is bombarded with a proton it gives

6C12 and

a) α -paeticle b) β-particle c) neutron d) proton.

26. The hybridisation involved in XeF6 is

a) sp3 d3 b) sp3 d2 c) sp3 d d) sp3

27.Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

a) m- nitrophenol b) o- nitrophenol c) p- nitrophenol d) none of these.

28. When XA>>X

B, A-B boud is

a) polar covalent b) non- poar covallent c) ionic d)metallic.

29. Which of the following does not belong to group 14?

a) C b) Si c) Ga d) pb.


a) Zn b) Sc c) Ti d) La.


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. The colour of purple of cassius is

a) purple b) blue c) bluish green d) apple green

2. ___________ form oxocations.

a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals.


a) Misch metals b) metallotds c) plate metals d) Actinides.

4. In [FeII(CN)6]4- the central metal ion is

a) Fe b) Fe+2 c) Fe+3 d) (CN)-


Al 27 to give 15

P 30 and a neutron?

a) α - particle b) Deuteron c) proton d) Neutron.

6. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms that occur in the rate equatic is called

a) molecularity b) order c) rate d) rate constant.


a) emulsion b) colloidal Solution c) true solution d) none of these.

8. Coconut charcoal has a great capacity of the ___________ of gases.

a) adsorption b) absorption c) desorption d) all of these.

9. Emulsifying agent is used for

a) precipitation of an emulsion b) coagulation of an emulsion

c) stabilization of an emulsion d) none of these.

10.When one coulmb of electricity is passed through an electrolyte solution the mass deposited on theelectrode is equal to

a) equivalent weight b) molecular weight c) electrochemical equivalent d) one gram

11. CCl3 NO

2 is used as

a) soil sterilizing b) organic synthesis c) good solvent d) antioxidant


a) (C2 H

5)

2 NH b) C

2 H

5NH

2c) (C

2 H

5)

3 N d) (C

2 H

5)

4 N+ I-

13. The reaction between benzene diazonium chloride and benzene in the presence of NaOH is

a) perkin’s reaction b) Gattermann’s reaction

c) Sandmeyer reaction d) Gomberg- Bachmann reaction.

14. Glucose forms __________ with acetic anhydride and sodium acetate.

a) di-acetate b) tetra- acetate c) penta- acetate d) hexa - acetate

15. The precipitation of protein is called

a) peptisation b) denaturation c) renaturation d) none of these.


a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) de Broglie d) Pauli.

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R.ANNAMALAI

17. Energy levels of molecular orbitals have been determined experimentally by

a) Spectroscopic studies b) x-ray diffraction

c) Crystallographic studies d) none of these.

18. When XA>>X

B, A-B boud is

a) polar covalent b) non- poar covallent

c) ionic d) metallic.

19. The noble gases are unreactive because they

a) have same number of electrons b) have an atomicity of one

c) are gases with low density d) have stable electronic configuration

20. Ferrochrome is an alloy of

a) Cr, C, Fe, Ni b) Cr, Co, Ni, C c) Fe, Cr d) Cr, Ni, Fe

21. The total number of atoms per unit cell in bcc is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

22. If Δ G for a reaction is negative, the change is

a) spontaneous b) non- spontaneous c) reversible d) irreversible

23. For the reaction 2Cl(g) Cl2(g) the signs of Δ H and Δ S respectively are

a) +, - b) +, + c) - , - d) -, +

24. In a reaction 2O3 3O

2 the value of K

c is

a)[O

3]3

b)[O

2]2

c)[O

2]3

d) [O

3]

[O2]2 [O

3]3 [O

3]2 [O

2]

25. In the synthesis of NH3 between N

2 and H

2 reaction the unit of K

p is

a) lit2 mol-2 b) atm-2 c) lit atm-1 d) atm-1

26. A compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is

a) butan -1-ol b) butan-2-ol

c) 2-methyl propan -1-ol d) 2-methyl propan-2-ol


a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric.

28.Which among the follwing is a an unsymmetrical ether?

a) C6H

5-O-C

6H

5b) C

2H

5-O-C

2H

5c) CH

3-O-CH

3d) C

6H

5-O-CH

3

29. schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with

a) acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethyl alcohol d) methyl acetate.

30. Which order of arrangement is correct in terms of the strength of the acid?

a) CH3 CH

2 COOH > CH

3 COOH < HCOOH < ClCH

2 COOH

b) ClCH2 COOH < HCOOH < CH

3 COOH < CH

3 CH

2 COOH

c) CH3 CH

2 COOH < CH

3 COOH < HCOOH < ClCH

2 COOH

d) HCOOH > CH3 CH

2 COOH < CH

3 COOH > ClCH

2 COOH


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. Silver obtained from silver coin is purified by fusion with

a) AgNO3

b) HNO3

c) H2SO

4d) borax

2. Alloys of lanthanides are called as

a) plate metals b) actinides c) misch- metals d) metalloids

3. The common oxidation state of actinide is

a) +2 b) +3 c) +4 d) +6

4. [FeF6]4- is paramagnetic because

a) F-is a weaker ligand b) F- is a stronger ligand

c) F- is a chelating ligand d) F-is a flexidentate ligand.

5. In nuclear reaction __________ is / are balanced on both sides.

a) mass b) number of atoms

c) mass number d) atomic number and mass number.

6. Half-life period of a first order reaction is 20 min. The time taken for the completion of 99.9% of the reaction is

a) 20 min b) 2000 min c) 250 sec d) 200 min

7. The Tyndall effect is associated with colloidal particle due to

a) scattering of light b) presence of charge

c) diffusion of light d) reflection of light


a) precipitation b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration.

9. Which one of the following factors is false regarding catalyst?

a) samll quantity is enough b) Initiate the reaction

c) Remains unchanged in mass and chemical composition d) Specific in its action.

10. When pH of a solution is 2. the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre-1 will be

a) 1x10-12 b) 1x10-4 c) 1x10-7 d) 1x10-2

11. The -NO2 group in nitro-alkane is converted into-NH

2 group by the reagent

a) Zn / NH4Cl b) Zn dust c) Sn / HCl d) Zn / NaOH.


a) (C2 H

5)

2 NH b) C

2 H

5NH

2c) (C

2 H

5)

3 N d) (C

2 H

5)

4 N+ I-

13. Use of chloropicrin is as

a) Explosive b) Dye c) Anaesthetic d) Sterilizing agent.


a) Glycine b) Alanine c) Proline d) Tyrosine.

15. Sorbitol and Mannitol are

a) isomers b) polymers c) epimers d) dimers

MARCH - 2008



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R.ANNAMALAI

16.Hybridisation in SF6 molecule is

a) sp3 b) sp3d2 c) sp3 d d) sp3d3

17. In a molecule eight electrons are present in bonding molecluar orbital and four electrons are present inanti- bonding molecular orbital. Its bond order is

a) 3 b) 4 c) 2.5 d) 2

18. The metal of having maximun electron affinity is

a) sodium b) calcium c) gold d) silver

19. Which of the following has the property of etching on glass?

a) HI b) HF c) HBr d) HCl

20. paramagnetism is the property of

a) paired electrons b) completely filled electronic subshells

c) unpaired electrons d) completely vacant electronic subshells

21. An example for metaldeficiency defect is

a) NaCl b) AgCl c) FeS d) CsCl


a) spontaneous b) non- spontaneous

c) reversible d) irreversible

23. Entropy (s) and the entropy change (Δ s) of a process

a) are path functions b) are state functions

c) are constants d) have no values

24. Which one of the following has-negavtive value for Δ ng?

a) H2 (g) + I

2 (g) 2 HI (g)

b) PCl5 (g) PCl

3 (g) + Cl

2 (g)

c) 3 H2 (g) + N

2 (g) 2 NH

3 (g)

d) 2 H2 O (g) + 2Cl

2 (g) 4 HCl (g) + O

2 (g)

25. State of a chemical equilibrium is

a) dynamic b) Stationary c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these

26. A compound that undergoes bromination easily is

a) benzoic acid b) benzene c) phenol d) toluene

27. Ether is formed when alkyl halide is treated with sodium alkoxide. The method is known as

a) Hoffimann’s reaction b) Williamson’s synthesis

c) Wurtz reaction d) Kolbe’s reaction

28. When ether is exposed to air for some time, an explosive substance produced is

a) peroxide b) TNT c) superoxide d) gun cotton

29. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presence of pd and BaSO4 gives

a)phenol b) benzoic acid c) benzyl alcohol d) benzaldehyde

30. Concentrated solution of sodium acetate on electrolysis gives

a) ethane b) propane c) methane d) butane


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. Which of the following is wrong statement regarding K2 Cr

2 O

7?

a) Oxidising agent b) Used in tanning dustry

c) Soluble in water d) Reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate

2. The common oxidation state of lanthanides is

a) +2 b) +1 c) +3 d) +4


a) misch metals b) metalloids c) Plate metals d) actindes

4. The co-ordination number of Cr(III) in [ Cr (H 2O)

4 Cl

2 ] Cl. 2 H

2O is

a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 2

5. The reaction 5B8

4Be8 akes place due to

a) α -decay b) β - decay c) electron capture d) positron decay

6. In a first order reaction the concentration of the reactant is increased by 2 times. The rate of the reaction is increased by

a) 2 times b) 4 times c) 10 times d) 6 times

7. Colloidal medicines are more effective because


c) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed d) the germs move towards them

8. Which one is correct factor that explains the increase of reaction by a catalyst?

a) Shape selectivty b) particle size

c) Increase of free energy d) Lower of activation energy

9. The function of FeCl3 in the conversion of Fe (OH)

3 precipitate into a colloid is

a) peptising agent b) emulsifying agent

c) reducing agent d) precipitating agent

10. Equivalent conductance of acetic acid at 250c is 80 ohm-1cm2(gram equivalent)-1 and at infinitedilution is 400 ohm-1 cm2 (gram equivalent)-1 The degree of dissociation is

a) 1 b) 0.2 c) 0.1 d) 0.3

NaNO2 / HCl

11. C6H

5NH2

273 KX. X is

a) C6 H

5 Cl b) C

6 H

5 NHOH c) C

6 H

5 N

2 Cl d) C

6 H

5 OH

12.Oil of mirbane is

a) nitrobenzene b) benzaldehyde c) methyl salicylate d) aspirin


a) electrophile b) Lewis acid c) free radical d) Lewis base

14. Ultimate product of hydrolysis of proteins is

a) anline b) aliphatic acid c) amino acid d) aromatic acid.

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a) oxidation of sucrose b) reduction of sucrose

c) sucrose to glucose and fructose d) polymerisation of sucrose

313.616. E

n =

n2 , En= -34.84, n value is

a) 4 b) 3 c)2 d) 1

17.water exists in liquid state. This is due to

a)high boiling point b)low boiling point

c)freezing point is zero d) hydrogen bond.

18. Effective nuclear charge is given by the equation

a) z * = z - s b) z * = z + s c) z * = s - z d) z = z * - s

19.the compound used to arrest the bleeding is

a) K2SO

4b) potash alum c) Al

2(SO

4)

3d) KI

20. The number of unpaired electrons in, Ti3+ is 1. Its magnetic moment in BM is

a)1.414 b) 2 c) 1.732 d) 3

21. In Bragg’s equation n represents

a) number of moles b) Avogadro number

c) quantum number d) order of reflection


a) Δ G = Δ H+T Δ S b) Δ G= Δ H -T Δ S

c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S a) Δ G= T Δ S + Δ H

23. H2O(l) H

2O(g). In this process the entropy

a) remains constant b) decreases c) increases d) becomes zero


a) dynamic b) stationary c) none of these d) both (a) and (b)

25. H2(g)+I

2(g) 2HI(g). The equilibrium constant K

c for this reaction is 16. K

p value is

a) 1 b) 4 c) 64 d) 1616

26. The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives

a) ICH2 CH

2I b) CH

2 = CH

2c) CH

2 = CHI d) ICH = CHI

27. The number of ether isomers possible for C4 H

10O is

a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3


a) more reactive b) replaceable c) oxidising d) comparatively inert

29. The compound that does not reduce Fehling solution is

a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde

30. Ethylene dicyanide on hydrolysis gives

a) oxalic acid b) succinic acid c) adipic acid d) propionic acid


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0

2. When ethyl iodide is treated with dry silver oxide. It forms

a) ethyl alcohol b) diethyl ether c) silver ethoxide d) ethyl methyl ether

3. propanone is usually characterised by

a) Fehling’s solution b) Iodoform test

c) Schiff’s test d) Tollen’s reagent

4. The compound used in the preparation of triphenyl methane dye is

a) methanol b) phenyl methanal c phenyl methanol d) ethanal

5. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent is

a) acetic acid b) benzoic acid c) formic acid d) butyric acid

6. An example of metal deficiency defect is



a) spontaneous b) non-spontaneous c) reversible d) irreversible

8. The entropy change for the process, water (liq) to water (vap) involving Δ H(vap)

=40850 J mol-1 at 373K is

a) 22.007J mol -1 K -1 b) 7.307J mol -1 K -1

c) 109.52J mol -1 K -1 d) 0.2287J K -1


2, K

p is

a) greater than Kc

b) less than Kc

c) equal to Kc

d) zero

10. The optimum range of temperature used in contact process for the manufacture of SO3 is

a) 4000C to 4500C b) 18000C to 27000C

c) 5000C to 5500C d) 3500C to 4500C


a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) de Broglie d) Pauli

12. Inter- molecular hydrogen bonding is present in

a)o-nitrophenol b)salicylic acid

c) o- hydroxy benzaldehyde d) hydrogen fluoride

13. Which among the following has higher electron affnity value?

a) Fluorine b) chlorine c)bromine d)iodine

14.The compound used in smoke screen is

a) PCl3

b) PCl5

c) PH3

d) H3 PO

3

15.The Catalyst used in the manufacture of polythene is

a) V2O

5b) Fe c) Mo d) TiCl

4.

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a) electrophile b) lewis base c) Lewis acid d) free radical

NaNO217. C

6 H

5 NH

2HCl 0oC

X. Identify X.

a) C6 H

5 Cl b) C

6 H

5 NHOH c) C

6 H

5 N

2Cl d) C

6 H

5 OH

18. Which of the following will not undergo Hofmann’s bromamide reaction?

a) Ethanamide b) Propanamide

c) Methanamide d) Phenyl methanamide

19. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by

a) Br2 / H

2O b) Fehling’s solution

c) Tollen’s reagent d) Conc. HNO3

20. The optically inactive amino acid is

a) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) phenyl alanine

21. Decomposition of nitrogen pentoxide CCl4 is an example for

a) second order reaction b) third order reaction

c) zero order reaction d) first order reaction

22. Fog is the colloidal solution of

a) gas in liquid b) liquid in gas c) gas in solid d) solid in gas

23. An example of lyophilic colloid is

a) Sulphur in water b) phosphorus in water

c) starch d) all of these



25. When 10-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent,the pH of the solution is

a) 6 b) 7 c) 4 d) less than 6

26.The correct electronic configuration of chromium is

a) [Ar] 3d6 4s0 b) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 c) [Ar] 3d4 4s2 d) [Ar] 3d3 4s2 4p1

27. The maximum oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides is

a) + 3 b) + 4 c) + 6 d) + 7

28. ThO2 is used in

a) toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp materials d) dyeing cotton

29. An example of bidentate chelating ligand is

a) NO-2

b) NO-3

c) en d) SO42-

30. Half -life period of a radioactive element is 1500 years. The value of disintegration constant in termsof seconds is

a) 0.1465 x 10-10sec-1 b) 0.2465 x 10-10sec-1

c) 0.1465 x 10-8sec-1 d) 0.3645 x 10-10sec-1


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1. When an aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled, the product formed is

a) benzyl alcohol b) benzene + N2

c) phenol d) phenyl hydroxylamine

2. Oxidation of aniline with acidfied K2Cr

2O

7 gives

a) p-benzoquinone b) benzoic acid c) benzaldehyde d) benzyl alcohol

3. When among the following is a tertiary amine?

a) (CH3)

3 - C - NH

2b) CH

3 - CH - NH - CH

3

CH3

CH3

c) (CH3)

2 - N - C

2 H

5d) CH

3 - CH

2 - C - C

2 H

5

NH2

4. The reducing sugar among the following isa) sucrose b) cellulose c) glucose d) starch

5. The amino acid without chiral carbon isa) Alanine b) Glycine c) proline d) Thyrosine

6. The active component of dynamite isa) kieselghur b) nitroglycerine c) nitrbenzene d) trinitrotoluene

7. Anisole on bromination yieldsa) m- bromoanisole b) o-bromoanisole c) o-&p-bromoanisole d) benzoic acid

8. Diethyl ether can be decomposed witha) HI b) KMnO

4c) NaOH d) H

2O

9. The compound that does not undergo cannizzaro reaction isa) formaldehyde b) benzaldehyde c) acetaldehyde d) trimethyl acetal dehyde

10. Which one of the following is least acidic?a) C

2 H

5 OH b) CH

3 COOH c) C

6 H

5 OH d) ClCH

2 COOH

11. The excess energy which a molecule possesses to become active is known asa) Kinetic energy b) potential energy c) activation energy d) threshold energy

12. In the reaction between oxalic acid and potassium permanganate, in the presence of dil. H2SO

4

__________acts as an autocatalyst.a) K

2SO

4b) MnSO

4c) MnO

2d) Mn

2O

3

13. In the case of physical adsorption, there is desorption whena) temperature increases b) temperature decreases


14. The blue colour of the sky is due toa) Tyndall effect b) Brownian movement c) electrophoresis d) electro-osmosis

15. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to

a) atomic number of the cation b) atomic number of the anion

c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte d) speed of the cation

MARCH - 2009



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical sphere is

a) 6 b) 4 c) 12 d) 8

17. All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to

a) decrease of entropy b) increase in enthalpy


18. The percentage efficiency of a heat engine that operates between 127oC and 27oC is

a) 20% b) 50% c) 100% d) 25%

19. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K

4 NH3 (g) + 5 O

2 (g) 4 NO (g) + 6 H

2O (g)

the equilibrium constant Kc has the unit

a) (mol dm-3)-1 b) (mol dm-3) c) (mol dm -3)10 d) (mol dm -3)-9

20. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2A B is K1 and the equilibrium constant of the

reaction B 2A is K2, then

a) K1=

1b) K

1= 2 K

2c) K

1=

1d) K

2= (K

1)2

K2K

22

21. Which of the following ions will give colourless aqueous solution?

a) Ni2+ b) Cu+ c) Cu2+ d) Fe2+

22. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides is

a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4

23. Which of the following is a radioactive lanthanide ?

a) Pu b) Ac c) Th d) Pr

24. Which one of the following is a cationic complex?

a) K4 [ Fe (CN)

6 ] b) [ Cu (NH

3 ) 4 ]Cl

2

c) K3 [ Cr (C

2 O

4 )

3] d) K

3[ Fe (CN)

6]


Al 27 to give 15

P 30 and a neutron?

a) α -particle b) proton c) Neutron d) Deutreon


a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitrophenol c) p-nitrophenol d) p-aminophenol

27. The hybridisation in SO42- ion is

a) sp3 b) sp3 d2 c) sp3 d d) sp3 d3

28. The electron affinity of an atom is

a) directly proportional to its size b) inversely proportional to its size

c) independent of its size d) none of these

29. An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A, which on treatment with watergives an acid B. Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipitate with AgNO

3 solution.

Compound A is

a) SO3

b) NO2

c) P2O

3d) SO

3

30. A metal which precipitates gold from its aurocyanide complex is

a) Cr b) Ag c) Pt d) ZnR.ANNAMALAI M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed. PGT(CHE), G(G)HSS, GINGEE,

DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DTPage : 45

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R.ANNAMALAI

JUNE - 2009

1. Compound which undergoes iodoform test is

a) 1 - pentanol b) 2 - pentanone c) 3 - pentanone d) pentanal

2. The preparation of diethyl ether by williamson’s synthesis is a/an

a) nucleophilic addition reaction b) electrophilic substitution reaction

c) electrophilic substitution reaction d) nucleophilic substitution reaction

3. In the formation of oxonium salt when ethereal oxygen reacts with strong mineral acid is called

a) electronation b) protonation c) deprotonation d) dehydration

4. Which of the following compounds is oxidized to give ethyl methl ketone?

a) 2 - propanol b) 2 - pentanone c) 1 - butanol d) 2 - butanol

5. Ethylene dicyanide on hydrolysis using acid gives

a) oxalic acid b) succinic acid c) adipic acid d) propionic acid

6. The size of the anion in Frenkel defect crystal is

a) larger than the cation b) smaller than the cation

c) equal in size with cation d) both are larger in size



c) an increase in heat of vaporization d) an increase in free energy



c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S d) Δ G = Δ H / T Δ S

9. In the reversible reaction 2HI(g)

H2(g)

+ I2(g)

Kp is

a) greater than Kc

b) less than Kc

c) equal to Kc

d) 0

10. In the Haber process the yield of ammonia is greater

a) at high pressure b) at low pressure

c) at high temperature d) in absence of catalyst



12. Number of spherical nodes in 2s orbital is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

13. On moving down the group, the radius of an ion

a) decrease b) increase c) no change d) all of these

14. Which of the following shows negative oxidation state only?

a) Br b) F c) Cl d) I

15. The outer electronic configuration of chromium is

a) 3d64s0 b) 3d54s1 c) 3d44s2 d) 3d34s24p1



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. Innirtoalkanes - NO2 group is converted to NH

2 group by the reaction with

a) Sn/HCl b) Zn dust c) Zn/NH4Cl d) Zn/NaOH

17. The tertiary nitro compounds is

a) 2-nitro propane b) 1 - nitropropane

c) 1 - nitro-2, 2-dimathyl propane d) 2-nitro, 2 - methlpropane

18. The intermediate formed in the nitration of benzene is

a) Arrenium ion b) Carbon ion

c) Oxonium ion d) Nitrite ion


a) oxidation of sucrose b) reduction of sucrose

c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose d) polymerization of sucrose

20. A dipeptide does not have

a) two peptide units b) portions of two amino acids

c) an amido group d) salt like structure

21. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms that occur in the rate equation is called

a) molecularity b) order c) rate d) rate constant

22. The phenomenon of Tyndall effect is not observed in

a) emulsion b) colloidal solution c) true solution d) suspension

23. Catalyst used in Deacon’s method of manufacture of chlorine is

a) NO b) CuCl2

c) Fe2O

3d) Ni

24. Argyrols is

a) colloidal silver b) colloidal animony

c) colloidal gold d) milk magnesia

25. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid the degree of ionisation of acid

a) decrease b) does not change c) increase d) becomes zero

26. The reagent which is added first in the separation of silver from silver coin

a) conc.sulphuric acid b) conc.hydrochloric acid

c) con.nitric acid d) aquaregia

27. ________ forms (s) oxocation

a) Lanthamide b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals

28. ________ is the oxidation state of U in UF6

a) +6 b) +4 c) +3 d) +0

29. The coordination number of Nickel in the complex ion [NiCl4]2 - is

a) +1 b) +4 c) +2 d) +6

30. Loss of a β - particle is equivalent to

a) increase of one proton b) decrese of one neutron only

c) both (a) and (b) d) increase of one neutron only


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives

a) benzalddehyde b) benzoic acid c) toluene d) benzene

2. Which one of the following ethers is used in perfumery?

a) Dimethyl ether b) Diethyl ether c) Ethyl methyl ether d) Methyl phenyl ether

3. When ethyl iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms

a) Ethyl alcohol b) Diethyl ether c) silver methoxide d) Ethyl methyl ether


a) acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethanol d) ether


a) acetic acid b) butyric acid c) formic acid d) benzoic acid

6. The total number of atoms per unit cell in bcc is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

7. Which of the following processes is always non-feasible?

a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0 b) Δ H < 0, Δ S > 0

c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0 d) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0

8. The net work obtained from a system is given by

a) W + P Δ V b) W - P Δ V c) - W + P Δ V a) - W - P Δ V

9. In the equilibrium N2 + 3 H

2 2 NH

3 The maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the

process having


c) high pressure and high temperature d) high pressure and low temperature

10. The rate constant of the forward reverse reactions are 8 x 10-5 and 2 x 10-4 respectively. The value of K

c is

a) 0.04 b) 0.02 c) 0.2 d) 0.4

11. de Broglie equation is

a) b) λ = hmv c) d)

12. The hybridisation in CO32- ion is

a) sp2 b) sp3 c) sp d) sp3 d

13. Amongthe following which has higher electron affinity value?

a) Fluorine b) chlorine c) Bromine d) Iodine

14. An element which belongs to Group 14 is soft in nature, does not react with pure water, but dissolves, but dissolves in water containing dissolved air. Then the element is

a) C b) Ge c) Pb d) Ti

15. The correct outer electronic configuration of copper atom is

a) 3d10 4s2 b) 3d10 4s1 c) 3d9 4s2 d) 3d5 4s2

SEPTEMBER -2009

λ= mv

h λ= hv

mλ=

h mv



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. Which one of the following will not undergo diazotisation?

a) m-toluidine b) Aniline c) p-aminophenol d) Benzylamine

17. Which one of the following compounds has the smel of bitter almonds?

a) Aniline b) Nitromethane c) Benzene sulphonic acid d) Nitrobenzene

18. The basic strength of amine is in the order of

a) NH3 > CH

3 NH

2 > ( CH

3 )

2 NH b) ( CH

3 )

2 NH > CH

3 NH

2 > NH

3

c) CH3 NH

2 > ( CH

3 ) 2 NH > NH

3d) NH

3 > ( CH

3 )

2 NH > CH

3 NH

2

19. A dipeptide does not have

a) two peptide units b) portions of two amino acids

c) an amido group d) salt like structure

20. The important constituent of cell wall is

a) liqid b) cellulose c) protein d) vitamin

21. Reactions in which the reacting molecules react in more than one way yielding different set products are called

a) consecutive reactions b) parallel reactions

c) opposing reactions d) chain reactions



23. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is retarded in the presence of

a) alcohol b) glycerine c) manganess dioxide d) Molybdenum

24. The emulsifying agent used in O/W emulsion is

a) long chain alcohol b) lamp black c) protein d) glycerol

25. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid

a) increase b) decreases c) does not change d) becomes zero

26. The substance used in making ruby red glass and high class pottery is

a) colloidal silver b) purple of cassius c) ruby silver d) ruby copper

27.Alloys of lanthanidesare called

a) Metalloids b) plate metals c) Actinides d) Misch metals

28. According to Fajan’s rule decrease in size of Ln3+ ion in Ln (OH)3.

a) increases the covalent character

b) decreases the covaient character

c) increases the basic character

d) increases the ionic character


a) tetrahedral b) suqare planar c) triangular d) octahedral


a) α rays b) β rays c) γ - rays d) all are equally penetrating


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. Spiting of silver can be prevented by covering the molten metal with a thin layer of

a) borax b) charcoal c) sand d) silver bromide

2. Lanthanide contraction is due to

a) perfect shielding of 3d electron b) imperfect shielding of 3d electron

c) perfect shielding of 4f electron d) imperfect shielding of 4f electron

3. Which is used as a power source in long mission space probes?

a) Uranium-235 b) Uranium -238 c) plutonium -238 d) Mish metal

4. [ FeF6 ] 4- is paramgnetic because

a) F- is a weaker ligand b) F- is a stronger ligand

c) F- is a fiexidentate ligand d) F- is a chelating ligand

5. Half- life period of a radioactive element is 100 seconds. Its average life period

a) 100 seconds b) 50 seconds c) 200 seconds d) 144 seconds

6. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for

a) zero order reaction b) first order reaction

c) second order reaction d) pseudo first order reaction

7. The Tyndall effect associated with colloidal particle is due to

a) presence of charge b) scattering of light c) absorotion of light d) reflection of light



9. The colloid used for stomach disorder is

a) colloidal silver b) colloidal antimony c) colloidal gold d) Milk of magnesia

10. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case ofa) CH

3COOH b) NaCl c) NaOH d) H

2SO

4

Cu2 Cl

2 / HCl

11. C6H

5N

2Cl X. the compound X is

a) C6 H

5 NH

2b) C

6 H

5 NHNH

2c) C

6 H

5 - C

6 H

5d) C

6 H

5 Cl

12. The basic character of amines is due toa) tertrahedral structure b) presence of nitrogen atom

c) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom d) high electronegativity of nitrogen

13. Aniline reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of sodium hydroxie and gives benzanilide. This reaction is known as

a) Gattermann reaction b) Sandmeyer;s reaction

c) Schotten- Baumann reaction d) Gomber’g Bachmann reaction

14. The amino acid without chiral carbon isa) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) tyrosine

15. When starch is heated to 2000 C - 2500 C. the propduct isa) dextrin b) caramel c) barley sugar d) cellulose

MARCH 2010



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. The hybridistion in SF6 molecule is

a) sp3 b) sp3 d c) sp3 d2 d) sp3 d3

17. Which one of the following experiments confirmed the wave nature of electrom?

a) G.P Thomson’s gold foil experiment b) Black boby rediation

c) photoelectric effect d) Millikan’s oil - drop experiment

18. When XA >> X

B, A-B bond is

a) polar covalent b) non - polar covalent

c) ionic d) metallic

19. A mong the halogen acids, the weakest acid is

a) HI b) HBr c) HCl d) HF

20. Which transition element shows the highest oxidation state?

a) Os b) Ti c) Sc d) Zn

21. The co-ordination number of ZnS is

a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

22. Which of the following does not result in an increase in entropy?

a) Rusting of iron b) conversion of ice to water

c) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution d) Vaporisation of camphor

23. Thermodynamic condition for irreversible spontaneous process at constant T and P is

a) Δ G < 0 b) Δ S < 0 c) Δ G > 0 d) Δ H > 0

24. In the equilibrium N2 + 3 H

2 2 NH

3 The maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with

the process having


c) high temperature and high pressure d) high pressure and low temperature

25. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2A B is 25 mol-1 dm3 at 900K. What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction B 2A in dm-3 mol at the same temperature?

a) 25 b) 625 c) 0.04 d) 0.4

26. The compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is

a) butan-1-ol b) butan-2-ol

c) 2- methyl propan-1-ol d) 2- methyl propan-2-ol

27. Which one of the following is a simple ether?

a) CH3 - O - C

2 H

5b) C

2 H

5 - O - C

H

3

c) C2 H

5 - O - C

2 H

5d) C

3 H

7 - O - C

2 H

5.

28. The IUPAC name of phenatole is

a) ethyl phenyl ether b) methyl phenyl ether c) diethyl ether d) diphenyl ether

29. The compound uesd in the preparation of the tranquilizer sulphonal is

a) acetone b) acetophenone c) isopropyl alcohol d) glycol

30. The isomerism exhibited CH3 CH

2 COOH and CH

3 COOCH

3 is

a) metamerism b) position c) chain d) functional


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R.ANNAMALAI

JUNE - 2010

1. Ether is formed when alkyl halide is treated with sodium alkoxide. This method is known as ______

a) Hoffmann reaction b) Williamson’s synthesis

c) Wurtz reaction d) Kolbe’s reaction

2. Ethers should never be evaporated to dryness because _________

a) they form explosive peroxide b) they are insoluble in water

c) they are inert d) they are lighter than water

3. Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with ___________

a) acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethyl alcohol d) methyl acetate

4. The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is ___________

a) acetic acid b) benzoic acid c) formic acid d) oxalic acid

5. Chloropicrin is used as ___________

a) explosive b) dye c) anaesthetic d) soil sterilizing

6. Total number of atoms per unit cell in bcc is __________

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

7. Standard free energies of formation of elements are taken as _________

a) Positive b) negative c) zero d) all of these

8. State of chemical equilibrium is __________

a) dynamic b) stationary c) none of these d) both (a) and (b)

9. In an equilibrium reaction if Δ n (g) is positive then __________

a) Kc = K

pb) K

c < K

pc) K

c > K

pK

c = 0

10. The excess energy which a molecule must possess to become active is known as __________

a) Kinetic energy b) threshold energy

c) potential energy d) activation energy



12. The intra molecular hydrogen bonding is present in __________

a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitrophenol

c) p-nitrophenol d) p-hydroxy benzaldehyde

13. The electron affinity of an atom is __________

a) directly prportional to its size b) Inversely proportional to its size

c) independent of its size d) none of these

14. The compound with garlic odour is __________

a) P2O

3b) P

2O

5c) H

3PO

3d) H

3PO

4

15. The outer most electronic configuration of chromium is _________

a) 3d64s0 b) 3d54s1 c) 3d44s2 d) 3d34s24p1



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is ________

a) hydronium ion b) sulphonic acid c) nitronium ion d) bromide ion17. Primary amine act as ___________

a) electrophile b) Lewis base c) Lewis acid d) Free radial

18. The amino acid without chiral carbon is ___________

a) Glycine b) Alanine c) Proline d) Tyrosine

19. Important constituent of cell wall is _________

a) lipid b) cellulose c) proteins d) vitamins

20. Which one of the following is a state function?

a) q b) Δ q c) w d) Δ s

21. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of _________

a) two solids b) two liquids

c) two gases d) one solid and one liquid

22. The autocatalyst in the oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4 is _________

a) K2SO

4b) MnSO

4c) KMnO

4d) CO

2

23. The sky looks blue due to __________

a) adsorption b) dispersion c) reflection d) scattering of light

24. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is _________

a) 1 b) 10-1 c) 13 d) 10-13

25. The number of secondary alcoholic group(s) in glycerol is _________

a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3

26. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

a) Mn2+ b) Ti3+ c) V3+ d) Fe2+

27. Alloys of lanthanides are called ___________

a) Mish metals b) Metalloids c) Plate metals d) actinides

28. The isotope of which element is used in nuclear fission reaction?

a) Barium b) Lead c) uranium d) caesium

29. An example of a bidentate ligand is ___________

a) Cl- b) en c) NO2- d) I-

30. Radioactivity is due to __________

a) stable electronic configuration b) stable nucleus

c) unstable nucleus d) unstable electronic configuration


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. If the magnetic moment value is 5.92 BM, the number of unpaired electrons is

a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

2. _________ is used in gas lamp material

a) MnO2

b) CeO2

c) N2O

5d) Fe

2O

3

3. _________ from oxocations

a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals

4. The geometry of complex ion [ Fe (CN) 6 ] 4- is

a) tetrahedral b) square planar c) octahedral d) triangular


Al 27 to give 15

P 30 and a neutron?

a) α - particle b) Deuteron c) proton d) Neutron

6. For a reaction aA bB the rate of reaction is doubled when concentration of A is increased by four times. The rate of reaction is equal to

a) K [ A ]a b) K [ A ] 1/2 c) K [ A ] 1/a d) K [ A ]


a) electro-osmosis b) hot dialysis c) electrodialysis d) electrophoresis

8. Which type of colloid is a sol?

a) Solid in liquid b) Liquid in solid c) Solid in Solid d) Gas in Solid

9. In case of a physical adsorption, there is desorption when

a) temperature increases b) temperature decerases


10. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles/ litre is

a) 1 x 10 -12 b) 1 x 10 -2 c) 1 x 10 -7 d) 1 x 10 -4

O O11. The isomerism exhibited by CH

3- N and CH

2-N is

O OH

a) position b) chain c) functional d) tautomerism

12. The product obtained when nitrobenzene is treated with Zn/ NaOH isa) aniline b) azoxybenzene c) azobenzene d) hydrazobenzene

13. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?a) m- toluidine b) Aniline c) p-amino phenol d) Benzyl amine

14. A dipeptide does not havea) two peptide units b) portion of two amino acids

c) an amino group d) Salt like structure

15. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride in the presence of pyridine to givea) monoacetate b) diacetate c) penta- acetate d) no reaction

16. The bond order of oxygen molccule is a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2

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R.ANNAMALAI

17. The hybridisation in IF7 molecule is

a) sp3 d b) sp3 d2 c) sp3 d) sp3 d3

18. The bond length of Cl2 molecule is

a) 0.74 A b) 1.44 A c) 1.98 A d) 2.28 A

19. The compound used as smoke screen is

a) PCl3

b) PCl5

c) PH3

d) H3PO

3

20. Formation of coloured ions is possible when compounds contain

a) Paired electrons b) unpaired electrons

c) lone pair of electrons d) none of these


a) one unit cell b) two unit cell c) 8 unit cell d) 4 unit cell

22. All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to

a) decrease of entropy b) increase of enthalpy


23. The entropy change involved in the process water (liq) to water ( vapour, 373 K) involving Δ H vap

=40850 J mol-1 at 373K is

a) 10.952 J mol -1 K-1 b) 109.52 J mol -1 K-1

c) 100.952 J mol -1 K-1 a) 1095.2 J mol -1 K-1

24. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions 2A Bis K1 and B 2A is K

2, then

a) K1 = 2K

2b) K

1 =

1c) K

2 = ( K

1)2 d) K

1 =

1K

2K

22

25. When Δ ng in a homogeneous gaseous equilibrium is positive, then

a) Kp = K

cb) K

p < K

cc) K

p > K

cd) K

p =

Kc


a) primary < secondary > tertiary

b) primary > secondary > tertiary

c) primary < secondary < tertiary

d) primary > secondary < tertiary

27. According to lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are


28. Higher ethers can be prepared from lower members by the action of

a) conc. H2SO

4b) AgOH c) sodium alkoxide d) Grignard reagent

29. Calcium acetate + Calcium benzoate distillation

?

a) Benzophenone b) Benzaldehyde

c) Acetophenone d) phenyl benzoate.


a) acetic acid b) formic acid c) butyric acid d) benzoic acid


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. Compound which is used as medicine for Asthma and whooping cough is

a) Benzyl acetate b) Ethyl acetate c) Benzyl benzoate d) Benzyl formate

2. Number of ether isomers possible for the molecular formula C4 H

10 O is

a) one b) two c) three d) four

3. When ether is exposed to air for some time, an explosive substance produced is

a) peroxide b) Oxide c) TNT d) Superoxide

4. A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis giyes lactic acid. X is

a) HCHO b) C3 CHO c) ( CH

3 )

2 CO d) C

6H

5 CH

2 CHO

5. The compound found in some stony deposit in kidneys is

a) potassium oxalate b) oxalic acid c) potassium succinate d) calcium oxalate

6. The Bragg’s equation is

a) λ = 2d sin θ b) nd = 2λ sin θ c) 2λ = nd sin θ d) nλ = 2d sin θ

7. According to Trouton’s rule, the value of change in entropy of vaporisation is

a) 21 cal. deg-1 mole-1 b) 12 cal. deg-1 mole-1

c) 21 K. cal. deg. mole-1 d) 12 K cal. deg.mole-1

8. In Which of the following, the process is always non feasible

a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0 b) Δ H < 0, Δ S > 0 c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0 d) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0

9. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process the maximum yield of ammomia will be obtainedwith the process having



10. The relationship between Kp and K

c for the equilibrium

2 H2O (g) + 2 Cl

2 (g) 4 HCl (g) +O

2(g) is

a) Kp = K

cb) K

p = K

c (RT)2 c) K

p = K

c (RT)1 d) K

p = K

c (RT)-2


a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitrophenol c) p-nitrophenol d) none of these

12. The momentum of a particle which has de- Broglie wavelength of 1Å (h = 6.626x10 -34 kgm2 s-1 ) is

a) 6.63 x 10-23 kg ms-1 b) 6.63 x 10-24 kg ms-1

c) 6.63 x 10-34 kg ms-1 d) 6.63 x 1034 kg ms-1

13. Effective nuclear charge can be calculated using the formula

a) Z * = Z - S b) Z * = Z + S c) Z * = S - Z d) Z = Z * - S

14. Inert gas used in beacon lights for safety of air navigation is

a) Helium b) Argon c) Neon d) Xenon

15. Which one of the following will have maximum magnetic moment?

a) 3d2 b) 3d6 c) 3d7 d) 3d9

MARCH 2011



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. Nitromethane condenses with acetaldehyde to give

a) nitropropane b) 1-nitro-2- propanol

c) 2- nitro -1-propanol d) 3- nitropropanol

17. Which one of the following is a secondary amine?

a) Aniline b) Diphenyl amine

c) Secondary butyl amine d) tertiary butyl amine

18. When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled, the product formed is

a) Benzyl alcohol b) Benzene +N2

c) Phenol d) phenyl hydroxyl amine


a) Glyine b) Alanine c) proline d) Tyrosine

20. Invert sugar is a mixture of equal amount of

a) D ( + ) glucose and sucrose b) D ( - ) fructose and sucrose

c) D ( + ) glucose and D ( - ) fructose d) sucrose and maltose

21. The t1/2 of first order reaction is 100 minutes. the rate constant of the reaction is

a) 6.93 x 103 min-1 b) 0.693 x 10-3 min-1 c) 6.93 x 10 -3 min-1 d) 69.3 x 10-2 min-1

22. Colloidal medicines are more effective because


c) the germs move towards them d) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed

23. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in the presence of colloidal platinum is a/an

a) positive catalysis b) negative catalysis c) auto- catalysis d) induced catalysis

24. For chemisorption which is wrong?

a) It is irreversible b) It requires activation energy

c) It forms multilayers on adsorbate d) Surface compounds are formed

25. For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used is

a) potassium permanganate b) phenolphthalein

c) litmus d) methyl orange

26. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate?

a) Cu (CN)2

b) K2 [Cu (CN)

6] c) K [ Cu (CN)

2] d) Cu

2 (CN)

2 + (CN)

2-


a) Mish metals b) Metalloids c) plate metal d) actinides

28. Lanthanide contraction due to

a) perfect shielding of 4f electrons b) imperfect shielding of 4f electrons

c) perfect shielding of 3d electrons d) imperfect shielding of 3d electrons


a) nitro b) chloro c) bromo d) en

30. 92

U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54

Xe139, 38

Sr 94 and X. What is X?

a) 3 neutrons b) 2 neutrons c) α-particle d) β-particle


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R.ANNAMALAI

JUNE - 20111. Rutile is

a) TiO2

b) Cu2O c) MoS

2d) Ru

2. Free energy (G) and the free energy change (ΔG) correspond to the

a) System only b) Surrounding only

c) System and surrounding d) all of these

3. The entroy change ΔS(fusion)

= involved in the process of H2O(S) H

2O(l) at 0oC and 1 atm

pressure involving ΔH(fusion)

= 6008 Jmol-1 is

a) 22.007 Jmol-1 K-1 b) 22.007 Jmol K-1

c) 220.07 Jmol-1 K-1 d) 2.2007 Jmol-1 K-1

4. When Δn(g) in a homogeneous gases equilibrium is positive, then

a) Kp = K

cb) K

p < K

cc) K

p > K

cd) K

p = K

c / 2

5. Forward reaction takes place, when?

a) Q < Kc

b) Q > Kc

c) Q = Kc

d) Kc = 1/Q

6. Which of the following compounds has the smell of better almonds?


c) Benzene sulphonic acid d) Nitrobenzene

7. Nitro-acinitro tautomerism is exhibited by

a) nitronmethane b) nitro benzene c) chloropicrin d) o-toluidine

8. Use of chloropicrin (CCl3NO

2) is as

a) explosive b) dye c) anaesthetic d) sterilizing agent

9. _________ is involved in the process of blood coagulation

a) Fats and oils b) Cephaalin c) Glycolipids d) Lecithins

10. Mixture of equal molecules of D (+) glucose D (-) fructose is called as

a) Fruit sugar b) Invert sugar c) Cane sugar d) Non-sugar

11. Bordeaux mixture contains

a) AgNO3 + HNO

3b) ZnSO

4 + H

2SO

4c) CuSO

4 + Ca(OH)

2d) KMnO

4 + HCl

12. The isotope used as a power source in long mission space probes is

a) U-235 b) Pu-235 c) Pu-238 d) U-238

13. Cera is used in

a) toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp meterial d) none of these

14. The coordination number of Ni (II) In [Ni (CN)4]2- is

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

15. Find out the missing in a reaction 5Be8

4Be8+?

a) α - particle b) β - particle c) electron capture d) positron

16. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust, It gives

a) benzaldehyde b) benzoic acid c) toluene d) benzene



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R.ANNAMALAI

17. Williamson’s synthesis is an examble of

a) nucleophilic addition b) electrophilic addition

c) electrophilic substitution d) nucleophilic substitution

18. Diethyl ether behaves as a

a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base c) Neutral compound d) Bronsted acid

19. Aldol is

a) 2 - hydroxy butanol b) 3 - hydroxy butanol

c) 3 - hydroxy butanal d) 2 - hydroxy butanal

20. The isomerism exhibited by CH3CH

2COOH and CH

3COOCH

3 is

a) Metamerism b) Position c) Chain d) Functional

21. In the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H-atom is - E, What is the energy of theelectron in the Bohr’s first orbit?

a) 2E b) -4E c) -2E d) 4E

22. The Hybridisation involved in XeF6 is

a) Sp3d3 b) Sp3d2 c) Sp3d d) Sp3

23. Among the following which has the maximun ionisation energy

a) Alkali metals b) Alkaline earth metals

c) Halogens d) Noble gases

24. The lightest gas which is non-inflammable is

a) He b) H2

c) N2

d) Ar

25. Silver salt used in photography is

a) AgCl b) AgNO3

c) AgF d) AgBr

26. For a reaction Ea = O and k = 4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 k value of k at 310 K will be

a) 4.2 x 105 sec-1 b) 8.4 x 105 sec-1

c) 8.4 x 105 sec d) unpredictable

27. An emulsion is a colloidial solution of

a) two solids b) two liquids c) two gases d) one solid and one liquid


a) temperature increases b) temperature decreases


29. The oxidation of sodium sulphite by air is retarded by

a) MnO2

b) H2S c) Alcohol d) AS

2O

3

30. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is

a) 1 b) 10-1 c) 13 d) 10-13


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R.ANNAMALAI

October - 20111. Which of the following pairs have almost equal radii?

a) Mo, W b) Y, La c) Zr, Hf d) Nb, Ta

2. The most common oxidation state of lanthanide is

a) +2 b) +1 c) +3 d) +4

3. The fuel used in nuclear power plant is

a) Copper b) Lead c) Uranium d) Radium

4. The co-ordination number of Ni II in (Ni (Cl)4]2- is

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

5. Loss of a β- partieie is equivalent to

a) Increase of one proton only b) decrease of one neutron only

c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these

6. If the activation energy is high, then the rate of the reaction is

a) high b) moderate c) low d) cannot be predicted


a) electro osmosis b) electrolysis

c) electrodialysis d) electrophoresis

8. For chemisorption, which is wrong?

a) It is irreversible b) It requires activation energy

c) It forms multimolecular layers on absorbate d) Surface compounds are formed

9. The catalyst used for the decomposition of KClO3 is

a) MnO2

b) Cl2

c) V2O

5d) Pt

10. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution mass deposited on theelectrode is equal to

a) equivalent weight b) molecular weight

c) electrochemical equivalent d) one gram

11. The isomerism exhibited by CH3 - CH

2 NO

2 and CH

3 - O - N = O is

a) position b) chain c) functional d) tautomerism

12. When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl we get

a) CH3NH

2b) C

2H

5NH

2c) CH

3NHOH d) C

2H

5COOH


a) hydronium ion b) sulphonic acid c) nitronium ion d) bromide ion

14. The reducing sugar of the following is






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R.ANNAMALAI

16. The bond order of oxygen molecule is

a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2

17. Molecular orbital with the least energy is

a) 1s b) * 1s c) 2py d) * py

18. Among the following which has the maximum Ionisatlon energy?

a) Alkali metals b) Alkaline earth metals

c) Halogens d) Noble gases

19. The shape of PCl5 is

a) Pyramidal b) Trigonal bipyramidal

c) Linear d) Tetrahedral

20. The general outer electronic configuration of d-block elements is?

a) (n-1)d1-10ns0-2 b) (n-1)d1-5ns2 c) (n-1)d0ns1 d) (n-1)d1-10ns1-2

21. The total number of atoms per unit cell in BCC is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

22. The network obtained from a system is given by

a) w - P Δ V b) w + PΔ V c) - w + PΔ V d) -w-PΔ V

23. Entropy is a ________ function

a) state b) path c) exact d) inexact

24. The fraction of total moles of reactant dissociated is called

a) dissociation equilibrium b) degree of association

c) degree of dissociation d) dissociation constant

25. Two moles of ammonia gas arc Introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3vessel in which itpartialy dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibriumconstant Kc for the dissociation is

a) 27/16 (mole dm-3)2 b) 27/8 (mol dm-3)2

c) 27/4 (mole dm-3)2 d) none of these


a) primary < secondary > tertiary b) primary > secondary > tertiary

c) primary < secondary < tertiary d) primary > secondary < tertiary


a) HI b) KMnO4

c) NaOH d) H2O

28. Which of the following produces ether, when heated with cone. H2SO

4 at 413K?

a) Organic acid b) Aldehyde c) Alcohol d) Ketone

29. Methyl ketones are characterised by

a) fehling’s solution b) Iodoform test

c) Schiffs test d) Tollen’s reagent

30. The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is

a) acetic acid b) benzoic add c) formic arid d) oxalic acid


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R.ANNAMALAI

March - 2012

1. The compound that undergoes bromination easily is

a) benzoic acid b) benzene c) phenol d) toluene


a) HI b) KMnO4

c) NaOH d) H2O

3. How many alcohol isomers are possible for the formula C4H

10O?

a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 7



5. Which of the following compounds is optically active?

a) CH3CH

2COOH b) HOOC - CH

2 - COOH

c) CH3CH(OH)COOH d) Cl

2CHCOOH

6. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical spheres is

a) 6 b) 4 c) 12 d) 8

7. Which of the following processes is always non - feasible?

a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0 b) Δ H < 0, Δ S > 0

c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0 d) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0

8. In SI unit 1 eu is

a) 41.84 EU b) 4.184 EU c) 418.4 EU d) 4184 EU

9. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions 2A B is K1 and B 2A are K

1 and

K2 respectively then

a) K1 = 2K

2b) K

1 =

1c) K

2 = ( K

1)2 d) K

1 =

1 K

2K

22

10. The equilibrium constant Kc for A (g) B (g) is 2.5 x 10-2. The rate constant of forward reaction

is 0.05 sec-1. Therefore the rare constant of the reverse reaction is

a) 2 seconds-1 b) 0.2 second c) 2 Minutes d) 0.2 minute

11. de Broglie equation is


12. The hybridisation in NH+4 ion is

a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d

13. Among the following which has higher electron affinity value?

a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Bromine d) Iodine14. The compound with garlic odour is

a) P2O

3b) P

2O

5c) H

3PO

3d) H

3PO

4


a) paired electrons b) completely filled electronic subshells

c) unpaired electrons d) completely vacant electronic subshells



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R.ANNAMALAI

16. C6H

5N

2Cl

H3PO2 X + N2 + HCl. The compound X is

Cu+

a) C6H

5Cl b) C

6H

5NHNH

2c) C

6H

6d) C

6H

5NO

2


a) m - toluidine b) aniline c) p - aminophenol d) benzyl amine

18. Which of following componds is called oil of mirbane?


c) Benzene diazonium chloride d) Nitrobenzene

19. The reducing sugar among the following is



a) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) tyrosine

21. The term A in arrhenius equation is called as

a) probability factor b) activation energy

c) collision factor d) frequency factor

22. The Tyndall’s effect associated with colloidal particles is due to

a) presence of charge b) scattering of light

c) absorption of light d) reflection of light



24. Medicine used as an eye lotion is

a) silver sol b) colloidal gold c) colloidal antimony d) milk of magnesia

25. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of

a) CH3COOH b) NaCl c) NaOH d) H

2SO

4

26. Which of the following ions will give colourless aqeous solution?

a) Ni2+ b) Fe2+ c) Cu2+ d) Cu+

27. _________ form oxocations.


28. Fuel used in nuclear power plants is

a) U 235 b) Pu 235 c) Pu 238 d) U 238

29. The geometry of [Ni (CN)4]2- is

a) Tetrahedral b) Square planar c) Triangular d) Octahedral

30. Half - life period of 79

Au198 nucleus is 150 days. The average life is

a) 216 days b) 21.6 days c) 261 days d) 26.1 days


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R.ANNAMALAI

JUNE - 20121. An example for Frenkel defect is

a) NaCl b) AgBr c) CsCl d) FeS

2. In which of the following, process in always non-feasible?

a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0 b) Δ H < O, ΔS < 0 c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0 d) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0

3. A peocess accompanied by increase in free energy tends to be

a) reversible process b) irreversible process

c) non-spontaneous process d) spontaneous process

4. If the equilibrium constants of the reactions 2HI H2 + I

2 and H

2 + I

22HI are K

1 and K

2

respectively, then

a) K1=2K

2b) K

1= 1/K

2c) K

2 = ( K

2)2 d) K

1= 1/K

22

5. Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which itpartially dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibriumconstant K

c for this dissociation is

a) (mole dm-3)2 b) (mole dm-3)2

c) (mole dm-3)2 d) None of these

6. When nitromethane is reduced with Zine dust + NH4Cl, it forms is

a) CH3NH

2b) C

2H

5NH

2c) CH

3NHOH d) C

2H

5COOH

7. When aquequs solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled, the product formed is

a) Benzyl alcohol b) Phenol c) Benzene + N2 d) Phenyl hydroxylamine


a) (C2H

5)

2NH b) C

2H

5NH

2c) (C

2H

5)

3N d) (C

2H

5)

4N+1-

9. Glucose + accetic anhydride pyridine

a) di acetate b) tetra acetate c) penta acetane d) hexa acetate

10. Which of the following is not true for amino acid?

a) Amino acid forms zwitter ion b) Amino acid has isoelectric poit

c) Amino acid has dual behaviour d) Amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution

11. Which of the following compounds is not coloured?

a) Na2CuCl

4b) Na

2CdI

4c) K

4[Fe(CN)

6] d) K

3[Fe(CN)

6]

12. ________ form oxocations



a) Lanthanum b) Promethium c) Gadolinium d) Terbium

14. The unit of paramagnetic moment is

a) debye b) k Joules c) BM d) ergs

2716274

278



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R.ANNAMALAI

15. After 24 hours only 0.125 g out of the initial quantity of 1 g of a radioisotope remains. Then its half - lifeperiod is

a) 3 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 12 hourse

16. Glycerol is used

a) as a sweetening agent b) in the manufacture of good quality soap

c) in the manufacture of nitroglycerine d) all of these


a) HI b) KMn04

c) NaOH d) H2O

18. The solvent used for the Grignard reagent is

a) ethyl alcohol b) diethyl ether c) acetone d) benzene

19. The compound which does not reduce Fehling’s solution is

a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde

20. Among the following the strongest acid is

a) ClCH2COOH b) Cl

3C-COOH c) CH

3COOH d) Cl

2CH-COOH


a) 1 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 3

22. The type of hybridisation in PCl5 molecule is

a) sp3d2 b) sp3d c) sp3 d) sp2

23. Among the following, which has the maximum ionisation energy?

a) Alkali metals b) Noble gases

c) Alkaline earth metals d) Halogens


a) Tetrahedral b) octahedral c) square planar d) pyramidal

25. Which transition element shows the highest oxidation state?


26. Decomposition of nitrogen pentoxide in CCl4 is a

a) zero order reaction b) first order reaction

c) pseudo-first order reaction d) fractional order reaction

27. For chemisorption which of the following is wrong?

a) Irreversible b) It requires activation energy

c) It forms multimolecular layers on adsorbate d) Surface compounds are formed


a) emulsion b) colloidal solution

c) true solution d) none of these

29. The rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide decreases in presence of

a) Platinum b) Iron c) Mn02 d) Glycerine

30. The pH of 0.1 N NaOH solution is

a) 1 b) 10-1 c) 13 d) 10-13


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R.ANNAMALAI

OCTOBER - 20121. The crystal lattice with coordination number four is

a) CsCl b) ZnO c) BN d) NaCl

2. All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which lead to

a) decrease in entopy b) increase in enthaly

c) increase in free energy d) decrease in free energy

3. The entropy change for the following process possessing Δ H (transition)

as 2090 J.mol-1 1 mol Sn(α, 13oC) 1 mole Sn (β, 13oC)

a) 22.007 J.mol-1K-1 b) 7.307 JK-1mol-1

c) 0.314 J.molK-1 d) 109.52 J.mol-1K-1

4. In an equilibrium reaction, when Q<K then

a) forward reaction is favoured

b) reverse reaction is favoured

c) both forward and reverse reaction are favoured

d) none of these

5. Which of the following gaseous reactions Kp<Kc?

a) PCl5(g) PCl

3(g) + I

2(g) b) H

2(g) + I

2(g) 2HI(g)

c) N2(g) + 3H

2(g) 2NH

3(g) d) CO(g) + H

2O(g) CO

2(g) + H

2(g)

6. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in cone. Sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is

a) C6H

5NH - NHC

6H

5b) C

6H

5NHOH c) C

6H

5 - N = N - C

6H

5d) C

6H

5HSO

4

7. Which one of the following is the most basic?

a) Ammonia b) Methylamine c) Dimethylamine d) Aniline

8. The compound which does not undergo diazotisation reaction is

a) m-toluidine b) benzylamine c) aniline d) p-aminophenol

9. The building block of proterins are

a) α - hydroxy acids b) α - amino acids c) β - hydroxy acids d) β - amino acids

10. An example for reducing disaccharide is

a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Lactose

11. The most malleable and ducitle of all metals is

a) silver b) gold c) copper d) zinc

12. The maximum oxidation state exhibited by lanthanide is

a) +1 b) +3 c) +2 d) +413. Which is used in Gas lamp materials?

a) Ceria b) Thoria c) Mish metal d) Both (a) and (b)14. The Type of isomerism found in the complexes [Co(NO

2) (NH

3)

5] SO

4 and [Co(SO

4) (NH

3)

5]NO

2 is

a) Hydrate isomerism b) Coordination isomerism

c) Linkage isomerism d) lonisation isomerism



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R.ANNAMALAI

15. After 24 Hours, only 0.125g out of the initial quantity of 1 g of a radioisotope remains behind. Then itshalf-life perod is

a) 0.8 hours b) 8 hours c) 100 hours d) 80 hours

16. Order at reactivity of Alcohol towards sodium metal is

a) primary < secondary > tertiary b) primary > secondary < tertiary

c) primary > secondary > teriary d) primary < secondary < tertiary

17. When diethyl ether reacts with chlorine in presence of sunlight it gives

a) chlorodiethyl ether b) dichlorodiethyl ether

c) perchlorodiethyl ether d) both (a) and (b)

18. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in

a) CH3COOH b) C

2H

5OC

2H

5c) CH

3CH

2OH d) C

2H

5NH

2

19. 3CH3COCH

3

Conc H2SO

4 the product is

a) Mesitylene b) Mesityl oxide c) Phorone d) Paraldehyde


a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid c) Butyric acid d) Benzoic Acid

21. De Broglie equation is


22. The hybridisation in ICI-4 ion is

a) sp3 b) sp3d c) sp3d2 d) sp3d3

23. Noble gases have _________ electron affinity.

a) high b) low c) zero d) very low

24. Which of the following is the second most abundant element in earth’s crust?

a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Germanium d) Tin

25. When excess of KCN is added to an equeous solution of copper sulphate, it gives

a) Cu(CN)2

b) K2[Cu(CN)

6] c) K[Cu(CN)

2] d) Cu

2(CN)

2 + (CN)

2

26. Arrhenius equation is

a) K = A.e-I/RT b) K = A.e-RT/Ea c) K = A.e-Ea/RT d) K = A.eEa/RT



28. The Iron catalyst used in the synthesis of ammonia in Haber’s process is poisoned by

a) AS2O

3b) V

2O

5c) H

2S d) Glycerine

29. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field known as

a) Electro - osmosis b) Brownian movement

c) Electro - dialysis d) Cataphoresis

30. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles. Lit-1 is

a) 1 x 10-12 b) 1 x 10-2 c) 1 x 10-7 d) 1 x 10-4


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1. ....................... form oxocations.


2. The metals present in Nichrome alloy.

a) Cr, Ni, Fe b) Cr, Co, Ni c) Cr, Fe d) Cr, Fe, Cu

3. 2H2O

(g) + 2Cl

2(g)4 HCl

(g) + O

2(g) The relationship between K

P and K

C for the equilibrium is.

a) KP = K

Cb) K

P = K

C(RT)2 c) K

P = K

C(RT)1 d) K

P = K

C(RT)-2

4. The aminoacid without Chiral carbon is.


5. Silica gel is utilised for the ....................... of the number of gases.

a) adsorption b) absorption c) desorption d) all of these

6.92

U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54

Xe139, 38

Sr94 and X. What is X?

a) 3 neutrons b) 2 neutrons c) α - particle d) β - particle

7. Ethylene diamine is converted to ethylene glycol using.

a) Na2CO

3 solution b) Nitrous acid c) NaHCO

3 solution d) Baeyer’s reagent

8. In nitroalkanes - NO2 group is converted to - NH

2 group by using the reagent.

a) Sn/HCl b) Zn dust c) Zn/NH4Cl d) Zn/NaOH

9. Strong mineral acids ......................... the ethereal oxygen forming oxonium salts.

a) electronate b) protonate c) deprotonate d) dehydrate

10. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre-1 will be.

a) 1 x 10-12 b) 1 x 10-4 c) 1 x 10-7 d) 1 x 10-2

11. Paramagnetism is the property of.

a) paired electrons b) completely filled electronic sub-shells

c) unpaired electons d) completely vacant electronic sub-shells

12. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process, the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtainedwith the process having.



13. The noble gases are unreactive because they.

a) have same number of electrons b) have an atomicity

c) are gases with low density d) have stable electronic configuration14. Emulsifying agent is used for.

a) precipitation of an emulsion b) denaturation of an emulsion

c) stabilization of an emulsion d) oxidation of an emulsion15. [FeF

6]4 - is paramagnetic because.

a) F - is a weaker ligand b) F - is a stronger ligand

c) F - is a flexidinate ligand d) F - is a chelating ligand

March - 2013



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16. The total number of atoms per unit cell in fcc is.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

17. Among the following the strongest acid is.

a) CH3COOH b) HCOOH

c) ClCH2COOH d) CH

3CH

2COOH

18. The hybridisation in PCl5 molecule is.

a) sp3 b) sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp2

19. Conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to chlorobenzene is

a) Sandmeyer’s reaction b) Stephen’s reaction

c) Gomberg reaction d) Schotten - Baumann reaction

20. Which of the following does not result in an increase in entropy?

a) Rusting of iron b) Conversion of ice to water

c) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution d) Sublimation of camphor

21. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is.

a) (C2H

5)

2NH b) C

2H

5NH

2c) (C

2H

5)

3N d) (C

2H

5)

4N+I-

22. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K=4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be.

a) 4.2x105 sec-1 b) 8.4x105 sec-1 c) 8.4x10-5 sec-1 d) 4.2x10-5 sec-1

23. Maximun oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides is.

a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4

24. On moving down a group, the radius of an ion.

a) decreases b) increases

c) first increases and then decreases d) remains constant

25. Thermodynamic condition for irreversible spontaneous process at constant T and P is.

a) Δ G < 0 b) Δ G = 0 c) Δ G > 0 d) a and c

26. Which one of the following is a simple ether?

a) CH3 - O - C

2H

5b) C

6H

5 - O - CH

3

c) C2H

5 - O - C

2H

5d) C

3H

7 - O - C

2H

5

27. Dual character of an electon was explained by.

a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) De Broglie d) Pauli

28. The compound that does not undergo Cannizaro reaction is.

a) formaldehyde b) benzaldehyde

c) acetaldehyde d) trimethyl acetaldehyde

29. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in.

a) emulsion b) colloidal solution c) true solution d) gel

30. The reducing sugar is.

a) Sucrose b) Cellulose c) Starch d) Glucose


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. Chloropicrin is

a) CCl3CHO b) CCl

3NO

2c) CHCl

3d) CH

3NO

2

2. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 1.54 x 10-3 sec-1. Its half life period is.

a) 540 seconds b) 450 seconds c) 45 seconds d) 54 seconds

3. ................... is used in gas lamp material.

a) MnO2

b) CeO2

c) N2O

5d) Fe

2O

3

4. For an isothermal process, the entropy change of the universe during a reversible process is.

a) Zero b) More c) Less d) None of the above

NaNO2 / HCl

5. C6H

5NH2

273 K - 278K X. Identify X.

a) C6 H

5 Cl b) C

6 H

5 NHOH c) C

6 H

5 N

2 Cl d) C

6 H

5 OH

6. Ruby glass is a colloidal solution of.

a) Solid - sol b) Gel c) Emulsion d) sol

7. Paramagnetic moment is expressed in.

a) Debye Unit b) Kilojoules c) BM D) ergs

8. β - particle is represented as.

a) +1

e0 b) -1e0 c)

1H1 d)

2He4

9. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is.

a) acetone b) acetophenone c) Isopropyl alcohol d) glycol

10. The unit of electron affinity is.

a) MeV b) JK -1 c) eV d) KJ mol -1

11. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25oC is 80 ohm -1 cm2 eq-1 and at infinite dilution 400

ohm-1 cm2 eq-1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is .....................

a) 1 b) 0.2 c) 0.1 d) 0.3

12. The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0

13. IUPAC name of this compound CH2O - CH - CH

3

CH3

a) 1 - Methoxy propane b) Methyl isopropyl ether

c) Isopropyl methyl ether d) 2 - Methoxy propane

14. State of Chemical equilibrium is.a) dynamic b) stationary c) none d) both (a and b)

15. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in.a) Emulsion b) Colloidal solution c) True solution d) Gel

16. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by.a) Br

2/H

2O b) Fehling’s solution c) Tollens Reagent d) Conc. HNO

3

JUNE - 2013



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17. Which of the following compounds will not give positive chromyl chloride test?

a) CuCl2

b) HgCl2

c) ZnCl2

d) C6H

5Cl


Cl2(g)

the signs of Δ H and Δ S respectively are.

a) +, - b) +, + c) -, - d) -, +

19. Aspirin is.

a) Salicylic acid b) Acetyl salicylic acid

c) Salicylaldehyde d) Methyl Salicylate


a) Irreversible b) It requires activation energy

c) It forms multimolecular layers on adsorbate d) Surface compounds are formed

21. In the formation of HI from H2 and I

2 , K

p = K

c because.

a) Δ ng = 2 b) Δ n

g = 1 c) Δ n

g = 0 d) Δ n

g = -1


a) Paired electrons b) Completely filled electronic subshells

c) unpaired electrons d) Completely vacent electronic sub shells


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

24. Radioactive element of lanthanide is.

a) Thorium b) Lanthanum c) Uranium d) Promethium

25. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called.

a) Super conductors b) n - type semiconductors

c) p - type semiconductors d) Insulators

26. ................. occur in the white matter of the brain and of all nervous tissue.

a) Lacithin b) Cephalin c) Galactolipids d) Amino acid

27. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is.

a) (C2H

5)

2NH b) C

2H

5NH

2c) (C

2H

5)

3N d) (C

2H

5)

4N+I-

28. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in.

a) o - nitrophenol b) m - nitrophenol

c) p - nitrophenol d) None of the above

29. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in.

a) CH3COOH b) C

2H

5OC

2H

5c) CH

3CH

2OH d) C

2H

5NH

2

30. The compound with garlic taste is.

a) H3PO

4b) H

3PO

3c) P

2O

3d) P

2O

5


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October - 2013

1. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is

a) Peroxide b) Oxide c) TNT d) Superoxide

2. Among the halogen acids, the weakest acid is

a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) HI

3. In a reversible reaction 2HI H2 + I

2 K

p is

a) greater than Kc

b) less than Kc

c) equal to Kc

d) zero



c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S d) Δ G = Δ H / T Δ S

5. The compound that does not undergo Cannizaro reaction is

a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde

c) Benzaldehyde d) Trimethyl acetaldehyde

6. An example of ambidentate Ligand is

a) NH3

b) H2O c) NO

-

2d) I

-

NaNO2 / HCl

7. C6H

5NH2

0oCX. X is

a) C6 H

5 Cl b) C

6 H

5 NHOH c) C

6 H

5 N

2 Cl d) C

6 H

5OH

8. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K = 4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be

a) 4.2 x 105 sec-1 b) 8.4 x 105 sec-1

c) 7.4 x 105 sec-1 d) 4.2 x 10-5 sec-1

9. Which element in Lanthanide is radioactive?

a) Cerium b) Promethium c) Holmium d) Lutetium

10. Among the following which has higher electronegativity value?

a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Bromine d) Iodine

11. In the oxidation of SO2 in contact process the catalytic poison is

a) As2O

3b) V

2O

5c) Fe

2O

3d) CuCl

2

12. Which of the following compound doesn’t show tautomerism?

a) Nitro benzene b) Nitromethane c) Nitro ethane d) 2-nitropropane

13. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on theelectrode is equal to.

a) equivalent weight b) molecular weight

c) electrochemical equivalent d) one gram

14. The hybridisation in SF6 molecule

a) sp3 b) sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp3d3



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15. Electrophile used in nitration of benzene is

a) Hydronium ion b) Sulphonic ion

c) Nitronium ion d) Bromide ion

16. IUPAC name of phenetole is

a) Phenoxy benzene b) ethoxy benzene

c) Methoxy benzene d) Propoxy benzene

17. In the following radioactive decay 92

X23289

Y220 how many α and β particles are ejected.

a) 3α, 3β b) 5α, 3β c) 3α, 5β d) 5α, 5β

18. Electrophoresis is a ________ property of a colloid.

a) Optical b) Kinetic c) Electrical d) Magnetic

19. An emulsion is a Colloidal solution of

a) two solids b) two liquids c) two gases d) one solid and one liquid

20. Silver salt used in Photography is

a) AgCl b) AgNO3

c) AgF d) AgBr

21. Proteins are.

a) Polypeptides b) Polyacids c) Polyphenols d) Polyester

22. The molecular orbitals are filled according to

a) Pauli’s exclusion principle b) Hund’s rule

c) Aufbau principle d) All the above

23. Which one of the following crystal has 8:8 structure?

a) MgF2

b) CsCl c) KCl d) NaCl

24. A ‘d’ block metal ion has a magnetic moment of 1.732 BM. The number of unpaired electrons are

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

25. The SI unit of entropy is...........(ANSWER :d)a) Cal K-1 mol-1 b) erg K-1 mol-1 c) J deg-1 mol-2 d) J K-1 mol-1

26. Cephalins have been implicated in the process of

a) Metabolism b) Organisation of the body

c) Blood purification d) Blood coagulation

27. _________ forms oxocations.


28. The rate constant of the forward and reverse reactions are 8 x 10-5 and 2 x 10-4 respectively, Kc

is__________

a) 0.004 b) 0.02 c) 0.2 d) 0.4

29. The acid that cannot be prepared by grignard reagent is

a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid c) Butyric acid d) Benzoic acid

30. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives.

a) benzaldehyde b) benzoic acid c) toluene d) benzene


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R.ANNAMALAI M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed.PGT(CHEMISTRY),

GOVT. GIRLS HR. SEC. SCHOOL GINGEE,DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DT

email: [email protected].

��

PTA -�� I-V��

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Choose and write the corret answer 30x1=30

1. En = -313.6/n2, If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value ‘n’ corresponds to

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1


(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4

3. Noble gases have ..................... electron affinity

(a) High (b) low (c) zero (d) very low


(a)Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral (c) square planar (d) Pyramidal

5. Copper is extracted from

(a) Cuprite (b) copper glance (c) Malachite (d) Copper pyrites

6. silver salt used in photography is

(a) AgCl (b) AgNO3

(c) AgF (d) AgBr

7. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanides is

(a) +2 (b) +1 (c) +3 (d) +4

8. __________ is used in gas lamp material

(a) MnO2

(b) CeO2

(c) N2O

5(d) Fe

2O

3


(a) Tetrahedral (b) Square planar (c) Triangular (d) Octahedral

10. Which of the follower is used as neutron absorber in nuclear reactors?

(a)Water (b) Deuterium (c) Uranium (d) Cadmium

11. The number of Chloride ions present per unit of CSCl ?

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 1 (d) 4

12. In an adiabtic process Which of the following is correct?

(a) q=w (b) q=0 (c) Δ E=q (d) p Δ v=0


(a) an increase in entropy (b) a decrease in entropy

(c) an increase in heat of vapourisation (d) an increase in free energy


(a) Dynamic (b) Stationary (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None

15. For an endothermic equilibrium reaction, if K1and K2 are the equilibrium constants at T

1 and T

2

temperatures respectively and if T2>T

1,then

(a) K1<K

2(b) K

1>k

2(c) K

1=K

2(d) None

16. The unit of zero order rate constant is

(a) sec-1 (b) mol lit-1 sec-1 (c) mol sec-1 (d) lit2 sec-1

PTA-Model Question paper -I



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17. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulsion remains colorless then, the emulsion is

(a) O/W (b) W/O (c) O/O (d) W/W


(a) Precipitation (b) coagulation (c) Dialysis (d) Filtration

19. Fe(OH)3 colloidal particles adsorb __________ ions

(a) Fe3+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Cu2+

20. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicabe to the solution of

(a) CH3COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H

2SO

4

21. The reaction of lucas reagent is fast with

(a) ethanol (b) methanol (c) 2-propanol (d) 2-methl 2-propanol

22. An Organic compound C4H

10O When heated with excess HI gives Only one type of alkyl iodide. The

compound is

(a) diethylether (b) methyl n-propylether

(c) methyl iso propylether (d) n-butyl alcohol

23. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance prpduced is

(a) peroxide (b) Oxide (c)TNT (d) superoxide

24. The compound that does not undergo cannizzaro reaction is(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde

(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Trimethyl Acetaldehyde

25. Which oi the following is least acidic?

(a) C2H

5OH (b) CH

3COOH (c) C

6H

5OH (d) ClCH

2COOH

26. Nitration of nitrobenzene at 373K results in

(a) O-dinitro benzene (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene

(c) P-dinitro benzene (d) m-dinitro benzene


(a) Electrophile (b) Lewis base (c) Lewis base (d) Free radical


(a) m-toluidine (b) anline (c) p- amino phenol (d) benzylamine

29. Important constituent of cell wall is

(a) Lipid (b) Cellulose (c) Protein (d) Vitamin

30. The most abundant carbohydrate is

(a) glucose (b) fructose (c) Starch (d) cellulose


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1.de-Broglie equation is

(a) (b)�λ=hmv (c) (d)

2. The hybridisation in SF6 molecule is

(a) sp3 (b) sp3d2 (c) sp3d (d) sp3d3

3. Across the period, electron affinity generally

(a) decreases (b) increases

(c) decreases and increases (d) increases and then decreases

4. Which has least melting point?

(a) B (b) Al (c) Ga (d) In

5. Formation of coloured ions is possible when metal ions contain

(a) paired electrons (b) unpaired electrons

(c) lone pairs of electrons (d) none of the above

6. The value of magnetic moment of Ti3+ ion is

(a) 0 (b) 1.73 (c) 2.83 (d) 3.87

7. The lanthanide contraction is due to

(a) perfect shielding of 4f electrons (b) Imperfect shielding of 4f electrons

(c) perfect shielding of 3d electrons (d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electrons

8. The actinide that exhibits oxidation state +6 is

(a) Ac (b) Th (c) Pa (d) U

9. The geometry of [Fe(CN)6]4- is

a) tetrahedral b) Square planar c) triangular d) Octahedral

10. In the nuclear reaction, 92

U23882

Pb206 the number of α and β particles emitted are

a) 7α, 5β b) 6α, 4β c) 4α, 3β d) 8α, 6β

11. Frenkel defect is found in

a) Nacl b) AgCl c) CsCl d) FeS

12. Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy ?

a) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution b) Rusting of iron

c) conversion of ice to water d) Vapourisation of Camphor


a) Spontaneous b) Non-Spontaneous c) Reversible d) All of these14. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions are 2A B is K

1and B 2A is

K2, then

a) K1=2K

2b) K

1= 1

K2 c) K2= ( K

1 )2 d) K

1= 1 K

2

2

15.At chemical equilibrium

a) Q > Kc

b) Q < Kc c) Q = Kc

d) Q = 1K

c

PTA-Model Question paper -II

λ= mv

h λ= hv

m λ= h

mv



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16. The half life period of a first order reation is 10 minits. then its rate constant is

a) 6.93 x 102 min-1 b) 0.693 x 102min-1 c) 0.693 x 102min-1 d) 69.3 x 10-1 min-1

17. Somke is a colloidal solution of


18. 2SO2 + O

22SO

3 Homogeneous catalyst for this reaction is

a) Pt b) V2O

5c) NO d) As

2O

3

19. Which one of the following is used in the Purification of drinking water?

a) colloidion b) alum c) silver bromide d) chromium salt

20. The specific conductance of 0.01M solution of KCL is 0.0014 ohm-1cm-1 at 250C. It’s equivalentconductance is

a) 14ohm-1-cm2 equi-1 b) 140ohm-1-cm2 equi-1

c) 1.4ohm-1-cm2 equi-1 d) 0.14ohm-1-cm2 equi-1

21.An alcohol which dose not undergo dehydrogenation when passed Over heated Cu at 573K is

a) n- butyl alcohol b) sec- butyl alcohol

c) iso- butyl alcohol d) tert- butyl alcohol

22.When ethyl iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms

a) ethyl alcohol b) diethyl ether c) silver ethoxide d) ethyl methyl ether

23. A reaction of ether in which α hydrogen atom involves

a) halogenation b) peroxide formation

c) oxonium salt formation d) all of these

24. Decolourised Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with


25. Acetyl chloride cannot be prepared from acetic acid using

a) PCl5

b) PCl3

c) SOCl2

d) NaCl


a) hydronium ion b) sulphuric acid c) nitronium ion d) bromide ion

27. Nitro benzene on reduction using tin and hydrochloric acid gives

a) aniline b) phenyl hydroxyl amine c) hydrazo benzene d) azobenzene

28. An organic compund ‘A’ with molecular formula C3H

9N neither give nitrogen nor yellow oily liqyid

with HNO2. Then ‘A’ is

a)CH3CH

2CH

2NH

2b) CH

3- CH

2- NH - CH

3

c) CH3-N-CH

3d) All of these

CH3

29. A mono saccharide among the following is

a) Sucrose b) Cellulose c) Maltose d) Glucose

30. which is not true of an amino acid?

a) amino acid foms zwitter ion b) has isoelectric point

c) dual behaviour d) amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution


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PTA-Model Question paper -III1. The energy of electron in an atom is given by En=

a) b) c) d)

2.Bond order in oxygen molecule is

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

3. The Element with the highest electron affinnity is

a) fluorine b) chlorine c) bromine d) iodine

4.The shape of PCl5 is

a) trigonal pyramidal b) trigonal bipyramidal c) linear d) terahedral

5. The correct outer electronic configuration of copper is

a) 3d9 4s2 b) 3d10 4s1 c) 3d4 4s2 d) 3d54S1

6.The maganetic moment of V3+ ion is

a) 3 BM b) 2 2 BM c) 0 d) 35 BM

7.In f-block elements the following shells are incomplete

a) n b) (n-1) c) (n-2) d) all the above

8.__________ from oxocations

a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkalimetals

9. Which is not an anionic complex?

a) [Cu(NH3)

4]Cl

2b) K

3[Fe(CN)

6] c) K

4[Fe(CN)

6] d) K

2[Zn(CN)

4]

10. Loss of β- particles is equivalent to

a) increase of one proton only b) decrease of one neutron only

c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these

11. A regular three dimensional arrangement of identical points in space is called

a) unit cell b) space lattice c) isomorphism d) crystal lattice


Cl2(g)

the sings of Δ H and Δ S respectively are

a) +,- b) +,+ c) -,- d) -,+

13. All naturally occuring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction Which leads toa) decrease in entropy b) increase in enthalpy

c) increase in free energy d) decrease in free energy

14. The active mass of 28g of nitrogen in 2 litres isa) 1 M b) 0.5 M c) 2 M d) 4 M

15. The catalyst used in the Synthesis of SO3 by contact process is

a) Fe b) I2

c) Mo d) V2O

5

16. For a reaction aA bB the rate of a reaction is incresed by twice when the concentration of thereactant is increaesed by four times. The rate equation is Rate=

a) K[A] b) K[A] c) K[A]4 d) K[A]2

- 2 2me2

n2h2

) ) )

12

32


- 2 2me4

n2h2

- 4 2e2m

n2h2

- 4 2me4

n2h2


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R.ANNAMALAI


a) gas in liquid b) liquid in gas c) gas in soild d) soild in gas

18. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric fleld is known as

a) dialysis b) cataphoresis c) electro- osmosis d) electro dialysis

19. principle of cottrell smoke precipitator is coagulation by

a) addition of electrolyte b) addition of oppositely charged colloid

c) oppositely charged electrode d) all of these

20. A solution which is resistant to change of pH on addition of small amount of an acid or a base is knownas

a) buffer solution b) true solution c) neutral solution d) ideal solution

21. When phenol is heated with Zinc dust it gives

a) benzene b) 2,4,6 - trinitro benzene

c) 1,3,5 - trinitro benzene d) no reaction


a) very reactive b) replaceable c) oxidising d) comparatively inert

23. When an ether ‘A’ is treated with hot concentrated hydroiodic acid gives only ethyl iodide. then A is

a) diethyl ether d) methyln-propyl ether

c) methyl isopopyl ether d) all of these

24. The compound which does not reduce Fehling’s solution is

a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde

c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde

25.The isomerism exhibited by CH3CH

2COOH and CH

3COOCH

3 is

a) metamerism b) position c) chain d) functional

26. The basic character of amines is due to

a) tetrahedral structure b) presence of nitrogen atom

c) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom d) high electronegativity of nitrogen

27. When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled the product is

a) benzyl alcohol b) benzene and nitrogen

c) phenol d) phenyl hydroxyl amine

28. IUPAC name of methyl cyanide is

a) methane nitrile b) aceto nitrile c) ethane nitrile d) cyano methane

29. primary structure of proteins refers to

a) the amino acids present b) the shape of protein

c) the peptide bond d) the sequence of amino acid

30. Sucrose is a non reducing disaccharide, because

a) C1of glucose is bonded to C

1of fructose b) C

2 of glucose is bonded to C

1of fructose

c) C1 of glucose is bonded to C

2of fructose d) C

2 of glucose is bonded to C

2of fructose


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PTA-Model Question IV1. If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H-atom is -E What is the energy of the electron

in the first orbit?

a) 2E b) -2E c) -4E d) 4E

2. The type of hybridisation in CO32- ion is

a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d

3. When XA>>X

B, A-B bond is

a) polar covalent b) non - polar covalent c) lonic d) metallic

4. Which shows only -1 oxidation state?

a) fluorine b) bromine c) chlorine d) iodine

5. Paramagnetism is the Property of

a) Paired electrons b) Completely filled electronic sub-shells

c) unpaired electrons d) completely vacant electronic subshells

6. Which of the following is not coloured?

a) [Cu(NH3)

4]2+ b) [CdCl

4]2- c) K

4[Fe(CN)

6] d) K

2[Cu(CN)

4]

7.Actinide contraction is due to imperfect shielding of

a) 4f electrons b) 5f electrons c) 6d electrons d) 7s-electrons

8. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

a) Zn and Y have about the same radius b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state

c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

9. The type of hybridisation of the central metal ion in the complex [Ni(CN)4]2- is

a) sp3 b) sp3 d c) d sp2 d) d sp3


a) α -rays b) β-rays c) r-rays d) all are equally penetrating

11. In a simple cubic cell each point on a corner is shared by

a) one unit cell b) eight unit cell c) four unit cell d) two unit cell

12. Which of the following, the process is always non feasible

a) ΔH >0,ΔS>0 b) ΔH <0,ΔS>0 c) ΔH >0,ΔS<0 d) ΔH <0,ΔS<0

13. The standard free energy value (Go) of formation of an element in its stable state is

a) Zero b) negative c) positive d) unpredictable

14. In the reversible 2HI H2

+ I2

Kp is

a) greater than kc b) less then kc c) equal to Kc d) zero

15. Two moles of ammonia gas introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which it partiallydissociates at high temerature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains The equilibrium constantKc for the dissociation is

a) 27/16 ( mol dm-3 )2 b) 27/8 ( mol dm-3 )2

c) 27/4 ( mol dm-3 )2 d) None of these



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R.ANNAMALAI

,

16. 2N2 O

54NO

2 + O

2 , -

d[N2O

5] = K

1[N

2O

5]

dtd[NO

2] = K

2[N

2O

5] and

d[O2] = K

3[N

2O

5] the relation between K

1,K

2 and K

3 is

dt dt

a) 2K1=4K

2=K

3b) K

1=K

2=K

3

c) 2K1=K

2=4K

3d) 2K

1=K

2=K

3

17. The Tyndall effect associated with colloidal particles is due to

a) presence of charge b) scattering of light

c) absorption of light d) reflection of light

18. In the case of physical absorption, there is desorption when

a) temperature increases b) tempereature decreases


19. Rubber is obtained by

a) dissolving latex in a suitable solvent

b) coagulation of latex

c) evaporation of latex

d) all of these

20. The unit of cell constant is

a) ohm-1m-1 b) m-1 c) ohm-1m2eq-1 d) no unit

21. The IUPACname of (CH3)

3C-OH is

a) 2,2-dimethyl- 1-propanol b) neopenthyl alcohol

c) 2-methyl -2-propanol d) Trimethylene carbinol

22. Willamson’s synthesis is an example of

a) nucleophilic addition b) electrophilic addition

c) electrophilic substitution d) nucleophilic substitution

23. 1-Methoxy propane and 2-Methoxy propane are

a) metamers b) position isomers

c) functional isomers d) chain isomers

24. Acetophenone and benzophenone can be distinguished by

a) lucas test b) ferric chloride solution

c) iodoform test d) carbylamine test

25. The acid that reduces Tollen’s reagent is

a) methanoic acid b) oxalic acid c) salicylic acid d) oleic acid

26.When nitro methance is condensed with acetone it gives

a) 1-nitro-2-propanol b) 1-nitro-2-methyl-2-propanol

c) 1-nitro-2-methoxy propane d) no reaction


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27. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in conc sulphuric acid the intermediate formed is

a) C6H

5-NH-NH-C

6H

5b) C

6H

5NH OH

c) C6H

5-N=N-C

6H

5d) C

6H

5HSO

4

O28. The isomerism exhibited by CH

3- CH

2- N and CH

3- CH

2- O - N=O is

Oa) position b) chian c) functional d) tautomerism

29.The amino acid without chiral carbon is

a) glycine b) alanine c) proilne d) thyrosine

30. In acid medium amino acids exist in the from of

a) cations b) anions

c) dipolar ions d) neutral molecules


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R.ANNAMALAI

1. Which of the following particle having same kinetic energy, would have the maximum de-Brogile wave length?

a) α - Particle b) Proton c) β - Particle d) neutron

2. Which one of the following molecule is paramagnetic?

a) H2

b) He2

c) N2

d) O2

3. Among the following Which has maximum ionisation energy

a) alkali b) alkaline earth metals c) halogens d) noble gases

4. An element which is in 15th group and third period was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A.A is

a) NO2

b) P2O

3c) P

2O

5d) SO

3

5. The correct statement in respect of d-block elements is

a) they are all metals b) they show variable valency

c) they form coloured ions and complex salts d) all the above statement are correct.

6. Zn displaces Au from K[Au(CN)2], because

a) Zn is more electro positive than Au b) Au is more electro positive than Zn

c) Zn is more electro negative than Au d) Atomic mass of Zn is greater than Au

7. The elements in which the extra electron enters (n-2) orbitals are called

a) s- block elements b) p-block elements

c) d-block elements d) f-block elements


a) mish - metals b) metalloid c) plate metals d) actinides

9. IUPAC name of the complex K3[Cr(C

2O

4)

3]3H

2O is

a) potassium tri oxalato chromate (III) trihydrate

b) triaquo potassium tri oxalato chromate (III)

c) potassium tris (oxalato) chromate (III) trihudrates

d) potassium tris (oxalato) chromate (III) trihudrate

10. High speed projectiles may chip a heavy nucleus into several fragments in

a) nuclear fission reactions b) nuclear fusion reactions

c) spallation reaction d) all of these

11. Bragg’s equations is

a) nλ =2d sin θ b) nd =2λ sin θ c) λd =2n sin θ d) ndλ =2 sin θ

12. Aliquid which obeys Trouton’s rule is

a) H2

b) H2O c) CH

3 COOH d) CCl

4

13. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by

a) Δ G = Δ H +T Δ S b) Δ G = Δ H - T Δ S

c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S d) none of the above

PTA-Model question-V



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R.ANNAMALAI

14. The relation between Kp and Kc of a reversible reaction is

a) Kc=K

p(RT) Δng b) K

p=K

c(RT) Δng

c) Kp=Kc d) Kp=1/Kc

15. In the equilibrium N2+3H

22NH

3 The maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the

process having

a) low pressure and high temperature

b) low pressure and low temperature

c) high pressure and high temperature

d) high pressure and low temperature

16. In a first order reaction, the time taken to react 99.9% of the raection is _________ times its half lifeperiod

a) two b) five c) ten d) hundred


a) irreversible

b) it requires activation energy

c) it forms multimolecular layers on adsorbant

d) surface compounds are formed

18. An emulsion is a collidal solution of

a) two solids b) two liquids

c) two gases d) one solid and one liquid

19.Awrong statement about catalyst is

a) remains unchanged in mass and chemical composition at the end of the reaction.

b) only a small quantity is needed

c) they do not affect the position of equilibrium

d) they can initiate a reaction.

20. Equimolar solution of which one of the following has greater PH value

a) HCl b) CH3COOH c) NaOH d) NH4OH

21.Iso- butyl alcohol when subjected to victor meyer’s test gives

a) blue colour b) red colour

c)violet colour d) no colour

22. According to lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are


23. PCl5does not give HCl with

a) ethyl alcohol b) diethylether

c) acetic acid d) phenol

24. From which of the following tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesiumiodide?

a) HCHO b) CH3CHO c) CH

3COCH

3d) CO

2


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R.ANNAMALAI

25. Which one of the following compound gives violet colour with neutral ferric chloride and alsoeffervescence with sodium bicarbonate?

a) aspirin b) methyl salicylate

c) salicylic acid d) phenol

26. Which one of the following will not undergo diazotisation?

a) m-toluidine b) aniline

c) p- amino phenol d) benzyl amine

27. Biphenyl is the product of

a) Schotten Bauman’s reaction

b) Gomberg reaction

c) Friedel craft’s reaction

d) sand meyer reaction

28. During nitration of aniline m-nitro aniline is also formed due to

a) meta directing nature of -NH2 group

b) protonation of -NH2 group

c) +I effect of -NH2 group

d) resonance in benzene

29. Inversion of sucrose referes to

a) oxidation of sucrose

b) reducation of sucrose

c) hydrolysis of sucrose, to glucose and fructose

d) polymerisation of sucrose

30. Which one of the following represents peptide bond

O O

a) - C - NH2

b) - C - N -

H

O

c) - C - NH2

d) - C - NH3 -


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