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VOLUME 11
2019 © TIM FORDHAM
1
GENERAL OPERATIONS
11
VOLUME 11
2019 © TIM FORDHAM
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Chapter 1 – Wildland Firefighting
Chapter 2 – Hazardous Materials Procedures
Chapter 3 – High Rise
Chapter 4 – Urban Search and Rescue
Chapter 5 – Civil Disturbances
Chapter 6 – Mass Transit System Procedures
Chapter 7 – Water Rescue
Chapter 8 – Earthquake Procedures
Chapter 9 – Environmental Emergencies
Chapter 10 – Terrorism Procedures
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CHAPTER 1 – WILDLAND FIREFIGHTING
11.1.1-WILDLAND FIREFIGHTING 11/01/94
• The first arriving Company Officer is
responsible for: (6)
1. reporting initial size up to C&C and
responding units
2. initiating the ICS system
3. taking necessary action
4. Requesting additional resources
5. providing for personnel safety
6. making a helispot assignment.
• The safety officer has the authority to ______,
_________, or terminate any activity which he
may judge unsafe
alter, suspend
• Who provides the safety message for the
Incident Action Plan.
The Safety Officer
Company Officer's and Unit Supervisors are
responsible for reporting "Holding, _____ mile
out"
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1/4
When dealing with wildland fire incidents, the
priorities of the LACO are: (3)
1. Protection of life
2. Incident Stabilization
3. Property/environment protection &
conservation
• Safety Briefings: During inclement fire
weather, supervisors shall conduct _______
formal safety briefings at morning line-up
daily
All single resources supervisors, personnel with
assignments and operations overhead shall
carry both _____ and _____ radio handie talkie
radios with them
Tactical and Command
• Indirect Lines: A 1 ½” progressive hoselay
shall be deployed on all constructed indirect
and direct Fireline over ___ or more on brush
fires
300’
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➢ The IC shall assign a Safety Officer as soon as
possible
• Weather Reports: The ____ shall be
responsible for broadcasting routine weather
reports or reports when significant weather
changes are predicted or anticipated.
IC
Follow up report to command and control will
include the fire’s relationship to ____ lands
SRA (State Responsibility Lands)
Interagency Fires: All Initial Action Zone
(IAZ) and Mutual Aid fires will require the use
of a common Command and ______ radio
frequency
Air to Ground
• Emergency Radio Traffic: When emergency
radio traffic is requested, a priority of
communications shall be given and “_____
“given on completion
All Clear
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• Incident Management Teams will be activated:
(3)
1. According to current Department policy
2. If ordered by the Duty Chief
3. If ordered by the Incident Management
Team I.C.
TACTICAL GUIDELINES
Jurisdictional or first in Captain will designate a
helispot location and helispot engine company
to C&C within ___ minutes of dispatch
2
• The IC shall develop an _________ plan on all
wildland fires that threaten inhabited areas
Evacuation
Unless there is an immediate exposure
protection need, first attack on wildfires will be
a ________ Operations on the fire’s flanks
Perimeter Control
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A 1 1/2” Progressive Hose Lay will be
deployed for the entire perimeter on both flanks
of a wildland fire over ____ in diameter
300’
Burning Out operations shall have the approval
of the _____________.
Division/Group supervisor
Backfiring operations requires the approval of
the ___________ or _____
Operations Section Chief (OSC)
I.C.
• The _________ at the fire origin site shall
ensure the area of origin is protected for cause
investigation
First engine
A ___________ is required around all wildland
fires
Cold Trail
➢ I.C. shall be responsible for declaring:
Knockdown, containment and control
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RESOURCE USE
• When the I.C. is requesting additional
resources, the I.C. will request by Strike Team
increments, or request "____________"
"Immediate need for closest engines"
• Crew Responsibility: Ultimate responsibility of
hand crews is to construct a __________
completely around the fire
Control line
SAFETY
A minimum safety briefing will discuss: (3)
1. Fire Orders
2. LCES
3. Watch out Situations
* In addition, personnel shall be provided
with briefing on Downhill-Indirect Line
Construction when relevant to their
operations
• All of the above safety items are contained in
the _______________
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Fireline Safety Reference, NFES 2243
• All supervising personnel shall carry written
copies of the: (4)
a) “Fire Orders”
b) “LCES”
c) “Watch Out Situations”
d) “Downhill Indirect Line Construction”
• __________ shall have spare copies of “Fire
Orders”, “LCES”, “Watch out situations”, and
“Downhill-Indirect Line Construction
guidelines available
Battalion Chiefs
• All Single Resource Supervisors and
Operations Overhead shall obtain a briefing on
the ________ plan
communications
If no safety zone exists, or the black is not a
safe location, a ____________ safety zone will
be created
constructed
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• Fly crews will report “staged” in the air above
the fire and request an assignment from the IC.
Fly crews may suggest a starting point on the
line and will indicate they have a ___________
Safety Zone
• The Pilot or Fly Crew Supervisor shall notify
the __________ when the crew is staged in the
air above the fire, and the proposed work
location of the crew before the crew is position
I.C.
Fly crews will not be landed in the safety zone
until approval is given by the ___
IC
➢ The IC and Fly Crew Supervisor will discuss
the proposed location to deploy the fly crew,
direction of travel, safety zones, and the
incident command and tactical radio
frequencies.
• Fly crews will not begin work until they have
the following. (2)
1. An approved assignment from the IC
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2. Received communications briefing
• When the Fly Crew is deployed, the IC records
crew location and working direction, on
___________________
“Brush Incident Command Worksheet”
• When the Fly crew supervisor decides it is safe
and necessary to construct undercut line, the
decision shall be reported to the ______ for
evaluation and concurrence
Immediate Supervisor
• Indirect Lines: When a decision is made to
construct an indirect line: What three things
need to be done
a) Identify location of the indirect line.
Identify a starting and stopping point for the
indirect line
b) Order adequate resources to support the
operation
c) Deploy a 1 1/2 Progressive Hose Lay on the
indirect line
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• Safety Officer: The I.C. may utilize a qualified
engine ______ or _________ as a safety Officer
Captain,
Camp Superintendent
• The ________ shall record information and
provide the safety message for IAP
Safety Officer
• Weather Reports: C & C will contact the
________ (OCC), Riverside, to obtain weather
information and any necessary forecasts
South Operations Coordination Center
The _______ or the _____ shall analyze
obtained weather information
IC
Plans Section Chief
COMMAND
• ICS Facilities: Use address, intersection,
landmark, or Thomas Bros. grid when reporting
location to C&C, during ________.
follow up report
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➢ The IC may consider moving the ICP to a
location that provides: (5)
1. An area away from tactical activities
2. Better communications
3. A safer location
4. Easy access
5. A better view of the incident
Fuel size up:
__________ - Flashy grass fuels only,
including tall grass.
__________ - Mix or grass and brush fuels,
up to 2 feet in height.
__________ - Fuel of 2 feet to 6 feet in height
__________ - Fuel over 6 feet in height
Grass, Light Fuel, Medium Fuel, Heavy
Fuel
SRA Lands: Battalion Chief shall determine
exact fire location during briefing by district
Captain, and shall check the SRA map
B.C. shall report to C&C when fire is on or
threatening _____ Lands. Notify FCC on the
_______ report
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SRA, follow up
If the fire will involve SRA lands, an _____
should be requested
Agency Representative
• When B.C. returns command to the
jurisdictional Captain, that Captain will retain
command until ____________ is complete and
all personnel have left the scene
demobilization
SUPERINTENDENTS
The first arriving superintendent will become
_______________. The second and any
additional Superintendents should be give line
assignments so an assessment of tactical
operations, crew safety, and fire activity can be
made. Also assist IC with (IAP)
crew coordinator
➢ Superintendents: Assist the IC with developing
the IAP after they have visually reviewed the
current tactical operations and fire activity.
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• Group Supervisor for defensive needs should be
given a _________ or ______ designator
Geographical
street name
UNIFIED COMMAND
➢ Unified Command
a) Determine jurisdictional boundaries to
ascertain if fire is or may soon become a
multi jurisdictional fire
b) IC request C&C to notify threatened or
involved jurisdiction agency and requests an
Agency Representative report to command
post
c) IC’s established Unified Command and co
locate Command post, as situation dictates
Once Unified Command is established the IC’s
will then
1. Brief each other on agency mission,
objectives, priorities, limitations, and
resource levels
2. IC’s establish prioritized list of incident
objectives
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3. IC’s agree on strategy, appoint one OSC
and provide briefing
4. IC’s develop a single IAP
5. IC’s establish a single point ordering system
6. IC’s stay together and jointly evaluate plan
and need to change objectives and strategy
7. IC’s work together to solve problems
• Who establishes a single ordering system
IC
INCIDENT ACTION PLAN
➢ Incident Action Plan
a) IC forecasts fire direction, rate of spread,
threat, objectives, and resources required
b) IC refers to “Battalion Wildland Pre Attach
Plans” of jurisdictions involved, to identify
planning info.
c) If IC and/or Plans Section Chief are not
familiar with local factors, local officers
should be reassigned to Command Post, to
assist planning (Operations Technical
Specialist position)
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d) IC develops Incident Action Plan based on
conditions and information
• If IC and/or Plans Section Chief are not familiar
with local factors, __________ should be
reassigned to Command Post, to assist planning
local officers
STAGING
➢ Staging: Brief Staging Manager(s):
1. Include organization
2. Travel routes to all divisions
3. Resource assignment method
4. Establish minimum resource level at staging
• Staging: Normal minimum level is ______
engine and ________
One; one crew
• ______ or ______ establishes staging area(s) as
needed
IC or OPS
COMMUNICATIONS
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• Communications - Initial Action/Mutual Aid:
Resources will be assigned a common
_________ and _________. Non Mutual Aid
Fires: All resources will operate on assigned
tactical frequency until communications plan is
announced.
Command and Air to ground radio
frequency
➢ All companies communicate with their
supervisors on Tactical Frequency
• The IC monitors _____ and ______ frequencies
TRO, Command
➢ Excessive Radio Traffic: the IC will request a
command frequency and will announce the
communications plan through C&C
• If crews are assigned to a separate tactical
frequency, _________ and _____will also be
assigned to that same frequency
Helicopters and dozers
• A second alarm wildland fire with all units
assigned and working on the incident or a
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wildland fire incident where resource requests
exceed a second alarm incident requires C&C
notify the __________________.
Incident Management Team IC
TACTICAL GUIDELINES
Captain shall contact Command and Control,
and announce engine and helispot location
within the first ____ minutes of dispatch
2 minutes
• C&C shall repeat helispot assignment over
___________ Repeater, obtain verbal
acknowledgment from affected helispot engine
and send _____________ to affected helispot
engine
blue, MDT message
➢ Assigned Helispot Engine:
1. Acknowledge Helispot Assignment
2. Verify Helispot location
3. Proceed to Helispot and set up for ff
4. Transmit information (via Tactical Radio)
to the pilot
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• Company Officer shall transmit the following
information to the pilot of the first in helicopter:
(3)
1. Wind direction and velocity
2. Wire hazards
3. Location of other aircraft in the immediate
area and any other flight hazards
EVACUATION
________ agency will implement evacuation
plan
Law enforcement
• Fire Department personnel may only ______
that residents evacuate their property
Recommend
• I.C. requests local law enforcement agency to
implement either "____________" Road
Closure or "____________" Road Closure, as
needed
Residents Only, Complete
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PERIMETER CONTROL
• Perimeter Control: If there are structures
threatened, assign equipment to a __________
with a Group Supervisor to work on structure
protection.
Structure Protection Group
• If structure protection needs have been met,
assign the first _________ supervisor to begin
attack on the flank with the most potential for
fire spread/damage
Division
• ______ crews should be considered for use with
Structure Protection Groups.
Fire
• Wind driven fires (__________ attack)
1. All resources check in
2. Receive assignment
3. Stage in the direction of fire movement and
attempt to extinguish spot fires at the head
of the fire when there are safety zones
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Offensive
STRUCTURE PROTECTION
• If the fire blows over, ______ the structure is
probably the safest place
inside
• If structure becomes involved with fire, ____
fire fighting clothing shall be worn to fight fire
Structural
DEPLOY HOSE
• ___ Lateral Hose Line is primarily for spot
fires, mop up overhaul, and safety zone
protection, not fire attack
1”
• Water Supply: When a supply lay is used for a
Progressive Hose Lay, utilize _____ hose, not
____ hose
2 ½” and 4"
• Utilize roof ladder to access top of private water
tanks and remove top access hatch cover of lid,
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to prevent tank ____ during hard suction
drafting operations
Implosion
APPARATUS OPERATORS
• When flame lengths hit a ridgetop, the flames
will generally ______ or _____ and may
quadruple
Double, triple
➢ Apparatus Operator’s Parking
Back into location if possible, park for
immediate egress, and park so other
equipment may pass. Apparatus shall be on
opposite side of roadway away from fire, and
away from chutes, chimneys, and midslope
roads where fire is below location. Head
lights and warnings lights shall be “on”.
Engine auxiliary pump, not main pump, should
be utilized
• Patrol operator shall engage __________
switch, before leaving patrol pump unattended
to operate nozzle
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Automatic Pump Shutoff
BURNING OUT/FIRING OUT
Burning Out/Firing Out: Notify ________ of
intent to Burn Out/Fire Out. Division/Group
Supervisor shall notify the ___ or ____
Division/Group Supervisor, OSC or IC
➢ Burning Out for Immediate Defensive Need
1. Identify area to burn out
2. Ensure no persons are in the area to be
burned out
3. Anticipate direction of spread and spotting
potential
4. Ensure adequate resources are available to
handle spot fires
5. Ensure adjacent resources are aware of
spread potential and are prepared for
structure protection
6. Have hoseline in place around defensive
need object
7. Plan and establish an escape route
8. Ladder the roof, if a structure
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9. When approaching fire is in close proximity
and in sight, begin defensive firing
operation
• Camp Crew Superintendent/Supervisor may
perform burning out operations during line
construction, using either ______
or__________
2' Method or Parallel Method (5-50')
• Backfiring Operations: Request approval form
the ____ or ____
OSC, IC
• Backfiring Operations require a Backfiring
Operations _______
Supervisor
➢ Backfiring Operations: Notify affected
personnel by tactical radio frequency and Crew
Net frequency and obtain acknowledgment
MOP UP
Fires of ____ acres or less will be 100%
mopped up with water. Fires over ___ acres in
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size, will have wet mop up at least ____ in from
the perimeter
5, 5, 50'
➢ If decision is made to remove personnel before
mop up is completed:
1. Hose will be left in place until mop up is
complete.
2. Patrols or lookouts shall be assigned to
monitor fire, until mop up is completed
Cold Trails: Crews shall construct cold trails
around all wildland fires. If crews and dozers
are canceled enroute, engine company
personnel will assume responsibility for
constructing ______________
Cold Trail
➢ IC shall declare containment through command
and control
• ____________ Supervisor shall be responsible
for inspecting and declaring containment of
their assigned Division
Division
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• IC will request Communications Unit Leader on
Campaign type fires over a ____ alarm
Second
➢ Crew shall construct a control line around the
entire perimeter of the fire
• One helicopter will remain at the scene of all
wildland Incidents until the I.C. determines that
there is no further potential for ________
outside control lines.
spot fires
Fly crew should go available for other
responses as soon as practical after
_____________
knockdown
APPENDIX I
• Each engine in a given battalion will carry a
complete set of their entire Battalion Wildland
Pre Attack Plans in their __________________
Emergency Information File
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• Who carries Wildland pre attack plans for the
entire County: (3)
Strike Team Leaders
Battalion Chiefs
Assistant Chiefs
• Blue Radio: Direct Mode 2 watts/ ____ mile.
Mobile Radio 40 watts/ __ - __ miles
1, 5-10
_____________: Setting fire inside a control
line to consume fuel between the edge of the
fire and the control line.
Burning out/Firing Out
______________: An indirect method of attack
in which the fuels between the control line or
natural barrier and the main fire are
intentionally burned to control a rapidly
spreading fire
Backfiring
• ______________: A period of time beginning
when the fire starts and ending at 10 a.m. on the
day following
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Burning period
• _____________: A control line completely
around the fire and any spot fires, with a high
probability that these lines can be held through
the next burning period
Containment
• ___________: There is no chance of escape
once the fire is out: this is usually given when
the last member leaves the fire
Control
• __________: Superintendent or a Camps BC
assigned to the OSC or IC, to assist in crew
operations
Crew Coordinator
• A fly crew is a paid crew, made up of up to
____ members, plus the Crew Supervisor
10 members
• _______________: The fire is dictating the
action, no containment possible
Defensive Mode
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• ______________: Safe, cleared, parking area
for a pre designated number of fire engines with
personnel in the cab (2-5engines).
Engine Safety Zone
➢ Engine Safety Zone are identified on Bn.
Wildland Pre Attack Plan Safety Maps. ESZ -
is not a deployment zone
➢ Flanks: Left (Division A); Right (Division B);
Top (Division C); As viewed from point of
origin towards head fire
• __________: A method of suppression in
which the control line is located along natural
firebreaks or at a considered distance from the
fire line and the intervening fuel is burned out.
Indirect Line
• ______________: When all open flame has
been eliminated is the first report that fire is
being brought under control. No visible flames
on the perimeter
Knock Down
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Lateral Hose Line: 1” Hose Lay installed at a
minimum of every ____ on main 1 ½” hose.
Minimum of 100’ of 1”. Use for mop up,
overhaul, spot fires, and safety zone protector
line. Not intended as primary fire attack line.
200’
• Plans Team: When requested by IC, C&C will
contact the _______________ (BC), who is
responsible for assigning required Plans Team
Personnel.
Duty Plans Chief
• IC should consider requesting a Plans Team or
Short Team Support for wildland fires of
working ___ alarm and larger
2nd
_____________: Safe, cleared parking
area/holding area for a large number of civilian
vehicles, with family members and pets inside
vehicle.
Public Refuge Area
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• Public Refuge Area should be staffed by at least
___ fire engine and several law enforcement
units
one
• ___________: Areas pre-designated on Bn.
Wildland Pre Attack Plans and Safety Maps,
that will have high probability of civilian or fire
fighter life loss
Safety Hazard Area
_________________: An area either in the
burned/black area or an area void of fuel, large
enough for personnel to evacuate and not have
to deploy fire shelters to prevent injury. A
Safety Zone is not a deployment area
Safety Zone
• A Major Incident Support Team is for large
scaled extended attack wildfire requiring
suppression action for over a minimum of how
many hours ____
24
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• If the I.C. and or Plans Section Chief is not
familiar with local factors, local officers should
be reassigned to the I.C. to assist the Planning
Section as a
Operations Technical Specialist
• ___________________: Areas within the State
of California that are under contract with
counties for the fire protection of State property
SRA - State Responsibility Area
➢ The following minimum equipment shall be
carried in the belt pack:
- Fire shelter
- Canteen
- 1 - Field Hose Clamp
- 1 - 1 1/2" TEE
- 1 - 1" barrel nozzle (IP)
- 1 - Reducer 1 1/2" NH to 1" IP
- 1 - Increaser 1" IP to 1 1/2" NH
APPENDIX II
• Downhill/indirect line construction in steep
terrain and fast burning fuels should be done
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with extreme caution. ____ attack methods
should be used when possible.
Direct
➢ Downhill line construction should not be
attempted when fire is present directly below
the proposed starting point. A downhill line
should be securely anchored at the top. Avoid
underslug line if at all practical
➢ Line firing should be done as the line
progresses, beginning form the anchor point at
the top. The burned out area provides a
continuous safety zone for the crew and reduces
the likelihood of fire crossing the line
11.1.2 WILDLAND PRE ATTACK PLAN
8/1/95
➢ Wildland Pre Attack plans are created for those
Wildland interface (I Zone) areas which have
potential for the loss of a large number of
structures during a Wildland fire incident.
Wildland Pre-Attack Plans are prepared to:
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1. Provide the IC with area specific
information necessary to effectively deploy
resources
2. Provide incoming resources with helpful
and pertinent information about the WL
plan area
3. Establish logical geographic boundaries for
Division or Group ICS assignments
4. Reduce necessary radio traffic during large
wildland fire incidents by providing
pertinent written information bout the WL
pre attack plan area
• Wildland Pre-Attack Plans are meant to be
basic enough for first alarm resources and
informative enough for _______ decision
making on multi-branch, multi day incidents
Command Staff
• A current set of all W.L. Pre Attack Plans shall
be carried in the vehicle of each Chief Officer
and _____________. A current set of all W.L.
Pre Attack Plans for the Battalion shall be
carried on all apparatus and equipment within
the Battalion
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Camp Superintendent
An annual review of all wildland areas and
Wildland Pre-Attack Plans shall be conducted
during the month of _________.
March
• Target areas are areas which pose a significant
risk of life or structural loss as a result of a
wildfire. Included are all interface areas of ___
or more structures with a minimum density of
_______ structure per acre.
20, one
• Wildland Pre Attack Plans are comprised of
three components. They are:
Quad Map, Strip Map, Target Area
Information
• If the Strip Map has a target area requiring in
excess of __ engines, the area will be split into
segments
30
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• The Plans will be filed in a W.L. Pre Attack
folder (more than 5 pre attack plans) or at the
rear of the _______ file folder (5 or less pre-
attack plans).
Form 78 Target Hazard
• A spare copy of the jurisdictional W.L. Pre
Attack Plan will be filed with the __________
left for move up companies
Emergency Information File
APPENDIX I
A large Base for a major fire should be an area
approximately ___ X ____ with room for over
___ firefighters
1000 x 1000, 500
➢ Small base: An area that could suffice for one
or two operational periods
What are the mandatory characteristics for a
Small Base:
Parking (10 vehicle)
Toilets
Easily located
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Defensible
ESZ (ENGINE SAFETY ZONE): A location
where FF's could survive being overrun by a
worst-case wildfire situation. The minimum
criteria is as follows:
a) Free of any flammable material or
vegetation for at least ____ feet in all
directions.
b) Free of heavy (Fuel Model 4) fuel for at
least ____ feet in all directions.
c) Allows engines to turn around and park
without blocking the road.
d) Is not located on amid-slope road or fuel
break, in a chimney or saddle.
30', 200'
• _____: An area requiring immediate
evacuation.
Evacuation Area
• _______: Structures outside the boundary of a
Target Area but potentially in the path of the
fire or having a direct exposure to radiant heat
from the fire.
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Isolated Structure
• ____________: A planned area for public safe
refuge within the target area where egress is
marginal
Public Safe Refuge Area (PSR)
➢ Quad Map: A portion of a Quadrangle Map
which outlines the Pre Attack Plan area in
relation to the surrounding area and on which
sensitive areas, ICS facilities, helispots and
residential assembly points are shown
• _____________: A location outside the target
area that can be used as an evacuation and
meeting center. It is an area where residents
can assemble prior to being housed at shelters.
These areas are not considered shelters.
Residential Assembly Point - RAP
• __________: An area where there is a high
probability for firefighter casualties in a worst
case fire situation; i.e., structures in a chimney,
etc.
Safety Hazard Area
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• Segment: For wildland pre-attack plan
purposes a segment is a portion of a target area.
Segments are utilized when the number of
engines required for defensive operations of a
target area exceeds ____.
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APPENDIX II – SYMBOL LEGEND
Safe Areas:
1. (ESZ) Engine Safety Zone - a yellow
diamond with number of engines that can be
parked at the ESZ, inside the diamond.
2. (PSR) Public Safe Area - a yellow diamond
with the letters "PSR" inside the diamond.
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Hazardous Areas:
1. Target Area or Segment of Target Area
Boundary - a solid red line
2. Evacuation Area Boundary - a dashed red
line
3. Safety Hazard Area - shaded in pink. More
than one safety hazard area in target area -
pink hexagon
4. Vulnerable Area Boundary - a solid yellow
line
5. Sensitive (ecologically) Area Boundary - a
dashed green line
➢ Evacuation Route shall be identified by: Solid
green shading of the street with arrowheads to
indicate travel.
➢ ICS Facilities and Residential Assembly Areas
shall be identified by:
1. Incident Base - a blue circle with a "B"
inside
2. Staging Area - a blue circle with an "S"
inside
3. Helispot - a blue circle with an "H" inside.
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4. RAP - a blue circle with the letters "RAP"
inside the circle.
➢ Structure Information:
1. Combustible Roof - a 3/32" diameter red
dot
2. Isolated Structures - a 3/32" diameter
orange dot.
➢ Other Information:
Planned Engines – A green square with the
number of engines required inside the
square. Use a alpha designator also in the
case of a segmented target area i.e., "20A"
for 20 engines in the segment area.
APPENDIX III
➢ Every designated Wildland Pre Attack Plan
Target Area Require the following categories
1. Fire Behavior
2. Safety Hazard Areas
3. Resource Estimate
4. Access
5. Evacuation Area – Coordinated with Safety
Hazard Areas
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6. Evacuation Route
7. Vulnerable Areas
8. Engine Safety Zones
9. ICS Facilities
10. Sensitive Areas
11. Structures
12. Residential Assembly Point (RAP)
13. Public Safe Refuge Area (PSR)
• Resource Estimate: Myer's Rule: Count the
number of houses on the perimeter of the target
area. Divide the number of homes by ___ to
identify the number of engine companies
required. Add one additional strike team for
_______. If the target area has combustible
roofs within the interior of the target area add
___ strike teams in addition to the strike team in
reserve.
4, reserve, two
Evacuation Route: This information is
mandatory. List _____ safe routes of
evacuation from identified problem areas that
will not interfere with F.D. vehicles or
emergency operations if possible.
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2
• Structures in a designated area that has more
than ___ wood roofs, will have a note referring
to the wood roof situation
75%
11.1.3 MEDICAL EVACUATIONS ON
WILDLAND INCIDENT
2/15/96
Who is responsible for developing and
implementing a medical evacuation plan on all
wildland fire incidents?
The Incident Commander
➢ It is the policy of this Dept. that a written
medical evacuation plan be developed on any
working WL fire incident
➢ Medical Evacuation Plan should consider the
following:
a) Injury types
b) Number of Pts
c) Where pts should be sent
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d) Where and how patients can be treated prior
to evacuation
e) Radio frequencies
f) Resources available to the IC.
11.1.4 WILDLAND URBAN INTERFACE
(WUI) PLACARD 10/10/13
➢ The Wildland Urban Interface (WUI) Placard
(ICS Form 231), was developed by the
California Wildland Fire Coordinating Group
(CWCG), and adopted by FIRESCOPE for use
by fire departments.
• Battalion chiefs shall ensure that a minimum
number of ___forms are carried on each
battalion command vehicle.
25
➢ This form shall be used on all wildland urban
interface incidents when assigned to structure
protection. In all cases of multiple residences,
each residence shall have its own placard.
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➢ Additional WUI Placards may be placed over
previous WUI Placards when significant
changes are observed.
11.1.5 CATALINA WILDLAND PLAN
10/11/13
➢ The first arriving Company Officer shall:
Report an initial size up to Los Angeles
Communication Center (LACC) and responding
units, initiating the Incident Command System
(ICS), take necessary action, request additional
resources, provide for personnel safety, and
make a Helispot assignment.
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• The first arriving Company Officer shall report
on the conditions and provide them to the
_______ Communication and Dispatch Center.
Avalon Sheriff’s
➢ The Incident Commander (IC) shall be
responsible for the overall management of the
incident and providing follow-up reports to
LACC until Department resources have been
demobilized. Make direct contact with LACC
regarding proposed frequencies and/or
Communication Plans for Catalina Island.
• Company Officers and Unit Supervisors shall
report to the IC when approximately ___ mile
from the incident on Catalina.
1/4
➢ State Responsibility Area (SRA): Except
within the Avalon city limits, Catalina Island is
contained entirely in SRA territory. Request an
agency representative from the California
Department of Forestry and Fire Protection
(CAL FIRE) be notified of the incident.
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• Fires originating in Los Angeles County area
that threaten the City of Avalon will be
managed under ______
unified command
• If the City of Avalon requests mutual aid from
the Department, the incident will be managed
under ______
unified command
➢ Use of Class “A” Foam: A consultation with
the affected landowner shall occur prior to the
use of Class “A” foam. The landowners
include: Santa Catalina Island Conservancy,
Santa Catalina Island Company, and the City of
Avalon.
• Fixed Wing Aircraft: Contract aircraft is
included in the response matrix when available.
Consider additional fixed wing resources on the
initial response as approved by ______ or the
agency representative.
South Ops
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➢ Use of Catalina Island Conservancy
resources: When there is an immediate need for
water tenders or dozers, the IC shall ensure that
qualified Depart. heavy equipment operators are
responded to operate Conservancy resources.
Conservancy resources are identified as
Conservancy Water Tender 1, 2 or 3 and
Conservancy Dozer 1 and 2.
• A confirmed first alarm wildland fire on
Catalina Island requires LACC to notify the
jurisdictional deputy chief and the _________
chief.
duty deputy
• Consultation between the IC, jurisdictional
deputy chief and the duty deputy chief will
determine the required level of Incident
Management Team that may include a
“_______” or an entire Incident Management
Team.
Short Team
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➢ Each helispot is equipped with a marine deck
box containing all of the materials required to
operate the helispot.
• City of Avalon hydrants: Inside the City of
Avalon there are both fresh and salt water
hydrants. The fresh water hydrants are
stenciled “____” and the salt water hydrants are
not stenciled.
F
• All steamer hydrants in the City of Avalon have
____inch outlets, which will require a 4-1/2”
female to 4” male decreaser.
4-1/2”
➢ Use of Dozers: Consultation with the affected
landowner, to include Santa Catalina Island
Conservancy, Santa Catalina Island Company,
or the City of Avalon is recommended prior to
the use of dozers.
➢ Catalina Island Conservancy operates a dozer
year round. The operators participate in the
annual CAL FIRE “fire line training” program
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and are fire shelter trained. However,
Department heavy equipment operators should
be used. The Conservancy Dozer is best
utilized constructing indirect fire line during
initial attack.
➢ The FS 55 Captain shall:
1.Request a “Catalina Island Brush Fire
Response” that require ground resources from
the mainland.
2.Request a Communications Plan from LACC.
3.Assign a helispot.
a. Helispot 55-A: Request Avalon Fire
Department to set up.
b.Helispot 55-B: Should only be used as a
last resort due to limited water supply.
c. Helispot 55-C: Request Wrigley Center,
USC personnel to set up.
4.Request Automatic Aid from Avalon Fire
Department
5.Request Avalon Sheriff’s dispatch to call-out
all Patrol firefighters.
6.Request Avalon Sheriff’s dispatch to notify
the Catalina Conservancy of the fire and
location.
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7.Request Avalon Sheriff’s dispatch to control
road access as necessary.
➢ The Air Operations Chief Officer or Pilot shall:
Evaluate the capability of delivering more
crews via air on the initial attack. The response
matrix allows for one (1) or two (2) fly crews
on the first alarm assignment.
• The Battalion ___Chief shall:
1.Respond to the designated command post on
Catalina Island and assume command. Travel
options are as follows:
a. Respond to Helispot 53-A for air transport
to incident.
b.Closest Baywatch Rescue Boat (Coast
Guard, San Pedro)
c. Catalina Express
d.Coast Guard at San Pedro for
transportation
2.Take the Radio Cache from the Battalion 14
office.
3.Contact LACC and confirm all components of
the “Catalina Island. Brush Response” have
been dispatched.
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4.Notify Q106 to begin backfill of resources
and personnel for Battalion14 coverage.
14
• The Battalion ___ Chief shall respond to
Catalina Freight Line barge and assume Task
Force Leader position at the Freight Line for
resources being transported to Catalina Island
by barge
7
• The Battalion ___ Chief shall respond to
Battalion 14 for coverage and coordinating
backfill of resources and personnel for Battalion
14.
18
• The Battalion ___ Chief shall on request by the
IC and approval from the jurisdictional or Duty
Deputy Chief, respond to Camp Pendleton to
supervise the Hovercraft Operation. If the
Battalion 21 Chief is unavailable, respond
Battalion ___ Chief.
21, 12
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• The Camp Crew Coordinator shall
communicate with the Camp Section _____ to
facilitate the transportation of all paid camp
crews on the “Catalina Island Brush Fire
Response” to Catalina via initial attack aircraft
or at Helispot 53-A.
Duty Chief
➢ The Camp Section Battalion Chief shall
coordinate with Air Operations, LACC, and
Superintendents to facilitate the deployment of
Camp Crews to Catalina Island and coordinate
the deployment of three (3) Superintendents to
Catalina Island via initial attack aircraft or from
Helispot 53-A.
➢ The LACC Dispatch Supervisor shall:
1.With jurisdictional or Duty Deputy Chief
approval assure that one (1) Type 4 Patrol
Strike Team is assembled and dispatched to
Catalina Freight Line in Wilmington or as
approved by the IC.
2.Contact the IC and determine if a Type 3
Engine Strike Team is required to respond. If
the Department’s California Governor's
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Office of Emergency Services (OES) 1870-C
is available, approval must be obtained by
OES and CAL FIRE. Contact the Duty
Deputy Chief
3.Ensure that the following Duty resources are
notified and dispatched to Helispot 53-A for
transport to incident.
a. Incident Management Team Plans Chief
and Logistics Chief
b.Lifeguard Section Chief
c. Dozer Operator and Swamper
4.Request one (1) Logistics Chief to respond to
LACC
➢ Pre-Identified Engine Companies shall:
1.Engine 53: Respond to Helispot 53-A and
support helispot operations.
2.Engine 2, Engine 106, and Engine 236:
Respond to Helispot 53-A and drop off
captains and firefighters for immediate
transport to Catalina Island via copter.
3.Engine 2, Engine 106, and Engine 236
engineers: Take the engines to the departing
barge.
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• Apparatus departure locations in order of
priority:
1.Catalina Freight Line
2.Foss Maritime Company
3._______________ (LAST OPTION)
Camp Pendleton Hovercraft
➢ Personnel departure locations: (Single
Resource vs. STEN)
1.Helispot 53A
2.Baywatch - Coast Guard Station, San Pedro
3.Catalina Express - 320 Golden Shore, Long
Beach, CA
4.Coast Guard - Coast Guard Station, San
Pedro
➢ If assembled the Engine Strike Teams LAC
ST 1870-C: shall respond to the designated
Barge Company.
➢ The Type 4 Patrol Strike Teams, LAC ST
1140-D, shall respond to the designated barge
company.
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➢ The Heavy Equipment Section shall ensure
that a single Dozer Operator and Swamper
responds to Helispot 53-A for air transportation
to Catalina Island. The Dozer Operator will
function as a Dozer Boss for the Santa Catalina
Island Conservancy Dozer operator during the
initial attack.
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➢ The Lifeguard Section Duty Chief shall:
Request a move-up Baywatch Rescue Boat
from the mainland to Avalon with at least one
(1) paramedic, to meet Department contractual
obligations for paramedic services in the City of
Avalon.
CHAPTER 2 – HAZARDOUS MATERIALS PROCEDURES
11.2.1 – HAZARDOUS MATERIALS
INCIDENTS 10/01/90
➢ Our Department’s main responsibility centers
on assessing the hazard, notification of the
proper agencies, and providing the necessary
interim measures to minimize the effect of a
hazardous condition on people, the
environment, and property
The first arriving Company is responsible for
providing initial size-up, initiating the Incident
Command Procedures (10.1.1), and taking the
necessary action.
Who is responsible for complete assessment of
the immediate hazard, providing the I.C. with
technical assistance, and conducting and/or
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coordinating measures to minimize the effect of
the hazard on personnel, the environment, and
property.
Hazardous Materials Squads.
➢ The Safety Officer has the authority to alter,
suspend, or terminate any activity that he may
judge to be unsafe
When dealing with hazardous materials
incidents the priorities of this department are:
(3)
1. Protection of Life
2. Protection of the environment
3. Protection of property and equipment.
In no instance shall anyone travel form the
Exclusion Zone to the Support Zone on a
hazardous Materials incident unless they have
first passed through, and been decontaminated
within, a separate and distinct
Contamination Reduction Zone
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First responders shall not enter the
___________ unless a life-threatening situation
dictates a decision to effect a rescue
Exclusion Zone
➢ Entry into Exclusion Zone: (unless immediate
life loss) Entry should not be made until: (7)
1. Trained Haz Mat. Squad are present with
sufficient manpower to provide entry teams
of two or more with backup
2. Contamination Reduction Zone has been
established
3. Site characterization has been made
4. Action Plan developed
5. Safety Officer has been assigned
6. PM Squad is on scene
7. All support units in place
• All apparatus at the scene of a suspected
hazardous materials incident will be positioned
for ___________ and maximum personnel
safety
Immediate Egress
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• All hazardous materials incidents will be
managed using ________ command
unified
The minimum participants in unified command
will be representatives from LACO FD, County
Health Department, and ____________.
Local Law Enforcement
The Command Post for a hazardous materials
incident will be at a location which is
uphill/upwind from the incident and which is
large enough to accommodate the resources
necessary for _________
Unified Command
The ____________ IC will assume all duties
and responsibilities of the Scene Manager on all
off highway incidents
Fire Department
The __________ agency will be scene manager
at all on highway incidents
Law Enforcement
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• Who is responsible for the supervision of clean-
up of all Haz. Mat. incidents.
Dept. of Health Services.
• The responsibility for enforcement of hazardous
waste laws falls upon: (4)
Fire Department
Law Enforcement
Health Services
District Attorney
All personnel and equipment involved in a
hazardous materials incident will be checked
for contamination by the ________ before
being released from the scene
Health Officer
• The standard response to a hazardous materials
incident within jurisdiction of the County of
Los Angeles FD will include:
2 engine companies
Haz Mat Task Force
PM Squad
BC
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➢ Strategic Priorities: In order to meet the
strategic priorities adopted by the Department,
all hazardous materials incidents will be
managed using a standardized tactical approach
1. Size Up
2. Requesting Assistance
3. Rescue
4. Isolation of Material
5. Evacuation
6. Person Responsible
7. Material Identification
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• The _____ and _____ agency will be requested
on all hazardous materials incidents
Health Department, Local Law
Enforcement
RESCUE
➢ If the decision to effect a rescue is made by the
first arriving companies the following will
apply: Command of the incident will be passed
to a specific officer on assisting company or
transferred to a higher ranking officer
Whenever practical, a Rescue Plan will be
formulated and the Rescue Teams will be
briefed. The minimum Rescue Plan should
identify: (4)
1. Boundaries of the Exclusion Zone
2. Location of the Safe Refuge Areas with in
the Exclusion Zone
3. Location of the Contamination Reduction
Zone outside of the Exclusion Zone
4. The Location of Access Control Points into
and out of these Zones
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• Rescue Team Leaders will be responsible for
providing the IC with on going ______ Reports
Status
Egress from the Exclusion Zone for all victims
and Rescue Team Personnel will be through the
________ into a Contamination Reduction
Zone
Access Control Points
If victims must be moved prior to the
establishment of a Contamination Reduction
Zone, they should be moved to a predetermined
location of __________ within the Exclusion
Zone where they can remain until
Contamination Reduction Zone can be
established.
Safe Refuge
• If the initial rescue effort results in serious
injury or death to first in rescue companies, no
further rescue operations will be attempted until
the arrival of __________
Hazardous Materials Squads
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Isolation of the Material: The I.C. should
establish a basic operational area which
includes an ____Zone and a ____ Zone with
designated "Access Control Points" between
each zone.
Exclusion, Support
The perimeter of the "Exclusion Zone" (in no
case) should be less than ___feet from the
leading edge of the material.
300
• The _______ Zone should be large enough to
accommodate the resources necessary for
Unified Command
Support
Evacuation: The responsibility for evacuation
usually rests with the local _______ agency
Law Enforcement
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• A separate and distinct ________ Zone should
be established between the Exclusion Zone and
the Support Zone whenever decontamination
procedures are anticipated.
"Contamination Reduction."
• IC decides to Evacuate he should plan: (4)
1. Areas to be evacuated
2. The priorities of the evacuation
3. Access and egress routes
4. Location of Evacuation Shelters
➢ Person Responsible: The person responsible
should be asked to remain at scene voluntarily.
However, if necessary, the IC can instruct the
representative form the local law enforcement
agency to detain the person until released by the
appropriate authority.
• Specific identification of the materials involved
is primarily the responsibility of the _________
Hazardous Materials Squad
➢ First responder may assist in the identification
of the materials in the following ways:
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a) By identifying “proper shipping name”, the
UN/NA Number, or the Hazard Class
designation recorded on the shipping papers
b) By observing placards and labels
c) By requesting Hazardous Materials Safety
Data Sheets
d) By observing the types of containers
e) By observing the physical state and
behavior of the material
f) By consulting with person responsible
g) By consulting with Chemtrec
Contamination Reduction: The minimum
decontamination for all personnel leaving the
Exclusion Zone will be a _________ flush
using an 1 1/2 line on fog
60 seconds
Apparatus supplying the handling should be
placed in the support zone uphill/upwind from
the Contamination Reduction Zone not less than
______ feet away
100'
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Victims should be decontaminated before
treatment by rescue personnel
Exception: Victims with life threatening
injuries should receive immediate treatment in
the Exclusion Zone if possible, and then be
taken the Contamination Reduction Zone where
they will be decontaminated and turned over to
awaiting medical personnel
• All contaminated clothing and equipment will
remain in the _______ until it has been assessed
by the appropriate Health Officer
Contamination Reduction Zone
• Hazardous Substance Containment is primarily
the responsibility of the ________
Hazardous Materials Squads
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• The cleanup of a hazardous materials incident is
the responsibility of _______, ________, and
__________
Department of Health Services
Private Clean Up Company
Person Responsible
The only agency with the authority to declare a
Haz Mat Incident over and the incident are
clean is __________
Jurisdictional Health Agency
APPENDIX I
• ____________: Entry and exit check points
established at the periphery of a zone to
regulate the flow or personnel and equipment.
Access Control Points
• What is the "Exclusion Zone?"
The inner most of three areas. The Zone
where contamination does or could occur
• What does the Haz. Mat. term "I.D.L.H." stand
for?
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"Immediately Dangerous to Life and
Health"
• What are the characteristics of the "Support
Zone"? (3)
1. The outermost part of the site
2. Considered a non contaminated or clear area
3. Support equipment is located in this Zone
and traffic is restricted to authorized
personnel
• What are the three elements of the IAP
a) A Clear definition of objectives
b) Time Limits
c) An order sequence of events
• ________: Any condition that poses an
immediate threat to life, or which is likely to
resulting in acute or immediate severe health
effects
IDLH – Immediately Dangerous to Life and
Health
• _________: Encompasses all of the functions
and activities, every zone, and all of the
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specialized areas required to command an
incident
Operational Area
• ________ : A location within the Exclusion
Zone which is relatively non contaminated and
which can be used by reserve team personnel
and victims to provide themselves with a
reasonably safe holding area for initial triage
and treatment
Safe Refuge
• What area may also be used for staging prior to
entry into the Contamination Reduction Zone
Safe Refuge
• The HOT LINE is located between the
__________ Zone and ___________ Zone
Exclusion
Contamination Reduction
APPENDIX III
• For all incidents involving hazardous
substances notify: (3)
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1. The County of Los Angeles Fire
Department Hazardous Materials Section,
Disclosure Control Unit
2. The County of Los Angeles Health Services
Environmental Protection Division
3. The local law enforcement agency
➢ Hazardous Materials effects any of the
following notify the appropriate agency
City Street City yard
County Road Public Works –
Road Maintenance
Sewers Co. Sanitation District
Storm Drain Public Works – Flood
Maintenance Division Cal Fish and Game
Underground Tanks Co. Public Works
Radiological Materials Co. Health
Services – Radiation Management
Biomedical Materials Co. Health Dept
– Environmental
➢ For all incidents requiring evacuation notify
1. The local law enforcement agency
2. County of Los Angeles sheriff- Emergency
Operations Bureau (E.O.B.)
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11.2.2 - C0 INCIDENTS
7/15/98
• Carbon Monoxide (CO) monitoring take place
at the incident Commander's request: (3)
1. During salvage and overall operations
2. At confined space and below grade
incidents
3. At CO detector alarm responses
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The California Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (CAL/OSHA) permissible
exposure limit to Carbon Monoxide is ____ part
per million
25
Operation in an atmosphere greater then ____
requires SCBA an PPE.
25 ppm
• Use ________ on all suspected or reported CO
incidents, confined space and below grade
incidents
SCBA/PPE
CO monitoring at Emergency Incidents:
Working in teams of 2 and wearing SCBA and
PPE. A secondary monitoring shall be
performed where a previous reading is ____
ppm or more is found.
25
• CO monitoring at Emergency Incidents: To
monitor an incident scene check the entire
incident perimeter first: _____ to _____ point
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Lowest, Highest
CO monitoring at Emergency Incidents: The
IC shall request that Health Haz Mat to respond
to the incident if: (4)
a) Anyone is showing signs of Carbon
monoxide poisoning
b) Monitoring indicates a CO level of 25ppm
or greater
c) The Dept. orders the premises evacuated
d) The IC feels a response by health Haz Mat
is needed
➢ CO monitoring at Emergency Incidents: The
Incident Commander shall request that the Gas
Company respond to the incident if:
a) Anyone is showing signs of Carbon
Monoxide Poisoning
b) Monitoring indicates a CO level of 25 ppm
or greater
c) The Dept. orders the premises evacuated
d) The gas supply is shut off
e) The IC feels a response by the gas company
is needed
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• CO monitoring at Emergency Incidents: The
IC shall request a Haz Mat Task Force respond
to the incident if: (3)
a) Anyone is showing signs of Carbon
Monoxide Poisoning
b) Monitoring indicates a CO level of a 100
ppm or greater
c) The IC feels a response by the Haz Mat
Task Force is needed
• Non-Emergency Operations: Carbon Monoxide
Investigation, Utilize the Residential CO
Inspection Checklist, Form _______ in
performing CO investigations or inspections.
Form 778
➢ Non Emergency Operations: CO monitor
reading of less than 25 PPM in any occupancy:
a) Inform occupant that our instrument did not
detect a potentially dangerous level of CO
at this time
b) Recommend occupant check their detector
c) Attempt to reset detector
d) Recommend occupant contacts the gas
company
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e) Call 911 if alarm activates again
• Non Emergency Operations: If the CO reading
is below 25ppm recommended to the owner to
contact the _____________.
Gas Company
• Non Emergency Operations: Readings of 25
ppm or more in occupancy, but less than 100
ppm: When the CO has been reduced to a safe
level. The premises may be reoccupied at the
discretion of the ______________
Health Haz Mat Officer
• Non Emergency Operations: Readings of 25
ppm or more in occupancy, but less than 100
ppm: The _______ and _________ shall be
requested to respond.
Gas Company and Health Haz Mat
Non Emergency Operations: CO level readings
of a 100 ppm or more respond: (3)
Health Haz Mat
The Gas Company
Haz Mat Task Force
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• Non Emergency Operations: CO level readings
of a 100 ppm or more: Once the premises has
been reduced to a safe level (below 25 ppm) of
CO, the premises may be occupied at the
discretion of the?
Health Haz Mat Officer
• General Gas Monitoring Techniques: The
technique used when using the Mini CO
instrument traces an imaginary __________
pattern in the atmosphere and offers the best
coverage pattern.
"diamond"
APPENDIX I
➢ Carbon monoxide is difficult to recognize
because it is a odorless, tasteless, colorless, non
irritating gas. It is formed by the incomplete
combustion of carbon based materials. The
most common sources for carbon monoxide are
automobile exhaust and home heating systems.
➢ The only reliable methods to determine carbon
monoxide intoxication is by measuring the
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percentage of Carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in
the victims venous blood
• Hemoglobin's affinity for carbon monoxide is
about ______ times greater than its affinity for
oxygen.
240
• Unborn children are highly susceptible to CO
exposures because their CO Hb levels are____
to ____ percent higher than the level in their
mother.
10-15%
• It takes ___ to ____ hours to reduce the CO Hb
level 50% when the victim is moved to normal
air free of carbon monoxide.
4-5
• The most vulnerable target organ for low level
CO exposure appears to be _______, and nerve
tissues, which require high levels of oxygen
Heart
➢ TABLE
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Mild Toxicity - 1-30%, (50-400ppm)
Moderate Toxicity, 30-50%, (400-1000ppm)
Severe Toxicity, 50-80%, (above 1000ppm).
• The following are symptoms of _______
toxicity levels: Mental confusion, headache,
irritability, nausea, vomiting.
Mild
• The following are symptoms of _____ toxicity
levels: Sever headaches, indifferent to danger,
syncope, convulsions.
Moderate
• The following are symptoms of _____ toxicity
levels: Collapse, shock, cyanosis, cherry red
skin color, weak pulse.
Severe
A flame which does not produce CO is _____
Blue
11.2.3 – HMTF AND HHMD
COORDINATIONS
04/21/09
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• _______ Situation: Involve a current or
imminent discharge or release of hazardous
materials, regardless of cause, that pose an
immediate threat to public health and safety or
the environment.
Dynamic
• _______ Situation: Hazardous Materials
incidents that are temporarily contained and/or
controlled but may pose a threat to public
health/safety or the environment and require
mitigation and clean-up activities prior to a
final clearance by HHMD.
Static
• The ___________ of the Fire Prevention
Services Bureau provides investigation,
mitigation, clean-up, and enforcement
capabilities under the California Health and
Safety Code.
Health Haz Mat Division (HHMD)
➢ Officers of the HHMD work in close
coordination with the Department’s Hazardous
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Materials Task Forces (HMTF) to abate
hazardous materials incidents by providing
knowledge and expertise in risk assessment,
mitigation techniques, sample collection, clean-
up, and enforcement.
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• Dynamic hazardous materials incidents require
intervention, mitigation, and clean-up by both
the HMTF and _____
HHMD
• All hazardous materials incidents include an
investigation as to the cause of the incident as
well as a criminal investigation when suspected.
Investigations are a ______ and law
enforcement responsibility under the authority
of the Health and Safety Code.
HHMD
• The first arriving company is responsible for
providing the initial size-up, initiating the
Incident Command System (ICS), and taking
the necessary actions appropriate for the
demands of the incident which includes a
__________
site characterization.
➢ The purpose of site characterization is to
identify the existence, source, nature, and extent
of hazardous materials release, and to determine
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the threat posed to human health or the
environment by the release.
➢ Both 29 CFR 1910.120 and Title 8 CCR 5192
mandate that the incident commander position
be established at all hazardous materials
incidents.
• ______ personnel are responsible for the
complete assessment of the immediate hazard,
providing the IC with technical assistance,
and/or coordinating measures to minimize the
effects of the hazard on personnel, the public,
the environment, and property.
HMTF
• As the “health officer” for the County, _____
officers retain the statutory authority for
investigation, enforcement, clean-up, final
clearance, and re-occupancy.
HHMD
• The _______ is responsible for identifying and
evaluating hazards, providing direction with
respect to safe operations, and notifying the IC
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of any actions taken to correct hazards at the
incident scene.
Safety Officer
• The Safety Officer shall coordinate with the
HMTF Assistant _____ (ASO) regarding safety
concerns.
Safety Officer
• The Department’s strategic priorities for a
hazardous materials incident in order of priority
are: (3)
1.Protection of Life.
2.Protection of the environment.
3.Protection of property and equipment.
➢ Both 29 CFR 1910.120 and Title 8 CCR 5192
mandate that the Safety Officer position be
established at all hazardous materials incidents.
The Safety Officer has the authority to alter,
suspend, or terminate any activity that may be
judged to be unsafe.
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• ______ officers shall act as the only authority
for all aspects of clean-up and re-occupancy of
a building or area.
HHMD
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• The Department’s _____ officers are Deputy
“Health Officers” and are responsible for
enforcement of State hazardous materials and
waste laws and regulations.
HHMD
➢ When a hazardous materials condition is
reported to CCD and the location is within the
Department’s jurisdiction, CCD shall respond a
full hazardous materials response, including a
HMTF and two HHMD officers.
➢ When CCD receives a mutual aid request for
one or more of the Department’s HMTF, CCD
responds a HMTF, a jurisdictional battalion
chief, and inquires if HHMD officers are also
needed.
➢ Drums and other containers – abandoned or
otherwise - Dynamic - require HMTF and
HHMD:
a. Bulging drum or container.
b.Leaking drum or container.
c. Noise from drum or container.
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d.Flame impingement on drum or container or
fire involvement.
➢ Drums and other containers – abandoned or
otherwise - Static - may require HMTF and
HHMD:
• All abandoned containers require the response
of the ____ for investigation, clean-up, and
removal.
HHMD
➢ Cargo - Dynamic that requires HMTF and
HHMD:
a. Any time persons are adversely affected by
leaks, fumes, or vapors before or during
Department operations.
b.Any time an unknown product is involved.
➢ Cargo - Static that may require HMTF and
HHMD:
a. Any time remediation activities cause the
potential for release of hazardous materials
such as the unloading or uprighting of
shifted hazardous materials cargo.
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➢ Fires in occupancies housing hazardous
materials, whether declared or not are dynamic.
➢ Static criminal situations such as identified
illegal drug laboratories and suspicious white
powder responses may involve HHMD and law
enforcement only.
CHAPTER 3 – HIGH RISE
11.3.1 - HIGH RISE INCIDENTS
03/01/97
The first arriving Company Officer: is
responsible for providing: (4)
- initial size up
- ICS system start up
- taking necessary action
- providing for personnel safety
➢ The I.C. is responsible for the overall
Management of the incident and providing
follow up reports to C&C until the F.D.
resources have been demobilized
• The Safety Officer shall provide the safety
message for the _________
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Incident Action Plan (IAP)
• Company Officers are responsible for reporting
their holding position, following ______
procedures, maintaining company unity,
providing safety briefings and for completing
their assignments
Check In
When dealing with high rise fire incidents the
priorities of this department are: (3)
1. Protection of life
2. Incident stabilization through Fire control
3. Property/Environmental protection &
conservation
• Elevators should not be utilized for _______.
Initial Investigation
Elevators should not be used as a logistics
transport until deemed safe by the ____
IC
The responsibility for the use of elevators rests
with the _____.
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I.C.
➢ Additional Alarms: When the IC is requesting
additional resources at the scene of a high rise
fire, the IC shall direct C&C to respond these
resources to a _________ location (usually
____) and will designate a directional route of
travel to that location
Check in, Base
The tactical priorities: (4)
1. Investigation/Rescue/fire attack/property
conservation
2. Ensure adequate Water supply
3. Gain control of building systems (Lobby
Control), (HVAC) and fire protection
systems
4. Control of the floors above and below the
fire
The first arriving company shall: (5)
a) Radio Size up
b) Investigation/initial action rescue/Fire
attack
c) Water supply
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d) Pass command to the 2nd in company
e) Communicate location, conditions, and
needs
The second arriving company shall: (4)
a) Assume Command
b) Establish Lobby Control
c) Request and assign additional resources
d) Support the investigation rescue/ fire attack
teams as requested
The third arriving company
Water Supply, Manpower
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The fourth arriving company
Establish base, Manpower
➢ Additional Companies
Manpower
➢ The first arriving squad
a) Prepare for a Medical Group/Branch as
needed
b) Manpower
➢ The first arriving B.C.
Assume the duties of the I.C.
➢ The second arriving B.C.: May be assigned as
a ________ Supervisor on the fire floor
Divisions
Third in Battalion chief: May be assigned as
the Logistic Chief
Fourth in Battalion Chief: May be assigned as
a Division Supervisor on the floor above the
fire
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First in Assistant Chief: Assume the duties of
the IC. The first in Battalion chief should
remain at the command post and be utilized at
the discretion of the IC
Command: The first arriving officer shall pass
command to the second arriving officer. When
command is passed, the following information
will be relayed: (4)
1. Annunciator Panel Information
2. Elevator status
3. The route of ascent into the building by fire
attack crews (include stairwell location and
identification)
4. Any pertinent information
➢ Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Incident Command:
a. Establish a command post,
b. Determine the adequacy of resources
c. Communicate follow up and status reports
with C&C,
d. Order additional resources as needed
e. Gain control of the fire building systems
including standpipes, HVAC
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f. Maintain necessary Re-Stat/Sit-Stat records
g. Provide for ICS Positions
➢ Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Initial Investigation/Rescue/Fire Attack: (5)
a. Communicate a standard radio size up
report
b. Gain entry to the Fire Control Room and/or
lobby area
c. Pass command
d. Check conditions on fire floors
e. Take necessary actions and communicate
needs to the I.C.
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➢ Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Initial Investigation/Rescue/Fire Attack. When
gaining entry to the Fire Control Room and/or
lobby area perform the following tasks: (4)
1. Obtain elevator keys
2. Call elevator cars into Phase I (Fire Service
recall)
3. Check Annunciator Panel
4. Quickly ascertain any other pertinent
information. Identify and enter stairwell
and begin ascent
➢ Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Initial Investigation/Rescue/Fire Attack. When
investigating the fire floor check conditions ___
floors below the fire floor for a possible staging
area. Check conditions on the fire floor, the
floors directly _____ and ____ the reported fire
floor and communicate this information to the
I.C.
2, below, above
Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Water Supply Operations A minimum of 2
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engine company apparatus with engineers shall
be dedicated to this operation, usually the first
in company and the 3rd in company
➢ Water supply operations at buildings utilizing
Class I (dry) non cross connected standpipe
systems may require additional engine company
apparatus assigned to supply
Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Water Supply Operations: The first in engine
company engineer shall spot his apparatus
within ____ feet of the F.D. standpipe
connection. Only ___ hose shall be used for the
hose lay between the engine company apparatus
and the Fire Department connection
100, 2 1/2
Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Water Supply Operations: If a hydrant is within
____ feet of the apparatus position, the engine
company engineer should make every effort to
secure a primary water supply from that
hydrant.
100
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The ______ company FFS shall assist the first
in FFS. All F.D. connections should be
connected to and charged
third
Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Lobby Control Operations
a. Establish a Lobby Control Manager
b. Maintain control of building systems
c. Check In arriving personnel and maintain
ReStat records
d. Maintain F.D. control of elevators
e. Establish Control of HVAC Systems
f. Communications with IC and land line
telephone capabilities with C&C
g. Communications with building occupants
h. Direct F.D. personnel to stairwell
i. Maintain liaison with the building
engineer/security
Specific Operations, 1st Alarm Assignment
Base Operations
a. Locate Base - Optimum distance _____'
b. Establish Base and a Base Manager
c. Initiate _______ parking
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d. Establish communication with I.C.
e. ________ arriving personnel and maintain
necessary ReStat records
f. Establish an Equipment Pool
200, diagonal, Check In
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Elevator Control: Phase 1 is when the
elevator(s)is recalled to the _______ area
through the use of keys or building controls
lobby
Elevator Control: Phase 2 is when _______
F.D. personnel have manual control of the
elevators. In Phase II, F.D. personnel
control movement of men and equipment
above the ground
➢ Elevator Control: Independent Control is that
which is outside of the _______ functioning of
the elevators or that of F.D. control
automatic
Fire Extinguishing Systems: A Class I system
is ______
A dry standpipe system without a directly
connected water supply and equipped with 2
1/2 inch outlets for use by F.D. personnel
Fire Extinguishing Systems: A Class II System
is _________
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A wet standpipe system directly connected
to a water supply and equipped with 1 1/2
inch outlets intended for use by the building
occupants
Fire Extinguishing Systems: A Class III system
is _________
A combination standpipe system directly
connected to a water supply and equipped
with both a hose cabinet for use by the
building occupants and 2 1/2 inch outlets
for use by F.D. personnel
Fire Extinguishing Systems: A Combined
system is ________
A system of water piping which piping
which serves 2 1/2 inch hose outlets for use
by the fire department and also supplies
water to fire sprinklers
Definition of a high-rise structure: Every
building of any type of construction or
occupancy having floors used for human
occupancy located more than ____above the
lowest floor level having building access.
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75 feet
➢ What are the "HVAC" systems?
Heating, Ventilation, Air conditioning
systems.
Lobby Control: Lobby Control directs
incoming companies to the correct stairwell and
maintains records of F.D. resources entering
and leaving the building. Additionally, L.C.
keeps alert for changes in the _______. L.C.
assists in the movement of building occupants
to safe areas in an orderly fashion
Enunciator/fire control room
Staging: The purpose of staging is two fold:
1. Manpower/equipment to be gathered in an
area where they may be quickly assigned
2. Staging can also provide for previously
assigned companies an area for
rehabilitation, equipment change and first
aid.
Optimum location for staging is ____ floors
below the initially confirmed firefloor
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2
11.3.2 - STRUCTURE FIRE STANDARD
OPERATING PROCEDURE
3/3/2016
The first arriving company officer is
responsible for:
1.Performing an initial size-up.
2.Transmitting the size-up radio report to
(LACC).
3.Developing an (IAP) to determine the initial
operational mode.
4.Determining operational mode for initial
actions.
5.Taking initial actions consistent with
operational mode, incident priorities, and
tactical operations
6.Ensuring appropriate water supply can
support initial actions.
7.Establishing the Incident Command System.
The incident commander (IC) is responsible for:
1.Incident management.
2.Determining and/or confirming the
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operational mode and communicating it
over the ________ and ______ Channels.
3.Determining incident objectives.
4.Communicating the current operational
mode and providing status reports to LACC
5.Establishing an appropriate incident
command post (ICP) with ICP support as
necessary
6.Ensuring a standby (RIC) is in place for
interior fire attack operations
Incident Command, Tactical
The incident safety officer is responsible for:
1.Identifying and evaluating hazards, based
on the current operational mode, and
advising the IC
2.Altering, suspending, or ________ any
unsafe activity based on the current
operational mode
3.Investigating accidents and near misses
involving Department personnel.
terminating
Company officers are responsible for:
1.Reporting automatic holding position on
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appropriate command channel.
2.Performing in the appropriate ICS role (e.g.,
IC, ops, division/group supervisor etc.).
3.Ensuring resources are utilizing appropriate
communication plan
4.Knowing what the current operational mode
is at all times
5.Ensuring an available thermal imaging
camera, or equivalent equipment is used to
search for victims
6.Ensuring appropriate water supply can
support incident needs.
7.Maintaining company unity.
8.Providing safety briefings.
9.Providing status reports to the
Division/Group Supervisor, Operations
Section Chief or the IC.
10. Releasing the assigned communications
plan when not needed
Chief officers are responsible for:
1. Performing in the role of IC, Operations
Section Chief, Branch Director,
Division/Group Supervisor, Incident Safety
Officer, or _______
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2. Ensuring the communication plan is
appropriate for the incident.
3. While en-route, monitoring radio traffic and
providing direction via radio, as needed.
Agency Representative
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• The LACC is responsible for:
1.Maintaining radio communications with the
IC and ensuring all requests for resources
and info are addressed.
2.Assigning radio channels to the
communications plan when requested by the
IC or as policy dictates
3.Starting an incident timer upon arrival of
the first arriving resource on all working
structure fires and making an announcement
every ___ until personnel are no longer
working in (IDLH) environments.
Ten minutes
Incident priorities for a structure fire are:
1.Protection of life
2.Incident stabilization through fire control
3._________________
Property/environment protection and
conservation
Operational modes: After identifying the
objectives supporting the incident priorities, the
IC identifies and communicates the proper
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operational mode through the analysis of
information gathered during the size-up process
and 360 building assessment. The following
are the operational modes:
1.Investigation mode
2.Offensive mode
_________ fire attack
Interior fire attack
3.Defensive mode
Transitional
• Command: The management of resources at
structure fires will adhere to the National
Interagency Management System-ICS
Operational System Description policy and the
________ California Field Operations Guide
policy.
FIRESCOPE
Elevator Use:
1.Elevators should not be utilized for initial
investigation and/or fire attack.
2.Elevators should not be used as a logistics
transport until deemed safe by the IC.
3.The responsibility for the use of elevators
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rests with the ____
IC
• Additional alarms: Requests for additional
alarms from the IC shall include staging
location(s) or base location, identification of the
staging manager, and ______
route of travel
Size-up: Upon arrival, the first arriving
officer/IC is responsible for evaluating fire
conditions and providing initial radio size-up
report to the LACC. Evaluation of fire
conditions includes:
1.Locating the fire (attempt from an exterior
location)
2.Identifying the _______
3.Structure fire size up report
4.360 building assessment
flow path
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Structure fire size-up report
1) Location of fire by address.
2) Products of combustion (e.g., fire,
light/heavy smoke, nothing showing, etc.).
3) Numerical floor height and type of
occupancy (e.g., two story commercial).
4) _________ (e.g., exposures; location of
fire; operational mode, if determined).
Special instructions
➢ First arriving officer/IC is responsible for
conducting a 360 building assessment of the
structure involved. Where impractical, the IC
should delegate an individual or other resource
to view parts of the structure unseen by the IC
The following are guidelines for 360 building
assessment:
1.Identify known or potential rescue
problems.
2.Identify active and potential flow path of
fire and fire gasses.
3.Identify the location and extent of fire.
4.Determine the size, age, and construction
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type of the building.
5.____________.
6.Identify other hazards (i.e., electrical,
exposures, and access).
Assess structural stability
Follow up report: Based on the initial size up
report, and 360 building assessment, the
company or chief officer who will be assuming
command is responsible for providing a radio
follow up report to LACC.
1.Identify the incident with a one or two
syllable geographic name (e.g., Sunset IC,
BeiiiC, etc.).
2.Identify the incident command post
location.
3.State other pertinent information (general
situation status, additional resources, etc.).
4._____________.
5.State the check-in location and travel routes.
6.Confirm communication plan, if needed
Announce operational mode
➢ Manage the flow path: If a flow path is visible,
consider closing doors and windows to limit air
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flow. Before closing, firefighters should rescue
victims readily accessible via doors/windows
➢ Ensure appropriate water supply to support fire
flow. The first arriving engine or quint shall
ensure a secure water source is established.
➢ Cool the space from the most effective
location: The primary goal in this step is to
reduce the thermal threat to occupants and
firefighters as soon as reasonably possible.
• Change operational mode as needed: The IC
shall continually assess fire conditions based on
status reports and determine if a change to the
operational mode is required. All operational
modes and fire attack changes shall be
announced over the ______ and _____ radios.
Command, tactical
➢ Extinguish the fire: Once the thermal threats
have been controlled, the fire should be
extinguished.
The ____ shall ensure that a standby crew/rapid
intervention crew (RIC) is in place for interior
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fire attack operations.
IC
Rescue: A victim ______ must be made prior
to initiating search and rescue operations.
survivability assessment
➢ While protection of life is the highest incident
priority, consideration should be given to
suppression of the fire (e.g., exterior water
application to cool the fire, rapid interior fire
attack to extinguish the fire, flow path control
to limit fire growth) to improve survivability of
victims and firefighters.
• Exposure protection: When given the
assignment of exposures, the group leader shall
develop an ________ to prevent the fire from
extending to uninvolved buildings or other
compartments within the building of origin.
exposure protection plan
• Exposure Protection: OPS Chief and/or
Group/Division Supervisor leader should
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consider the following:
1.Assess all sides of the involved structure.
2.Assess the structural integrity to determine
the safe location for hand lines and/or
master stream operations
3.Assess the potential threat to surrounding
structures based on the current and expected
fire behavior.
4.Coordinate tactical operations with fire
attack and ventilation group.
5.Request needed resources.
6.Secure needed water supply.
➢ Coordinated Ventilation: Personnel shall
control and manage the openings of the
structure to limit the fire’s access to oxygen
while removing smoke, heat, and steam.
➢ Coordinated ventilation: All ventilation must
be coordinated with suppression and
search/rescue operations so
1.the fire is controlled and extinguished
2.survivable space for viable victims is
optimized.
When given the assignment of ventilation, the
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group leader shall:
1.Determine the type of ventilation operations
required to support the strategic objectives
of the incident
2.Determine the needs of fire attack using
face to face or radio communication.
Coordinate all ventilation operations with
the division/group/unit assigned to fire
attack
3.Select and implement coordinated
ventilation techniques to improve interior
conditions for potential victims and interior
crews and limit fire growth.
4.Continually assess the effectiveness of
coordinated ventilation operations through
observation and information received from
division and group supervisors (e.g., fire
attack and search).
5.Recognize the roof operations may not be
assigned and/or may be discontinued.
6.Provide periodic status reports to the IC
If communication with interior suppression
crews, division/group supervisor, operations
section chief, or IC does not exist and
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coordination is not possible, ventilation shall
not be performed
➢ Recognize that roof operations may not be
assigned and/or may be discontinued if the
following occur:
1.Fire is extending through the roof and the
ability to vertically ventilate is compromised
2.The IC or company officer determines risk
outweighs the benefit
3.The IC has determined that the incident is in
defensive mode
➢ Utilities: During a working structure fire,
utilities shall be shut off. The utility company
representatives shall be requested to respond
when services have been disrupted.
• _______ is the protection of buildings and their
contents from unnecessary damage due to
water, smoke, heat, and other elements.
Salvage
➢ Salvage should be a concern during every phase
of the incident, from forcible entry to overhaul.
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• _______ involves searching for and
extinguishing any hidden, remaining fire and
making sure that the structure, its contents, and
the fire area are in safe condition.
Overhaul
• _______ encompasses fire cause determination
and recognizing and preserving any evidence of
arson.
Overhaul
• The ___ shall be responsible for establishing
the occupant support functions at emergency
incidents.
IC
➢ Resource allocation: Effective use of on-scene
resources is required to address the incident
priorities. The IC shall consider allocating
resources for the following:
1.Investigation of potential risks/problems on
the fire ground.
2.Establishing the ICS.
3.Rescue/fire attack/property conservation.
4.Establishing standby crew/RIC
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5.Ensuring adequate water supply to support
fire flow.
6.Coordinated ventilation.
7.Securing utilities.
8.Supporting fixed fire protection systems.
9.Salvage operations
10. Incident command post support
Responsibilities of first-arriving company
(engine, quint, or light force) resources
responding on a working structure fire:
1.Position engine past structure or stop short
to leave room for quint/truck.
2.Transmit radio size-up report.
3.Assume command or take initial actions. If
taking initial actions, pass command to a
specified fire ground officer
4.Quints arriving first at structure fires should
use water supply and pumping capabilities
of the apparatus until relieved.
5.Ensure appropriate water supply to support
fire flow (establish a primary water source
in the absence of life safety concerns)
• Consider a second supply on any working fire
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where the following conditions exist:
1.________ structure
2.Large volume of fire
3.Exposure problems
Commercial
• When first alarm resources take initial actions,
pass command to a specified ______
fire ground officer
Responsibilities of Second-arriving company
resources responding on a first alarm working
structure fire:
1.Announce automatic holding location.
2.Assume command, if assigned.
a. Communicate the assignment of
crewmembers
b.Request and assign additional resources
3.Ensure adequate water supply to support
fire flow.
4.Support the actions of assessing the fire,
limiting fire growth, and tactical actions
• When assuming command, if assigned,
communicate, by radio or face-to-face, the
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assignment of crewmembers to a
____________
supervising company officer
• Responsibilities of additional company’s
resources responding on a first alarm working
structure fire:
1) Automatic holding- announce location
and available ______.
2) Support the actions of assessing the fire,
limiting fire growth and tactical actions as
assigned.
water supply
Responsibilities of First-arriving squad
responding on a first alarm working structure
fire:
1) Automatic holding - announce location
and available water supply.
2) Support the actions of assessing the fire,
limiting fire growth, and tactical actions as
assigned.
3) _________________________________
Determine appropriate location for rehab
and medical treatment area.
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➢ Resource deployment of first arriving chief
officer shall assume the duties of IC
➢ Resource deployment for Additional chief
officers:
1) Operations Section Chief
2) Division/Group Supervisor
3) Incident Safety Officer
4) Initial IC/BC becomes Deputy IC upon
arrival and transfer of command to next
arriving or higher ranking chief officer.
5) Based on the needs and complexity of the
incident, the IC role may be passed to another
Chief Officer
APPENDIX I
➢ The following are guidelines for 360 building
assessment:
1. Identify known or potential rescue
problems.
2. Identify active and potential flow path of
fire and fire gasses.
3. Identify the location and extent of fire.
4. Determine the size, age, and construction
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type of the building.
5. Assess structural stability.
6. Identify other hazards (e.g., electrical,
exposures, and access).
➢ Coordinate Attack: The effective
communication between incident command,
divisions, and groups, while operating on the
fire ground in the designated operational mode.
➢ Defensive Mode: Operational mode initiated
when fire conditions prevent an interior attack.
Attack lines and all personnel operate outside
the collapse zone using defensive tactics
• _________: The process of ensuring the
entrance door(s) providing access to the fire
area is controlled and closed as much as
possible after teams enter the structure. The
firefighter controls the flow path of fire
conditions from the high pressure of the fire
area towards the low pressure area on the other
side of the door. Door control also limits fire
development by controlling the flow path of
fresh air at the lower level of the open door
towards the seat of the fire.
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Door Control
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• _________: The near-simultaneous ignition of
most of the directly exposed combustible
material in an enclosed area due to thermal
radiation. This causes the fire to spread rapidly
throughout the space, resulting in fire
involvement of the entire compartment or
enclosed space.
Flashover
• _________: The movement of heat and fire
gasses from the higher pressure within the fire
area towards the lower pressure areas accessible
via doors, window openings, and roof
structures. As the heated fire gasses are moving
towards the low pressure areas, the energy of
the fire is pulling in additional oxygen from the
low pressure areas.
Flow Path
• _________: The tactic of controlling or closing
ventilation points, which will:
1. Limit additional oxygen into the space
thereby limiting fire development, heat
release rate, and smoke
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2. Control the movement of the heat and
smoke conditions out of the fire area to the
exterior and to other areas within the
structure.
Flow Path Control
• _________: A fire in which the heat release
rate and fire growth are controlled by the
characteristics of the fuel because adequate
oxygen is available for combustion.
Fuel Limited Fire
• _________: The stage of fire development
when the fire has reached its peak heat release
rate within a compartment. This usually occurs
after flashover, resulting in floor to ceiling
burning within the compartment, creating heat
conditions untenable for civilians and
firefighters.
Fully Developed Stage
• _________: The stage of fire development
when the heat release rate from an incipient fire
has increased to the point where heat
transferred from the fire and the combustion
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products are pyrolyzing adjacent fuel sources.
The fire begins to spread across the ceiling of
the fire compartment (rollover).
Growth Stage
➢ Horizontal Ventilation: The opening or
removal of windows or doors on any floor of a
fire building which will become flow paths for
fire conditions
• _________: The early stage of fire
development where the fire's progression is
limited to a fuel source and the thermal hazard
is localized to the area of the burning material.
Ignition Stage
• _________: A thorough assessment or
investigation into the nature of the problem,
type, and severity of the incident that provides
the information needed to evaluate and decide on
the operational mode.
Investigation Mode
• _________: Fires that primarily consist of
natural fiber contents, such as wood, wools, and
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cottons. These fires have a relatively low heat
release rate when compared to hydrocarbon
based products.
Legacy Fire
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• _________: Fires that involve hydrocarbon and
synthetic based contents, such as foam rubber,
nylon, rayon, and polypropylene. Modern fires
have a relatively high heat release rate when
compared to the natural fiber products found in
legacy fires.
Modern Content Fire
➢ Offensive mode: An operational mode that
takes direct action to mitigate the problem.
Attack lines are operated within the collapse
zone, most often an interior attack
• _________: The transformation of materials
into their basic compound when subjected to
heat. Contents will continue to off gas and add
to the flammable fuel load within the
compartment as long as the material is
subjected to elevated temperatures
Pyrolysis
• _________: Occurs in the growth stage when
sufficient fuel, heat, and oxygen are available to
allow flame spread in the upper hot gas layer
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inside the compartment.
Rollover
• When observed at the ceiling level, rollover
shall be taken as an indicator that fire
conditions are rapidly deteriorating and
_______ may be imminent.
flashover
• _________: The combination of airborne solid
particulates, liquid particulates, and gasses
emitted when a material undergoes pyrolysis or
combustion. Smoke is a heated fuel source.
Smoke
• Smoke is a toxic mixture that contains
numerous poisonous gasses, such as carbon
monoxide, hydrogen cyanide, and ________
phosgene
• _________: Firefighting operation where water
is applied from an exterior position to the
interior of a structure to reduce the thermal
threat and cool the environment just prior to
initiating interior operations.
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Transitional Fire Attack
• _________: The controlled and coordinated
removal of heat and smoke from a structure,
replacing the escaping gasses with fresh air.
This exchange is bidirectional with heat and
smoke exhausting at the top and air flowing in
towards the fire at the bottom. The fire will
pull the additional air flow into the building
towards the fire which can intensify the fire
conditions.
Ventilation
• _________: A flashover initiated by the
introduction of oxygen into a pre-heated, fuel
rich (smoke filled), oxygen deficient area.
Modern content fires rapidly consume more of
the available oxygen within the fire area
creating conditions favorable to a possible
ventilation induced flashover.
Ventilation Induced Flashover
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• _________: A fire in which the heat release
rate and fire growth are regulated by the
available oxygen within the space.
Ventilation Limited Fire
• _________: The appearance of the fire
building's ventilation points showing the flow
paths of heat and smoke out of the structure, as
well as any air movement into the structure.
During the ventilation profile, assess the
following:
1.Building construction, integrity, size, and
occupancy type.
2.Location of smoke or fire venting /from the
structure.
3.The volume, velocity, density, and color of
the smoke venting from the structure to
determine its current phase and potential for
fire growth.
4.The direction and speed of the wind and its
potential influence.
Ventilation Profile
➢ Vertical ventilation: The vertical venting of
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structures involving the opening of bulkhead
doors, skylights, scuttles and roof cutting
operations.
➢ Victim Survivability Assessment: The
evaluation of smoke and fire conditions inside
the structure, structural integrity, and other fire
ground conditions to determine if victims could
survive on the inside of a structure.
Appendix II – UL Studies
Review the following studies on the Training Service Section's "Reference" Intranet page
http://fireiis/TrainingServices/Reference.asp : if interested “SEE MANUALS”
Appendix III
OPERATIONAL MODES OF ATTACK
➢ Operational Mode: After identifying the
objectives that support the incident priorities,
the operational mode will be selected for the
incident. The IC shall communicate the current
operational mode to on scene resources. The IC
identifies the proper operational mode through
the analysis of information gathered during the
size-up process to determine:
✓ Location and extent of fire- Where is the
fire burning and where is it headed? What
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is burning?
✓ Fire effect- Is structural integrity
compromised?
✓ Survivability of occupants- Is the interior
environment of the structure survivable?
✓ Savable property - Is there property to
save?
✓ Entry and tenability- Can firefighters
access the interior?
✓ Coordinated ventilation - Can ventilation
operations be performed and coordinated?
✓ Resources needed -Are sufficient
resources available for the initial attack?
It is the responsibility of the IC to decide on the
operational mode. The operational modes are:
1.Investigation
2.Offensive
1. ________ Fire Attack
2. Interior Fire Attack
3.Defensive
Transitional
➢ The first arriving officer has the responsibility
to investigate the scene. The size up and 360
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assessment provides the information needed to
evaluate and decide on the operational mode.
The investigation mode allows the company
officer time to develop a plan.
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• Responding companies not requested to assist
with the investigation shall hold _____ out until
given an assignment. While holding,
companies shall locate available water supplies
that may be used to support firefighting
operations.
one block
• During an offensive mode operation, fire
conditions will allow for a transitional fire
attack or an ____________
interior fire attack.
• ______________: The action of a hose stream
being applied from the exterior to cool the
interior environment of a structure fire before
entering to initiate interior fire attack
operations. Applying a hose stream from the
exterior reduces the thermal threat and cools the
interior environment.
Transitional fire attack
➢ Offensive: Handlines are extended into the fire
area to support the primary search and to
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control the spread of the fire, while support
activities, such as coordinated ventilation, and
RIC are provided to support interior crews. It is
imperative that company officers maintain
communications with the IC and each other to
provide status updates on the location of the
fire, the effectiveness of coordinated ventilation
operations, and the building’s integrity.
➢ Defensive: During the defensive mode, fire
conditions advance to the point where there is a
danger of imminent collapse, there is little
chance of saving lives or property, or there are
insufficient resources on scene to safely sustain
an interior fire attack. During active defensive
operations, perimeter control becomes critical
since firefighters are not permitted to enter the
uncontrolled interior fire area.
CHAPTER 4 – URBAN SEARCH AND RESCUE
11.4.1 – CONFINE SPACE INCIDENTS
1/23/14
➢ California Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (CAL/OSHA) regulates the
management of a confined space incident.
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The first arriving company is responsible for
providing initial size up, initiating the Incident
Command procedures, and taking appropriate
action.
➢ Hazardous Materials (HazMat) personnel and
Urban Search and Rescue (USAR) personnel
are responsible for providing the IC with
technical information, conducting and/or
coordinating procedures to minimize effects of
the hazards, and providing technical assistance
and abilities as required to accomplish the
mission objectives. They shall be trained as
confined space rescue technicians.
The Department’s USAR Task Forces are
staffed with a minimum of six certified
confined space rescue personnel required to
effect a confined space rescue. These positions
include: rescue group supervisor, assistant
safety officer, attendant, two entrants and an air
supply manager.
The Assistant safety officer (ASO) – is
responsible for the area where the confined
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space team is working. He/she reports to the
____________
incident safety officer.
• The ASO has emergency authority to prevent or
stop unsafe acts that present an immediate
danger to life or health. This position confers
with the _____________
rescue group supervisor.
➢ The ASO shall be a current confined space
rescue technician and shall wear an appropriate
“position” vest.
Only confined space rescue technicians shall
make entry into permitted confined spaces.
• The _______ shall be responsible for the
overall operations conducted in the exclusion
zone.
rescue group supervisor
The _________ shall authorize the rescue entry
permit, ensure a written log is maintained,
secure the operational area to prevent
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unauthorized persons from entering, and verify
that 1) atmospheric monitoring tests are
performed and 2) the required equipment is
used.
rescue group supervisor
• The __________ is responsible for canceling
the entry permit or stopping the operation if a
problem or safety concern becomes apparent.
rescue group supervisor
➢ The rescue group supervisor shall be a current
confined space rescue technician and shall wear
an appropriate “position” vest.
• The _________ shall be responsible for
operating breathing air systems for entry teams
and reports rescue group supervisor
air supply manager
• The _________ shall be responsible for
managing the entry point and ensure that
rigging is correct.
entry team manager
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The _______ shall be responsible for the
welfare of the entrants while they are in the
confined space and will be the only person
making contact with the entrants. The
individual stationed outside the confined space,
at the point of entry, who monitors and
maintains communication with the entrants.
attendant
The _____ is responsible for primary entry into
the confined space and conduct search and
rescue for the victim(s).
entrant(s)
➢ The backup entrant(s) shall be responsible for
emergency assistance to the entrants in the
confined space. Backup entrant(s) may assist
the attendant with rigging, atmospheric
monitoring, and scene set-up as long as it will
not interfere with being able to immediately act
as a backup.
All sworn personnel will have a minimum ____
hours of confined space awareness training.
four
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The strategic priorities of this Department in
dealing with confined space incidents in order
of importance are:
1.Protection of life.
2.Protection of the environment.
3.________________
Protection of property and equipment.
All confined spaces shall be considered
Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health
(IDLH) until positively proven otherwise for
the following conditions in the order given:
1.Oxygen content.
2.______________.
3.Potential toxic air contaminants.
Flammable gases and vapors
Only personnel who have completed the Los
Angeles County Fire Department's Confined
Space Rescue Technician course shall make
entry or function in designated confined space
positions.
Personnel may also obtain this training by
completing the California State Fire Marshal
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Confined Space Rescue Technician course.
Upon completion of the class, personnel must
attend a Los Angeles County Fire Department
16-hour Confined Space “cross-over” class to
be certified with the Department. Personnel
shall request this class through the
____________
Department USAR Coordinator.
➢ Space Rescue Technician course. All
certified personnel who wish to remain certified
shall complete the mandated annual continuing
education as specified by CAL-OSHA Title 8.
➢ The testing of the atmosphere shall be done
prior to entry, continued throughout entry, and a
written record maintained and kept on site until
the incident is completed.
➢ When the space is entered from a top opening (a depth of 5 feet or greater), the following requirements shall apply:
A. A Class 3 harness shall be worn.
B. A hoisting system shall be in place and
attached for lifting personnel out of the
confined space.
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C. Fall arrest precautions shall be
implemented whenever personnel could fall
from their work area.
➢ The primary form of communication will be a
hard wire communication system, then hand
held radio as an alternative
➢ The command post for a confined space
incident will be located out of the immediate
operational area and yet within line of sight to
the area.
Who should determine the appropriate
command post and staging locations and have
FCCF relay the information.
first arriving officer
➢ Name the six phases of a Confine Space
Incident
1. Phase 1: Scene Preparation
Step One: Assessment
Step Two: Staffing and Equipment
Step Three: Make the operational area
safe
2. Phase 2: Entry Preparation
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3. Phase 3: Atmospheric Monitoring
4. Phase 4: Entry
5. Phase 5: Victim Removal
6. Phase 6: Termination
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Phase 1: Scene Preparation:
➢ Step One: Assessment: Size-up: An initial
size-up of the incident.
a. Locate and secure the job site foreman or a
reliable witness.
b.Determine the location and number of
victims.
c. Obtain blueprints, maps or have on-site
personnel draw a sketch of the site.
d.Determine the mechanisms of entrapment or
nature of illness.
e. Make a decision as to whether this is a
"rescue” or “recovery”.
f. Determine number of entry points and
locations.
g.Start an Incident Command Worksheet for a
confined space incident.
h.Recognition and identification of known
and potential hazards.
Exclusion zone should be identified and
isolated by the use of yellow fire line tape, rope,
or other suitable barrier. A ___-foot perimeter
is preferred for an exclusion zone and may
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expand depending on the incident.
50
The support zone shall be identified by the use
of fire line tape to a ____-foot perimeter beyond
the exclusion zone.
100
➢ The support zone will contain within its
boundaries: the incident command post (ICP),
medical group, equipment cache, air supply
vehicle, rehab, support personnel, and
additional personnel and equipment.
➢ Step Two: Staffing and Equipment: A
Confined Space Rescue Team can consist of the
following positions: Rescue Group Supervisor,
Entry Team Manager, Attendant, ASO –
Confined Space, Air Supply Manager, and four
Entrants (two for primary entry and two for
back-up). Note: The exception would be a
space only large enough for one rescuer. In this
case, the confined space rescue team shall
consist of a minimum of: rescue group
supervisor, attendant, primary entrant(s), and
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backup entrant(s).
➢ Ensure one basic life support (BLS)
ambulance and/or an air squad is assigned,
adequate air supply with battalion air cache
and/or mobile air utility, ensure a rehab area is
established along with staffing by a medical
unit.
➢ Step Three: Make the operational area
safe. The primary hazard to consider in a
confined space is the potential for a hazardous
or oxygen-deficient atmosphere.
• All confined spaces shall be considered ______
until positively proven otherwise with an
appropriate atmospheric direct reading
instrument.
IDLH
Phase 2: Entry Preparation:
• Ensure lock-out, tag-out, and blank-out
procedures are complete.
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a. All fixed mechanical devices and equipment
capable of causing injury shall be placed in
a zero mechanical state (ZMS).
b.All electrical equipment, excluding lighting,
shall be locked out in the open (off) position
with a key-type padlock.
c. All hydraulic lines or feed lines must be
disconnected and blanked or blinded,
locked, and tagged.
d.The key shall remain with the ________.
ASO
➢ In cases where lock-out is not possible,
equipment shall be properly tagged and
physical security provided. This would mean a
firefighter will stand guard until the rescue has
been completed.
• All locked-out utilities shall be locked with a
key-type padlock and tagged with a _______
confined space lock-out tag
➢ Ensure that only confined space rescue
technicians enter the actual space, and that they
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are equipped with respiratory protection that is
best suited for that particular incident or task:
either SCBA and/or SABA. At no time shall a
SCBA be removed from a confined space
rescue technician’s back to make entry into a
confined space.
• No team member shall enter a confined space
with any electronic device unless approved by
the IC, rescue group supervisor and the ______.
The approval will be based on atmospheric
monitoring.
ASO
➢ Every entrant of each entry team shall be
equipped with the following items:
a. A minimum of three light sources of
intrinsically safe lighting.
b.Proper protective equipment as deemed
necessary by the Incident Commander. At
the very least, each Entry Team member
shall wear Nomex brush coat and pants, or
Nomex jumpsuit, boots, gloves, and a
confined space-type helmet. In a possible
flammable atmosphere, a Nomex hood shall
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be worn. Goggles may be needed for eye
protection when SCBA or SABA is not
worn.
c. Every Entrant shall wear a Class 3 harness.
A retrieval line attached to the "D" ring
between the shoulders on the harness.
Phase 3: Atmospheric Monitoring
Atmospheric monitoring shall occur prior to
and during all entries into a confined space. All
atmospheres shall be tested in the following
order:
a. Oxygen content.
b.Flammable gases and vapors.
c. Potential ____________
toxic air contaminants
The following levels shall be considered as
IDLH:
a. Oxygen deficiency < ___%
b.Oxygen enrichment > 23.5%
c. Flammability at 10% of Lower Explosive
Limit.
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d.Toxicity shall be any limit whose numerical
value exceeds the permissible exposure
limit in accordance with State regulations
19.5
• All atmospheric readings shall be recorded on
the Rescue Entry Permit and the _______
Attendant's Worksheet
Phase 4: Entry
Prior to entry, each team member shall be
logged on the rescue entry permit with their
time of entry. This function shall be assigned to
the ______, who shall keep the rescue group
supervisor apprised of the status of the team via
the entry team manager.
attendant
General guidelines recommend that entry teams
be limited to ___minutes in most spaces.
30
• Upon removal from the space, each team shall
immediately report to _____
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Rehab.
Phase 5: Victim Removal
Phase 6: Termination
➢ Have a responsible party (i.e., law
enforcement, OSHA, or FD) seal entry points to
ensure no additional entry.
All confined space rescue entry permits, forms,
etc., shall be sent to the Department’s
_________ for filing per Cal- OSHA
regulations.
Technical Operations Section
Definitions
• ______________ an individual assigned to
operate the air supply manifold system and
manage the air supply area. This individual
manages the ventilation team, line tenders,
mobile air unit operator and logs air supplies of
personnel entering a space. This position shall
be filled with a current confined space rescue
technician.
Air Supply Manager
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• _________ is an individual stationed outside the
confined space, at the point of entry, who
monitors and maintains communication with
the entrants. This position shall be filled with a
current confined space rescue technician.
Attendant
• ___________: The absolute closure of a pipe,
line, or duct by the fastening of a solid plate
that completely covers the bore and that is
capable of withstanding the maximum pressure
of the pipe, line, or duct with no leakage
beyond the plate. Blanking and Blinding
➢ Confined Space: As defined by Title 8, must
consist of all three of the following:
A. Is large enough and so configured that a
person can enter and perform work.
B. Has limited or restricted means for
entry/exit (i.e., tanks, vessels, silos, storage
bins, hoppers, vaults, etc.)
C. Is not designed for continuous occupancy.
• Confined Space Awareness Level: Sworn
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personnel who have attended the Los Angeles
County Fire Department's ____ hour "First
Responder" course in Confined Space Entry
and Rescue. Note: Awareness level personnel
are prohibited from entering any permit-
required confined space for any reason.
four
➢ Confine Space Rescue Team: Sworn
personnel who have successfully completed the
Los Angeles County Fire Department's
Confined Space Rescue Technician course (or
California State Fire Marshal Confined Space
Rescue Technician course with Department
Confined Space Rescue Technician “cross-
over” class). The Confined Space Rescue
Technician shall maintain Continuing
Education (CE) as mandated by CAL-OSHA.
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➢ Confined Space, Permit Required: As defined
by Title 8, must meet the definition of a
confined space and have one or more of the
following characteristics:
a) Contains or has the potential to contain a
hazardous atmosphere.
b) Contains material that has the potential for
engulfing an entrant.
c) Has an internal configuration such that an
entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by
inwardly converging walls or by a floor that
slopes downward and tapers to a smaller
cross-section.
d) Contains any other recognized serious
safety or health hazard.
➢ Entry Permit: A permit required for entry
into a confined space. Entry cannot be made
until the confined space entry permit has been
completed and approved. The entry permit
should cover confined space preparation,
personal protective equipment, safety devices,
atmospheric monitoring tests, and required
procedures.
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➢ Hazardous Atmosphere: An atmosphere that
may expose employees to the risk of death,
incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-
rescue, injury, or acute illness from one or more
of the following causes:
a) Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess
of its lower explosive limit (LEL).
b) Airborne combustible dust at a
concentration that meets or exceeds its LEL.
A concentration in which visibility is
obscured at a distance of five feet or less is
a general rule.
➢ Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health
(IDLH): Any condition that poses an
immediate or delayed threat to life or that
would cause irreversible adverse health effects
or that would interfere with an individual's
ability to escape unaided from a confined space.
Line Tenders: Consist of a minimum of ___
personnel, (i.e. an engine company), and will
tend air lines and communication cables under
the direction of the air supply manager. They
may also assist in the setup of the air supply
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area and obtain air bottles from units on scene.
four
• Litter Team: Consists of four personnel, (i.e.,
an engine company), and will be used for the
transportation of the victim from the exit
point to the Medical Group Treatment Area.
The litter team reports to the _________. At
no time should they come within ten feet of
the space until signaled by the entry team
manager.
entry team manager
➢ Lower Explosive Limit: The lower limit of
the flammability range of a gas or vapor at
ordinary ambient temperatures expressed in
percent of the gas or vapor in air by volume.
➢ Oxygen Depleted: An atmosphere that
contains less than 19.5% oxygen (Normal air
contains approx. 21% oxygen).
➢ Oxygen Enriched: Any air concentration that
contains greater than 23.5% oxygen.
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➢ Rescue Group Supervisor: Shall be
responsible for the overall operations conducted
in the operational area. Authorizes the Rescue
Entry Permit and ensures that a written log is
maintained. This position shall be filled with a
current confined space rescue technician.
➢ Entry Team Manager: Shall be responsible for
managing the entry point and assuring that
rigging is correct. This position shall be filled
with a current confined space rescue technician.
➢ Rigging Team: Constructs the rope rescue
systems to facilitate the insertion and retrieval
of personnel and or victim(s). Reports to the
entry team manager or attendant, if necessary.
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11.4.2 – CANINE SEARCH POLICY
6/19/14
• Canine Search Team (CST): A highly-trained
search team consisting of a search canine and
handler. Must be Department endorsed and
certified by the Department of Homeland
Security/Federal Emergency Management
Agency (DHS/FEMA) National Disaster Search
Canine Readiness Evaluation Process every
______ years.
three (3)
➢ Canine Search Strike Team: Shall consist of
two CST and a qualified search team manager.
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• The ______ of the Emergency Operations shall
be responsible for approval of selected
CST/Canine Search Team In Training (CST-
IT).
chief deputy
• The _______ of Emergency Operations are
responsible for approval of all releases for
CST/CST-IT from regularly assigned work
locations.
deputy chiefs
➢ The battalion chief of the Technical
Operations Section is responsible for:
a. The management of the CST/CST-IT
program.
b.Processing releases for travel/training
associated with CST/CST-IT activities
c. Approval and processing of all allowable
reimbursement requests related to CST
operations. Feeding, Veterinarian care, and
required training costs are the responsibility
of the Department.
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d.Approval for the use of Depart. vehicles for
transportation within LA County related to
the CST Program
e. Facilitating required approvals for the use of
Department vehicles outside of Los Angeles
County related to the CST Program
• The ____________ shall be responsible for
approving the use of an appropriate Department
vehicle for transporting a CST to approved
training sites within Los Angeles County
jurisdiction or to an incident.
jurisdictional battalion chief
➢ The administrative site supervisor shall ensure
that all personnel are aware of the needs of the
canine and provide for its safety and well-
being.
• Department CST/CST-IT handlers shall be
responsible for:
1. The control, training, record keeping, and
well-being of their assigned search canine
both on and off duty.
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2. Maintaining qualification as a handler in
accordance with the licensing or certifying
agency.
3. Ensuring that all required certifications,
licenses, and vaccinations for the search
canine are maintained.
4. Establishing and maintaining a CST/CST-
IT file at both the handler’s administrative
site and the _______
Technical Operations Section.
➢ This file must contain the following items:
1. Alternate canine care provider information
should the handler be unable to provide care
for any reason.
2. Phone number and contact procedure for the
emergency contact person shall be
maintained at the program manager’s site
file, handler’s work location, dog run, and
with the canine portable enclosure.
• Department CST/CST-IT handlers shall be
responsible for:
1. Notifying both the battalion chief of the
__________ and the canine coordinator,
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whenever the CST is not available for
emergency response.
2. Providing notification to the handler's on-duty
admin. site supervisor if the CST is deployed
while off duty.
Technical Operations Section
• When a need for additional canine search
specialists is identified interested candidates
shall submit a letter of interest to the
_________________
Department search canine coordinator
• The Department will recognize and endorse a
maximum of _______ CSTs. The Department
may also approve up to two (2) CST-ITs to be
certified CSTs.
fourteen (14)
➢ CST/CST-IT canines must be recognized and
certified by the DHS/FEMA National Disaster
Search Canine Readiness Evaluation Process
prior to deploying on an assignment as one of
the Department’s CSTs.
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• CST-IT may be removed from the CST
program by the battalion chief of the Technical
Operations Section after ____ failures of the
DHS/FEMA test
two
• CST certification shall be evaluated every
_____ years according to the DHS/FEMA
National Disaster Search Canine Readiness
Evaluation process.
three (3)
• CST/CST-IT canines shall not accompany their
handler during routine daily duties and
assignments away from the administrative site
without the specific approval from the
_____________
jurisdictional battalion chief
• Requests for releases shall be coordinated
through the ________
Technical Operations Section.
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• CST handlers will be permitted _____ release
up to six (6) hours from duty per month for
sanctioned canine training. CST-IT will be
permitted ______ releases up to six (6) hours
from duty per month for sanctioned canine
training.
one (1), two (2)
• Travel training requests shall be initiated
through the _________ and approved through
channels by the North Region Operations
deputy chief, for training conducted outside of
Los Angeles County.
Technical Operations Section
• The canine Department vehicle shall only be
used with approval from the battalion chief of
the ________
Technical Operations Section
• Approved Department CST/CST-IT training
will be compensated, if approved by the
battalion chief of the ______ as mandatory
training.
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Technical Operations Section
➢ Incident Response: Los Angeles Command and
Control (LACC) shall page all CST handlers,
the battalion chief of the Technical Operations
Section, the canine coordinator, and USAR
coordinator for any CST-related requests,
responses, or incidents.
➢ CSTs shall be assigned to the incident based on
the shortest ETA, as determined by the
Technical Operations battalion chief, USAR
coordinator, canine coordinator, or their
subordinates.
If a CST is requested by Department resources
assign two (2) CSTs with the shortest ETA to
the incident. A qualified search team manager
may be added if warranted.
➢ If a CST is requested by a resource other than
the Department, outside of Los Angeles
County, in Region 1, or by the California
Governor’s Office of Emergency Service (Cal-
OES):
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1) CCBC shall obtain approval from the duty
chief prior to dispatching the CST.
2) Once approved, the CCBC shall assign a
Canine Search Strike Team (consisting of
two (2) CSTs with the shortest ETA and a
qualified Search Team manager).
3) A Department agency representative may be
added if warranted.
4) These requests shall comply with the
Department policy for mutual aid and
assistance by hire.
➢ If requested for incident response by LACC
while on-duty, the CST handler shall
immediately notify their immediate supervisor,
who shall notify the jurisdictional battalion
chief. If requested for incident response by
LACC while off-duty, the CST handler shall
advise his/her administrative site to ensure
proper coverage or backfill of the handler’s
position.
• Upon arrival at an assigned incident, the
decision to use the canine shall be made by the
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incident commander (IC) with the approval of
the _________
canine handler.
➢ The canine handler is responsible for the safety
and proper use of the CST at all times. The
handler will evaluate the scene and advise the
IC of any specific requirements to make the
scene safe and workable for the CST.
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• Requests for CST demonstrations for public
relations purposes shall be coordinated through
the canine coordinator and the appropriate
regional operations bureau community services
representative. Such events shall be scheduled
a minimum of ______ days in advance.
thirty (30)
➢ CST members will be compensated while off-
duty for approved Department-sanctioned
public relations demonstrations. Movement of
the demonstration equipment shall be
coordinated by the CST handler when approved
by the Technical Operations Section.
• All veterinary care invoices or receipts shall be
received by the Technical Operations Section
within ____ business days of the appointment
from the CST/CST-IT handlers.
ten (10)
• Search canine fit for duty physicals shall be
performed annually by a veterinarian that has
been approved by the Department. All
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veterinarian physical documentation shall be
sent to the __________
Technical Operations Section
11.4.3 – CANINE ARSON TEAM (CAT)
3/15/03
• ________: A specially trained handler and
canine, certified as an Accelerant Detection
Canine, that has been recognized and approved
by the Department
Canine Arson Team (CAT)
➢ Who is responsible for the management of the
department’s Canine Arsons Team program.
The Special Unit Section I Battalion Chief
of the Fire Prevention Division
➢ The department will recognize and authorized a
maximum of_____ canine arson teams. The
Department may also approve up to ___ canines
in training to be certified as an Arson Canine.
A maximum of ___ canine per administrative
site per shift shall be allowed.
3, 2, 1
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➢ All Department approved canines shall be
confined in an appropriate kennel or leashed
while on the grounds of the fire station or other
administrative site, if they are subject to contact
with the public
➢ Application by qualified Canine Arson Teams
for assignment to the Department's Canine
Arson Team Program shall be through channels
to the ____________
Prevention Bureau Deputy Chief
• Department approval of current Canine Arson
Teams shall be renewed _____, at the request of
the canine handler, during the month of _____
annually, July
• The ________ where the canine team is
assigned shall journalize any and all
information related to the canine team
Administrative Site Supervisor
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➢ The ________ may authorize the use of a
Department vehicle, such as a suburban, sedan
utility or other appropriate Department vehicle,
for transporting a Canine Arson Team to an
incident or approved training
jurisdictional Battalion Chief
➢ While on duty, the handler is responsible to
provide for an emergency contact person to
pick up and care for the canine if necessary.
The phone number and contact procedure for
the emergency contact person shall be
maintained at the_______ or _________, at the
handlers assigned work location and with the
canine portable enclosure or kennel
Section, Unit Administrative site office
➢ Any aggressive behavior displayed by the
canine shall the reported to whom? (4)
Handler
Site supervisor
Jurisdictional Battalion Chief
Special Units I Battalion Chief
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➢ When Command and Control receives a request
for a Department Canine Arson Team from a
Department Incident Commander, another
agency in the Region or State OES, Command
and Control shall page the _______________
and ____________
Special Units I Battalion Chief
Fire Investigation Unit Captain
➢ The CCBC shall assign the Canine Arson Team
at the direction of the ______________. If the
request is from another agency, a Department
Arson/Fire Investigator shall be assigned to the
incident.
Fire Investigation Unit Captain
➢ If the request is from an agency outside LA
County, the CCBC shall obtain approval from
the ______
Duty Chief
• When a Canine Arson Team handler is notified
of a request for their specialty and is available
to accept that assignment while on duty, the
handler shall immediately notify their
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immediate supervisor, who will notify the
_____________
Special Units I Battalion Chief
➢ After checking in at the assigned location or
incident and receiving an assignment briefing,
the canine handler shall contact his
____________. The site supervisor shall notify
the _____________
Administrative site supervisor
jurisdictional Battalion Chief
➢ When an off duty Canine Arson Team handler
receives an request and accepts the assignment,
the handler shall advise his/her administrative
site to ensure coverage
Upon arrival at the assigned incident, the
decision to use the canine shall be made by the
____________ with the approval of the canine
handler.
Lead Investigator
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➢ The lead investigator is responsible for the
scene and the investigation. The canine handler
shall be subordinate to the __________.
Lead Investigator
• All travel, training, and activities of Canine
Arson Teams must be pre approved by the
________ for cost reimbursement.
Special Units I Battalion Chief
• Request for arson canine demonstrations for
public relations purposes shall go through the
__________, to the Special Units I Battalion
Chief
Regional Operations Bureau Community
Relations Office
• Travel/Training and releases will go through the
_____________
Special Units I Battalion Chief
11.4.4 – RESCUE AIR CUSHION
PROCEDURES 3/30/07
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➢ The Department has established Rescue Air
Cushion (RAC) Task Forces, strategically
located across the County to provide timely
response to each Regional Operations Bureau.
Each Rescue Air Cushion Task Force is
equipped with a Rescue Air Cushion rated for a
___ foot or 10-story fall, with inflation fans and
related equipment. The Rescue Air Cushion
should not be used for heights exceeding ____
feet.
100, 100
Incident Commanders are responsible for
evaluating the most appropriate use and
strategic positioning of Rescue Air Cushions at
urban high angle emergencies and “jumper”
incidents, consulting as necessary with Rescue
Air Cushion Task Force and _________.
Law Enforcement
Incident Priorities: The priorities of this
Department in dealing with “jumper” type
incidents in order of importance are:
1. Protection of life.
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2. Protection of property and _______
equipment
➢ One Rescue Air Cushion Task Force shall be
dispatched on all first alarm “Jumper” response
matrix, when a subject is reported to be
threatening to jump from a tower, overpass,
bridge, multi-story building, power pole, etc.
➢ A “Jumper” response matrix shall include the
following resources on the First Alarm:
1 Engine
1 Truck or Quint (closest)
1 Rescue Air Cushion Task Force (1 Engine,
1 Truck/Quint/Engine, 1 Rescue Air Cushion
trailer)
1 Squad
1 Battalion Chief
1 USAR
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A Rescue Air Cushion Task Force consists of a
trailer with a cart containing a rescue air
cushion with inflation fans, and an Engine(s),
Quint or Truck with a total staffing of _____.
seven
When the “jumper” is a potential suicide victim,
a unified command shall be established with the
jurisdictional _________ agency.
law enforcement
➢ The jurisdictional law enforcement agency shall
be responsible for communicating with the
“jumper” and working with the Fire Department
to mitigate the emergency.
Rescue Air Cushion is 20 feet wide by ____
feet long.
24
➢ Initial Action
1.Request Law Enforcement and set up
Unified Command
2.Assign Safety Officer
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3.Identify area to deploy the Rescue Air
Cushion
4.Suicidal “jumper” consult with law
enforcement
5.Establish LCES
6.Ensure personnel working above ground
level are wearing appropriate harnesses
Set up the Rescue Air Cushion in a selected
“pre-deployment area”. DO NOT set up
(inflate) the Rescue Air Cushion in the target
area! To a possible “jumper” above, the Air
Rescue Cushion may appear to be fully inflated
when it is not.
➢ For possibly suicidal “jumper” situations, the
“pre-deployment area” should be out of sight of
the individual, so he or she does not visualize
the preparations being made.
Position Assignments for Deployment of Rescue
Air Cushion:
First-in Company Officer or Battalion Chief
Incident Commander
Liaison with law enforcement
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Rescue Task Force Captain
Safety Officer for the overall operation
(He/she is most knowledgeable on
operation)
Supervises deployment of air cushion
Controls timing of jumper(s)
Rescue Task Force Firefighter Specialist
Responsible for primary (on-board
generator) and secondary (fixed electrical)
power sources for the electric blowers
Rescue Task Force Firefighter
Assists in moving air cushion to target area
Assists in deployment of air cushions
Engine Company Captain
Inspects target area for hazards that can
damage the air cushion
Insures Rescue Air Cushion is fully inflated.
Coordinates crowd control with Law
Enforcement.
Engine Firefighter Specialist
Assists Task Force Engineer in the
deployment of electric blowers to target area.
Engine Firefighter
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Assists in deployment of air cushion to
target area.
Truck/Quint Company Captain
Assists Engine Company Captain to ensure
that target area is inspected for hazards
Ensures Rescue Air Cushion is fully
inflated.
Coordinates crowd control with Law
Enforcement.
Truck/Quint Company Firefighter Specialist
Ensures primary and secondary power has
been obtained.
Truck/Quint Firefighter
Assists in deployment of air cushion to
target area
Truck/Quint Firefighter
Assists in deployment of air cushion to
target area
Squad
Squad Firefighter #1
Standby at target area for immediate patient
care
Squad Firefighter #2
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Standby at target area for immediate patient
care
➢ As a last resort, a portable gasoline powered
blowers can be used to inflate the Air Rescue
Cushion
The Air Rescue Cushion will fully inflate in
less than ____ seconds.
60
➢ If it becomes necessary for victims to jump,
they should be instructed to fall as if they were
sitting down with arms stretched out in front of
body.
➢ If two people must jump at the same time they
should interlock arms at the elbows and jump at
the same time.
After landing, have the jumper(s) immediately
roll off the cushion and allow ___ seconds for
re-inflation.
30
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Always have ______ member assigned to
ensure the flaps on the exhaust breathers are
tucked into the opening between jumps.
Rescue Air Cushion task force
➢ The white flaps on the exhaust breather ports on
each side must be pushed back inside the rescue
air cushion between jumps.
The cushion is constructed of vinyl-reinforced
fabric, which is fire resistant and waterproof.
The tear strength of this material is over ___
pounds psi.
50
The rescue air cushion shall be inflated _____
and inspected for damage and/or wear.
monthly
Damaged cushions shall be removed from
service and sent to the manufacturer for repair.
A reserve unit shall be requested from the
__________.
East Operations Bureau Office
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CHAPTER 5 – CIVIL DISTURBANCES
11.5.1 - CIVIL DISTURBANCE EMERGENCY
- GENERAL 1/01/93
➢ When operating during conditions of civil
disturbance, the priorities of this Dept. are: (2)
1. Protection of life
2. Protection of property & equipment
TACTICAL ALERT
Tactical Alert is composed of three phases.
Phase I and/or Phase II do not have to take
place prior to phase III
Phase I – is the Planning Phase
Phase II – is the Mobilization Phase
Phase III – is implemented when a civil
disturbance is in progress
• ______________: Tactical Alert is the
planning phase and is established when law
enforcement or fire Dept. intelligence or an
anticipated event may result in a civil
disturbance incident. No deployment takes
place
Phase I
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• ____________: Tactical Alert is the
mobilization phase and deploys resources to fire
stations in the tactical alert area
Phase II
• The Task Forces will be composed of a
minimum of _____ units to a maximum
of_____ units plus a ______
3, 5, Battalion Chief
Fire Task Forces will be assembled at fire
station's in the tactical alert area and will be
composed of __________ or _____________
− Three engines and a B.C.
− 3 engines, truck and a B.C.
• Fire Task Forces shall remain intact throughout
phase _____ and phase ____alerts
II & III
• __________: will be assembled at each
paramedic squad staffed station in the Tactical
Alert Area
Medical Task Force
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• Medical Task Force will be composed of:
1 engine, 1 squad, 1 ambulance
• Medical Task Forces shall remain intact for
______ emergencies and ______ follow up
throughout Phase II and Phase III alerts
Rescue, hospital
B.C. chiefs will be deployed to respond with
_______, but not with _________
Fire Task Force, Medical Task force
• All units assigned to Task Forces shall be
staffed with _____ personnel as soon as
possible
4
Command and control shall notify all Battalion
headquarters of the Phase II or Phase III
Tactical Alert. Battalion HQ Capt. Shall
immediately provide the info concerning the
Phase II or Phase III Tactical alert to their
assign Administrative sites
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• What Tactical Alert is implemented when a
civil disturbance is in progress
Phase III Tactical Alert
• Strike Teams: (5 engines with a chief officer)
may be staged and predesignated locations and
may be responded as a strike team or adjusted
to a _____ configuration with a minimum of __
engines and a B.C. as directed by the I.C.
Fire Task Forces, Three
• Department ECC shall be activated during what
stage of a Tactical Alert.
Phase III Tactical Alert
• During what phase shall an Incident Action
Plan be put into effect
Phase III Tactical Alert
• Phase III Tactical Alert - Command and
Control shall place all units on _____ and
provide an "All Call" to all Chief Officers
Radio standby
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LAW ENFORCEMENT
• Law enforcement protection during "Tactical
Alert". Phase __ Tactical Alert may require law
enforcement security/escort protection
Phase II
• Law enforcement Protection During "Tactical
Alert": Phase III tactical alert shall require law
enforcement security/escort protection for each
individual _______, _______, or _________
Task Force, Medical Task Force, Strike
Team
➢ Request for extraction shall be made by officers
through Command and Control, identifying the
location, existing on scene conditions, and units
involved.
• Fire units will not attempt to enter areas that
law enforcement feels are ____ due to the level
of violence within that area, until that area has
been "____" bylaw enforcement. This does not
prohibit fire and law enforcement from making
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a _____ decision to enter a "hot" area incases of
life exposure or other high priority missions
HOT, CLEARED, Mutual
• Security/Escort Missions will be provided by a
minimum of two, _____ person cars (or a
minimum of ____ motor officers) for each
deployed fire task force, Medical task force, or
strike team
2, 4
➢ Once assigned, law enforcement units shall
continue to provide security/escorts protection
for the duration of the tactical alert
Priority for law enforcement security/escort
deployment will be: (4)
1. Jurisdictional Law enforcement agency
2. Sheriffs Department
3. California Highway Patrol
4. National Guard
Fire Department officers shall request through
Command and Control an ______ by law
enforcement personnel if they determine that
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there is a threat to their personnel and there is
an immediate need to disengage from an area
extraction
• Law enforcement assets generally will not be
sufficient to escort fire units from their
________ to staging areas
Fire Stations
➢ Phase II and Phase III Tactical Alert Activities
outside of quarters shall be restricted to
emergency response
• Units in single engine stations in the affected
alert area shall be moved by command and
control at the direction of B.C. to _____ or
_____ companies shall be added to single unit
Multi company Stations, Move up
companies
• Task forces shall be commanded by a _____.
A Medical Task Force shall be commanded by
the _________
B.C.; Engine Company Captain
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• Minimum Response: All incidents shall have a
minimum response of a Task Force during a
Phase III Tactical Alert. During periods of
transitional staffing the minimum response shall
be _____units
2
• Radio Designations: When Medical Task
Force(s) are implemented during a Phase II and
III the radio designation of the assigned engine
company shall be used to identify the Medical
Task Force
Medical Task Force 16
• When Task Force are implemented during
Phase II and III radio designations shall be the
radio designation of the _______ assigned to
the Fire Task Force
B.C. ie. Fire Task Force Bn 13B (BC
number plus shift)
➢ With the declaration of a Phase II or Phase III
Tactical Alert, Command and Control shall
request the jurisdictional law enforcement
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agency to provide security/escort personnel for
fire resources in the affected area
“________” may be established in Phase II or
Phase III Tactical Alert as determined by the
Command and Control Battalion Chief in
coordination with jurisdictional battalion chiefs
and Incident Commanders
Area Command
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• When Phase III Tactical Alert will extend
beyond ___ hours, consideration shall be given
for rehabilitation and/or relief of personnel.
12
➢ Phase II or Phase III Tactical Alert structure
fires and other emergency incidents shall not be
named
• During Phase II and Phase III Tactical Alerts
Division and Branch Chief Officers shall
provide a hourly update to the _________
Operations Section Chief
➢ Hospital follow up: Medical Task Force units
going to and returning from hospital follow-ups
shall remain intact and keep their command
informed of their status
➢ Mutual Aid Strike Teams assisting the L.A. Co
F.D. and operating in the tactical alert areas
shall be assigned a unit or a member with
departmental blue, white, or OES frequency
radios to ensure interagency radio Bird Dog
communication
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• Requests for immediate Jurisdictional Law
Enforcement “______” response should be
made when assistance by law enforcement is
required at the scene to protect or control the
situation
Code L
If there is an immediate need for personnel to
leave the scene due to a threat to the safety of
personnel, a request for law enforcement
“________” shall be made through Command
and Control
Extraction
• Phase III Tactical Alert: A ____ or ____
operational approach shall be utilized whereby
no member or unit works alone at an emergency
"team" "buddy"
• Use of breathing apparatus should typically be
reserved for ______ or small fires that can be
quickly extinguished
rescue operations
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• Fire suppression actions should be ______with
an emphasis on quick knock down and the
protection of exposures through the use of
______ and limited _____ streams
defensive, deck guns, hand line
• Fire fighting tactics should be altered to a
_________ mode with heavy streams to
optimize use of resources
"Hit and Run"
• Fire Fighting personnel shall _____ be placed
above ground on ______ ladders or during
elevated stream ops.
Not, aerial platforms
• ________ and ______ may withdrawal from
any emergency situation which poses a threat to
their safety
Officers and Personnel
➢ Body Armor shall be put on prior to leaving the
station or staging area. Body armor shall be
worn under your turnout coat in a manner that it
will not be seen
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➢ Law Enforcement Security/Escort shall be
provided during Phase III and may be provided
during Phase II Tactical Alerts through the
jurisdictional law enforcement agency
• Ladder Trucks without __________ shall not be
utilized in civil disturbance Tactical alert areas
enclosed tiller Cabs
• During ________ Tactical Alert units shall
consider alternate response routes. Units shall
respond under red light and siren to and from
incidents. Discontinuing the use of red lights
and siren on responses is authorized where such
use would cause unwanted attention or impact
public safety
Phase III
• Securing tools and equipment shall be relocated
in compartments and no apparatus shall be left
unattended. _________ Apparatus should be
removed as soon as possible from any station
required to be evacuated
Reserve
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Fire station security during a response:
1. Doors and windows locked
2. Windows coverings closed
3. Lights left on
4. Fuel pumps off
5. Court yards shall be closed and locked
Station Evacuation - In addition to windows
closed, lights left on, fuel pumps off, and court
yards closed and locked the following shall be
done:
1. Electric power shut off
2. Remove Safety clothing
3. Notify jurisdictional law enforcement for
security for the site
• Radio Standby shall be instituted by Command
and Control and maintained in Phase ____
Tactical Alert
III
• All Bn Headquarters sites shall be notified of
the reporting locations of relief personnel
whose administrative sites are located within a
Tactical Alert Area by ______ hours by E mail
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1800
During Phase III Tactical Alert, personnel may
phone any battalion headquarters to determine
their reporting location after ________
2000
➢ At No Time will the Dept tolerate of condone
on duty members carrying firearms or bringing
them on to departments sites
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APPENDIX I
• Assigning of emergency incident dispatching,
unit assignment, and resource deployment to
local jurisdictional Chief Officers is known as
_________
Area Command
➢ Extraction: A FD request for immediate
protection and escort removal by law
enforcement units of resources whose safety is
threatened due to a civil disturbance. A request
for an extraction by FD units is a first priority
response by law enforcement
• Tactical Alert is divided into three Phases
representing ______ (Phase I), _______ (Phase
II), _______ (Phase III)
Planning, Mobilization, Incident
Operations
11.5.2-PERSONNEL SAFETY DURING CIVIL
DISTURBANCES 7/01/93
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• When operating during conditions of civil
disturbances, the priorities of this department
are: (2)
Protection of Life
Protection of Property and Equipment
• Protection in Quarters: (6)
1. Maintain Station Security
2. Relocate Personnel
3. Keep Radio and Body Armor at Hand
4. Consider Apparatus Placement
5. Treat all threats as real
6. If an attack occurs: Request Command and
Control for law enforcement "Extraction"
• During Phase ___ tactical Alert Units shall
respond under red lights and siren to and from
incidents in the civil disturbances area
III
➢ Personnel shall wear the fire helmet and brush
jacket on all EMS responses and full turnouts
going to and from other emergencies. Body
armor shall be worn under safety clothing
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➢ Individuals shall not approach or enter the
structure alone
• A “____” or “______” operational approach
shall be utilized where by no member or unit
operates or works alone at an emergency
Team, Buddy
• Apartment and Hotel Safety Procedures. When
using elevators, do not go to the designated
floor if the call is of a violent nature. Consider
going to the _________ the incident and using
the stairs for the remaining distance
floor below
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CHAPTER 6 – MASS TRANSIT SYSTEM PROCEDURES
11.6.1 METRO BLUE LINE INCIDENTS
4/1/97
• The grade crossings are automatically activated
when the train is about ____ feet from a
crossing. The time between warning device
activation and train arrival is approximately ___
seconds
500’, 20
• Passenger Stations: There are 22 passenger
stations along the Metro Blue Line route. ____
of which are within the jurisdiction of the LA
CO FD.
5
A dry standpipe system consisting of a double 2
1/2” fire department connection, located at
ground level, and a single _____ fire hose valve
located at platform level.
2 1/2”
• Communications with the Metro Rail's Central
Control Facility is possible by pushing the
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button at the ___________________. The
panel is set on a timer and will last ___ minutes
and is for emergency assistance
Emergency Assistance Panel, 3
The __________ has an illuminated blue light
and a red security box. The light only indicates
the location of the box not whether the power is
on or off
Emergency Trip Station
Trains on the Metro Blue Line are powered by
____ volts distributed to the cars by the
Overhead Catenary System
750
• Traction Power Substations (TPSS) can be
located by the __________ on the roof of the
structure.
Blue Light
Emergency Trip Station (ETS), located at
TPSS, when activated immediately de energizes
that substation and the
____________________________
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Adjacent substation in either direction
• The Central Control Facility can completely
remove power in a specific area quickly
through remote control of all ______________
Traction Power Substations
• Traction Power Substations should be
considered __________ at all times
energized
• Emergency Trip Stations are located at Traction
Power Substations and identified by a ____
light, which is visible above the roof of the
TPSS structure
blue
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• The ________ at Central Control Facility must
be notified by using the telephone in the ETS
whenever power is taken down and the
emergency stop button is pushed
Train Controllers
The Overhead Catenary System (OCS) contains
what four independent components:
1. Messenger Wire (Supports and energizes
the contact wire)
2. Hanger (Provide spacing between the
messenger and contact wires)
3. Contact Wire (Power to the train is
accomplished through contact between the
pantograph and contact wire)
4. Catenary Pole (Constant tension is made by
sliding weights within catenary poles)
The ______ is an articulating electric power
collection device fixed atop the metro car
Pantograph
➢ The height of the overhead centenary system
varies from 18 to 22 feet.
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• What is the seating capacity
200
Braking distance, non emergency, at 55 mph to
full stop is within ____ ft
750
• The maximum speed is _____ mph
55
There are ____ sliding doors on each side of the
light rail car. The interior Emergency Door
Releases are located over each set of passenger
doors. Doors may be opened by pulling down
on the red “__” handle
4, T
• There are ___ emergency door releases on the
exterior of each car:
2
• Emergency door releases are located on the
right front side of both “A” and “B” ends of
each car just below the operator’s cab. The
panel is normally opened by a metro car
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operator’s key. Emergency personnel may
open this panel without key by using a
________
pen or pencil
Windows: All exterior windows are made of
polycarbonate (Lexan) materials. Entry through
these windows may be gained by using a _____
saw (with carbide tip blade) or by removing the
weather stripping.
Rotary
The Pantograph is extended under 22 lbs of
spring tension and can be lowered electronically
from the operator's cab or manually via pump.
The pump is located under the _____ forward
facing seat (left hand side) or cars "A" section.
second
• The batteries are nickel cadmium located under
the cars right side behind the skirting on the
“B” end. The battery supplies the interior
lighting system, doors and the unit for raising
and lowering the _______
Pantograph
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11.6.2 – METROLINK PROCEDURES
10/15/98
• The Metrolink rail service is owned by the
Southern California Regional Rail Authority
and is operated under contract by ______.
Amtrak
➢ Diesel Electric Locomotives: They are
equipped with a 3000 horsepower turbo charged
engine that drives the main generator which
converts mechanical energy to electrical energy.
The 600 volts of DC provided by the generator
drive the traction motors
➢ Each Locomotive is equipped with a secondary
diesel electric system referred to as the Head
Power Unit (HEP). This system provides hotel
power.
• The (HEP) system produces 480 volts AC to
both right and left sides of passenger cars.
Electrical controls for this system are located in
the ___ of the locomotive and control area of
the cab car
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cab
• Air Brake and Electrical Safety hazards: The
exterior area between the joined locomotives
and/or the passenger cars is where ___ PSI air
brake service hoses and ___ volt electrical
power jumper cables are located. DO NOT
REMOVE OR ATTEMPT TO REMOVE
THESE CABLES
140, 480
• Only trained ________ members can safely de-
energize Head End Power and remove or install
power cables
Metrolink crew
➢ If an electrical hazard does not exist, do not
shut down the diesel engine of either the
locomotive or the Head End Power Unit. Train
electrical power will provide lighting and power
for electrical door operation, making evacuation
easier
➢ Access to the cab areas is achieved through the
cab doors or cab windows
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• Fuel spills are a serious hazard and diesel
engines must be shut down as soon as possible
by Metrolink crew members. In emergency
situations this may be accomplished by
depressing either of the “________” located
above the fuel tank
Engine Fuel Cut Off Switches
Metrolink trains normally consist of one
locomotive coupled with ___ to ___ bi level
commuter cars. The bi level commuter cars are
present in two different configurations, a trailer
car and a cab car.
3, 7
• From the exterior of the train the cab car may
be identified by: (2)
1. The letter “F” near the engineer’s window
2. The presence of the 5 chime air horn and
the headlights located above the end door
Occupant load: The seating capacity is 146
occupants for the trailer car and 134 occupants
for the cab car. The maximum occupant
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capacity (“crush load”) is ___ passengers per
car.
360
• Electrical service is supplied with ___ volts AC
via the head end power unit of the locomotive.
480
• The exterior hazards to emergency personnel
are the _____ and the area between the coupled
cars and/or locomotives. These areas contain
the 140 psi air brake service hoses and the 480
volt, head end poser jumper cables.
nickel cadmium batteries
Access to Bi Level Commuter Cars: There are
three routes for access and egress of the Bi
Level commuter cars:
End doors
Side doors
Windows
➢ End Doors: Trailer car end doors open from the
exterior by means of a simple lever type door
latch. From the interior, it is necessary to
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release a safety latch to enable the door lever to
function
Side Doors: During emergency operations side
doors may be operated by locating the
emergency door release, located at each door
either outside or inside. To make access break
the Lexan cover plate and pull the _______.
red ring
➢ Side Doors: In order to open the other half of
the door, then manual control valve which is
located behind the steel panel adjacent to the
door access must be actuated to release the
pneumatic control
• Each Bi Level commuter car has ___interior
emergency exit windows. Four on the upper
level and four on the lower level on each side of
the car.
16
All windows in the commuter cars are
constructed of _____. Interior emergency exit
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windows are identified by a _______ at the
window molding.
Lexan Polycarbonate, red ring
• There are five exterior emergency windows on
side of car, three on the upper level and two on
the lower level. Identification of the exterior
windows is made by the _______ in the
molding strip.
Split
Electrical Hazard: Breaching the walls or roof
of the cars is ___ an option due to the double
wall construction and 480 volt cable routing
inside the car.
not
• All Bi level commuter cars are equipped with a
fire extinguisher and emergency tools
consisting of: (4)
Hand saw, two mallets, an axe, pry
bar
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• The ________ is the most accurate means to
relay the actual incident location to the railroad
and other responding agencies
milepost reference
Milepost references: Generally a post with a
number placard. Mileage references may also
be obtained from placards attached to ______,
_______, and ______
Signals, crossing gates, signal houses
• _______: There is one other means of
identifying a section of railroad and that is by
the name of the immediate block the incident is
located. Railroads are broken into sections
known as blocks.
Block Signs
Reporting: In addition to following Department
standard reporting formats personnel should
also report the: (3)
a) Milepost number
b) Access routes
c) Type of train
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Notifications shall be made through Command
and Control as soon as possible and should
include the following information: (5)
a) Name of the home railroad
b) Mile Marker or street name
c) Type of incident
d) Type of request
e) Estimated duration time
CHAPTER 7 – WATER RESCUE
11.7.1 WATER RESCUE INCIDENTS
12/1/94
• Under the County of Los Angeles Multi-Hazard
Functional Plan for Emergency Operations, the
Fire Department is given primary responsibility
for _____________ operations in the event of
flooding, dam failure, and tsunamis.
Search and Rescue
➢ The Incident Commander is responsible for:
1. Providing initial size up, initiating the IC
Procedures
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2. Requesting response of additional personnel
and equipment for search and rescue
operations as needed
3. Taking necessary action to prevent life loss
in a manner consistent with this instruction
and Depart. Policy
4. The overall coordination of multi agencies
and emergency operations
5. The assignment of additional units to
downstream strategic positions in
accordance with waterway rescue preplans
and as conditions dictate
• Who is responsible for the recovery of dead
bodies and searches in mountainous, remote
and designated areas (with requested assistance
provided by the Fire Department?)
The Sheriff's Department
Who has overall responsibility for a blue water
incident?
The Coast Guard "SRU" (Search and
Rescue Unit)
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• Strategic priorities: When dealing with water
rescue incidents the priorities of this
Department are listed below: (4)
1. Protection of Life
2. Effecting rescue and assistance to survivors
3. Provide notification and assistance to other
divisions and/or agencies
4. Scene Control as required to isolate non-
emergency personnel not involved in the
rescue.
SAFETY
➢ Entering the water: Personnel shall conduct
rescue operations from the shore, helicopter, or
a boat, whenever possible. When obvious
hazards exist firefighters shall not enter the
water except as a last resort to save lives
• Hazardous Operations: Under no
circumstances are lives to be risked for the
purpose of ___________, ______________
operations, or any other activity not essential
for protection of life.
body recovery, sandbagging
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• Downstream Safety: A _____________
Position shall be established at all sites for the
protection of rescuers and victims.
Downstream Safety
________________: An upstream
safety/lookout position shall be established at
all swift water rescue sites to warn of dangerous
debris in the water which might strike rescuers
and victims.
Upstream Safety/Lookout
• Tactical Priorities: Surf Rescue: (4)
1. Support lifeguards, U.S. Coast Guard or
Harbor Patrol if at scene
2. Search for victim from shore, utilizing air
squads, Coast Guard, and boats as
necessary. In water searches left to the
discretion of personnel at scene
3. Attempt rescue if necessary
4. Provide medical aid
• Tactical Priorities: Lakes, Reservoirs, etc.: (4)
1. Support Lifeguards, if at scene
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2. Search for victim from shore, utilizing air
squads and boats as necessary
3. Attempt rescue if necessary
4. Provide medical aid
• Tactical Priorities: Swiftwater/FloodRescue:
(5)
1. Initial Size Up
2. Initial Action Plan:
a. Request sufficient equipment
b. Search for victim(s)
c. Attempt rescue
3. Provide medical aid
4. Termination of operations
5. Demobilization
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➢ Tactical Priorities: Blue Water Rescue
(Incidents on the Open Water)
1. The first arriving company shall assume I.C.
and initiate site assessment, which may
include identifying the incident location
2. Provide effective lighting. Units should not
activate blue lights until arriving on scene
3. Initiate the retrieval of survivors from the
water onto rescue boats and floating
platforms. As necessary, deploy rescue
swimmers and flotation for rescue
4. Triage and medical aid
5. Transportation of survivors to shore side
6. Fire suppression as needed
7. Preservation of wreckage as needed.
➢ Blue lights are standard marine signal lights to
identify the incident
• Standard Response-Rescues in Lakes,
Reservoirs, Etc.
1 Engine Company
1 Paramedic Ground Squad
1 Air Squad
1 Battalion Chief
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Jurisdictional Lifeguards and other agencies
as listed on the Area Response Form.
➢ Volume 10 Swift Water/Channel Rescue
Response
5 Engines
1 Truck
1 Squad
2 Air Squads
1 USAR Task Force
1 Swift Water Rescue
1 BC
STANDARD RESPONSE AREA – BLUE
WATER RESCUE
• The Primary jurisdictional - Blue Water Rescue
Response Area is
Marina Del Rey area as dispatched by
Command and Control.
• The Secondary jurisdictional - Blue Water
Rescue Response Area is
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Santa Monica Bay area as approved by the
OPS Bureau Deputy Chief and/or the after
hours duty chief.
➢ Standard Response Area - Blue Water Rescue -
Responses outside of the primary and secondary
areas shall be approved by the Operations Chief
Deputy, Fire Chief, or duty Deputy Chief.
• Procedures: Strategic priorities (3)
1. Protection of Rescuers
2. Search for Victims
3. Rescue of Victims
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PROCEDURES
Rescue of victim’s methods listed in order of
preference: (4)
a) Shore base rescues first when possible
b) Boats or helicopters
c) Rescue - FF's in the H20 as support for
lifeguards etc
d) Contact rescue in the water by FF's. This
should be attempted only as a last resort
SAFETY
➢ Ropes: No ropes shall be tied around the waist,
torso, or any other part of a rescuers body when
the rescuer is exposed to moving water
• Personnel should not be attached to any rope
system unless it can be assured that the rescuer
shall not enter the water, or unless they are
using an approved _____-_______ attachment.
quick-release
Low Head Dams: Personnel shall not enter the
danger zone of a low head dam for any reason.
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• A ______ and ____ Safety position shall be
established whenever personnel are attempting
rescue in moving water.
Downstream, Upstream
• The Danger Zone of Low Head Dams are: (3)
a) The area upstream of the dam
b) The area between the face of the dam and
the boil line
c) The area immediately downstream of the
boil line
➢ Work boots or turnout boots (without turnout
pants) are permitted for support positions out of
the water
• Prohibited Items: When working in a position
where personnel may slip or fall into moving
water, the following items shall not be worn
unless such items are required for firefighting
or other specific hazards:
a. ________
b. _________
c. SCBA
Turnout Coats, Turnout Pants
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➢ The final decision to wear Structural FF
Helmets shall be left to the individual
performing the rescue when personnel are in the
water for rescue support
COMMAND
• For incidents in moving water, Incident
Commanders shall anticipate the need to make
division assignments to cover the large
geographic areas which might be involved.
Effective divisions may include (2)
1. Linear sections of a waterway and/or
2. The two shore lines (river left and river
right)
• When referring to the two shore lines, you will
call them river ______ and river _________.
left and right
COMMAND POST LOCATIONS
• Possible Command Post locations for water
rescue incidents should be identified on: (4)
1. Waterway Rescue Preplans
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2. Station Flood Preparedness Plans
3. Flood/Dam Failure Assessment
4. Blue Water Rescue Preplans
SURF RESCUE
• Tactical Priorities: Surf Rescue:
1. Support Lifeguards, US Coast Guard etc
2. Search for Victim
3. Rescue
4. Provide Medical aid
• The Fire Departments primary role is to provide
__________ and support _________ operations
by lifeguards, the U.S. Coast Guard, Harbor
Patrol, etc.
medical aid, search and rescue
➢ If contact rescue is necessary and lifeguards are
not available, the decision to enter the water
shall be left to the discretion of personnel at
scene.
LAKES, RESERVIORS, ETC..
• Tactical Priorities: (4)
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1. Support Lifeguards when they are at scene
2. If the victim is missing, initiate a search
3. Rescue
4. Provide Medical Aid
SWIFTWATER RESCUE
Swiftwater Rescue: The Size Up Report shall
include:
a) Location of the victim, or location where
the victim was last seen
b) Conditions at scene-H20 depth, speed
c) Assessment of hazards to personnel (debris,
low head dams, etc.)
d) Initial action and instructions to incoming
units. This shall be based on any H20
preplans and conditions
➢ The Initial Action Plan shall include:
1. Request for sufficient assistance
2. Search for Victims
3. Rescue
4. Provide Medical Aid
5. Termination of the incident
6. Demobilization
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• The ______ is responsible for searches in
mountainous, remote, and designated areas.
The Fire Dept. is responsible for providing
support as needed with search operations,
assisting with rescue, and providing medical aid
Sheriff Department
• The IC shall coordinate the rescue effort or
assign that responsibility to another officer.
The officer in charge or rescue operations shall
assure that ________ is provided
Downstream safety
• _______ shall be responsible for termination of
search and rescue operations. Search
operations are to continue as long as there is
reason to suspect that victims may still be alive.
IC
➢ Demobilization: Normally, upstream units will
be released first, followed by downstream units
in descending order
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• _____________: Water related accidents,
disasters or catastrophes which in the open
waters of LA County
Blue Water Rescue Incident
• _____________: A Fire Department resource
consisting of a minimum of two certified rescue
swimmers trained in the deployment of flotation
devices and recovery of survivors at a water
rescue incident and a safety person remaining
on the vessel
Blue Water Rescue Unit
11.7.2 MARINE DISASTERS
1/1/98
➢ The Department is a participating agency in the
Los Angeles International Airport (LAX)
Air/Sea Disaster Plan.
______________________ is responsible for
incident coordination and the waters adjacent to
Los Angeles County.
United States Coast Guard Group LA/Long
Beach
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• The U.S.C.G is assigned as the Federal Search
and Rescue _______________
Mission Coordinator
• _______________ shall determine the type and
general location of the incident. Interpret the
initial report and classified the event as a
Marine Incident or a Marine Disaster.
Command and Control
• The first arriving marine base unit on scene
shall act as the ___________.
On Scene Commander (OSC)
➢ The OSC is responsible for recommending the
appropriate shoreside evacuation site.
Upon arrival of a United States Coast Guard
surface Search and Rescue Unit (SRC), the On
Scene Commander (OSC) shall ____ command
to the USCG
Transfer
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• The first arriving shore based unit at the
designated Evacuation site shall act as the
____________ (CJIC).
Civil Jurisdictional Incident Commander
• The CJIC shall request Command and Control
to dispatch a ____________ when their
Evacuation site is within this Department's
jurisdiction.
Marine Evacuation Response
• The Civil Jurisdictional Incident Commander is
responsible for: (4)
1. Shoreline Incident Command
2. Multi casualty operations
3. Coordinating evacuation site security with
local law enforcement
4. Communication coordination
• A Safety Officer shall be designated for the
_________ emergency scene and the _______
evacuation site
Marine, shoreside
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• Incident Priorities at as a Marine Disaster are:
(3)
1. Protection of life
2. Protection and Conservation of the
environment
3. Protection of property and equipment
• It is the responsibility of the ______ to
determine when the water entry is safe and
personnel shall enter the water only with their
approval
Rescue Vessel Operator
• The decision to deploy rescue personnel from a
helicopter will rest with the helicopter pilot,
inconjunction with the ________
On Scene Commander
➢ Because of the complex nature and numerous
agencies involved, Marine Disasters require the
use of Unified Command
• Minor Marine Disaster < 9 victims
3 Lifeguard Rescue Boats
1 Fire Boat
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2 Helicopters/Air Squads
1 BC
1 Dive Rescue Unit
1 USAR Unit
1 Lifeguard Captain
2 Lifeguard Lieutenants
3 Lifeguard Rescue Vehicles
• Major Marine Disaster > 10
5 Lifeguard Rescue Boats
1 Fire Boat
3 Helicopters/Air Squads
2 BC
1 Assistant Chief
1 Dive Rescue Unit
1 USAR unit
2 Lifeguard Captains
4 Lifeguard Lieutenants
3 Lifeguard Rescue Vehicles
• Marine Evacuation Standard Response:
dispatched for a Marine Evacuation at a shore
based evacuation site within this Department
jurisdiction shall be:
4 Engines
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1 Truck
1 Squad
1 Ambulance
1 BC
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MARINE OPERATIONS
• Tactical Priorities for Marine operations are: (4)
a) Locate incident/Size Up
b) Search and rescue operations
c) Rapid Transport of survivors and victims to
the evacuation site
d) Scene security
• The first arriving marine unit shall act as the On
Scene Commander and provide a size up to
Command and Control and the US Coast Guard
Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator. Size
up shall include: (5)
1. Type of vessel/aircraft involved
2. Approximate number of survivors/victims
3. Latitude and longitude
4. On scene weather/sea conditions
5. Recommended evacuation site
• The On Scene Commander (OSC) shall take
action, provide for personnel safety, and request
additional resources as needed. Upon arrival of
the Coast Guard surface Search and Rescue
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Unit (SRU), command of the on scene marine
units shall be ______
transferred
➢ All incident SRU’s shall be under the command
of the OSC. The OSC shall report to the SMC
on the designated marine frequency.
Responding Marine units shall activate
________ when on scene
blue light
• Upon identifying the search/incident area, the
_______ of the Port shall establish a safety zone
to provide scene security and prevent non
essentials vessels from entering the area
USCG Captain
• Shore Based Operations: Tactical Priorities of
shore based operations: (5)
a) Shoreside Incident Command
b) Logistical support of Marine Disaster
Operations
c) Multi casualty operations
d) Communication coordination
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e) Scene security
• Tactical operations of Shore Base Rescues: the
highest ranking Chief/Company officer shall
assume the role of Civil jurisdiction IC when
the evacuation site is located within the
department's jurisdiction and request a
________
Marine Evacuation Response
➢ The C.J.I.C is responsible for shoreside Incident
Command and Marine Disaster logistical
support
➢ The CJIC shall coordinate multi-casualty
operations, including
1. Requesting additional FD units
2. Triage, treatment and transportation of the
survivors/victims
3. Establishing communications with the
Medical Alert Center via the HEAR radio
4. Requesting HERT teams when appropriate
➢ The CJIC shall request an incident
communications plan through Command and
Control that may include:
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1. Command Channel
2. Marine Tactical Channel
3. Shore based Tactical Channel
4. Air to Ground Channel
5. Medical Group Tactical Channel
• The C J I C, in cooperation with the local law
enforcement shall establish a site exclusion
perimeter with a designated ______ and media
press area
traffic plan
APPENDIX I
• The Commander USCG Group Los Angeles
Long Beach is known as the _______
Captain of the Port
• _______________: The Chief/company officer
from the local jurisdictional agency responsible
for shoreside Incident Command and
Evacuation Site Operations
Civil Jurisdiction, Incident Commander
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• ______________: 32 foot rescue boat equipped
for water rescue, diving, medical rescue, and
fire suppression and dewatering operations
Lifeguard Rescue Boat
• ___________: Significant marine emergency,
involving a marine vessel of aircraft with 9
victims or less
Minor Marine Disaster
• ________________: Significant Marine
Emergency, involving a marine vessel or
aircraft with___ victims or more.
Major Marine Disaster, 10
• ___________: The commander of the first
arriving marine unit or the commander of the
USCG surface SRU assigned to coordinator
Marine Operations
On Scene Commander (OSC)
• _______________: The Commander USCG
Group Los Angeles –Long Beach assigned to
coordinator and control the rescue effort until
its conclusion
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Search Mission Coordinator (SMC)
• _____________: Surface vessel or aircraft
staffed with trained personnel and provided
with equipment suitable for expeditious conduct
of a search and rescue mission
Search and Rescue Unit (SRU)
• Where is the County of Los Angeles Fire
Department Evacuation site for a marine
disaster
Marina Del Rey
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CHAPTER 8 – EARTHQUAKE PROCEDURES
11.8.1 EARTHQUAKE PROCEDURES
01/01/96
Company Officers/Helicopter Pilots are
responsible for:
1. Supervising a safe evacuation of the site
2. Implementing the rescue of injured persons
at the site
3. Assessing the availability of all emergency
equipment at the site
4. Assessing and reporting the information
gathered in the Site Survey
5. Completing a Primary and/or Secondary
Jurisdictional Survey
6. Reporting Jurisdictional Survey results
7. The triage and management of all reported
alarms
8. Recording and documenting response
activity and actions
➢ Battalion Commanders are responsible for:
1. Communicating Earthquake intensity
Rating Level
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2. Establishing a Battalion Command Post
when operating in Dispatch Modes 2,3,4
3. Gathering and reporting jurisdictional
survey to FCCF and AC
4. Establishing Field Command during
Dispatch Mode 4
5. Staffing and coordinating PSAP when
directed by Command and Control
All decision making and action plans will be
based on the Department priorities of: (4)
a) Protecting life
b) Protecting property
c) Protecting the environment
d) Assisting other agencies
• Strategic priorities for helicopters shall be: (4)
a) Strategic reconnaissance
b) Medical evacuation
c) Crew shuttles
d) Personnel pick-ups
COMPANY STATUS AND SITE SURVEY
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Company Status and Site Survey: When an
earthquake occurs, the site supervisor and/or
company officer shall: (7)
1. Ensure the safety of all personnel
2. Direct movement of apparatus to a safe
location
3. Immediately notify Command and Control
that an earthquake has occurred
4. Go on radio and MDT standby
5. Determine status of facility
6. Direct a Site Survey,
7. Report the Site Survey to Battalion
Commander with 15 minutes
When an earthquake occurs the Site Survey
results are given to the jurisdictional BC with
___ min. of the event.
15
• Jurisdictional survey shall be completed when:
(3)
a) When directed by FCCF
b) When any administration site in their
battalion has experienced an earthquake
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with an intensity rating of a level 2 or
greater
c) When directed by the jurisdictional BC.
Primary Jurisdictional Surveys shall be
conducted Code R and completed in less than
________ minutes.
thirty
Company Officers shall report jurisdictional
survey information to the Battalion Commander
within _____ or immediately upon completion
of the respective survey
30 minutes
➢ Secondary Jurisdictional Surveys shall be
completed when additional resources are
assigned to the area or as soon as possible after
the completion of the Primary Jurisdictional
Survey
Battalion Command: BC's shall report the
FCCF the Earthquake Intensity Rating Level for
there immediate location within __ minutes.
5
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BC's shall be prepared to establish a battalion
command post with __ minutes of and
earthquake and/or ALL Call notification.
15
• Company Status: Once personnel are
accounted for, the company officer or site
supervisor shall: (4)
a. Direct the movement of all apparatus to the
“Apparatus Safety Zone”
b. Direct personnel to determine the status of
the site/facility
c. Direct personnel to go on radio standby
d. Direct a Site Survey
• Company officers shall direct a Site Survey to
determine: (4)
1. Injuries to personnel
2. Availability of company or unit
3. Availability of other resources at the site
4. Damage to the administrative site structures
using the EQ Intensity Rating Level Scale
Earthquake Intensity Rating Level Scale: (6)
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Level 0 Nothing felt
Level 1 EQ felt, no damage
Level 2 Windows broke
Level 3 Block walls down
Level 4 Structures shifted off foundations
Level 5 Structural collapse
Site survey shall be reported within 15 minutes
using the following communications priorities
to the BC:
a) MDT (Send to both the Battalion
Commander vehicle and Battalion
Headquarters Station)
b) Assigned tactical frequency
c) Assigned TRO frequency (direct mode first,
then repeater)
d) Telephone
e) Relay via field units
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Site Survey: When unable to contact the BC or
the Battalion HQ's for 15 minutes contact FCCF
using the following communications priorities:
1. Blue 4 (repeat)
2. MDT to "LA"
3. Telephone
4. TAC 3
• The Site Survey report should be an exception
type of report only problems or deviations form
the norm should be reported. The report format
should contain the following information: (5)
a) The station or unit reporting
b) The availability of apparatus
c) The earthquake Intensity rating if 2 or
greater
d) Any injuries to personnel
e) Any serious damage to the facility
BC's or Battalion HQ personnel shall report to
FCCF and Division HQ’s after all stations have
reported. If all sites have not reported, report
available information within ________ minutes.
Follow up with a complete report after all sites
have reported.
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twenty (20)
• If unable to contact the jurisdictional Battalion
Commander: The company officer or site
supervisor shall report the information to the
appropriate __________
Battalion Headquarters
• If unable to contact the appropriate Bn
Headquarters after __ minutes, contact
Command and Control directly.
15
• If a company fails to report their Site Survey,
the Battalion Commander shall:
Assign Resources as Needed to Complete
Site Survey
The BC or BN Headquarters will report survey
results to Command and Control using the
following communication priorities: (4)
a) Blue 4 (Repeat Mode)
b) MDT to “LA”
c) Telephone
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d) TAC 3
• Companies Officers and or site supervisors
shall document all activities on ICS form ___.
214
• BC and Company Officers shall refer to the
_______ for Earthquake planning info. specific
to their jurisdiction
Emergency Information File
DISASTER COMMUNICATIONS PLAN
• Mode _ is normally the Department Dispatch
Mode and will be used initially. Individual
Bn.'s may operate in different dispatch Modes
dependent on their requirements
1
• FCCF will implement the Disaster
Communications plan when: (3)
a) FCCF experiences significant shaking
b) FCCF has been notified by a Site
Supervisor of an earthquake
c) The CUBE computer alarm was activated
due to an earthquake, either within LA Co.
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or in an area immediately adjacent to LA
Co., of magnitude ___ or greater
3.5
➢ When notified of an earthquake Command and
Control shall page all Battalion Commanders
AND request an immediate Earthquake
Intensity Rating Level from their location.
➢ If all Bn Commanders report a Level 1 or less,
Battalion Commanders shall be repaged and
informed that the earthquake registered a Level
1 or less throughout Los Angeles County and to
continue to operate in Dispatch Mode 1
• FCCF will activate an MDT "ALL CALL"
when there has been and reported Level __
intensity rating reported by a Bn Commander or
CUBE computer identifies an Earthquake
magnitude of ___ or greater either within Los
Angeles County or in an area immediately
adjacent to Los Angeles County.
2, 4.5
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• If the damage is localized or sporadic, only the
battalions reporting a Level 2 or greater will be
instructed to operated in Dispatch Mode _____
2
• Battalions operating in Dispatch Mode 2 shall
be directed to complete a _________
Primary Jurisdictional Survey
• If communications cannot be established with
Command and Control, the BN. Commander
shall immediately implement _____________,
Dispatch Mode __ including the staffing of
local PSAP's Public Safety Answering Points
Field Command, 4
DISPATCH MODE
The Disaster Communications plan has (4)
Dispatch Modes:
a) Mode 1 – Normal Dispatching
b) Mode 2 – Central Command, single
resources
c) Mode 3 – District Command, responses
prioritized by jurisdictional companies
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d) Mode 4 – Field Command, Bn Commander
establishes communications with PSAP
• Reduced response levels prioritized by
Command and Control, which is Mode _ also
referred to as ___________. Reduce response
levels to single resources for each incident and
dispatch using the MDT with limited voice on
the assigned TRO frequency only
2, Central Command
• In Mode 2 all units go on radio standby
monitoring: (3)
MDT, Assigned TRO, Assigned Tactical
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• Mode ___: Command and Control will
dispatch resources using the MDT and limited
voice on the TRO frequency
2
➢ Mode 2: The company officer shall advise the
Battalion Commander of any significant
working incident. Battalion Commanders shall
establish a Battalion Command Post, and will
not be responded on incidents by Command and
Control
• District response prioritization and frequency
modification occurs during Mode _, also
referred as _________. Command and Control
will send all responses to the jurisdictional
companies for prioritization and implement Bn.
earthquake frequencies
3, District Command
• During Mode 3 Communications the
_____________ shall prioritize and handle
outstanding incidents, documenting all actions.
Company Officer
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During Mode _ also referred to as __________,
each battalion must function on its own. All
communications between Command and
Control and the field have failed.
4, Field Command
• During Mode 4 the Battalion Commander shall
establish communication with the local
___________ (PSAPs).
Public Safety Answering Points
Battalion Commanders shall perform all the
functions normally associated with Command
and Control including the dispatch or resources,
tracking of resources and the documentation of
emergency activities
• Bn. Commanders shall utilize the following
communication priorities to dispatch resources
within their battalions:
a) Assigned TRO frequency (direct mode first,
then repeat mode)
b) Assigned tactical frequency
c) ___________
Relay via field units
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• Company officers should use the following
communications priorities to report both site
and jurisdictional survey results to Bn.
Commanders and/or Bn. Headquarters
personnel
1. MDT
2. Tactical Frequency
3. TRO frequency (Direct than Repeat)
4. __________
5. Relay via field units
telephone
• Bn. Commanders and/or Bn. HQ. Personnel
should use the following communications
priorities to report both site and jurisdictional
survey information to Command and Control
1. ___________
2. MDT to "LA"
3. Telephone
4. Tac 3
Blue 4 (Repeat Mode)
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Battalion Commanders should use the
following communications priorities to request
resources from Command and Control
a) Assigned TRO Frequency
b) MDT to “LA”
c) Telephone
d) Blue 4 (Repeat Mode)
JURISDICTIONAL SURVEY
Jurisdictional Surveys shall be performed by all
stations within a battalion when any
administrative site within the battalion registers
a level _, directed by Command and Control, or
by the ___________.
2, Battalion Commander
The _____________ shall be started
IMMEDIATELY upon the completion and
reporting of the Site Survey.
Primary Jurisdictional Surveys
• Primary Jurisdictional Survey: The information
desired is the status of _________ hazard
occupancies only
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high life
• All primary jurisdictional surveys will be
conducted Code R and completed in less than
________ minutes.
thirty (30)
• The Company officer shall only interrupt a
Primary Jurisdictional Survey to respond to an
__________ life threatening incident. Assume
Command of incident and report it to _______
and the ___________
immediate, FCCF, BC
• Company officers shall forward their Primary
Jurisdictional Survey information to their
________ immediately upon completion.
Battalion Commander
• The information desired during a Secondary
Jurisdictional Survey is: (5)
1. Status of essential facilities
2. Status of major transportation arteries
3. Impact area
4. Additional resource needs
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5. Other significant information
➢ Jurisdictional Survey reports shall be made
using the following communications priorities:
1. MDT
2. Assigned Tactical Frequency
3. Assigned TRO (Direct than Repeat)
4. Telephone
5. Relay Via Field Units
6. Helicopter Jurisdictional Survey reports to
FCCF via TAC 3
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Secondary Jurisdictional Survey: If unable to
contact the appropriate Bn. HQ. after ___
minutes, contact Command and Control directly
using the following communications priorities:
1. Blue 4 (Repeat Mode)
2. _______
3. ______
4. Tac 3
15 min, MDT to "LA", Telephone,
➢ If a company reports that they are unable to
complete a Jurisdictional Survey, the Battalion
Commander shall assign resources as needed to
complete the Jurisdictional Survey.
• Secondary Jurisdictional Survey. If all
battalion sites have not reported there
Jurisdictional Survey, report to Command and
Control what information is available within __
minutes to expedite the Department Planning
process.
30
• The company officer shall record all non life
threatening incident information on ICS form
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____ for timely response after the Jurisdictional
Survey is completed
214
OFF DUTY PERSONNEL
➢ Damage is localized: If possible, platoon
personnel shall be recalled to cover for
employees who are on duty who live in the
areas most affected by earthquake damage.
• If damage is extensive and widespread “platoon
personnel” shall report the closest battalion
HQ's after stabilizing their family or within ___
hours of the event.
four
• The Employee Acknowledgment Form (Form
639) the order of assignment is: (3)
a) The nearest Battalion Headquarters
b) The nearest Alternate Battalion
Headquarters
c) The nearest fire station
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• If unable to report the closest battalion HQ's the
following order of assignment is:
1. The nearest Alternate Battalion
Headquarters
2. The nearest fire station
BATTALION COMMAND
• In dispatch Mode 2 and 3 the Battalion
Commanders shall:
a. Establish a command post
b. Ensure the completion of all battalion Site
Surveys
c. Immediately report battalion Site Survey
information to Command and Control and
division headquarters. Report info within
__ minutes regardless if all sites have not
reported.
d. Ensure the completion of all battalion
jurisdictional surveys. Assign resources if a
company can’t complete survey
e. Report battalion jurisdictional survey
information to Command and Control an
Division. Report info within __ minutes
regardless if all sites have not reported
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f. Determine resource needs and forward the
request to Command and Control
g. Develop a written Incident Action Plan
using ICS form 201
h. Display the situation information
i. Establish an action item list
j. Monitor radio traffic
k. Develop an organization for the battalion
l. Oversee and modify as necessary the
utilization and dispatching of resources
m. Develop and implement a plan to utilize
convergent resources
n. Establish communications with assisting
agencies
o. Prepare to brief the Assistant Fire Chief
20, 30
In Dispatch Mode 4 (Field Command) the BC
shall handle all the duties associated with
Dispatch Mode 2 and 3, and the following
a. Establish communications with the local
Public Safety Answering Points, and staff
any local city EOC if necessary
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b. Obtain, gather and compile requests for
service
c. Prioritize all requests for service
d. Dispatch resources accordingly
e. Maintain the status of and track all
resources with the battalion
f. Maintain a record of all actions and
decisions
g. When a decision is made to terminate
Battalion Command, Command and Control
shall be informed of battalion resource
status
• In battalions where additional resources, more
than one (1) strike team are required, the
battalion will be _____ and an _________ will
be established.
Split, ICS Complex
APPENDIX I
➢ Battalion Command: Battalion commanders
will assume command responsibility for their
battalions, will not respond to individual
incidents and ensure adequate resources are
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responded to all emergency incidents within
their battalion jurisdiction.
➢ Field Command: Battalion commanders will
assume all the duties normally associated with
Command and Control, assume command
responsibility for their battalions, will not
respond to individual incidents and will insure
adequate resources are responded to all
emergency incidents within their battalion
jurisdiction.
• A program for providing real time earthquake
information to subscribers located outside on
the Seismological Laboratory at Caltech
(_._._._.)
C.U.B.E - Caltech/U.S. Geological Survey
Broadcast of Earthquakes
• Two or more individual incidents located in the
same general area which are assigned to a
single IC or to unified command. Define:
ICS Complex
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• Jurisdictional Survey - A survey of each
station's jurisdictional area to determine: (4)
1. Status of high life hazard occupancies
2. Status of essential facilities
3. Status of major transportation arteries
4. Other significant information
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• Site Survey: A survey of an administrative site
and resources to determine: (5)
a) The availability of company or unit
b) The availability of other resources at the site
c) Damage to the administrative site using the
Earthquake Intensity Rating Scale
d) Any injuries to personnel
e) Any serious damage to the site or facility
11.8.2 – TSUNAMI POLICY
11/12/13
➢ Near-source tsunamis present maximum
danger due to the potential size of the waves,
their rapid impact, lack of warning, and the
challenge of evacuating all potential victims to
high ground in 3 to 10 minutes.
• Magnitude ____or greater earthquakes are
considered the likely threshold for tsunami
generation. Localized tsunami action and
effects may continue for 24 to 48 hours.
7.0
• Company Officers are responsible for:
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1.The safety of their assigned personnel and equipment.
2.Establishing and maintaining Tsunami
Strategic Maps maintained in the
____________. 3.Conducting annual review of the Tsunami
Strategic Maps and this instruction with subordinates in October.
Emergency Information File
• Los Angeles Command and Control (LACC)
shall conduct an immediate “All Call” for all
local earthquakes over Magnitude ___ to notify
field units of the magnitude and epicenter prior
to a roll call of each battalion commander.
4.5
• LACC is responsible for notifying all chief
officers “All-Call” of Tsunami Watches,
Advisories and ________ with pertinent
information and updates including epicenter
and geographic location, ground shaking level,
and estimated arrival times.
Warnings
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➢ Department Operations Center (DOC) at
LACC shall be the initial incident planning
until coastal unified ICP’s can be established.
➢ Battalion/Section Chiefs are responsible for: 1.Conducting an annual review of tsunami
strategic maps in October 2.Establishing tsunami unified command
posts based on the LACo Operational Area Emergency Response Plan- Tsunami Annex.
3.Establishing a communications plan with LACC and ordering resources.
4.Anticipating the need for fire department coordination and plan to evacuate “special needs” populations.
5.Maintaining personnel accountability reporting (PAR).
6.Directing a coordinated airborne search and rescue operations over land and water after tsunami impact.
7.Directing post-impact waterborne search and rescue on the sea and inundated inland areas.
8.Determining when it is safe for emergency re-engagement to conduct life-saving operations in Tsunami Inundation Zones. This is not an “All Clear”. This is emergency engagement into tsunami impact areas to save lives, with (LCES) in place.
9.Directing strategic ground search and rescue operations, initially concentrating on vertical evacuation sites, and the “tsunami interface” to inundated areas.
10. Ensuring that LCES remains in place until it has been determined by the Unified Command that the tsunami event is over.
• All supervisors of fire stations, and lifeguard
facilities in Tsunami Inundation Zones are
responsible for the following: 1.Being familiar with the boundaries of
Tsunami Inundation Zones, (available on the Department website and the County of Los Angeles website), local tsunami
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evacuation routes, and designating high ground/safe zones included in the Emergency Information File.
2.Safe evacuation of personnel to the designated high ground/safe zones and relocating marine resources (Baywatch/fire boats), a minimum of one (1) mile offshore at least ___ minutes before the anticipated arrival of tele-tsunamis or severe tidal surges.
3.When strong sustained shaking (longer than ___seconds) is felt at the coast or when a magnitude 7.0 or greater offshore quake occurs, ensuring Depart. vessels are double-tied to moorings and personnel evacuated to the designated high ground/safe zones until it is determined no tsunamis exists.
4.Establishing and maintaining LCES. 5.Maintaining personnel accountability
reporting (PAR). 6.In coordination with the Incident
Commanders, initiate strategic re- engagement into tsunami impact zones to conduct targeted helicopter- based, boat-based, and ground-based search and rescue operations.
30 min, 20 sec
• Law enforcement agencies are responsible for
evacuation and the Department is responsible
for assisting with the evacuation of
“_________” populations (people and their
companion animals requiring physical
removal).
special needs
➢ The Unified Command (after appropriate
consultation with subject matter experts
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monitoring) is responsible in determining when
an “All Clear” shall be announced for the
operational areas.
• Incident Priorities:
1.Life Safety
2.Property
3.__________
4.Assisting other public safety agencies
Environment
➢ Near-Source Event (local earthquake):
Personnel in Tsunami Inundation Zones shall
immediately perform the following tasks in the
event of strong sustained earthquake shaking
exceeding 20 seconds at the coast, or Level 2 or
greater earthquake damage on the coast; or a
magnitude 7.0 or greater earthquake with an
offshore epicenter; or signs of ocean
disturbance indicating a tsunami condition, or a
formal tsunami warning following a coastal
quake.
1.Conduct a personnel accountability report
(PAR)
2. Respond Code 3 to a designated high
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ground/safe zone. Located in the
Emergency Information File
3.Fire boat personnel shall double-tie Dept
vessels to moorings and evacuate to a high
ground/safe zone.
4.Establish and maintain LCES, with a
lookout operating from a high ground/safe
zone and provide communication to ground
units in Tsunami Inundation Zones 5.Initially conduct a jurisdictional damage
survey of areas above 50’ elevation and out of the Tsunami Inundation Zone, with a visual survey of damage evident in the Tsunami Inundation Zone.
6.If the quake is determined to have occurred onshore, or it is determined to be less than magnitude 7.0 offshore; or if no tsunami or tidal surge is evident in the first 10 minutes, Department resources shall conduct normal post-quake operations (with appropriate surveillance for tidal surges).
• Tele-Tsunami Event: Upon issuance of a
Tsunami Warning for a distant event, company
officers shall move all personnel and equipment
to high ground/safe zones __ minutes prior to
projected arrival of tsunami or tidal surge.
Company officers may assume patrol status,
assist with “special needs” evacuation, and
conduct other emergency operations. All
Baywatch and fire boats shall be moved at least
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one mile off shore to their safe refuge area __
minutes prior to the projected arrival of tele-
tsunamis or severe tidal surge.
30, 30
LEVEL I: Tsunami Watch
➢ LACC shall make notifications and continue to
monitor the tsunami pager, the West Coast and
Alaska Tsunami Warning Center (WCATWC)
webs, and the California Integrated Seismic
Network, and provide updates to the Central
Region Operations Deputy Chief, the Duty
Deputy Chief and Duty AC, and the
Jurisdictional AC.
LEVEL II: Tsunami Advisory (IN
ADDITION TO ABOVE - Tsunami Watch)
➢ The Central Region Operations Deputy Chief or
the Duty Deputy Chief shall authorize LACC to
make the following notifications of the Tsunami
Advisory with pertinent information and
updates:
1.Executive Staff and Duty Chiefs
2.Tsunami SME’s
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3.“All Call” with MDT alarm to alert all field
personnel
4.Region I fire departments
5.Coastal assistant chief and lifeguard chief
6.Technical Operations section chief
7.Urban Search and Rescue (USAR)
Coordinator
8.CA-TF2 Coordinator
9.Haz Mat Coordinator
10. EMS Director
➢ Operations personnel assigned to
resources/administrative sites within a Tsunami
Inundation Zone and others as assigned shall:
1.Annually review the earthquake and
tsunami procedures located in the
Emergency Information File.
2.Conduct a jurisdictional survey to determine
potential life safety hazards Lifeguards
shall enforce beach, harbor, and marina
closures and restrictions, and warn/advise
beach patrons to stay off the beach.
3.Coordinate with law enforcement to
determine and plan evacuation of “special
needs” civilians as needed
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4.Prepare to move all personnel and apparatus
to high ground/safe zones based on
projected tsunami arrival.
5.Ops personnel may assist with beach and
harbor closures when tide height + expected
tsunami surge = greater than 5 feet.
6.All personnel and apparatus shall move to
high ground 30 minutes prior to projected
tsunami impact. Baywatch and fire boats
shall move to their safety zone one mile off
shore 30 minutes prior.
7.Decisions to restrict/close/evacuate beaches,
harbors, and marinas shall be made by the
Unified Command.
LEVEL III: Tsunami Warning (IN
ADDITION TO ABOVE)
➢ Personnel in Tsunami Inundation Zones shall:
1.Review earthquake and tsunami procedures
in the Emergency Information File.
2.Conduct a jurisdictional survey (Code 3 or
non-Code 3 depending on the tsunami
arrival time), to determine life safety
hazards, review escape routes, high
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ground/safe zones, and critical facilities.
3.Lifeguard resources shall enforce
restrictions and closures and direct people to
stay off rocks, jetties, etc..
4.Coordinate with law enforcement to plan
and conduct evacuation of special needs
civilians and animals.
5.Respond to high ground/safe zones at least
30 minutes prior to the anticipated tsunami
arrival. Baywatch and fire boats shall be in
place in their safety zone one (1) mile
offshore at least 30 minutes prior to
anticipated tsunami arrival. Baywatch/fire
boats may be called to emergencies while
staging off shore, and it shall be the
Baywatch or fire boat captain’s decision
whether to attempt emergency operations.
6.Based on projected incident specific
information and direction, assist with beach
and harbor closures.
7.Conduct harbor/beach restrictions, closures,
and evacuations based on direction from
Unified Command.
➢ Evacuations shall be coordinated with law
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enforcement. Public evacuation notifications
may be made using the following methods:
1.Airborne public address announcements
2.Public address announcements via land-
based units
3.Press releases
4.Alert LA (Reverse 911)
5.L.A. County Emergency Alert System
(EAS) and Emergency News Network
(ENN)
• Helicopters and boat resources should be
considered to initiate search and rescue
operations in the ocean, harbors, marinas, ports,
and inundated areas when conditions allow.
Depending on anticipated size and effects of
tsunami impact, USAR Task Forces, Swiftwater
Rescue Teams, Dive 1, the Swiftwater Rescue
Task Force, and/or other components of CATF-
2, Engine Strike Teams, Dozer Strike Teams,
Crew Strike Teams, Heavy Squads and medical
cache, Ambulance Strike Teams, MIRV, and
CA-TF2 deployments should be considered to
be in place ____minutes prior to anticipated
tsunami arrival.
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30
• Battalion chiefs and lifeguard section chiefs are
responsible for co-locating and establishing
Unified Incident Command Posts. Until coastal
unified ICP’s can be established, initial incident
command shall be the ___________ at LACC.
Department Operations Center (DOC)
LEVEL IV: Sustained Strong Coastal
Earthquake (20 seconds or longer) or Coastal
or Offshore Earthquake Magnitude 7.0 or
greater
➢ A Magnitude 7.0 or greater earthquake
originating on a coastal or offshore thrust fault
could potentially generate near-source tsunamis
that can strike the coast and Catalina Island
within as little as 3-15 minutes. Another danger
is the 2,600 feet high submarine cliffs located
one mile off the Palos Verdes Peninsula that
may collapse from any cause including local
onshore or offshore earthquakes, which would
displace enough water to generate a series of
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large tsunamis impacting the coast and Catalina
Island within minutes.
➢ Emergency personnel and civilians in potential
Tsunami Inundation Areas should immediately
evacuate to high ground/safe zones immediately
after strong sustained coastal shaking (20
seconds or longer) and/or a Magnitude 7.0 or
greater offshore earthquake.
1.Personnel shall establish LCES and observe
for signs of impending tsunami or severe
tidal surge for 15-20 minutes. All field
units in Tsunami Inundation Zones shall
conduct their initial site and jurisdictional
surveys from high ground.
2.If there are no signs of a tsunami within 15
to 20 minutes, it should be assumed that no
near-source tsunamis have been generated.
Company officers with concurrence of
battalion or section chiefs consider
returning to complete the damage survey
after “All Clear” has been determined.
3.Baywatch and fire boat units that are
already offshore at the time of the event
shall respond to deep water a minimum of
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one (1) mile offshore after strong sustained
shaking (20 seconds or longer), or if a
Magnitude 7.0 or greater coastal offshore
earthquake occurs. Baywatch and fire boats
docked shall be double-tied to moorings and
personnel shall respond to a designated high
ground/safe zone.
LEVEL V: Actual Tsunami or Extreme Tidal
Surge Impact
➢ After each tsunami impact, or severe tidal surge
event, an immediate assessment of conditions
shall be initiated. These assessments may be
conducted remotely (from high ground/safe
zones), by helicopter, aircraft, or by vessels.
1.“Tsunami Interface” is a zone of high
probability for survival of people trapped in
vessels, automobiles, collapsed structures,
and debris piles that should be a priority for
search operations.
2.Many survivors may have been washed
back to the ocean, making waterborne
search another priority.
3.Survivors who used “vertical evacuation”
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may be trapped on “high ground”.
4.The main objective is to save lives while
maintaining a reasonable level of safety for
Department personnel, including protection
from subsequent tsunamis
5.Simultaneous aerial (helicopter), land-
based, marine, and small rescue boat search
and rescue operations may be required to
rescue victims.
6.In the aftermath of a large and damaging
tsunami impact, there is a need for “wide
area search operations”. A “grid search”
system shall be established to ensure that
impacted coastal and inland areas.
7.All structures, vessels, and automobiles
shall be marked using the standard USAR
search marking system
8.Bodies located during search and rescue
operations should be marked using the
standard USAR search marking system
when feasible. Body locations should be
documented on maps. Bodies found
floating in water shall be recovered or
secured to fixed objects until recovery can
be conducted.
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9.The Unified Command (after appropriate
consultation with SME’s monitoring the
actual ocean), shall determine when an “All
Clear” is to be declared in Operational areas
of Los Angeles County.
DEFINITIONS
➢ Tsunami: A series of long-period, lengthy
ocean waves generated by earthquakes,
landslides, volcanic eruptions and other events
that displace large water mass.
• ________: A tsunami that is generated from a
distant source, which could impact Los Angeles
County in 1.5 to 12 hours (depending on the
location of the source).
Tele-Tsunami
• ____________: A tsunami event generated by a source close to the affected coast:
1.Consulting scientists have informed the
Department that a Magnitude 7.0 or greater
earthquake could potentially generate a
series of near-source tsunamis that could
strike the Los Angeles County mainland and
Catalina Island in as little as 3-15 minutes.
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2.Any sustained strong shaking (lasting 20
seconds or more) is the most reliable
warning of potential near-source tsunami
conditions. An off- shore earthquake with a
Magnitude of 7.0 or greater is
recommended by scientists as another
benchmark for coastal evacuation.
3.Scientists also have discovered a line of
2,600’ submarine cliffs one mile off the
Palos Verdes Peninsula (the San Pedro
Escarpment), which could collapse from
any cause (including local onshore or
offshore earthquakes). Scientists are
convinced that collapse of these undersea
cliffs would cause a series of tsunamis up to
30’ high, striking the coast of mainland
LACo. and Catalina Island within minutes.
Near-Source Tsunami
• _____________ Zone: The California
Emergency Management Agency (CAL EMA)
commissioned a group of scientists to study the
coastline of Los Angeles County to determine
the most likely areas that could be inundated by
near-source and tele-tsunami events.
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Tsunami Inundation
• High ground/safe zone: A place of relative
safety for emergency responders and civilians
during tsunami events, located on coastal-
accessible land a minimum of ____ foot above
sea level and away from tributaries which can
carry tsunami waves further inland or to higher
elevations.
50’
➢ Tsunami Information Statement: A tsunami
information statement is issued to inform
emergency management officials and the public
that an earthquake has occurred, or that a
tsunami warning, watch, or advisory has been
issued for another section of the ocean.
• A Tsunami ____________ is issued to alert
emergency management officials and the public
of an event which may later impact the watch
area. The watch area may be upgraded to a
warning, advisory, or canceled, based on
updated information and analysis.
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Watch
• A Tsunami ________ is issued due to the threat
of a potential tsunami which may produce
strong currents or waves dangerous to those in
or near the water. The threat may continue for
several hours after the arrival of the initial
wave, but significant widespread inundation is
not expected for areas under an advisory.
Advisory
• A Tsunami ________ is issued when a potential
tsunami with significant widespread inundation
is imminent or expected. Warnings alert the
public that widespread, dangerous coastal
flooding accompanied by powerful currents is
possible and may continue for several hours
after arrival of the initial wave.
Warning
• ________ Evacuation: An alternate safe zone
when natural high ground cannot be reached
before anticipated tsunami arrival. The upper
floors or roofs of some multi-story buildings,
freeway overpasses, or other high points. A
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“worst case” tsunami can overwhelm even a 3-
story building, so taller structures are preferred.
Vertical
• Tsunami ______: A subjective term describing
a “wide zone” bordering the edge of a tsunami’s
inland travel, where homes, automobiles, and
debris were pushed before the water reversed
course and flowed back toward the ocean.
Because this interface zone may not have been
completely submerged, and because “dry”
buildings may have been collapsed it is an area
of high probability for live survivors, and
therefore should be a priority for post-impact
search and rescue operations using the standard
five stages of structure collapse search/rescue.
Interface
➢ All Clear: A subjective assessment that
danger of additional tsunami waves or extreme
tidal surges has diminished or ceased. CAL
EMA may declare an “All Clear” when two
hours has passed since a tsunami wave has
impacted land. However, due to the potential
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for extended effects from local conditions, the
Unified Command (after appropriate
consultation with the SME’s monitoring the
actual ocean, bay, harbor, marina, and port
conditions), is responsible in determining when
an “All Clear” shall be announced for the
operational areas of LACo.
1.The “All Clear” after actual impact by
extreme tidal surges is more complicated
because ocean fluctuations may continue for
24 to 48 hours, with serious consequences
harbors, bays, marinas, and ports.
2.If no signs of ocean disturbance are evident
15 to 20 minutes after strong coastal
shaking, it can be assumed that no near-
source tsunamis were generated (and thus
an “All Clear” can be declared by
commanders in the field, for the purpose of
engaging responders in emergency
operations in Tsunami Inundation Zones).
• Fire Station / Lifeguard Station Tsunami Plan:
A required component of the Emergency
Information File for administrative sites in all
coastal battalions and lifeguard sections whose
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jurisdiction includes a Tsunami Inundation
Zone or where coastal land is less than ____
feet above sea level.
100’
CHAPTER 9 – ENVIRONMENTAL EMERGENCIES
11.9.1 - AFRICANIZED HONEY BEE
1/22/13
Exclusion Zone: A minimum ___ foot area
established around the insects. This area is
subject to change according to swarm activity
300
• It is the policy of the Department that when an
active swarm of bees (not part of a commercial
or private bee hive system) is reported, and our
assistance is requested, our personnel will
respond and _________ the swarm of bees.
exterminate
• Los Angeles Communications Center (LACC)
shall notify the local ______________ when
active swarms are discovered and any incident
of multiple stings from flying insects occurs.
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Los Angeles County Vector Control District
• Resources shall respond to a reported inactive
swarm Code ____.
2
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• Resources shall respond Code __ to a reported
active swarm of bees in which a person or an
animal is being attacked.
3
➢ All personnel shall wear full personal
protective equipment including turnout pants,
coat, helmet, gloves, and a bee veil. Pant cuffs,
coat sleeves, collars, and the front of the coat
along the snaps shall be taped securely against
the body with duct tape for additional
protection.
➢ Procedures On-Scene: Non-Active swarm:
- On private property, owners shall hire a bee
removal service to abate the problem.
- On public property, LACC shall notify Los
Angeles County Vector Control to abate the
problem.
➢ Active swarm: If bees present an immediate
or future danger to civilians or animals the bees
shall be exterminated.
• When a person or an animal is being attacked:
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- Place a one inch hose line with a fog nozzle
and ____foam solution in service.
- The nozzle should be on ____ spray and
directed to drive the insects away from the
victim and personnel.
- Advise a victim to cover his/her eyes, nose,
and mouth.
- The fog spray should then be directed ___
feet into the air and back down to the ground
in ______ motions.
- If possible, place a second one inch hose line
with a fog nozzle in service to further
protection
- Establish and maintain an exclusion zone of at
least 300 feet.
1%, wide-angle fog, 30, circular
Bee extermination method: A 1% solution of
either Class “A” foam or _________ (AFFF is
only on F1, F10, F73 or a few select engines
companies in five gallon buckets) sprayed by a
fog nozzle on AHB’s is sufficient to
immediately immobilize the bees for an
indefinite period of time.
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Aqueous Film Forming Foam
➢ Foams are effective because they establish a
physical and odor barrier against the AHB’s,
neutralizing the alarm odor produced by AHB
stings.
➢ When an active swarm of bees is encountered
and no persons or animals are threatened,
Department personnel shall establish an
exclusion zone
• AHB’s that are in a defensive mode around
their hives may pursue potential threats up to
___ mile from their hive.
1/4
➢ When personnel encounter either active
swarms of bees in wildland areas, without a
protective hose line, a safe refuge area, or full
turnout gear, they shall don a protective insect
veil and retreat rapidly from the area.
➢ Air drops with foam or retardant may be
effective in killing/disorienting the AHB.
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➢ Personnel should especially guard the mouth
and nose as bees are attracted by the carbon
dioxide being exhaled. Bees are also attracted
by dark colors, hence the white protective
clothing worn by bee-keepers.
11.9.2 – SNAKE CALLS
1/29/13
• Station Response - Upon receipt of a reported
snake call, other than a bite, _________, shall
be dispatched
1 engine co.
➢ The Los Angeles Communications Center
(LACC) personnel shall dispatch the
jurisdictional engine company, or next available
resource, and request the jurisdictional animal
control unit.
LACC personnel shall inform the caller that the
policy of the LA Co fire dept is to exterminate
all __________ snakes not to relocate them
poisonous
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The response of the first in unit shall be Code
__ if in structures, and/or in life threatening
situations: Code __ may be used at the
discretion of the fire captain on other non-
threatening snake calls
"3"
"2"
• The first unit to arrive shall not go available
until the snake is relocated (non-poisonous),
killed, escapes, is under the control of a
Department, member or until _______ assumes
responsibility for the snake.
Animal Care and Control
All poisonous snakes, and all snakes that are
not positively identified as harmless, shall be
treated as poisonous and shall be killed, or
turned over to Department of Animal Care and
Control. The owner/occupant shall be informed
of the situation and permission to continue shall
be obtained.
At any time, if the owner or the informant does
not perceive the Department’s policies or
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procedures to be acceptable, or if the incident
becomes too dangerous to proceed, the
supervisor on scene may elect to contain the
area and wait for the arrival of Animal Care and
Control personnel to assume responsibility.
Personnel shall not take any aggressive action
or initiate any search until a minimum of ___
personnel are properly dressed, equipped with
the correct tools, and identification information
is obtained regarding the type of snake
involved.
2
➢ Personnel shall wear appropriate personal
protective clothing (i.e., turnout coat, turnout
pants, goggles, and structural firefighting
gloves).
• If required to kill a snake, remove its head with
a strike to the neck from either a shovel or axe.
Place decapitated head inside a tin can, and use
a tool to collapse top of can, then fold top over
once and place into a plastic bag. Personnel
may transport the can to the local fire station
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then turn over to an Animal Care and Control
Officer for disposal. Or the container may be
buried a minimum of ____ feet deep in dirt in a
location not readily accessible to the public or
to animals.
two
• When the snake incident is terminated, and
relocation is necessary, __________ shall be
notified by LACC.
Animal Care and Control
➢ If there are any questions as to the identification
of the snake, or any doubt as to the level of safety
provided to all individuals involved, evacuate
the area and wait for Animal Care and Control
personnel
➢ Poisonous snakes found in Los Angeles County
include: Southern Black Pacific Rattlesnake
(Malibu area) Mojave Green Rattlesnake
(Antelope Valley) Sidewinder (desert area) Red
Speckled Rattlesnake Northern Pacific
Rattlesnake Green Western Rattlesnake
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➢ Poisonous snakes found in Los Angeles County
1. Southern Black Pacific Rattle Snake
(Malibu Area)
2. Mojave Green (Antelope Valley)
3. Sidewinder (desert area)
4. Red Speckled Rattle Snake
5. Northern Pacific Rattle Snake
6. Green Western Rattle Snake
CHAPTER 10 – TERRORISM PROCEDURES
11.10.1 – TERRORISM –PROCEDURES FOR
FIRST RESPONDERS 05/05/05
• In general, terrorist attacks will present
themselves as a ______ and/or _______
incident possibly coupled with a multi casualty
incident
hazardous materials, USAR
• The acronym “CBRNE” stands for:
Chemical
Biological
Radiological
Nuclear
Explosive
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The most common devices used by terrorists
are ________
explosives
• The most difficult and least likely device to be
used by terrorist is a _______.device
nuclear
• The least expensive device is one that is ____
or ____ in origin. The key to the successful use
of chem-bio is an efficient means of
dissemination
chemical or biological
• The _____ process may be the single most
important and demanding task that first
responders can perform to counter the effects of
CBRNE weapons
decontamination
• ____________________: responsible for
providing the initial size up, initiating the
Incident Command System, and taking the
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necessary actions, as appropriate for the
incident.
The first arriving company
• ___________ : responsible for the overall
coordination of the IAP and coordination with
command representatives from other agencies
until the emergency has ended and order has
been restored
Incident Commander
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• ___________: personnel are responsible for the
complete assessment of the immediate hazard
when a CBRNE weapon is suspected or
identified, providing the IC with technical
assistance, and conducting and/or coordinating
activities to minimize the effect of the hazard
on life and health, the environment, and
property
Hazardous Materials Task Force (HMTF)
• _____________: personnel are responsible for
providing the IC with technical information,
conducting and/or coordinating procedures to
minimize the effects of the hazards, and
providing technical assistance and abilities as
required to accomplish the mission objectives
when an explosive device or building collapse
has been identified.
USAR task force
• Who shall also conduct and/or coordinate rapid
intervention crew (RIC) activities as is
necessary
USAR task force
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• ________________: They shall provide multi
casualty mass decontamination (MCMD)
staffing and equipment, medical specialists,
USAR and HazMat technicians and other
technical specialist that support the IC and
emergency response personnel
Metropolitan Medical Response System
Task Force (MMRS – TF)
• ___________: personnel are responsible for
OA coordination regarding the remediation
efforts when CBRNE have been released.
These members shall provide technical
assistance to the IC on the identification,
mitigation, and cleanup of a hazmat material.
They can also provide assistance in the decision
to evacuate or shelter in place victims in an area
or building.
Health HazMat Division (HHMD)
• HMMD may participate in the ______
operations assessing, with monitors and survey
devices, the effectiveness of the
decontamination victims.
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MCMD
• Who will certify the area or building for re
occupancy
HHMD
• The _______ group personnel are responsible
for notifying the Department of credible
terrorist threats and providing support to
responding agencies
Terrorism Early Warning (TEW)
Incident priorities for a suspected or confirmed
terrorist incident shall include:
1. Protection of life/health
2. Protection of the environment
3. Protection of the crimes scene
4. Protection of property and equipment
5. Preservation of crime scene evidence
• No responder shall enter a _____________
environment without wearing the appropriate
PPE, and having received the necessary training
required to understand and function in the type
of hazard present
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hazardous
Only specially trained and equipped personal
(USAR, HazMat) shall be allowed into the
_________ Zone once it has been established
Exclusion
Only the ___ may make an exception to this
policy, and only after careful consideration of
the circumstances
IC
The ____ after careful consultation with the
appropriate Technical Specialist, may redefine
the exclusion zone as well as any other
perimeter required by the incident
IC
PROCEDURES
• At the first indication that an incident maybe of
a terrorist nature, the first arriving company
shall retreat to a safe location
(uphill/upwind/upstream) and institute ______
procedures
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FRO
➢ The first arriving company officer may depart
from usual FRO procedures and establish an
exclusion zone large enough to encompass the
number of victims in the affected area and the
amount of equipment necessary to accomplish
emergency decontamination, plus an area
designated as a safe refuge area (SRA).
• An artificial line shall be established called the
________ (IDE) line to keep unauthorized
persons out and to discourage victims from
leaving until a more definitive care operation is
established (i.e., MCMD or MCI)..
isolate and deny entry
• PPE appropriate for the anticipated hazards of a
suspected terrorism related incident shall be
worn or kept readily available. This includes
(3)
a. Department authorized respiratory
protection
b. Mark-1(atropine, 2-pam/cl) auto-injectors
c. Personal dosimeter
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• The first arriving company officer shall: (5)
a. Conduct an initial size-up and communicate
initial and follow-up reports per Department
policy
b. Request a Code “T” notification via CCD
c. Request a metropolitan incident response
vehicle (MIRV), as needed, via CCD.
d. Request that the MMRS-TF be activated
and designate a staging area for them
e. Request an Incident Management Team, as
needed, via CCD.
The first arriving company shall establish the
____________ area and the ________ area and
begin emergency decontamination of the
victims
emergency decontamination, safe refuge
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➢ Initial Actions Checklist for the First Responder
--Size-up:
Location by address or intersection
Incident Type: HazMat, MCI, building
collapse, etc.
Is it dynamic or static?
Is fire involved
How many victims: their signs and
symptoms
Special Instructions: safe approach,
Staging, PPE, etc.
--Safety:
PPE
Weather conditions
Topography
Safe distances
Secondary devices
Consider all unknown substances lethal
until proven otherwise
--First Alarm Assignments:
First Arriving Company: size-up,
exclusion zone, emergency
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decontamination. Safe refuge area.
Pass command.
Second Arriving Company: assume
command, perimeter control, command
post, and water supply to first arriving
company.
Additional Arriving Companies: support
the incident per the IC.
--Incident Objectives:
Establish exclusion zone, establish IDE
line, and contain victims.
Establish emergency decon area with
FRO officer as the emergency decon
manager.
Establish a safe refuge area within the
exclusion zone and assign a FRO
firefighter as safe refuge area manager.
Communicate findings to the responding
HMTF via MDT, cell phone or through
CCD.
• Emergency Operations First Arriving Company
Officer (3)
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1. The first arriving company officer shall
conduct an initial size-up of the incident and
communicate a radio size up report
2. The first arriving company shall retreat
upwind, uphill, upstream, and at a safe
distance. Initially, all personnel shall wear
full turnouts and a SCBA
3. The first arriving company personnel shall
begin emergency decon when victims
appear symptomatic
Radio size up report shall include (6)
a. Location by address or intersection
b. Type of incident
c. Whether the incident is dynamic or static
d. Whether fire is involved
e. Estimated number of victims: their signs
and symptoms
f. Special instructions
(1) Direction of approach for incoming
units
(2) Safe distances for staging and future
operations
(3) Appropriate PPE to be worn
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• The first arriving company personnel shall
begin emergency decontamination when
victims appear symptomatic (3)
a. Establish an exclusion zone and an isolate
and deny entry (IDE) line to contain victims
b. Establish an emergency decontamination
area large enough to encompass the number
of victims and equipment needed to provide
emergency decontamination. The First
arriving company officer shall become the
emergency decon manager after passing
command
c. Establish a safe refuge area (SRA). A
firefighter shall be assigned as the safe
refuge area manager
• The second arriving company officer shall: (5)
a. Assume command
b. Establish a command post uphill, upwind,
upstream, and at a safe distance
c. Establish a perimeter control
d. Provide a water supply for the first arriving
company
e. Provide CCD with a follow-up report
f. Anticipate the need for additional resources,
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including outside resources, to mitigate the
event according to the demands of the
incident type (i.e., CBRNE)
• Chemical agents dictate the immediate use of
emergency and medical decontamination of
multiple victims. Resources available to assist
are: (5)
a. TEW
b. HMTF
c. MIRV
d. HHMD
e. MMRS-TF.
• Biological Agents may or may not require the
use of emergency decontamination as an initial
action. Resources available in this situation are:
(3)
a. TEW
b. HMTF
c. HHMD
• Radiological and nuclear devices will not
always present as such to the first responder.
The first responder should look for clues in the
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environment that may aid in the correct
assessment or interview victims/witnesses as to
the circumstances. Resources available to assist
are: (4)
a. TEW
b. HMTF
c. HHMD
d. Los Angeles County Health Radiation
Management
• Explosive devices will present as incendiary,
dissemination, or detonation devices.
Resources to assist are: (5)
a. TEW
b. HMTF
c. Arson and Explosives Detail (AED)
d. HHMD
e. USAR
Indicators of possible chemical weapons (CW)
usage (4)
a. Unusual incidents of dead or dying animals
with a lack of insects, or insects on the
ground.
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b. Unexplained casualties (Multiple victims,
Serious illnesses)
c. Unusual liquids, sprays, or vapor
d. Suspicious devices/packages
• Indicators of possible biological weapons (BW)
usage (4)
a. Unusual incidents of sick, dead, or dying
animals
b. Unusual casualties (Unusual illness for
region or area)
c. Unusual liquids, sprays, or powders
d. Unusual swarms of insects
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• Indicators of radiological or nuclear incident.
Radiological materials may present in a
situation such as (4)
a. Simple radiological device (SRD), which is
a deliberate act of spreading radioactive
material without the use of an explosive
device
b. Radiological dispersal device (RDD) or
“dirty bomb”
c. Improvised nuclear device (IND), which is
any device designed to cause a nuclear
detonation
d. Nuclear reactor attack are considered a low
probability event due to the high security
The IC shall remind all personnel to monitor
their personal dosimeters and employ _____
personnel to survey the operational area with
assigned radiological survey meters. ____
personnel shall respond to assist the IC on all
suspicious events to confirm or rule out any
radiological release
truck company, HMTF
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EXPLOSION AND COLLAPSED STRUCTURE
INCIDENTS
If a structure collapse/explosion is suspected of
having been caused by a terrorist act, one of the
greatest threats to the first responder is the
possible existence of _________ and ______
devices.
Secondary, tertiary
Evacuate all personnel and secure the scene a
safe distance from the initial explosion site. An
evacuation of a minimum distance of ____ feet
in all directions, including vertically, is
recommended by the AED
1000
• The 2000 North America Emergency Response
Guidebook (NAERG), Guide 112, warned that
and explosion may throw fragments ____
meters (___ mile) or more
1600, 1
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• During explosion and collapsed structure
incidents the IC shall immediately request for
(4)
a. law enforcement
b. AED
c. USAR and HMTF
d. Incident Management Team (IMT) and/or
MMRS-TF
• During explosion and collapsed structure
incidents the IC shall follow a full evaluation of
______ before ordering any personnel into the
impact area.
“risk vs. gain”
➢ During explosion and collapsed structure
incidents, in general, personnel should
concentrate on locating victims and rescuing
those who are lightly trapped, then begin
searching void spaces under the direction of
USAR
➢ During explosion and collapsed structure
incidents the IC shall ensure the presence of one
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or more RICs for the incident in the event of a
secondary or tertiary device activation
Suspected terrorist-driven multi-casualty
incident (MCI). After victims receive
emergency decontamination, they shall then be
directed to a safe refuge area, pending any
further decon prior to medical evaluation by
the incident medical group. The safe refuge
area shall be located in the _______ near the
contamination reduction zone (CRZ).
exclusion zone
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A medical decontamination shall be employed
as an interim measure to ensure
decontamination effectiveness prior to
evaluation of victims by the medical group.
This secondary decontamination is established
and operated by additional responding units in a
geographical location known as the ___
CRZ
If there are ___ or less victims, the HMTF
personnel can provide medical
decontamination.
10
If there are more than 10 victims, the IC shall
request the appropriate MCMD level of
response and a MIRV.
(1) _____ victims MCMD Level 1
(2) _____victims MCMD Level 2
(3) More than 200 victims MCMD Level 3
11 to 100
101 to 200
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• Decontaminated victims shall be routed to the
incident medical group located in the _______
Support Zone
COMMAND AND CONTROL
Management of a MCI incident shall be
accomplished using a unified command
approach involving (3)
a. Health
b. Fire
c. Law Enforcement
At the federal level, the ___________ is the
lead federal investigative agency and the on-
scene manager.
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
• Command and Control remains with the
jurisdictional IC or unified command. Strategic
resource coordination and the acquisition and
deployment of all OA or mutual aid resources
will be coordinated by the _____________
County Emergency Operations Center
(EOC).
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• IMT’s may be activated to support the
management of fire service activities outside
the _____ and _____ zones of CBRNE
incidents
Exclusion, Contamination Reduction Zone
➢ Detailed essential elements of information
(EEI) for a variety of scenarios (preplans) are
contained in “Situation and Venue Specific
Playbooks” developed by the TEW
• The MMRS-TF will be under the direct
command and control of the incident’s
_________
operations section chief
• The MMRS-TF will augment field medical,
HazMat, and mass decon operations while
providing information and liaison to incident
response operations and hospitals in the OA.
Coordination of the MMRS-TF shall be
conducted by the ___ via CCD
TEW
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• The _________________ is a specially-trained
medical response team for nuclear, biological,
and chemical (NBC) terrorism. It is a Federal
asset
National Medical Response Team (NMRT)
• Coordination of the NMRT response shall be
conducted by the ___ via CCD
TEW
MANAGING MASS FATALITIES/DECEASED
DISPOSITION
• Management of the decedents and their
personal effects will be the responsibility of the
Los Angeles County _________. However,
contaminated bodies or items shall not be
released to coroner personnel prior to decon.
Coroner’s Office
• The _______ shall provide the official death
count during any disaster
Coroner’s office
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• Coroner personnel will coordinate their
activities with the IC, the_____, and/or the ___
to ensure appropriate mass fatality
management.
MMRS-TF
NMRT
• Oversight – Regulatory oversight is required
following HazMat releases. The area, facilities,
and items affected by the release must be held
until the _____ agency declares them fit for re-
occupancy or reuse.
HHMD
• All personnel who assist in remediation efforts
must be properly trained and equipped per
_____ regulations.
Cal-OSHA
➢ Investigative operations shall be coordinated
with the remediation effort. Coordination of
investigations and remediation ensures proper
evidence preservation and limits potential
health and safety risks to investigators.
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11.10.2 – TERRORISM DEFINTIONS AND
ACRONYMS 05/05/05
• _______: Respiratory protection consisting of
an air tight mask employing various types of
filters
Air Purifying Respirator (APR)
• _______: The least penetrating type of
radiation. Alpha particles are considered low
risk unless inhaled or ingested
Alpha Radiation
• ________: An infectious and sometimes fatal
disease, of warm blooded animals caused by the
bacterium Bacillus anthracis
Anthrax
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• There are three forms of Anthrax contamination
(3)
a. Cutaneous, or skin contact infection
b. Alimentary, or intestinal infection
c. Pulmonary, or respiratory infection
• Anthrax respiratory form is most severe,
leading to a ___ death rate if not treated
90%
• Asphyxiation: Agents that interfere with the
body’s ability to use oxygen. There are two
types
a. _______ asphyxiant: Any relatively
harmless chemical that displaces oxygen
b. _______ asphyxiant: Blood poisons that
interfere with the body’s ability to transport
oxygen
Simple, Chemical
• _______: A compound used as an antidote for
nerve agents
Atropine
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• ______: Single celled microorganisms that
cause disease in humans, plants, or animals
Bacteria
• Anthrax, brucellosis, cholera, plague, Q fever,
tularemia, and typhoid fever are all examples of
a single celled microorganisms called ______
Bacteria
• _________: A type of particle radiation that is
more penetrating than alpha radiation and can
damage skin tissue and harm internal organs
Beta Radiation
➢ Biochemicals: Chemicals that make up or are
produced by living organisms
• ___________: Living microorganisms and
toxins that have been weaponized.
Biological Weapons
• There are three general categories of biological
weapons (3)
a. Bacteria
b. Virus
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c. Toxin
• __________: Also referred to as mustard
agents, are a class of chemical agents know as
_______. They cause severe burns and
blistering to eyes, skin, and tissue of the
respiratory tract.
Blister Agent
vesicants
• Mustard and Lewisite are known as _______
agents
Blister
• _________: Chemical asphyxiants that
interferes with the body’s ability to use oxygen
at the cellular level by either blocking oxygen
from the blood’s hemoglobin or disrupting a
cell’s ability to use oxygen
Blood Agents
• Hydrogen cyanide and cyanogen chloride are
common _____ agents
blood
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B-NICE: The acronym for identifying the five
categories of terrorist incidents: Biological,
Nuclear, Chemical, Incendiary, and Explosives
➢ California Terrorism Response Plan: The
State’s addendum or annex to the California
Master Mutual Aid Plan specific to terrorism
response
• CBRNE: The nationally recognized acronym to
identify five general categories of agents or
devices that can be used in a terrorist event (5)
a. Chemical
b. Biological
c. Radiological
d. Nuclear
e. Explosive
➢ Chemical Agents: Solid, liquid, or gas
substances that have chemical properties that
generate serious of lethal effects on plants,
animals and humans
• There are five classes of chemical agents, all of
which produce incapacitation, serious injury, or
death: They are
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1. Nerve agents
2. Blister Agents
3. Blood Agents
4. Choking Agents
5. Irritating agents
➢ Choking Agents: Chemical agents that cause
physical injury to the respiratory system. In
extreme cases, membranes swell and lungs
become filled with fluid, which can result in
asphyxiation resembling drowning
• Chlorine and phosgene are examples of ____
agents
Choking
• _______: The Department’s designation for a
terrorism incident, suspected or actual. This
designation shall bring forth an added response
and notification to the TEW and other resources
through Command and Control
Code "T"
➢ Consequence Management: Planning,
organizing and directing resources to protect
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public health and safety, restore essentials
government services and provide emergency
relief to governments, businesses and
individuals affected by the consequence of a
terrorist act. The laws of the US assign primary
authority to the State to respond to the
consequences of terrorism; the Federal
Government provides assistance as required
The _____________________ is named as the
lead agency for consequence management.
Federal Emergency Management Agency
(FEMA)
➢ Both consequence management and crisis
management may operate concurrently
• _________________-The area within the
Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ) where
decontamination takes place. All persons shall
exit the exclusion zone through the CRC as a
matter of standard operating procedures
Contamination Reduction Corridor
• _________: Situated between the exclusion
zone and the support zone, this zone provides a
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transition between the contaminated area and
the clean area.
Contamination Reduction Zone
• _________: The geographical areas established
as a measure of controlling a hazardous
materials incident. The three zones are
commonly referred to as: the exclusion (hot)
zone, the contamination reduction (warm) zone
and the support (cold) zone
Control Zones
• _________: The center of emergency
operations for the County of Los Angeles to
address response to disasters and terrorist
activities in the Los Angeles County
Operational Area
County Emergency Operations Center
(CEOC)
• ___________: Planning, organizing, and
directing resources to identify, anticipate,
prevent, and/or resolve a threat or act of
terrorism. This is predominantly a law
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enforcement response and the FBI has been
designated as the lead agency.
Crisis Management
• The local FBI has defined its role as a
__________ for the request and coordination of
federal resources during terrorist event
“one stop shop”
• ________: The systematic removal of
contaminants from persons and objects to
reduce the effects of contamination and to
prevent the possibility of cross contamination
Decontamination (DECON)
There are a number of decontamination
processes depending o the circumstances
a. Emergency Decon – Employing water from
a ladder pipe or hand line. Self decon 2 to 5
minutes
b. Respiratory Decon – Move to clean air
environment
c. Technical Decon – Providing decon for
emergency personnel in CRC by Haz Mat
d. Medical Decon – Decon through MCMD
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e. Equipment Decon
• __________: A radiation detection device that
can provide accumulated radiation dose.
dosimeter
• __________: Referring to bacterial or viral
microorganisms or toxins that cause infection or
toxicity to humans
Etiological
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• _________: The innermost of the three zones.
Created to isolate the contaminate from the
people and to keep unauthorized people away
from the contaminant.
Exclusion Zone
• Explosive: Substances that react violently
through rapid oxidation or combustion. Agents
may be classified as detonation devices with a
burning rate greater than the speed of sound
(3,300 feet per second) or ________ devices
with a burning rate of less than the speed of
sound
Deflagration
• __________: Rays of pure electromagnetic
energy that travel hundreds of meters and will
penetrate most material. Exposures can cause
skin burns and incorporation internal organs
Gamma Radiation
• ________: The area where victims shall
receive emergency decontamination
Gross Decon Area
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• ________: A classification of organophosphate
based chemical agents that were developed in
the 1930’s. Examples are: tabun (GA), Sarin
(GB), Soman (GD)
G Series Nerve Agents
• _________: Any substance that poses a threat
to health and the environment in the form of
toxicity, flammability, or chemical
reactivity/instability. They can be solids,
liquids, or gases
Hazardous materials
➢ Homeland Security Advisory System: A five
level Federal alert system in a series of
graduated terrorist threat conditions or “risk of
terrorist attacks”
a. Low (green): Low risk
b. Guarded (blue): general risk
c. Elevated (yellow): significant risk
d. High (orange): high risk
e. Severe (red): severe risk
• _________: A management tool that guides the
strategy and tactics of an emergency operation.
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A basic IAP includes a clear definition of goals
and objectives, time limits, and an ordered
sequence of events
Incident Action Plan
• Improvised Explosive Device (IED): An article
or device designed to function by explosion,
either by detonation or deflagration.
Approximately ___ of all terrorist incidents
involve IED’s
70%
• _________________: An artificial line
initiated by first responders to keep
unauthorized persons away from victims
contaminated by NBC agents to keep victims in
place until an evaluation of decon. can be
rendered
Isolate and Deny Entry (IDE) Line
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• _____________: The center established by and
under the direction of the FBI. Located at or
near the site of event, it serves as a nucleus for
decision making, coordination, and overall
management of ongoing operations. The JOC
is an expansion of the on scene FBI command
post
Joint Operations Center
• __________: An inter-agency, joint terrorist
task force for the Los Angeles Operational area.
Coordinated by the FBI with representatives
from other Federal, state and local law
enforcement agencies with the goal to direct
effective crisis and consequence management
of a terrorist threat or event
Los Angeles Task Force on Terrorism
(LATFOT)
• When LATFOT, or any single agency, has
specific or credible threat information
warranting action, they will make warnings or
disseminate that information through the _____
to the Sheriff’s EOB
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TEW
• ___________: That which exceeds the
capabilities of local and state resources,
requiring a Federal consequence management
response
Major Consequences
• ___________________: A motorized
conveyance capable of providing materials and
equipment to support a MCMD at an
emergency incident, including terrorism
incidents
Metropolitan Incident Response Vehicle
(MIRV)
➢ Metropolitan Medical Response System Task
Force (MMRS-TF): A specific resource of the
Operational Area designated to address terrorist
incidents involving WMD
• __________: The military system of PPE
against NBC contamination. There are five
levels of MOPP.
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture
(MOPP)
• Multi-Casualty Mass Decontamination
(MCMD): A decontamination process aimed at
large numbers of victims (greater than ___)
from a significant destructive event, including a
terrorism based incident, by employing a
significant number of emergency responders
and the capabilities of the MIRV
10
• ____________________(NIMS): Based on
ICS, the National Incident Management System
was authorized by the Department of Homeland
Security (DHS) in 2003
National Incident Management System
• ______________: Specially trained medical
response team for NBC terrorism that are
normally a Federal asset. These teams (they
number three in nation) are designed to
augment the Operational Area’s Metropolitan
Medical Response System Task Force (MMRS-
TF)
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National Medical Response Team (NMRT)
• _________: Chemical substances of
organophosphorus compounds that interfere
with the body’s autonomic nervous system
causing symptoms of pin point pupils,
headache, and tightness in the chest.
Nerve agent
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• Examples or nerve agents are: (4)
Sarin
Soman
Tabun
VX
• ___________: An event in which a terrorist
threat or act is executed on a nuclear facility, or
when a terrorist employs an Improvised Nuclear
Device (IND)
Nuclear Incident
• ________: Any microorganism capable of
producing serious disease or death: bacteria,
viruses, and fungi
Pathogen
• ________: Able to be absorbed by the body
through the skin
Percutaneous Agents
• ___________: Explosive devices of various
magnitudes wrapped or impregnated with
radioactive material so as to contaminate an
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area or population with radioactivity on top of
any injuries sustained from the explosive device
Radiological Dispersal Devices RDD
• REM: The Roentgen Equivalent (to) Man. It is
the dosage of ionizing radiation that will cause
the same biological effect on humans as one
roentgen of x ray or gamma ray dosage.
Internationally, the unit of measure is referred
to as a ______. One Sievert = 100 rem
Sievert
• ____________: After gross/emergency decon
is rendered, the area that is deemed safe from
any more contamination where victims shall be
directed and held pending evaluation for further
decon. or medical treatment.
Safe Refuge Area
• The SRA is located in the ______ next to or
near the contamination reduction zone.
exclusion zone
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➢ S.C.A.R.I.E. – PM: An acronym used in FRO
HazMat response that may have an application
at a terrorist incident involving CBRNE:
a. Safety
b. Command
c. Assistance
d. Rescue
e. Isolation
f. Evacuation
g. Persons responsible
h. Material involved
• ________ Threat: Prior to its activation, it is
the confirmed presence of a WMD in the form
of CBRNE capable of causing a destructive
event.
Significant
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➢ S.L.U.D.G.E: An acronym to describe
symptoms of victims affected by an
organophosphorus compound
a. Salivation
b. Lacrimation
c. Urination
d. Defecation
e. Gastrointestinal disturbances
f. Emesis
➢ S.P.A.S.M.: An acronym to describe incident
objectives at a terrorist incident:
a. Size Up
b. Perimeter control
c. Action Plan
d. Secondary devices/Security issues
e. Mass decon corridor
• _____________(SEMS): Authorized by the
Governor’s Office of Emergency Services
(OES), it is a management system, likened to
ICS
Standardized Emergency Management
System
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• ______: The outermost zone at a hazardous
materials incident. It is considered a clean area
Support Zone
➢ Terrorism: The FBI defines terrorism as “the
unlawful use of force against persons or
property to intimidate or coerce a government,
the civilian population, or any segment thereof,
in the furtherance of political or social
objectives
• __________: A multi agency group of
specialist in health, fire, and law enforcement
whose job it is to identify, analyze, and advise
response agencies and the government of any
terrorist activity or capability in the LA County
Operational Area
Terrorism Early Warning (TEW) Group
• ___________(TDS): Three protective
measures commonly associated with
radiological emergencies.
Time, distance, and shielding
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• ______: Refer to substances of natural origin
produced by, or extracted form animals, plants,
or microbes that can produce harmful effects in
humans. Examples include Botulinum, Ricin,
and Saxitoxin that sometimes occur in edible
shellfish
Toxins
• TRACEM: The acronym used to identify the
six types of harm one may encounter at a
terrorist incident:
Thermal
Radioactive
Asphyxiation
Chemical
Etiological
Mechanical
• _______: Agents that induce blistering.
Mustard and lewsite are examples
Vesicants
• ______: The simplest of microorganisms that
lack a system of their own metabolism. They
depend on living cells to multiply and cannot
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live long outside of a host. Examples include
smallpox, and Hemorrhagic fever
Virus
• _________: Nuclear material considered most
suitable for a nuclear weapon
Weapons Grade Material
➢ Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD): Any
destructive device that can be classed in
CBRNE and, by its design, can injure or kill
people or destroy property.
APPENDIX B
ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
CDC - Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention
CEOC - County Emergency Operations Center
(L.A.)
CIG - Criminal Intelligence Group(s)
ECC - Emergency Coordination Center
(Region I)
LAPD-ATD - Los Angeles Police Department
– Anti-Terrorism Division
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LASD - Los Angeles County Sheriff’s
Department
LATFOT - Los Angeles Task Force On
Terrorism
MCMD - Multi-Casualty Mass
Decontamination
MIRV - Metropolitan Incident Response
Vehicle
MMRS-TF - Metropolitan Medical Response
System Task Force
11.10.3 – COLLAPSED STRUCTURE
INCIDENT PROCEDURES
05/05/05
➢ The Department’s collapsed structure response
is designed to be a multi-tiered system utilizing
first responders reinforced by USAR Task
Forces and other USAR technicians, as well as
any other resources that would be
recommended by the USAR-TF commander.
➢ The primary objective at the scene of a
collapsed structure incident is to take control of
the situation by
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a. Assessing the scene for hazards including
contaminated atmospheres and secondary
devices
b. Conducting searches of all involved areas
c. Locating and mitigating any hazards to
personnel and victims
d. Installing appropriate protective measures
as needed (e.g., shoring)
e. Locating, treating, and removing victims
entrapped in the collapse
f. Triaging, treating, and transporting injured
victims as they are removed from the
collapse zone
g. Preventing any secondary collapse
h. Preventing or extinguishing any subsequent
fires
• All first alarm companies shall position
apparatus outside the _____ in the event of a
secondary collapse.
collapse zone
• Depending on the construction type, the
collapse zone may extend to the equivalent of
the height of the building’s walls and, in some
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cases, up to ___ times the height of the
building’s walls.
1½
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EMERGENCY OPERATIONS
• The first arriving company officer shall conduct
an initial size-up. The size-up report shall
include: (8)
a. Location by address or intersection
b. Type of incident (e.g., collapsed building,
persons trapped)
c. Whether fire is involved
d. Type of occupancy
e. Size and type of construction of building
f. Estimated number of victims
g. Presence of additional hazards e.g., gas
leaks, electrical
h. Special instructions
• During a Size up use the following guide lines
to describe size and type of construction
building (4)
a. Light frame construction
b. Heavy floor construction
c. Heavy wall construction
d. Pre-cast construction
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• The first arriving company shall establish an
appropriate perimeter (5)
a. Create an exclusion zone or an appropriate
perimeter to include safe distances from
secondary devices
b. Be prepared to provide emergency
decontamination of victims, if necessary
c. Establish a safe refuge area
d. Pass command
e. Begin the process of reconnaissance and
stabilization
• The second arriving company shall: (4)
a. Assume command
b. Establish a command post for unified
command
c. Begin perimeter control
d. Provide CCD with a follow-up report
• When beginning perimeter control operations,
keep the front and rear of the collapse clear for
_______, USAR-TF, heavy equipment, and
specialized units.
truck companies
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• The____ first arriving engine companies shall
be positioned to protect occupants and rescuers
against the threat of fire and in a way that
allows USAR units, truck companies, and
heavy equipment to access the collapse area
where the equipment is needed.
four
• The _____ and _____ arriving engine
companies shall take separate hydrants outside
the affected block and position apparatus at the
front of the collapse zone. Engine company
personnel shall prepare to supply elevated
master streams as well as a minimum of one
charged hand line of sufficient length to protect
the first arriving _______.
First and second, truck company
• The _____ and ____ arriving engine companies
shall take separate hydrants outside the affected
block and position apparatus at the rear of the
collapse zone. Engine company personnel shall
prepare to supply elevated master streams as
well as a minimum of one charged hand line of
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sufficient length to protect the second arriving
_______.
Third and fourth, truck company
➢ Highest priority, all active fire burning within
the rubble shall be extinguished to reduce the
threat to any trapped victims. Protecting
exposures shall be next in priority followed by
extinguishments of burning vehicles.
• The first arriving truck company shall position
the apparatus at the ____ of the collapse zone
front
• The second arriving truck company shall
position the apparatus at the ___ of the collapse
zone
rear
➢ Truck personnel shall secure a water source
from one of the engines positioned nearby and
extend the aerial or platform to provide for
rescue, exposure protection, fire attack, lookout
positioning, and reach in inaccessible locations.
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• USAR apparatus, USAR trailers, HazMat
apparatus, and support equipment shall be
parked in front of the collapse or at other
strategic locations ______ of the collapse zone.
outside
➢ All other vehicles and apparatus shall stage or
position away from the collapse site so as to not
impede access by USAR, HazMat, heavy
equipment, or other specialized units requiring
access to the collapse zone.
• The IC shall consult with _____ officers to help
determine the type and number of additional
resources required.
USAR-TF
COLLAPSE ASSESSMENT
• ____________: occurs when one of the
supporting walls fails or when the floor joists
break at one end. This type usually creates
large void spaces.
LEAN-TO FLOOR COLLAPSE
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• ____________: occurs when one end of the
floor or roof section is still attached to portions
of the wall, and the other end hangs
unsupported. This type of collapse is extremely
dangerous because of the unsupported sections.
LEAN-TO CANTILEVER COLLAPSE
• ____________: occurs when heavy loads cause
the floor to collapse at the center. Victims
trapped above the V-collapse are usually found
in the bottom end of the collapse. Victims
trapped below the V-collapse will be found in
the void spaces away from the “V”.
V-SHAPED VOID COLLAPSE
• ____________: occurs when bearing walls or
columns collapse, causing the upper floors to
pancake down onto the floors below. Victims
may be found between floors or in voids created
by furniture, which support the floors.
PANCAKE COLLAPSE
• ____________: occurs when forces cause floor
beams to fail at or near outer walls, yet still
supported by interior bearing wall or walls
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resulting in a tent or A-Frame configuration.
Victims trapped above the A-Frame collapse
are usually found near outside walls. Those
trapped below the A-Frame will be found
interiorly.
TENT or A-FRAME COLLAPSE
• ____________: occurs when one or more walls,
still intact, fall over like a tree. Walls may fall
their full height away from the building (for
safety, estimate 1 1/2 times the height.) Debris
thrown from the collapsing wall may travel
even further.
90° COLLAPSE
• ____________: occurs when brick or stone
walls, one or more stories high, collapse into
piles of debris that can bury victims on
sidewalks and in automobiles in parking areas
and along streets.
CURTAIN FALL COLLAPSE
• ____________: occurs when shear-walls or
foundations fail, causing heavy-floor buildings
to fall over sideways by their full height. These
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structures sometimes remain intact, but are now
on their sides.
OVERTURNING
• ____________: is the complete failure of a
structural system resulting in a deconsolidated
pile that is difficult to characterize.
TOTAL COLLAPSE
➢ Impending secondary collapse recognition.
Look for:
a. Walls out of plumb.
b. Smoke or water movement through bricks
during fire ground operations.
c. Beams pulling away from walls.
d. Buckled or sagging steel beams.
e. Large cracks and/or plaster falling.
f. Abnormally low runoff or soggy floors
during fire ground operations.
➢ Five stages of collapse search and rescue: A
logical order of progression in the approach to a
collapsed structure incident.
1. STAGE 1: Response, arrival, and
reconnaissance – first responder skills
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2. STAGE 2: Surface rescue – first responder
skills and USAR technician skills
3. STAGE 3: Void space search and rescue –
USAR technician skills and first responder
skills
4. STAGE 4; Selected debris removal – USAR
technician skills and technical specialists
5. STAGE 5: General debris removal –
requires technical specialists
STAGE 1: Response, arrival, and reconnaissance
– first responder skills
a. Response
b. Arrival
1. Single building or entire neighborhood
2. Indications of a terrorist attack
3. Any potential for secondary device
4. Signs of impending secondary collapse
5. Assume live victims in the collapse zone
until proven otherwise
6. Resource needs
7. Consider apparatus placement
8. Consider personnel safety (L.C.E.S.) and
RIC)
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9. Eliminate utility hazards, including water,
in the collapse zone
10. Establish equipment pools
11. Establish multi-casualty incident (MCI)
operations
12. Consider decontamination
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c. Reconnaissance
1. Conduct an eight-sided size-up
2. Establish strict scene control and security to
eliminate secondary attacks and/or
secondary collapse due to uncontrolled
operations
3. Begin structure triage and marking and
identify likely places where live victims can
be trapped
4. Identify building occupancy/use and the
relation of time of day or day of week to
determine the potential number of victims at
the time of collapse
5. Victims
6. What spontaneous operations are currently
underway and are they safe?
7. Indications of a terrorist attack
8. Continually monitor for presence of hazards
such as gas/water leaks, electrical shorts,
energized equipment, or secondary devices.
9. Evaluate structural stability of adjoining
buildings
• Conduct an eight-sided size-up (8)
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a. Sides A, B, C and D
b. The roof
c. The bottom or basement
d. Aerial space surrounding affected building
or collapse zone to assess falling hazards
e. Rotary sweep of the ground surrounding
affected building or collapse zone to assess
any ground- level hazards
STAGE 2: Surface rescue – first responder skills
and USAR technician skills
➢ During Stage 2 immediate rescue of surface
victims found on top of the debris, lightly
buried, or entangled should be removed first
• What are the five types of searches (5) during
surface rescue
1. Visual search
2. ‘Hail’ search – a technique to call out for
victim response immediately followed by
complete silence by all rescuers to
determine response and direction of any
victim response
3. Physical search – controlled use of hand
tools, bucket brigades, and other debris
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removal methods to rescue victims without
causing secondary collapse or crushing the
victims
4. Technical search – use of search cameras,
thermal imagers, and other devices
5. Canine search – use of Department or
mutual aid canine teams
• During Stage 2 do not move, cut, or breach any
load-bearing structural member except as
authorized by ______ personnel or structural
engineers
USAR
➢ During Stage 2 do not apply hose streams
except when necessary to control fires to
protect victims
STAGE 3: Void space search and rescue – USAR
technician skills and first responder skills
• Exploration of ______ and other likely survival
places, reaching victims whose locations are
known even if they cannot be seen or heard.
survivable void spaces
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• During Stage 3 initially, void search will consist
of calling and listening (_______), coupled with
a visual search of areas that are accessible
without cutting, lifting, or removing load-
bearing members.
hailing
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➢ Search for trapped victims using the “hailing
system”.
1. Place rescuers in “call” and “listening”
positions.
2. Eliminate all external noises (call for
operational silence).
3. Going “around the clock”, each rescuer
calls out or taps on something. A period of
silence (and listening) should follow each
call.
4. After a sound has been picked up, at least
one additional “fix” should be maintained
until the victim is recovered.
➢ Paramedic medical teams shall be at hand to
treat trapped victims while they are being
extracted.
• Breaching and shoring will require _____
technician skills
USAR
• It is safer to cut holes in floors and use the
“_______” approach than to breach walls.
vertical shaft
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➢ Only USAR, or other qualified personnel under
the supervision of USAR, should attempt
shoring. Shoring should NEVER be removed
once it is in place in an unstable building.
The __ shall ensure that RICs sufficient in
numbers and strategically positioned during
Stage 3 operations.
IC
STAGE 4; Selected debris removal – USAR
technician skills and technical specialists
• Prior to stage____ all accessible void spaces
have been checked and victims removed.
4
➢ At this stage, responders will reduce the size of
the debris piles, search for additional victims, or
access victims that are known to be trapped
below.
STAGE 5: General debris removal – requires
technical specialists
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• The decision to begin Stage ___ should be
made only after it has been determined that all
victims have been accounted for, or that no
other victims will be found alive. In many
cases, Stage 5 has been reached after 15-20
days.
5
BUILDING CONSTRUCTION TYPES*
• ___________: Materials used for construction
are generally lightweight and provide a high
degree of structural flexibility to applied forces
such as earthquakes, hurricanes, tornados, etc.
These structures are typically constructed with
skeletal structural frame system of wood or
light gage steel components, which provide
support to the floor or roof assemblies.
Light Frame Construction
• Light Frame Construction types are wood frame
structures used for residential, multiple low-rise
occupancies and light commercial occupancies,
up to ___ stories in height. Light gage steel
frame buildings include commercial business
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and light manufacturing occupancies and
facilities.
four
• ____________: Structures of this type are built
utilizing cast-in-place concrete construction
consisting of flat slab panel, waffle or two-way
concrete slab assemblies. Pre-tensioned or
post-tensioned reinforcing steel rebar or cable
systems are common components for structural
integrity. The vertical structure supports
include integrated concrete columns, concrete
enclosed or steel frame, which carry the load of
all floor and roof assemblies. This type
includes heavy timber construction that may use
steel rods for reinforcing.
Heavy Floor Construction
• Examples of this type of construction include
offices, schools, apartments, hospitals, parking
structures, and multi-purpose facilities.
Common heights vary from single story to
high-rise structures.
Heavy Floor Construction
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• _______________: Materials used for
construction are generally heavy and utilize and
interdependent structural or monolithic system.
These types of materials and their assemblies
tend to make the structural system inherently
rigid. This construction type is usually built
without skeletal structural frame. It utilizes a
heavy wall support and assembly system to
provide support for the floors and roof
assemblies. They also use an interdependent
girder, column and beam system for providing
lateral wall support of floors and roof
assemblies.
Heavy Wall Construction
• These occupancies typically include
commercial, mercantile, and industrial. Other
examples of this type of construction include
reinforced and un-reinforced masonry (URM)
buildings typically of low-rise construction, one
to six stories in height, of any type of
occupancy.
Heavy Wall Construction
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• _______________: Structures of this type are
built utilizing modular pre-cast concrete
components that include floors, walls, columns
and other subcomponents that are field
connected upon placement on site. Individual
concrete components utilize imbedded steel
reinforcing rods and welded wire mesh for
structural integrity and may have either steel
beam, column or concrete framing systems
utilized for the overall structural assembly and
building enclosure. These structures rely on
single or multi-point connections for floor and
wall enclosure assembly and are a safety and
operational concern during collapse operations.
Pre-Cast Construction
• Examples of this type of construction include
commercial, mercantile, office, and multi-use or
multi-function structures including parking
structures and large occupancy facilities.
Pre Cast Constructions
EXAMPLES OF SEARCH MARKINGS FOR
LACo FD
Re
s 1
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➢ A single slash and unit identity are marked
upon entry to a structure. This indicates
search operations are in progress within this
area
➢ The second, crossing slash shall be drawn when
all personnel exit from that structure.
The following illustrations define the search
assessment marks: (2' x 2' letter "X")
STRUCTURE TRIAGE AND HAZARD
MARKINGS
Make a large (2' x 2') square box
with orange spray paint on the
outside of the main entrance to
the structure. Put the date, time,
hazardous material (HM)
conditions and team or
company identifier outside the
box on the right hand side. This
9/12/93
1310
hrs.
HM -
nat. gas
SMA -
E-1
1/01/10
1400 hrs
2 – Live 2 - Dead
RES -1
RATS
Left Quadrant: LACo FD company or
team designation given at the Command
Post
Top Quadrant: the time and date that the company left the structure
Bottom Quadrant: number of live and expired victims still inside the structure/area. ["0" = No Victims]
Right Quadrant: personal
hazards to units/teams.
Re
s 1
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information can be made with a
lumber marking device.
Structure is accessible and safe
for search and rescue
operations. Damage is minor
with little danger of further
collapse.
9/12/93
1310
hrs.
HM -
none
SMA -
E-1
Structure is significantly
damaged. Some areas are
relatively safe, but other areas
may need shoring, bracing, or
removal of falling and collapse
hazards.
9/12/93
1310
hrs.
HM -
nat. gas
SMA -
E-1
Structure is not safe for search
or rescue operations. May be
subject to sudden additional
collapse. Remote search ops
may proceed at significant risk.
If rescue ops are undertaken,
safe haven areas and rapid
evacuation routes should be
created.
9/12/93
1310
hrs.
HM -
nat. gas
SMA -
E-1
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Arrow located next to a
marking box indicates the
direction to a safe entrance
into the structure, should the
marking box need to be made
remote from the indicated
entrance.
11.10.5 – NUCLEAR, BIOLOGICAL
CHEMICAL (NBC) AGENTS
05/05/05
➢ It is the policy of the Los Angeles County Fire
Department to provide for the mitigation of
threat and damage to life, environment and
property while ensuring the safety of
Department personnel.
➢ Chemical weapons (CW): are solids, liquids, or
gases that have chemical properties that
produce lethal or serious effects on plants and
animals. They are similar to hazardous
industrial chemicals, but hundreds of times
more toxic.
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• Dissemination of chemical weapons can include
(3)
Aerosol, Manual, covert techniques
• Chemical weapons are classified according to
how they affect the human body. This
discussion will classify chemical weapons into
five types of agents:
a. neurotoxins _________
b. skin irritants _________
c. chemical asphyxiants _________
d. respiratory irritants __________
e. antipersonnel agents __________
(nerve agents)
(blister agents)
(blood agents)
(choking agents)
(riot control agents)
NERVE AGENTS
➢ Nerve agents are organophosphorus
compounds. When used, these agents interfere
with the function of the central nervous system.
Death occurs from cardiopulmonary failure.
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➢ Examples of these nerve agents are:
Tabun (GA)
Sarin (GB)
Soman (GD)
VX
NERVE AGENTS
Common Name & Military Symbol Tabun (GA) Sarin (GB) Soman (GD) VX
Volatility/Persistence Semi-persistent Persistent
Rate of Action Extremely rapid
Route of Entry Respiratory and skin
Odor Fruity Camphor Sulfur
Symptoms Pinpoint pupils, salivation, vomiting, diarrhea, twitching, and difficulty breathing
Protection Protect respiratory and skin
First Aid Use Atropine and 2-Pam chloride
Decontamination Remove agent and flush with soap and water or diluted bleach
• Nerve agents, although not easily obtained, are
considered the most toxic. A lethal dose
received through skin contact (percutaneous)
can cause death within ___ hours. A
respiratory lethal dose can cause death in one to
ten minutes.
two
• Decontamination is accomplished by removal
of the victim’s outer garments while flushing
with water and an application of soap or diluted
bleach. Personnel involved in this activity shall
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wear a _______ chemical protective clothing
(CPC) at a minimum.
Level B
BLISTER AGENTS
• Blister agents, also referred to as _____, are
classified as vesicants, or agents that induce
blistering
mustard agents
• There are three known blister agents:
a) Mustard (H)
b) Lewisite (L)
c) Phosgene Oxime (CX)
• Of the three blister agents, ______ is the easiest
to produce, thus, the most likely to be
encountered.
Mustard
BLISTER AGENTS
Common Name/Military Symbol Mustard/(H) Lewisite/(L) Phosgene Oxime/(CX)
Volatility/Persistence Persistent
Rate of Action Delayed Rapid
Route of Entry Skin – Inhalation – Eyes
Odor Garlic Geraniums Irritating
Symptoms Eyes: Burning, Inhalation: Coughing, Skin: Blistering after 4-24 hours and pain
Protection Protect respiratory and skin
First Aid Remove from area, decontaminate, and ensure airway
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Decontamination Immediate – flush with soap and water
BLOOD AGENTS
➢ Blood agents: are chemical asphyxiants because
they interfere with the human body’s ability to
use oxygen at the cellular level.
• The types of blood agents for this discussion are
two: (2)
a. Hydrogen Cyanide (AC)
b. Cyanogen Chloride (CK).
BLOOD AGENTS
Common Name/Military Symbol Hydrogen Cyanide (AC) Cyanogen Chloride (CK)
Volatility/Persistence Non-persistent
Rate of Action Rapid
Route of Entry Respiratory
Odor Bitter almonds or peach kernels
Symptoms Gulping or gasping for air, reddish skin and lips, unconsciousness, death
Protection Protect respiratory and skin
First Aid Remove from the area, high flow O2 by mask, antidote therapy by paramedics
Decontamination Respiratory Decon, remove outer clothing, and soap and water as appropriate
CHOKING AGENTS
➢ The two principle choking agents that will be
discussed are
a. Chlorine (Cl)
b. Phosgene (CG)
• When either of these agents comes in contact
with the human body, _______ is produced
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causing chemical burns to the body tissues (i.e.,
skin, eyes and lungs).
Hydrochloric Acid
CHOKING AGENTS
Common Name & Military Symbol Phosgene (CG) Chlorine (Cl)
Volatility/Persistence Non-persistent
Rate of Action Rapid
Route of Entry Respiratory
Odor Newly mown hay Strong bleach
Symptoms Coughing, choking, tightness in the chest
Protection Respiratory and skin
First Aid Carry from area, high flow O2
Decontamination Aeration and water flush
• Removing victims from the affected area
accomplishes respiratory decontamination.
Flushing with copious amounts of ____ will
reduce the caustic affects of these chemicals on
the skin. Outer garments should be removed
and bagged to isolate the off-gassing effect of
the chemical saturated in the clothing fibers.
water
ROIT CONTROL AGENTS
➢ Riot control agents: are generally used to
incapacitate, not to kill.
a. Chloracetephenone (CN)
b. Orthochlorobenzalmalonitrile (CS)
c. Oleoresin Capsicum (OC)
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• Roit control agents are classified as propelled
aerosols or sprays. Their rate of action is rapid
(within __ to __ seconds), but they are not
persistent (approximately __ to __ minutes).
3-7
10 to 30
➢ The usual route of entry is the eyes, respiratory
system, and moist areas of the skin. Symptoms
are intense pain and tearing in the eyes,
coughing, tightness in the chest, and shortness
of breath. Decontamination consists of removal
of clothing and washing with soap and water for
CN and CS cases.
• Water may relieve some of the pain from an OC
agent, but because an OC agent is non-water-
soluble, ________ is the decontamination
option for these victims.
Aeration
BIOLOGICAL WEAPONS (BW)
• Biological Weapons (BW): are made from
either _________ or ________.
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Microorganisms
biological toxins
• ________ are chemical compounds created
from plants, animals, and microbes. _________
are living viruses or bacteria that can establish
deadly infections in their victims. Biological
weapons agents have no color, taste, or smell.
Biological toxins, Microorganisms
➢ Most biological agents need to be inhaled or
ingested to be harmful (the body’s skin
provides a good protective barrier against these
agents)..
➢ All biological agents have a delayed effect:
Incubation periods can range from hours, days,
or weeks depending on the type of agent. The
first indication that the first responder is dealing
with a biological agent may be the pattern of
similar symptoms observed in many infected
patients at emergency rooms or when
responding to calls over a period of time.
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➢ EMS-defined “universal precautions” should be
followed without exception (i.e., gloves, eye
protection, and mask). Utilizing communicable
disease kits should be considered in some cases.
MICROORGANISMS
➢ Microorganisms – bacterial agents: are single-
celled and plant-like in structure. The list
includes
a. Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
b. Yersinia pestis (plague)
c. Q fever
d. Salmonellae
• Anthrax is easily grown and can be kept almost
indefinitely in the spore (dormant) form under
the proper conditions. Weaponized anthrax is a
very fine dust, which if inhaled, could yield as
much as a ___ mortality rate.
90%
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ANTHRAX (Bacillus anthracis)
Dispersion Delivered as a dust: will contaminate environment and water
Onset Symptoms appear in 1-6 days
Symptoms Chest pain, cough, fatigue and fever – progresses to shortness of breath, diaphoresis, cyanosis, and death
Protection Universal precautions with mask for blood and body fluid protection. Communicable disease kits
Decontamination Soap and Water. Use diluted bleach, as appropriate
PNEUMONIC/BUBONIC PLAGUE – See
manuals for chart and more information if
interested
Q FEVER – See manuals for chart and more
information if interested
SALMONELLA – See manuals for chart and
more information if interested
➢ Microorganisms – viral agents: are smaller than
most bacteria and live on or within other cells,
called host cells. This discussion will key on
three types of viruses that may be used as
weapons:
a. variola virus (smallpox)
b. Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE)
c. viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHFs).
SMALLPOX (Variola virus)
Dispersion Airborne through aerosolization
Onset Symptoms appear in about 12 days
Symptoms Fever, vomiting, head/back ache, rash on face and extremities followed by pustules and eventual scabs.
Protection Infected persons contagious up to 17 days after onset. Universal precautions, protect from body fluids
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Decontamination Soap and water
VENEZUELAN EQUINE ENCEPHALITIS –
See manual for charts and more information if
interested
VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVER (VHF) ie,
Ebola – See manual for chart and more
information if interested
BIOIOLOGICAL TOXINS
➢ Toxins considered for terrorist use include
a. Botulinum Toxin (botulism),
b. Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (SEB)
c. Ricin
BOTULISM – See manuals for chart and more
information if interested
STAPHYLOCOCCAL ENTEROTOXIN (SEB) –
See manuals for chart and more information if
interested
• ______ is a biological toxin formed in the seed
of the castor plant. There is no antidote for ___
poisoning.
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Ricin, ricin
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RADIOLOGICAL
➢ Radiation that has enough energy to remove
electrons from any material it passes through is
called ionizing radiation.
• Alpha
particles
Particles that quickly lose energy
and travel only 1-2 inches through
air. They have limited penetrating
power, and can be stopped by
clothing or a sheet of paper.
• Beta
particles
Particles that travel about 10-15 feet.
Some beta particles can penetrate the
skin. Materials such as aluminum
and other metals, plastic, and glass
can stop the penetrating power.
•
Gamma
rays
Rays that are pure electromagnetic
radiation. Rays travel hundreds of
meters and will penetrate most
material. Intensity is reduced by
heavy, dense material like steel,
concrete, earth, or lead.
• ______ particle radiation, involving fine dusts
or liquids, is considered an internal hazard, a
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poison that can enter the body by inhalation,
ingestion, or through wounds in the skin.
Alpha
• ___ particle’s radiation penetrating power,
greater than alpha particle radiation, is
considered to be both an external hazard –
damaging the body’s skin and eyes – and an
internal hazard if inhaled, ingested, or
introduced into wounds in the skin.
Beta
• ______ rays are external hazards generally
associated with skin contamination and the
biological effects of local tissue and cutaneous
irradiation with an increased probability of
internal contamination.
Gamma
• The Reontgen (R) measures quantity of
radiation. The amount of energy deposited in
any material by ionizing radiation is the
radiation absorb ___, or rad. The rad represents
a measure of energy absorbed per gram of
material.
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dose
• The Reontgen Equivalent Man, or rem, is a unit
that measures the effects of ionizing radiation
on humans. This dose is expressed in ___ and
_____ (1/1000 of a rem).
Rem, millirem
• The average annual radiation dose received by
the public is about ____ mrem (millirem). The
threshold for any real consequences begins at
around ___rem. A typical life-threatening dose
is around ___ rem.
360, 200, 450
• ______ companies, HazMat task forces, and
______ officers carry radiological detection
devices that will support first responders’
operations.
Truck, HHMD
➢ Health risks associated with ionizing radiation
depend on two factors: the dose and the dose
rate. The dose is the total amount of radiation
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received and the dose rate is the length of time
over which the dose was received.
• When first responders suspect that radioactive
materials are involved at their incident, they
shall use full turnout PPE, including a _______
and employ the concept of time, distance, and
shielding to limit their exposure.
SCBA
➢ Distance: The dose rate varies inversely with
the square of the distance
PPE
Alpha
particl
es
FROs wearing turnout PPE with a
SCBA may be appropriate. Decon.
after every is a must.
Beta
Particl
es
FROs wearing turnout PPE with a
SCBA shall limit their time in the
exclusion zone. A quick “in-and-out”
may be a viable option. HazMat Level
B protection may be sufficient for this
hazard. Decontamination after every
entry is a must.
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Gamm
a
radiati
on
FROs wearing turnout PPE with a
SCBA shall weigh “risk vs. gain” and
enter the exclusion zone only for
rescue. HazMat Level A is not
sufficient for this hazard. Severely
limiting the duration of exposure is the
only viable defense. Because alpha
and beta particles often accompany
gamma rays, decontamination should
be accomplished after every entry.
The types of injuries from radiation exposure
are caused by external irradiation,
contamination, incorporation, or a combination
of all three.
Exter
nal
irradi
ation
When radiation (gamma or x-ray) passes
through the body. The intensity depends
on the amount of exposure to source. A
victim does not become radioactive.
Rescuers will not receive radiation
injury from victim.
Conta
minat
ion
When victim is partially or wholly
covered with radioactive material.
Rescuers can be cross-contaminated.
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Rescuers shall self-decon after decon.
victims.
Incor
porat
ion
When tissue, cells, and organs take in
the radiation (e.g., radioactive Iodine
seeks out the thyroid gland). If
incorporation exists, then the victim is
also considered contaminated. Use
decontamination.
Decontamination should consist of:
Firs
t
Lightly wet down victim to reduce the risk
of contaminated materials becoming
airborne or ingested.
Sec
ond
Methodically stripping off the
contaminated clothing or PPE from the top
down, then isolating clothing in plastic
bags.
Thi
rd
Flushing any contamination from exposed
skin and hair. Soap is beneficial.
Fou
rth
Covering victim to protect from exposure.
➢ Radiological weapons: are simple devices that
spread radioactivity by
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a. covert action (simple radiological device or
SRD)
b. accompanying explosive device
(radiological dispersal device or RDD)
• ______________________: is a dissemination
device to deliberately expose a radioactive
source, covertly, so as to irradiate persons
without their knowing or to contaminate an area
or the environment with radioactive particles.
Simple radiological device (SRD):
• _____________________: also called a “dirty
bomb”, is an explosive dispersion device using
conventional explosives of various magnitude
wrapped or impregnated with radioactive
material
Radiological dispersal device (RDD)
• When there is a suspicion or a confirmation of a
device, first responders shall request response
from the ____________, as well as a HazMat
response. All personnel shall be on alert for
any secondary or tertiary devices.
LASD Arson and Explosives Detail
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• Explosive weapons (including incendiary): are
the apparent weapons of choice among terrorist
groups. It is estimated that ____ of all terrorist
attacks worldwide involve explosives.
70%
• The FBI has noted three facts regarding
explosive of weapons:
a. When public safety agencies know of the
presence of a device, they have only a ___
chance of finding it before it goes off.
b. Hundreds of hoax bomb threats are reported
each year.
c. Residential properties are the most common
targets for bombers.
20%
• Incendiary Devices consists of three basic
components (3)
a. igniter or fuse
b. a container or body
c. an incendiary material or filler.
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➢ First responders shall not handle any device that
is discovered prior to its ignition. Handling
such devices can result in its ignition and the
device is critical evidence of the crime scene.
• Explosive devices: are substances or articles
designed to function by explosion, either by
________, with a burning rate greater than
3,300 feet per second (the speed of sound), or
by ________, with the burning rate less than
3,300 feet per second.
Detonation, deflagration
• Incident commanders shall ensure the presence
of a __________ on an explosives incident to
stand ready in the event of a secondary or
tertiary device activation that may injure
personnel or cause them to be trapped
rapid intervention crew (RIC)
11.10.6 – EMERGENCY
DECONTAMINATION CONSIDERATIONS
05/05/05
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• _________________: The area within the
contamination reduction zone (CRZ) where
decontamination takes place. All persons shall
exit the exclusion zone through the CRC as a
matter of standard operating procedures.
Contamination Reduction Corridor (CRC)
• ________: The three zones are commonly
referred to as: the exclusion (hot) zone, the
contamination reduction (warm) zone, and the
support (cold) zone.
Control Zones
DECON
• ___________: The systematic removal of
contaminants from persons and objects to
reduce the effects of contamination and to
prevent the possibility of cross-contamination.
Decontamination (Decon)
Emergency Decon: (a.k.a. gross decon)
Employing a water stream from a ladder pipe,
monitor, or hand line to provide a flushing
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technique with directions to victims to self-
decon in the water for ____ to ___ minutes.
Two, five
• Medical Decon: Decontamination through a
_____ corridor, which assures thoroughness and
evaluates effectiveness of the decontamination
of civilians.
MCMD
➢ Respiratory Decon: Directing victims to a
clean air environment and providing respiratory
adjuncts.
• Technical Decon: Providing decontamination
for ________, usually provided in the
contamination reduction corridor by HazMat
Task Force personnel.
emergency personnel
• Emergency Decon Area: The area in the
_______ where emergency decon will take
place.
exclusion zone
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• _________________ (MCMD): A
decontamination process aimed at large
numbers of victims (greater than ten) from a
significant destructive event, including a
terrorism-based incident, by employing a
significant number of emergency responders
(e.g., a minimum of two engine strike teams)
and the capabilities of the MIRV.
Multi-Casualty Mass Decontamination
• ________: After gross/emergency decon is
rendered, the area that is deemed safe from any
more contamination where victims shall be
directed and held pending evaluation for further
decontamination or medical treatment. The
SRA is located in the exclusion zone next to or
near the contamination reduction zone.
Safe Refuge Area
• Personnel assigned to the Multi-Casualty Mass
Decontamination (MCMD) group shall provide
necessary medical decontamination to numbers
of casualties prior to those casualties entering
the medical area in the_________
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support zone.
➢ The first arriving company officer engaging
victims either inside or outside of the 300-foot
perimeter of the affected area, persons, or
devices shall:
a. Provide for firefighter safety
b. Ensure that appropriate PPE is worn
c. Isolate and deny entry
d. Isolate and discourage exit
e. Pass command to the next arriving company
outside the affected area
f. Provide CCD with an initial size-up report
g. Designate a safe refuge area within the
exclusion zone
h. Begin emergency decon in the emergency
decon area
i. Offer direction and reassurance to victims.
Provide CCD with an initial size-up report
including (6)
a. Location by address or intersection
b. Incident type
c. Whether it is dynamic or static
d. Whether fire is involved
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e. How many victims: their signs and
symptoms
f. Special instructions
➢ When beginning emergency decon in the
emergency decon area use hose lines and/or
elevated platforms with low-pressure fog
streams to “rain” down on the victims like a
shower
• Wet down victims before directing them to
remove their outer garments, and expect
modesty to be a problem. Assure the victims
that ___ of the contaminants can be removed by
this simple act, and may save their life.
80%
• Emergency decontaminated victims shall be
directed to a ________ area
safe refuge
• The second arriving company officer shall be
the first unit outside the ___-foot perimeter
300
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➢ The second arriving company officer shall:
a. Provide for firefighter safety
b. Ensure that appropriate PPE is worn
c. Assume command and follow Incident
Command System (ICS) procedures
d. Place the incident command post upwind,
uphill, upstream, and away at a safe
distance
e. Provide first arriving company with a water
supply
f. Establish unified command between health,
law enforcement and fire
g. Provide perimeter control to deny entry and
discourage exit
h. Establish evidence preservation and crime
scene protection actions
➢ All personnel shall consider the area a crime
scene:
1. Work closely with law enforcement within
unified command
2. Have law enforcement accompany fire
personnel at control points
3. All personnel will be expected to secure
evidence throughout a terrorism incident
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➢ After the initial response has been activated,
and it has been determined that an expanded
response with MCMD is needed the IC shall
consider the following:
a. Size-up of the MCMD incident and
determine placement and resources needed
b. Initiate a MCMD group
c. Set up the MCMD corridor
d. Manage the MCMD operations
e. Demobilize and terminate the MCMD
operations
MCMD SIZE UP
When estimating the size of the MCMD
corridor (rule of thumb: ____ X ___)
100’, 100’
When the number of victims is 10 or less, then
MCMD does not apply. The ________ shall
accomplish decontamination of the victims.
HazMat task force (HMTF)
• If the number of victims is between 11 and 100,
then a MCMD _____ should be instituted. This
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shall consist of a ___ engine strike team
response and a Metropolitan Incident Response
Vehicle (MIRV).
Level I, Two
If the number of victims is between ___ and
___, then a MCMD Level II should be
instituted. __ engine strike teams shall respond
with a MIRV.
101 and 200, Four
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• If the number of victims exceeds ____, then a
MCMD Level III (a.k.a. MCMD Catastrophe)
exists. Resources of a MCMD Level II shall be
responded and a request for mutual aid shall be
coordinated through CCD and California
Region I.
200
• The placement of the MCMD operations shall
be in the designated contamination reduction
zone, uphill and upwind of the exclusion zone.
This location shall be known as the ______.
MCMD corridor
➢ Initiation of the MCMD resources, including a
MIRV, begins when the IC requests a Code-T
notification and requests the resources and
equipment directly from CCD.
➢ When setting up the MCMD corridor the
following shall apply:
a. Determine the proper location for the
MCMD (i.e., uphill, upwind, and at a safe
distance) proximal to the designated safe
refuge area
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b. The location must accommodate apparatus,
equipment, a number of personnel, and the
estimated number of victims appropriate for
the incident.
c. The decontamination area must also take
into account an anticipated increase in the
MCMD level of response.
d. Determine a water supply
➢ The objective of the MCMD operations is to
ensure appropriate decontamination is delivered
to as many victims as is practical prior to
directing or otherwise transferring those victims
to the medical group for further triage,
treatment, and transportation. Paramount in this
endeavor is the safety of ALL emergency
responders throughout the process.
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• The MCMD group supervisor position reports
to the ____________
operations section chief.
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➢ The MCMD group supervisor position:
a. Reports to the operations section chief.
b. Is responsible for the implementation of the
phases of the Incident Action Plan (IAP)
dealing with the decontamination of mass
casualty victims.
c. Is responsible for the assignment of
resources within the MCMD group.
d. Reports on the progress of the decon.
operations and the status of resources within
the MCMD group.
e. Directs the overall operation of the MCMD
group.
➢ The MCMD group supervisor shall:
a. Identify the established control zones.
b. Establish the MCMD contamination
reduction corridor (CRC).
c. Ensure environmental monitoring of
contaminants.
d. Conduct safety meetings with the MCMD
group.
e. Participate, when requested, in the
development of the IAP.
f. Ensure coordination with health officials.
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g. Request law enforcement, as needed.
h. Ensure that all patients are directed to the
medical group.
i. Ensure that safe operational procedures are
followed.
j. Ensure that proper personal protective
equipment is used.
k. Maintain a Unit Activity Log (ICS 214).
• All MCMD decon leaders positions report to
the ____ group supervisor.
MCMD
➢ All MCMD decon leaders shall:
a. Carry out actions, as directed by the MCMD
group supervisor.
b. Maintain communications and coordinate
operations with the safe refuge area (SRA)
manager.
c. Maintain control of the movement of people
and equipment within the MCMD
operation, including contaminated victims.
d. Coordinate the transfer of all
decontaminated patients to the medical
group.
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e. Coordinate the transfer, handling and
storage of contaminated personal effects
within the CRC.
f. Ensure that safe operational procedures are
followed.
g. Ensure that proper PPE is used.
h. Maintain a Unit Activity Log (ICS 214).
➢ All decon personnel shall:
a) Wear white coated Tychem SL coveralls
prior to entering the assembled CRC.
b) Never leave the CRC without first having
the benefit of decontamination.
• Demobilizing and termination of the MCMD
operations
a) Termination of the MCMD operations
occurs only after a concurrence among all
agencies having jurisdiction has been
reached.
b) Demobilization shall begin only after the
IC, in conjunction with the ________
officer has given approval to do so.
c) When the order to demobilize has been
given, ____ personnel shall assist the MIRV
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personnel in restoring unused MCMD
supplies and decontaminated equipment to
the vehicles as is practical.
Health HazMat Division (HHMD)
MCMD
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MCMD LAYOUT
The proper location for the MCMD (uphill,
upwind, and at a safe distance) is proximal to
the designated __________ area. Anticipate
that a second, third and fourth MCMD corridor
may be required to surround the operational
area.
Safe refuge
COMBINATION ENGINE COMPANIES AND
TENTS
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➢ The success to MCMD is getting cooperation
from the victims who need decontamination.
Create corridors with three engines to
accommodate male, female and non-ambulatory
victims requiring decontamination.
During MCMD operations attach a _______
nozzle to a _____ discharge gate on the side of
the engine. Engines shall have adequate
pressure (approximately 50 psi) at the discharge
gates one-quarter open
2 ½” fog
2 ½”
• Secure a water supply and place engines
approximately ___ to ___ feet apart. All
windows of engines should be closed
12 to 16
➢ Provide modesty: install curtains by draping
salvage covers over the rope from rope bags
tied-off from engine to engine (dashed lines)
➢ MCMD tent dimensions are 12’ x 12’.
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11.10.8 – TERRORISM – CODE “T”
PROCEDURES 05/05/05
• The IC shall request a Code “___” notification
if, in his opinion, the situation warrants and be
ready to report finding to the LACoFD
_____________ representative
T, Terrorism Early Warning (TEW)
• Communications between the IC and the
LACOFD TEW representative shall be
accomplished via landline, cellular telephone,
MDT, or lastly, _____
Radio
• Situations that may necessitate a Code “T”
request may fall into the following (3)
a. Threatened Use – When information of a
threatened use of CBRNE leads to the
designation of a “decision authority” to
determine a course of action
b. Confirmed Presence – A situation that may
be considered a significant threat. This
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shall also lead to a “decision authority”
designation to determine a course of action
c. Actual Release – An incident that may
constitute a complex emergency
• In the event the IC suspects or confirms an
incident to be terrorism based the IC shall (3)
a. Provide a radio size up
b. Request a Code “T” notification
c. Anticipate communications form the
LACoFD TEW representative
• A radio size up report should include (6)
a. Location by address or intersection
b. Incident type
c. Whether it is dynamic or static
d. Whether fire is involved
e. How many victims; their signs and
symptoms
f. Any special instructions: safe approach,
staging, PPE
• Before the LACoFD TEW representative makes
contact, the IC shall (3)
a. Gather as much information as is practical
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b. Take appropriate actions to protect
personnel and the public
c. Secure a landline or cellular telephone and
advise CCD of preferred communication
mode
• When the LACoFD TEW representative makes
contact, the IC shall (4)
a. Provide a report of general scene conditions
b. Advise what resources are on scene
c. Report on what actions have been taken
d. Seek technical assistance as necessary form
the LACoFD TEW representative
11.10.9 – CRISIS MANAGEMENT
05/05/05
Crisis Management encompasses measures to
identify, acquire, and plan the use of resources
needed to anticipate, prevent, and/or resolve a
threat or act of terrorism. This is predominately
a law enforcement response and, therefore, has
the ____ designated as the lead agency
FBI
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➢ The local office of the FBI has defined its role
as a “one stop shop” for the request and
coordination of Federal resources during a
terrorist event
• The Los Angeles Task Force on Terrorism
(LATFOT) is an interagency task force for the
________ Operational Area. It is coordinated
by the local office of the FBI with
representatives from other law enforcement
agencies.
Los Angeles County
• _________________ is a multi agency group of
specialist in health, fire, and law enforcement
whose job is to identify, analyze, and advise
response agencies and the government on any
terrorist activity or capability in the Los
Angeles County Operational Area
Terrorism Early Warning (TEW) Group
➢ The policy of the LACoFD is to provide for the
mitigation of threat and damage to life,
environment, and property while ensuring the
safety of Department personnel
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• The Los Angeles County Operational Area
Terrorism Response and Management Plan had
been prepared at the local level to affirm the
following two plans
a. Terrorism Incident Annex of the Federal
Response Plan – Presidential Decision
Directive 39
b. State Terrorism Annex established in the
California Master Mutual Aid Plan
Managed by the Governor’s Office of
Emergency Services (OES)
➢ Intelligence sharing and situation monitoring is
the responsibility of the TEW that is
coordinated through the Los Angeles County
Sheriffs Department (LASD), Emergency
Operations Bureau (EOB)
• Who will generally act as the point of contact
for obtaining routine mutual aid for terrorist
incidents
OES
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• The local office of the FBI shall be notified by
theTEW of all incidents or events involving
WMD when there is a/an (3)
a. Threatened Use
b. Confirmed Presence
c. Actual Release
➢ Threatened Use: Requires a threat evaluation
of a potential release. This review threat
information leads to the designation of a
“decision authority” to determine a course of
action. In the case of NBC threats, the Los
Angeles County Operational Area (OA)
decision authority lies with the Los Angeles
County Sheriff, as Director of Emergency
Operations
➢ Confirmed Presence: Requires a threat
evaluation of potential release and a designation
of decision authority to determine a course of
action. It is essential the TEW be notified via
CCD.
• Incident priorities for a potential or actual
terrorist incident include (5)
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1. Protection of life/health
2. Protection of the environment
3. Protection of the crime scene
4. Protection of property and equipment
5. Preservation of crime scene evidence
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➢ In the event of an actual release, the following
incident objectives shall be addressed in unified
command
a. Protect against secondary devices
b. Secure a perimeter and designate zones of
operation
c. Rescue, decontaminate, triage, and treat
affected persons
d. Avoid secondary contamination
e. Move uninvolved crowds/persons to safe
zones
f. Control and/or identify agent release
g. Protect the crime scene and preserve crime
scene evidence
h. Stabilize the incident
11.10.11 – METROPOLITAN INCIDENT
RESPONSE VEHICLE 05/05/05
➢ Code “T”: Department’s designation for a
terrorist response. This designation shall bring
forth added response and notification to the
TEW Terrorism Early Warning Group
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• Control Zones: The three zones are commonly
referred to as (3)
a. Exclusion (hot) zone
b. Contamination reduction (warm) zone
c. Support (cold) zone
• ____________(MIRV): A motorized
conveyance capable of providing materials and
equipment to support a MCMD at an
emergency incident, including terrorism
incidents
Metropolitan Incident Response Vehicle
• _____________(MCMD): A decontamination
process aimed at large numbers of victims
(greater than ten) from a significant destructive
event
Multi Casualty Mass Decontamination
• All administrative site supervisors housing the
MIRVs shall be responsible for (3)
a. The cleanliness, maintenance, and security
of the MIRV
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b. The enforcement of safety policies and
standard operating procedures regarding
MIRV operations
c. The security of the entire inventory assigned
to and within the MIRV’s
• The Operations Bureau Deputy Chiefs’
designee will facilitate all needs regarding the
MIRVs in collaboration with the
_____________
Homeland Security Coordinator
• When the MIRVs are included on any pre
planned IAP, the IC shall ensure that ___ copies
of the IAP are sent to the administrative sites at
which the MIRVs are housed
2
• The _____ shall be contacted immediately
whenever there is a changed of status of the
MIRVs and/or their equipment
Homeland Security Section
• A minimum of __ personnel from the battalion
responsible for the MIRV housed at an
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administrative site in that battalion shall be
assigned as attendants to the MIRVs
2
• When on scene the attendants shall report to the
_______ on scene
MCMD group supervisor
➢ The MIRV shall be located in the support zone
as near to the MCMD area of operation as is
safe and practical
• The MCMD group supervisor shall: (5)
a. Ensure the safe and appropriate location of
the MIRV at the incident and supervise the
attendants
b. Ensure the MCMD corridor (approx 100’ *
100’) is within the CRZ
c. Ensure the MCMD corridor provides the
best flow of decontaminated victims to the
Medical Group
d. Provide personnel to retrieve all equipment
and supplies appropriate for MCMD
Operations
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e. Provide personnel to help the MIRV
attendants reload the MIRV after the
incident
• In the event of a MIRV response the IC shall
(2)
a. Ensure that adequate space is allowed for
the placement of the MCMD operations
including the MIRV
b. Ensure appropriate numbers of emergency
personnel are on scene to operate MCMD
and MIRV
• When a MIRV is required component of a pre
plan (2)
a) A minimum of two personnel from the
_________ responsible for the MIRV
housed at an admin site in the battalion shall
be assigned as attendants
b) The IC shall ensure that the IAP pre plan
includes a staging location for the MIRV
outside the OPS area
c) The IC shall ensure the pre plan includes the
response of at least ___ engine company
strike teams to accompany the MIRV
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Battalion, 2
MIRV attendants shall (2)
a. remain with the MIRV units at all times
until the completion of the incident
b. Maintain a Unit Activity Log (ICS ___) and
complete a Form ___, as required
214, 662
• Strike Teams assigned to the MIRV shall (3)
a) Deploy the MCMD equipment and supplies
b) Erect the MCMD corridor in the CRZ
c) Manage decontamination operations
• MIRV Incident Response Vehicle Inventory
shall include (4)
a. Personal Protective Equipment
b. Communications
c. Tents and Equipment
d. Decontamination Equipment and Supplies
11.10.12 – MULTI CASUALTY INCIDENT
PROCEDURES 05/05/05
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The Department defines a MCI as any incident
generating __ to ____ casualties or more, or
____ or more Critical patients
5, 15, 5
➢ START: Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment
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• A terrorist may use a small conventional
explosive device laced with radioactive
materials. In this instance, first responders will
be forced to deal with four situations
simultaneously (4)
a. Bomb blast injuries
b. Radioactive contamination
c. Psychological harm
d. Personal contamination while performing
ones’ duties
• All sworn personnel have been trained in (4)
a. MCI
b. HazMat FRO responses
c. USAR
d. MCMD
➢ Technical/Specialist training has been given to
paramedics, HazMat and USAR task forces to
support first responders in their actions at a
terrorism driven MCI
➢ The first arriving company shall be responsible
for providing the initial size up, initiating the
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ICS, and taking the necessary actions
appropriate for the demands of the incident
• The ___ shall be responsible for the overall
coordination of Department operations with
command representatives from other agencies,
until the emergency has ended and order has
been restored
IC
• The ____ group, when activated, shall be
responsible for decon, and evaluation of same,
prior to directing or delivering victims to the
Medical Group for further triage, treatment and
transportation
MCMD
• The _______ shall be responsible for the
appropriate triage, treatment and transportation
of victims in the medical group area
Medical Group
______ shall provide complete assessment of
the immediate hazard when a CBRNE agent is
suspected or identified, provide the IC with
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technical assistance, and conduct coordinate
activities to minimize the effect of the hazard
on life and health the environment, and property
HMTF
• Who shall affect rescue in the exclusion zone
when it is not practical for FRO personnel to do
so
HMTF
➢ USAR companies shall provide the IC with
technical assistance and capabilities to conduct
and/or coordinate activities when an explosive
device or building collapse is involved
• ________ personnel shall provide the IC with
technical assistance and authority to identify,
mitigate, and remediate CBRNE hazards at
scene, recommend protective actions, and
evaluate the effectiveness of decontamination
Health HazMat Division (HHMD)
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• All sworn personnel shall, at a minimum, carry
what two items into rescues and non-apparent
HazMat incidents that may have the potential
for terrorist attack.
Air purifying respirators (APR)
One Mark I auto injector kit
• The first responder shall begin FRO procedures
involving (SIN) _________________. The first
responder shall begin steps to accomplish
gross/emergency decontamination of victims
SIN (Safety, Isolate and deny entry, and
make proper notifications)
INITIAL RESPONSE OPERATIONS
• Initial response Operations for the first arriving
Company Officer (5)
1. Conduct an initial size up
2. Initiate an operational retreat – full turnouts
– uphill, upwind, upstream
3. Begin emergency decontamination when
victims appear symptomatic
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4. Anticipate the resource needs to mitigate
event
5. MAC shall be activated through Command
and Control
• The size up report should include (5)
1. Location by address or intersection
2. Type of incident
3. Whether fire is involved
4. Estimation number of victims: signs and
symptoms
5. Any special instructions
When initial response personnel begin
emergency decontamination
a) Establish an exclusion zone and an isolate
and deny entry (IDE) line to contain victims
b) Establish an emergency decontamination
area
c) Establish a ______
Safe Refuge Area
• Who shall become the safe refuge area manager
firefighter
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• The first priority positions critical to the success
of an MCI are (3)
a. IC
b. Medical Communications Coordinator
c. Triage Unit Leader
➢ After the first priority positions have been
established, the following are additional
resources based on the demands to the incident
a. HMTF for hazardous materials
b. Health HazMat for hazardous materials
c. USAR for explosions/structural collapse
d. MCMD engine strike teams
• In the event that the first arriving company is
required to begin emergency decontamination,
command shall be passed to the ___________
Second arriving company officer
The first paramedic squad (PM) on scene shall:
(2)
1. Establish the Medical Communications
Coordinator to communicate with MAC
2. Triage Unit Leader (paramedic in charge of
pt assessment)
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• Medical Communication Leader shall establish
communication with MAC, and provide the
following info: (3)
1. Nature of Incident
2. Estimate number of patients and their triage
categories
3. Closest receiving hospitals (Use Form 62
Hospital Resource Availability)
• The paramedic in charge of patient assessment
shall assume initial triage unit responsibilities
and (4)
a. Make available the Department Multi
Casualty Kit
b. Develop an initial triage plan
c. Calculate the triage totals and inform IC
d. Coordinate the movement of the patients
from the triage area, or the emergency
decon area when established, to either a
treatment area or a safe refuge area after
emergency decon has been rendered
• In the event victims are contaminated, triage
shall be initiated first in the emergency decon
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area and again after decontamination has been
completed prior to treatment in the
____________
Support zone
• When decontamination is necessary, patients
shall be decontaminated and evaluated by (3)
a. Department personnel
b. MMRS-TF
c. NMRT
➢ The IC shall
a. Determine response organization level
b. Be responsible for all command and general
staff responsibilities until additional
resources arrive
c. Assign positions of responsibility by
priority
d. Request from CCD
e. Establish Staging and check in, and assign
management to each
f. Establish an inner perimeter control and
request law enforcement to establish an
outer perimeter
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• The IC shall use the ___________ worksheet –
Form ___
Multi-Casualty Incident Command, 59
➢ The IC shall assign positions of responsibility
by priority
a) First Priority
Medical communications coordinator
Triage Unit Leader
Emergency decon manager, when
applicable
b) Second Priority
Ground ambulance coordinator
Triage personnel
Litter teams
Medical group supervisor
Treatment unit leader
Staging manager
MCMD group supervisor, when
applicable
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c) Third Priority
Command Staff
OSC
Multi casualty branch director
Air ops Branch director
Pt Transportation group supervisor
Air ambulance coordinator
Treatment dispatch manager
Treatment managers
Medical supply officer
Morgue manager
• The IC shall request from CCD the following
(3)
a) Communication Plan
b) Medical caches
c) Additional resources per Form 59 MCI
worksheet
• There are three main levels of triage performed
in the field they are:
1. Primary- The rapid patient assessment and
tagging
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2. Secondary-The sorting of patients for
medical treatment as that treatment is
available
3. Tertiary- The evaluation of the patients
relevant to resources, transportation, and
available medical facilities
There are four color coded triage classifications
or patients, based on the severity or need for
treatment during initial triage
a) Immediate (Red): Patients requiring rapid
assessment and medical intervention for
survival
b) Delayed (Yellow): Patients who require
aid, but their injuries are less severe than
immediate
c) Minor (Green): Patients who need only
simple rudimentary first aid (walking
wounded)
d) Deceased (Black): Those who have died or
are not expected to survive even with ALS
intervention. These victims are also termed
expectant or non-salvageable
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➢ Under START, all victims who are able to walk
on their own are directed by the first responder
to a designated area upwind and uphill of the
hazardous area. If a chemical or radiological
agent contamination is suspected, that area
should be emergency decon. area and victims
shall be directed to self decon before being
directed to a safe refuge area
➢ Biological agent contamination usually will not
require gross decontamination
• Under START, If there is no suspicion of
contamination, then these victims shall be held
in a safe refuge are for further assessment.
These victims shall be triage tagged as
_________ (Green Label)
Minor
• Terrorist attacks using NBC weapons may
produce great numbers of victims. Past
incidents have identified many victims
suffering from __________ ailments as a result
of stress induced by the terrorist attack.
psychosomatic
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• Psychosomatic victims should be transported to
a ___________, where they can be observed by
medical personnel for worsening conditions and
defused by Crisis Intervention Teams
Casualty Collection Point (CCP)
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• The START system should take no more than
______ minute per patient
one
• The START system shall focus on three
primary areas (RPM)
a) Respiratory
b) Perfusion/pulse
c) Mental Status
• As the responder moves through each level of
assessment, any condition that is deemed
immediate (red tag) stops the evaluation
process. Life threatening injuries will be
addressed during _____ triage
Primary
• Respiratory Status: If the patient is breathing
adequately, the triage personnel move on to the
next step. If ventilation is inadequate, the triage
personnel attempts to clear the airway by either
repositioning the victim or clear debris from the
patient’s mouth. If the attempts are
unsuccessful, the victim is classified as follows:
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1. No respiratory effort – Expectant (black tag)
2. Respirations greater than __-/min or needs
help maintaining an airway – Immediate
(red tag)
3. Normal respirations – Go to next step
30
• Perfusion and pulse: The initial evaluation is
determined by measuring the patient’s capillary
refill
1. Normal capillary refill: less than two
seconds – proceed to next step
2. Blood return delayed: greater then two
seconds – immediate (red tag)
3. If unable to obtain capillary refill evaluation
due to patient color or lighting check redial
pulse
a) No radial pulse – immediate (red tag)
b) Radial pulse is present assume BP is ___
and proceed to next step
80
• Neurological Status – The final assessment.
Depending on the level of consciousness, the
following action is taken:
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1. Unconscious – Immediate (red tag)
2. Altered level of consciousness – Immediate
(red tag)
3. Change in mental status – immediate (red
tag)
4. Normal mental responses – Delayed
__________. Move on to the next victim
(yellow tag)
ADDITIONAL TRIAGE CONSIDERATIONS
➢ Biological – Victims rarely exhibit signs and
symptoms at the time of incident
➢ Chemical – Nerve, Mustard, Cyanide, and
Choking Agents
• Nerve Agents: Sarin, Soman, Tabun and VX
1. Immediate (red tag)
a. A casualty who is in severe respiratory
distress with spontaneous breathing or one
who has been apneic for less then ____
minutes
b. Unconscious or convulsive casualties or
those with major disorder of ___ or more
bodily functions (SLUDGE)
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c. Rapid intervention for these patients will
result in an improved outcome.
Immediate tx should include antidote
administration and bag value mask
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2. Delayed (yellow)
a. In primary triage – that which is rapid -
those not showing signs of nerve agent
will be categorized as delayed in favor of
those who are due to the availability of tx
supplies.
b. In secondary triage mode – that which
occurs at a tx area – the delayed category
is assigned to pt’s recovering from
exposure after treatment who are
conscious and have improved respiratory
status
3. Minor (green tag) – Walking and talking
and possess intact breathing and circulation
4. Deceased/Expectant (black tag) casualties
are those who have been apneic for more
than ___ minutes, without a pulse or blood
pressure
Five, Two, Five
Mustard agents
1. Immediate (red tag) – For patients
exhibiting moderate to severe pulmonary
distress and exhibiting chemical burns of
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___ to ___ body surface area (BSA) and/or
eye involvement
2. Delayed (yellow tag) – For most mustard
agent casualties. These are casualties with
chemical burns of ___ to ___ BSA or eye
involvement.
3. Minor (green tag) – For those casualties
with chemical burns of less the ___ BSA
4. Deceased/Expectant (black tag) For those
casualties with chemical burns greater than
50% BSA and/or respiration or pulse
5% to 50%, 5% to 50%, 5%
• Cyanides
1. Immediate (red tag) – Casualties with
convulsions (__seconds after acute
exposure), respiratory arrest (__-__ minutes
after acute exposure)
2. Delayed (yellow tag) – Casualties with
lower dose exposure exhibiting headaches,
dizziness, nausea, vomiting and
hyperventilation.
3. Minor (green tag) – Casualties exposed with
no apparent signs and symptoms
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4. Deceased/Expectant (black tag) – Casualties
that are dead after __ - __ minutes or acute
exposure
30, 3-5, 6 – 10
• Choking agents: phosgene and chlorine
1. Immediate (red tag) – Those who develop
non cardiac pulmonary edema with ___
hours after exposure and an intensive care
unit (ICU) is readily available
2. Delayed (yellow tag) – Those who develop
a cough and dyspnea after __ hours of
exposure. There is a chance that these
patients will develop pulmonary edema
3. Minor (green tag) – Casualties exposed with
no apparent signs and symptoms
4. Deceased/Expectant (black tag) – Those
who develop non cardiac pulmonary edema
with __ hours after exposure and an ICU is
not available
Six, Six, Six
• Radiological
1. Immediate (red tag) – Patients with
traumatic injuries severe burns to the face
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and upper respiratory tract and difficulty
breathing due to mechanical problems
2. Delayed (yellow tag) – Victims with
traumatic injuries that are not life
threatening, second and third degree burns
less than __ of body surface area (BSA)
3. Minor (green tag) – Victims with burns less
than __ of BSA, but not involving critical
areas of the body or if victim had received
short term ionizing radiation of 100 to 150
radioactive absorb dose (rad)
4. Deceased/Expectant (black tag) – Victims
having severe burns greater than __ of BSA.
Lethal dose with signs and symptoms.
25%, 10%, 30%
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The multi casualty kit contains (4)
1. 12 packets containing position vest with
responsibility cards
2. I.C.S. forms with clipboards
3. 50 Triage Tags
4. Four 16’*20’ disposal tarps
a) RED: Immediate or critical
b) YELLOW: Delayed
c) GREEN: Minor Walking wounded
d) BLACK: Deceased/expectant
• Each tarp is design to except ____ patients
10
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11.10.13 – BIOLOGICAL DETECTION
SYSTEM 2/08/08
➢ Purpose is to provide Department personnel
with information and procedures on the
response to a Biological Detection System
(BDS) alarm activation at United States Postal
Service (USPS) facilities.
• Anthrax: There are three forms of
contamination:
1) cutaneous or skin contact infection,
resulting in black, ulcerative skin lesions
2) alimentary or intestinal infection, leading
to serious flu-like symptoms
3) pulmonary or airborne (respiratory)
infection, causing chest pain and shortness
of breath.
• The respiratory form of Anthrax is the most
severe, leading to a ___% death rate within a
short number of days.
90
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• The United States Postal Service (USPS) has
installed (BDS) systems at postal annexes
called ________
USPS Processing and Distribution Centers
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• At this time, the only biological agent
detectable by the BDS is Bacillus anthracis
(_____). Upon detection of anthrax, the BDS
will trigger an alarm and automatically shut
down the mail-processing machine. Staff
alerted by the alarm will then implement their
facility’s evacuation and decontamination plans
anthrax
• _______________ (HAZWOPER): Employees
trained and equipped to respond to, provide
corrective actions, and clean-up hazardous
substances
Hazardous Waste Operations and
Emergency Response
• _______________ (USPIS): The primary law
enforcement arm of the USPS. It protects the
USPS, its employees, and its customers from
criminal attack.
United States Postal Inspection Service
➢ The first arriving company is responsible for
providing the initial size-up, initiating the
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Incident Command System (ICS), and taking
the necessary actions appropriate for the
demands of the incident.
➢ The Incident Commander (IC) is responsible
for the overall coordination of the Incident
Action Plan (IAP) and coordination with
command representatives from other agencies
until the emergency has ended and order has
been restored.
• Hazardous Materials Task Force (HMTF)
personnel are responsible for providing the IC
with technical assistance and coordinating
activities with the ___________ teams to
minimize the effect of the hazards to life, the
environment, and property.
USPIS HAZWOPER
➢ HHMD personnel are responsible for
providing the IC with technical assistance and
coordinating activities with the USPIS
HAZWOPER teams to minimize the effect of
the hazards to life, the environment, and
property.
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➢ The USPIS HAZWOPER teams are
responsible for entry, recon, sample collection,
and sample delivery to the Laboratory Response
Network (LRN) facility for testing.
• The ____- agent and the ___ will be responsible
for security of the postal facility.
USPIS, FBI
➢ It is the policy of the Los Angeles County
Fire Department to provide cooperative
coordination with the appropriate Federal
authorities at a BDS response at any of the
United States Postal Service Processing and
Distribution Centers (USPS P&DC). All sworn
personnel shall follow standard operating
procedures in Standards in Emergency Medical
Services (EMS), pre-hospital care, first
responder operational, emergency response to
terrorism, and Multi-Casualty Mass
Decontamination (MCMD) training.
• When a BDS activation has occurred,
Department personnel shall concentrate their
efforts on: (4)
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1) Establishing unified command with
USPS.
2) Ensuring decontamination of USPS
employees outside the facility.
3) Providing (BLS/ALS) for any persons at
the facility requiring treatment prior to
medical transport.
4) Investigating and notifying the Health
Department of any public exposure.
• The affected USPS facility shall be treated as a
crime scene and under the jurisdiction of the
___
FBI.
➢ Except for life safety issues, the FBI requires
that in the event of a BDS activation incident at
a USPS facility, no entries are to be made by
any Department personnel without the direction
of the FBI or the USPIS officer.
• The primary objective at the scene of a BDS
alarm incident is to provide MCMD to the
USPS employees that could number as high as
___ persons.
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700
➢ When a BDS alarm has been activated USPS
employees are directed to notify CCD.
➢ Upon arrival, the first-in company officer shall
contact the on-site USPS representative to:
1. Confirm that a BDS alarm activation has
occurred.
2. Communicate to CCD a follow-up report.
3. Establish unified command.
4. Determine the need for additional
resources.
5. Locate and identify the exclusion,
contamination reduction, and support zones.
6. Establish the area for decon corridors.
7. Secure the USPS civilian modesty
garments.
8. Direct incoming units to the MCMD site.
➢ All company officers shall:
1. Provide for firefighter safety.
2. Ensure that appropriate personal protective
equipment is worn.
3. Support the incident appropriately per the
IC.
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➢ The IC shall consider the following:
1. Establish unified command with the USPS.
2. Determine the need for BLS/ALS
intervention.
3. Initiate a Code T for notifications.
4. Initiate a MCMD group as needed.
5. Set up the MCMD corridor as needed.
6. Manage the MCMD operations.
7. Demobilize and terminate the MCMD
operations.
➢ Hazardous Materials response coordination will
be led by the USPIS
• ___________ teams shall extract the evidence
for LRN testing.
USPIS HAZWOPER
• USPIS HAZWOPER personnel may request the
Department’s ____ personnel to “back-up” their
entry and/or provide responder decon.
HMTF