2009 biology examination paper
TRANSCRIPT
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External Examination 2009
2009 BIOLOGY
Monday 9 November: 9 a.m.
Time: 3 hours
Section A and Part 1 of Section B
Examination material: Question Booklet 1 (21 pages)Question Booklet 2 (12 pages)Question Booklet 3 (8 pages)one multiple-choice answer sheetone SACE registration number label
Approved dictionaries and calculators may be used.
Instructions to Students
1. You will have 10 minutes to read the paper. You must not write in your question booklets, or on your multiple-
choice answer sheet, or use a calculator during this reading time but you may make notes on the scribbling paper provided.
2. This paper is in three sections: Section A and Part 1 of Section B are in Question Booklet 1; Part 2 of Section Bis in Question Booklet 2; and Section C is in Question Booklet 3.
Section A: Multiple-choice Questions (Questions 1 to 25)Answer Section A on the separate multiple-choice answer sheet, using black or blue pen.
Answer all questions in Section A.
Section B: Short-answer Questions (Questions 26 to 34)Answer Part 1 of Section B (Questions 26 to 28) in the spaces provided in Question Booklet 1.Write on page 21 of Question Booklet 1 if you need more space.
Answer Part 2 of Section B (Questions 29 to 34) in the spaces provided in Question Booklet 2.
Write on page 12 of Question Booklet 2 if you need more space.Section C: Extended-response Questions (Questions 35 and 36)Answer both questions in Section C in Question Booklet 3.Write on page 8 of Question Booklet 3 if you need more space.
3. In Section B there is no need to ll all the space provided; clear, well-expressed answers are required. If youdelete part or all of an answer you should clearly indicate your nal answer and label it with the appropriatequestion number.
4. The allocation of marks and suggested allotment of time are as follows:
Section A 50 marks 40 minutesSection B 120 marks 110 minutesSection C 30 marks 30 minutesTotal 200 marks 180 minutes
5. Attach your SACE registration number label to the box at the top of this page. Copy the information fromyour SACE registration number label into the boxes on your multiple-choice answer sheet and on the frontcovers of Question Booklets 2 and 3.
6. At the end of the examination, place Question Booklets 2 and 3, and your multiple-choice answer sheet, insidethe back cover of Question Booklet 1.
ATTACH SACE REGISTRATION NUMBER LABEL
TO THIS BOX
FOR OFFICE
USE ONLY
SUPERVISOR
CHECK
RE-MARKED
QUESTION
BOOKLET
121 pages, 28 questions
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STUDENT’S DECLARATION ON THE USE OF
CALCULATORS
By signing the examination attendance roll I declare that:
my calculators have been cleared of all memory;•
no external storage media are in use on these calculators.•
I understand that if I do not comply with the above conditions
for the use of calculators I will:
be in breach of the rules;•
have my marks for the examination cancelled or amended;•
be liable to such further penalty, whether by exclusion from•
future examinations or otherwise, as the SACE Board of
South Australia determines.
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SECTION A: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (Questions 1 to 25)
(50 marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
Each of the twenty- ve multiple-choice questions in Section A involves choosing from four
alternative answers. Read each question carefully. Then indicate the one alternative that you
consider best answers the question by shading the bubble by the appropriate letter alongside
the question number on the multiple-choice answer sheet. Use black or blue pen. It is in your
interest to give an answer to every question in this section of the paper, as no marks are deducted
for incorrect answers. Each question is worth 2 marks. You should spend about 40 minutes on
this section.
1. Which one of the following macromolecules is not used as an energy reserve in a cell?
J. Chitin.
K. Lipid.
L. Glycogen.
M. Starch.
2. Which one of the following substances is present in an onion root cell, but not in a human muscle
cell?
J. DNA.
K. Cellulose.
L. Lipid.
M. Glycogen.
3. The shape of the active site of an enzyme molecule can be altered by
J. lowering the activation energy.
K. the presence of molecules with a shape similar to that of the active site.
L. the presence of molecules with a shape complementary to that of its substrate.
M. increasing the temperature.
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4. A retrovirus contains genetic material in the form of RNA. When a retrovirus infects a host cell,
its RNA is used as a template to make DNA, in a process called ‘reverse transcription’.
Which one of the following alternatives shows the DNA segment that would be made using the
RNA segment template shown below?
RNA segment template: G C C U A G G
J. C G G A U C C
K. G C C T A G G
C G G A T C C
L. C G G A T C C
M. C G G A U C C
G C C U A G G
5. Refer to the following diagram, which shows process A , compound B , and structures 1 and 2 in a
cell:
process A
compound B
compound B
structure 1
structure 2aa
aa
aa
aa
aa
aa
DNA
[This diagram is not drawn to scale.]
Which one of the following combinations identies process A, compound B, and structures 1
and 2?
Process A Compound B Structure 1 Structure 2
J. transcription mRNA ribosome tRNA
K. transcription mRNA amino acid anticodon
L. DNA replication DNA ribosome anticodon
M. DNA replication DNA amino acid tRNA
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6. Refer to the following table, which shows the amino acid sequence for the same part of a
beta-haemoglobin polypeptide in ve species. Each letter represents one amino acid.
Species Amino acid sequence
ghost bat V K A H G K K V L N S
rose-ringed
parakeetV R A H G K K V L T S
hamster V K A H G K K V I H S
platypus V K A H G A K V L T S
black-headed
gullV R A H G K K V L T S
It is reasonable to conclude from the information in the table above that the
J. ghost bat is descended from the hamster.
K. platypus is more closely related to the ghost bat than to the hamster.
L. rose-ringed parakeet and the black-headed gull have the same DNA sequence.
M. hamster is more closely related to the platypus than to the black-headed gull.
7. Refer to the following diagram, which shows a process involving part of the cell membrane and a
vesicle inside a cell:
cell membrane
vesicleinside cell
outside cell
Which one of the following statements identies and describes the process illustrated?
J. Exocytosis, which is a passive process.
K. Endocytosis, which is a passive process.
L. Exocytosis, which is an active process.
M. Endocytosis, which is an active process.
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8. The following table shows four sets of conditions in which the same number of identical human
skin cells were cultured. All other factors were kept constant.
Which one of the sets of conditions, J, K, L, or M, would result in the highest rate of cell division?
Conditions
Temperature Light Carbon dioxide Oxygen
J. 25°C not present present present
K. 35°C present not present not present
L. 25°C present not present not present
M. 35°C not present present present
9. The movement of chloroplasts within the cytoplasm of some green plant cells maximises theexposure of the chloroplasts to sunlight.
Which one of the following cell structures enables this movement of chloroplasts to occur?
J. Endoplasmic reticulum.
K. Cytoskeleton.
L. Golgi body.
M. Cell membrane.
10. Refer to the following diagram, which shows an organelle found in a eukaryotic cell:
membrane A
membrane B
Source: Adapted from B. LeCornu & T. Diercks, Biology: Levels of Life,
2nd edn (rev.), Briton Books, Adelaide, 2005, page 48
The organelle shown above is thought to have evolved by endosymbiotic events approximately
1.5 billion years ago.
Which one of the following combinations identies the organelle, the origin of membrane A, and
the origin of membrane B?
Organelle Origin of membrane A Origin of membrane B
J. mitochondrion heterotrophic prokaryote host cell membrane
K. chloroplast host cell membrane autotrophic prokaryote
L. chloroplast autotrophic prokaryote host cell membrane
M. mitochondrion host cell membrane heterotrophic prokaryote
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11. Two types of gene are involved in regulating the cell cycle. Proto-oncogenes control the start of
cell division, and tumour-suppressor genes stop cell division. A mutated proto-oncogene can result
in cancer. Both proto-oncogenes and tumour-suppressor genes are susceptible to carcinogens.
Which one of the following combinations of type of gene, presence or absence of carcinogen, and
effect on the cell cycle is consistent with the information above?
Type of gene Carcinogen Effect on the cell cycle
J. proto-oncogene present uncontrolled cell division
K. tumour suppressor present cell division is stopped
L. proto-oncogene not present cell division is stopped
M. tumour suppressor not present uncontrolled cell division
12. Refer to the following diagram, which shows two compartments, A and B , separated by asemi-permeable membrane. The initial volume of solution in each compartment is 5 mL. The
initial concentrations of substances in each compartment are shown in parts per million (ppm).
potassium ions (K +)
sodium ions (Na+)
sucrose
potassium ions (K +)
sodium ions (Na+)
sucrose
5 ppm
20 ppm
25 ppm
25 ppm
30 ppm
35 ppm
semi-permeable membrane(permeable to K +, Na+, and water, but not to sucrose)
Compartment A Compartment B
According to the information in the diagram above, there would be an overall movement of
J. potassium ions from compartment A to compartment B.
K. water from compartment A to compartment B.
L. sodium ions from compartment A to compartment B.
M. sucrose from compartment B to compartment A.
13. A human heart is a major organ composed of
J. one type of cell.
K. cells that contain different genes.
L. tissues that contain different genes.
M. genetically identical cells.
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14. Genetic variation does not arise during
J. the cell cycle, when mistakes in copying the DNA base sequence occur.
K. the rst division of meiosis, when genes are exchanged between the members of a pair of
homologous chromosomes.
L. the second division of meiosis, when pairs of homologous chromosomes align themselvesindependently of each other.
M. fertilisation, when a random combination of gametes forms a zygote.
15. If the body temperature of a healthy person falls below the normal setting of 37°C
J. an increased amount of the hormone thyroxine is released, resulting in a decrease in heat
loss.
K. a decreased amount of sweating occurs, resulting in an increase in heat production.
L. vasodilation occurs, resulting in an increase in heat production.
M. vasoconstriction occurs, resulting in a decrease in heat loss.
16. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a bacterium that synthesises crystal-like proteins (Cry proteins).
Cry proteins bind to specic receptors on the intestinal lining of specic groups of insects,
rupturing the cells and killing the insects within a few days.
Cotton plants do not naturally synthesise Cry proteins. Biotechnology is used to produce cotton
plants that do synthesise Cry proteins.
Which one of the following processes could be used to produce a cotton plant with the potential tosynthesise Cry proteins in all its cells?
J. Using a bacterial vector to transfer Cry proteins into the cells of a cotton plant.
K. Transferring the genes for Cry proteins into the cells of a cotton plant.
L. Using microinjection to transfer Cry proteins into the fertilised egg cell of a cotton plant.
M. Transferring the genes for Cry proteins into the fertilised egg cell of a cotton plant.
17. In the process of
J. aerobic respiration, autotrophs and heterotrophs convert chemical energy into heat energy.
K. aerobic respiration, autotrophs convert light energy into chemical energy.
L. photosynthesis, heterotrophs convert light energy into chemical energy.
M. photosynthesis, autotrophs and heterotrophs convert chemical energy into heat energy.
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18. Refer to the following diagram, which shows the respiratory system of an insect:
spiracle tracheole trachea
There are many openings called ‘spiracles’ on the surface of an insect’s body. Each spiracle
connects to an air tube (trachea) that branches throughout the insect’s body. Air is moved in and
out of the air tubes by contractions of the insect’s body.
The many tiny branches (tracheoles) of the air tubes deliver air direct to the body cells of the
insect. There is moisture at the end of each tiny branch. Gas exchange between the tiny branches
and the body cells occurs by diffusion.
Which one of the following descriptions does not apply to both an insect and a human being?
J. There is a large surface area for gas exchange because of the presence of many tiny
structures.
K. Air is delivered direct from tiny branches to body cells for gas exchange.
L. The mechanism of gas exchange is diffusion.
M. Water is lost by evaporation during gas exchange.
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19. Refer to the following diagram, which shows a dividing cell from a diploid organism:
This cell
J. is undergoing mitosis.
K. has a haploid number of 6.
L. is undergoing the rst division of meiosis.
M. will produce genetically variable daughter cells.
20. Various types of organism, including native bushes, insects, small birds, and lizards, live in the
shrubbery in a suburban backyard.
These organisms together make up
J. a community.
K. an ecosystem.
L. a population.
M. a habitat.
21. Which one of the following statements describes an example of a mechanism that would help to
maintain reproductive isolation?
J. The production of similar mating calls by two species of frog.
K. The production of gametes during the same season by two species of pine tree.
L. The mating and production of infertile offspring by two individuals.M. The separation of two populations of the same species by a geographical barrier.
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22. Refer to the following graph, which shows the level of productivity of six types of ecosystem:
10000
8000
6000
4000
2000
0temperate
forestsavannah woodland lakes and
streamsagricultural
land estuaries
p r o d u c t i v i t y ( a r b
i t r a r y u n i t s )
type of ecosystem
Which one of the following statements is most consistent with the data in the graph above?
J. There is more water available in savannah than in agricultural land.K. There are more sunlight hours in woodland than in savannah.
L. The concentration of nutrients available for plant growth is higher in estuaries than in
temperate forest.
M. The productivity of estuaries is four times higher than that of lakes and streams.
23. The wounds of patients who have undergone surgery are susceptible to bacterial infections.
Enterococcus faecium and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are species of
bacterium associated with these infections. Methicillin and other antibiotics are often used to treat
infections of surgical wounds, but do not always cure them.
Which one of the following statements about the development of resistance to antibiotics in
bacteria such as Enterococcus faecium and MRSA is correct?
J. Individual bacteria that are not affected by antibiotics evolve resistance.
K. Bacteria that are exposed to methicillin will become resistant to all antibiotics to which
they are exposed.
L. A number of individuals in a population of bacteria may be resistant to methicillin.
M. A person who is resistant to methicillin will pass on the methicillin-resistant gene to the
bacteria.
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24. Refer to the following diagram of a food web:
dingo
desert hopping mousekoala
gum tree
brown snake
frill-necked lizard
native insect
native grass
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
J. Frill-necked lizards and dingoes belong to different trophic levels.
K. Gum trees and native grasses are both in the rst trophic level.
L. Koalas and desert hopping mice belong to the same trophic level.
M. Brown snakes belong to both the third and the fourth trophic levels.
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25. Two students investigated anaerobic respiration by taking measurements of the volume of carbon
dioxide (CO2) produced by yeast during bread-making.
Both students used the same experimental conditions when collecting the data recorded in the
table below:
Sample number Volume of CO2 produced (arbitrary units)Student A Student B
1 1.02 1.01
2 1.10 1.02
3 1.15 1.02
4 0.99 1.03
5 1.09 1.02
Average 1.07 1.02
If the true value for this experiment was 1.05 (arbitrary units), the data in the table indicate that
the set of data collected by student A
J. has the same random errors as the set of data collected by student B.
K. has random errors but the set of data collected by student B does not.
L. is more accurate than the set of data collected by student B.
M. is more reliable than the set of data collected by student B.
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SECTION B: SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS (Questions 26 to 34)
(120 marks)
You should spend about 110 minutes on this section. Answers may be in note form. The allocation of
marks is shown in brackets at the end of each part of each question. Answer all questions in the spaces
provided.
Part 1 (Questions 26 to 28)
(60 marks)
26. Silk, which is produced by spiders when building webs, is one of the strongest substances known.
It is ve times stronger than steel in a weight-to-weight comparison, more elastic than nylon, and
lighter and stronger than Kevlar ®. Its many potential uses include body armour in the military,
articial tendons, medical sutures, and biodegradable shing lines.
Spider silk is made of a protein. Scientists have located and isolated the gene for the spider silk
protein from orb-weaving spiders that produce the strongest silk.
(a) Describe the features of a probe that would be used to locate the gene for the spider silk
protein in the spider DNA.
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
(b) Scientists hope to use genetic engineering techniques to create synthetic spider silk that
can be used commercially. Their rst attempts have involved genetically modifying
bacterial cells to produce the spider silk protein.
Describe the process that the scientists would use to insert the isolated gene for the spider silk
protein into the plasmid of a bacterial cell.
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(c) Two amino acids, glycine and alanine, make up 70% of spider silk protein. Bacterial
cells that were genetically modied to produce spider silk protein died as a result of the
depletion of these two amino acids.
Explain why the bacterial cells died as a result of the depletion of these two amino acids.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
(d) Scientists have recently inserted the gene for the spider silk protein into goats in such a
way that it is present in all the goats’ cells, but is expressed only in their milk-producingcells. These ‘spider-goats’ produce between 1 and 2 grams of spider silk in every litre of
milk.
Explain one argument that may be used against the genetic modication of goats to produce
silk.
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
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27. Refer to the following diagram, which shows the movement of acetylcholine, a chemical that
moves across the synapse (the gap between two nerve cells):
acetylcholine
nerve cell 1
vesicle
synapse
nerve cell 2
[This diagram is not drawn to scale.]
(a) Describe the process by which nerve cell 1 releases acetylcholine into the synapse, as
shown in the diagram above.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
(b) Name the organelle that forms the vesicles containing acetylcholine.
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(c) After acetylcholine has been released into the synapse, it binds to specic membrane
receptors on nerve cell 2 and triggers a nerve impulse.
Explain why acetylcholine will bind only to acetylcholine membrane receptors and not to
membrane receptors for any other chemical.
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
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(d) Acetylcholine must be broken down very quickly after it has triggered a nerve impulse,
in order to ‘reset’ the synapse in preparation for the next nerve impulse. The enzyme
acetylcholinesterase (AChE) breaks acetylcholine down into choline and acetate at the rate
of 5000 molecules per second per molecule of enzyme. The breakdown of acetylcholine
is represented by the following word equation:
acetylcholine choline + acetateAChE
Explain how AChE lowers the activation energy needed for this reaction.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
(e) Diisopropyl uorophosphate (DIFP) is a nerve toxin that inhibits AChE. The subsequent
accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse results in paralysis of muscles, including the
respiratory muscles, followed by death.
Explain how the presence of DIFP results in an accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse.
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28. Refer to the following diagram, which shows a pair of guard cells. Guard cells are specialised
photosynthetic cells found on the leaf surfaces of many green plants.
guard cell
vacuole
chloroplast
epidermal cell
guard cell
The volume of a guard cell varies with different environmental conditions.
Refer to the following table, which shows the results of an experiment to determine the change in
volume of one guard cell over a 24-hour period, beginning at midnight:
time (h) 0(midnight)
4 8 12(noon)
16 20 24(midnight)
volume of guard cell
(m3)3000 4000 4750 5000 4750 4000 3000
(a) On the grid below, graph the data in the table above to show the change in volume of
the guard cell over the 24-hour period.
(4 marks)
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(b) Describe the change in volume of the guard cell over the 24-hour period.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(c) Using only the information provided, state one factor in the design of this experiment
that would affect the reliability of the results.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(d) State the dependent variable in this experiment.
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(e) It was later found that a systematic error had affected the results of the experiment.
Explain how this systematic error would have been identied.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
(f) Explain how an increase in its volume may affect a guard cell’s ability to obtain the
materials it needs from its environment.
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____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
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(g) Potassium ions (K +) can move against a concentration gradient through the cell membrane
and into the guard cells.
The diagram below shows a cross section of the cell membrane from a guard cell:
X
X
ATP
ADP
potassium ions
outside
guard cell
insideguard cell
(i) Name the cellular process by which potassium ions move into the guard cell against
a concentration gradient.
_______________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(ii) Name membrane component X.
_______________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(iii) Explain how the process of aerobic respiration enables ATP to be formed from ADP.
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_______________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
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© SACE Board of South Australia 2009
You may write on this page if you need more space to nish your answers to any questions in
Part 1 of Section B. Make sure to label each answer carefully (e.g. 27(a) continued).
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FOR OFFICE
USE ONLY
SUPERVISOR
CHECK
RE-MARKED
SACE REGISTRATION NUMBER
FIGURES
BIOLOGY
CHECK
LETTER
SEQ BIN
External Examination 2009
2009 BIOLOGY
Monday 9 November: 9 a.m.
Part 2 of Section B
Write your answers to Part 2 of Section B in this question booklet.
QUESTION
BOOKLET
212 pages, 6 questions
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SECTION B: SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS
Part 2 (Questions 29 to 34)
(60 marks)
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
29. Very small amounts of DNA can be collected from a crime scene.
(a) State how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) enables very small amounts of DNA from
a crime scene to be used as evidence.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(b) Refer to the following diagram, which shows three DNA ngerprints: a mixed sample of
DNA from a crime scene, the DNA of the victim, and the DNA of one suspect:
DNA of
victim
DNA of one
suspect
Mixed sample
of DNA from
crime scene
DNA
fragment
A
B
C
D
E
F
With reference to the information in the diagram above, explain how the DNA evidence could
be used to support the suspect’s innocence.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
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30. The human eye is a sensory organ. Refer to the following diagram, which shows the location of
the iris, cornea, retina, and optic nerve in the human eye:
optic nerve
retinairis
cornea
(a) State one important function of sensory receptors.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (2 marks)
(b) Receptor cells in the retina transmit information, via the optic nerve, to the brain. Cellsin the cornea have receptors for steroid hormones.
Describe two differences between the transmission of information by nerves and the
transmission of information by hormones.
Difference 1: ________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
Difference 2: ________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________ (4 marks)
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(c) Receptor cells in the retina transmit information, via nerves, to the dilator muscle in the
iris. The dilator muscle alters the size of the iris and consequently changes the amount of
light entering the eye. This is a reex response.
(i) Name the effector in the reex response described above.
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(ii) State why this response is called a reex response.
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31. It is necessary for double-stranded DNA to break for the process of crossing over to occur.
In an experiment to investigate the number and position of double-stranded DNA breaks (DSBs),
biologists examined a section of DNA from a species of yeast.
The graph below shows the results of this experiment:
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n u m b e r o f D S B s
protein coding gene
non-protein coding gene
gene 1 gene 2 gene 3 gene 4 gene 5 gene 6
1 kbp
position along section of DNA molecule
Genes 1, 3, 5, and 6 code for proteins. Genes 2 and 4 produce non-protein coding RNA (ncRNA).
(a) Using the scale in the graph above, estimate the length in kilobase pairs (kbp) of gene 4.
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(b) With reference to the data in the graph:
(i) state the greatest number of DSBs at any position along this section of DNA.
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(ii) name the gene in which the greatest number of DSBs occurs.
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(c) The biologists who obtained the results shown in the graph above were investigating the
connection between sections of DNA that produce ncRNA and the likelihood of DSBsoccurring.
State one conclusion that is consistent with these results.
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(d) (i) In Box 1, draw a diagram to show one occurrence of crossing over in one pair of
chromosomes.
Box 1
(2 marks)
(ii) In Box 2, draw a diagram to show the result of the crossing over that you have
drawn in Box 1.
Box 2
(2 marks)
(e) Explain what would be the likely consequence for a cell if DSBs occurred in protein
coding sections of DNA.
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32. Smoking increases the risk of developing lung cancer more in some people than in others.
Scientists say that a simple urine test can predict whether or not a smoker is likely to develop lung
cancer.
NNAL is a product of a carcinogen in cigarette smoke. Experimental trials found that the
likelihood of developing lung cancer is 8.5 times greater for smokers with the highest levels of
NNAL in their urine than for those with the lowest levels.
The following diagram shows part of a human nephron:
direction of blood flow
(a) On the diagram above, draw an arrow to show the pathway followed by a molecule, such
as NNAL, as it travels from the blood to the urine.
(2 marks)
(b) Describe one way in which the ndings of the experimental trials involving NNAL and
smokers may benet society.
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33. Refer to the following photograph, which shows a young zenkey. A zenkey is the offspring
produced from the mating of a male zebra (with a diploid number of 44) and a female donkey
(with a diploid number of 62).
Source: www.smh.com.au
(a) State the number of chromosomes in a body cell of a zenkey.
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(b) The cells of zenkeys are able to undergo mitotic cell division.
Describe two consecutive steps that involve the movement of chromosomes during mitotic
cell division.
Step 1: _______________________________________________________________________________________________
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Step 2: _______________________________________________________________________________________________
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(c) State one factor that would prevent the cells of a zenkey from completing meiosis.
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34. In the wet season on the African plains, animals such as wildebeest migrate to follow the
availability of grasses containing high levels of phosphates and nitrates. The wildebeest eat the
leaves, but not the stems, of the grasses.
Acacia is a plant that threatens the growth of the grasses. Acacia seeds are widely distributed
during the dry season, and germinate in the wet season. As the grasses are eaten by the wildebeest,
the acacias have more resources available to them and grow into large trees. The conditions arethen no longer suitable for the grasses, and the wildebeest move away to nd food elsewhere.
Acacias are a source of food for animals such as the dik-dik, a type of antelope. Dik-diks eat all
the easily accessible leaves of the acacias.
Towards the end of the wet season the acacias are destroyed by elephants, which knock them
down and eat the branches.
(a) The remains of the acacias contain phosphates and nitrates.
Name the type of organism that returns these phosphates and nitrates to the soil.
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(b) Name the process described above that results in a change in the mixture of species.
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(c) With reference to the information above:
(i) state one biotic factor that is important for the survival of the dik-dik.
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(ii) explain how the destruction of the acacias enables the population of grasses to
increase at the beginning of the next wet season.
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(d) The African elephant is an endangered species.
Explain why the best way to preserve the African elephant is to preserve the African plains
habitat.
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You may write on this page if you need more space to nish your answers to any questions in
Part 2 of Section B. Make sure to label each answer carefully (e.g. 33(b) continued).
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© SACE Board of South Australia 2009
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SACE REGISTRATION NUMBER
FIGURES
BIOLOGY
CHECK
LETTER
SEQ BIN
External Examination 2009
FOR OFFICE
USE ONLY
SUPERVISOR
CHECK
RE-MARKED
2009 BIOLOGY
Monday 9 November: 9 a.m.
Section C
Write your answers to Section C in this question booklet.
QUESTION
BOOKLET
38 pages, 2 questions
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SECTION C: EXTENDED-RESPONSE QUESTIONS (Questions 35 and 36)
(30 marks)
Answer both questions in this section.
Write your answers in this question booklet:
Question 35, on pages 4 and 5, is worth 15 marks.•
Question 36, on pages 6 and 7, is worth 15 marks.•
You should spend about 30 minutes on this section, 5 to 10 minutes
planning and 20 to 25 minutes writing.
Credit will be given for clear, well-expressed answers that are well
organised and relevant to the questions.
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35. The ef cient supply of oxygen and glucose to cells enhances athletic performance. At times the
supply of oxygen to cells is inadequate to meet their energy demand. Some athletes choose to use
performance-enhancing drugs to improve the supply of oxygen and / or glucose to their cells.
Explain how the structure of blood capillaries facilitates the supply of glucose to cells.•
Describe how energy is made available in the cells of athletes under• anaerobic conditions.
Describe how choices about drug use can affect the well-being of an athlete.•
(15 marks)
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36. The human population is approaching 7 billion. If growth trends continue, the human population
will reach 9 billion by 2050.
Use the human species as an example to explain the idea that• r and K strategies are
extremes on a continuum.
Explain why the exponential growth of the human population is not sustainable.•
Discuss• one ethical issue associated with the level of human population predicted for 2050.
(15 marks)
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© SACE Board of South Australia 2009
You may write on this page if you need more space to nish your answers to Questions 35 and 36.
Make sure to label each answer carefully (e.g. 35 continued).
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BIOLOGY 2009
ACKNOWLEDGMENT
The photograph for Question 33 on page 9 is copyright © AFP.
The SACE Board of South Australia has made every effort to trace copyright holders. If however,
any material has been incorrectly acknowledged, we apologise and invite the copyright holder to
contact us.