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National University of Computer and Emerging Sciences

KARACHI

Admission Information Booklet &

Sample Test Questions

Main Campus: City Campus: Shah Latif Town, National Highway 22 G, Block 6, PECHS 021-410054-7, 021-111 128 128 021-4390941-5

Email: info@nu.edu.pk

URL: www.nu.edu.pk

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Contents

Admission Information 3 Admission Test Guidelines 7

Instructions 9 How to Take the Test 10 Login Page 11 Instructions Page 12 Beginning of Examination 14 Next Section 17 View Unanswered Questions 17 Logging Out 18

Test Summary 19 Study Guidelines 20

English 21 Physics 21 Analytic Skills and IQ 22 Basic Mathematics 22

Advanced Mathematics 23 Sample Questions with key 24

English 25 Basic Mathematics 32 Advanced Mathematics 38 Analytic Skills and IQ 46 Physics 55

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ADMISSION INFORMATION

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Admission to the university is based on merit only, which is determined either through its own admission test or an equivalent test conducted by a reputable organization. There are no quotas, reserved seats or admission through donation. Moreover, there is no age limit for the applicants. Admission Material The admission package includes a copy of the Prospectus. Candidates Awaiting Result Selected candidates are given provisional admission, subject to passing the examination with required score. If a candidate fails to qualify the exam, then the admission shall stand cancelled. The tuition fee shall be refunded as per university rules. Such students MUST inform the university about their exam result along with an application for the refund of dues within THREE days of its declaration.

The admission application form is available on the Universitys admission website apply.nu.edu.pk, and also on the Universitys web site www.nu.edu.pk.

Admission Procedure

ONLINE method

1. The Admission Application Form can be filled online by following the instructions.

2. The online system assigns a unique Application Reference Number (ARN) to each applicant, which must be noted for later use.

TRADITIONAL method

1. The Admission Application Form can be downloaded and printed (on a white paper).

2. The Admission Application Form can be filled using either a BLUE or BLACK ball pen.

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The applicant should then visit the campus, where the admission test is to be taken, along with the following:

a. Two recently taken passport size (3 cm x 2 cm) colour photographs b. Application processing fee of Rs 1,000. This fee includes admission test fee for

taking one test. Additional Fee of Rs 500 is payable for each type of Admission Test. For example, for taking both the BBA and the BS tests, or for taking both the MS (CS) and MS (SPM) tests.

c. Copy of Matriculation/HSSC certificate or an equivalent examination d. Copy of CNIC or Form-B issued by NADRA (National Database Registration

Authority) e.

1. The applicant will be required to sign a declaration confirming that the information provided in the Application Form by him/her is correct.

2. Upon payment of the Application Processing and Admission Test Fee(s), the applicant

shall receive a duly signed ADMIT CARD bearing the applicants TEST ROLL NUMBER and a copy of the Prospectus.

3. Out station applicants can send the duly filled application form (along with the following documents) through post

4. If the application is received through post, then the ADMIT CARD & Prospectus would be sent via post.

NU Online Admission Test (NAT) Information on various Admission Tests is available on the Universitys admission web-site apply.nu.edu.pk or www.nu.edu.pk

The online admission test is taken on a computer. The candidate should be familiar with the use of mouse and the keyboard. Each candidate is given a different examination. The sections of a test (English, Analytical skills, Math etc) appear in a random sequence. Moreover, questions related to different topics also appear before the candidate in a random sequence. In each section, a candidate can move forward and backwards to review the responses selected. The candidate can change his or her response to any question within the current section.

Applicants should reach the test centre on the date and time specified on the admit card. Latecomers will not be allowed to take the test. Applicants should not bring anything to the test centre except their Admit Cards. No applicant will be allowed to take the test without an endorsed Admit Card. The Admission Test is held at all campuses of the University (Karachi, Lahore, Islamabad, and Peshawar).

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Admission Test Pattern The percentage of marks assigned to different sections of the admission test will be as follows

Section/Topic BBA BS(CS) BS(Engg.)MBA 1-yearMBA

2/3 year MS(SPM)MS(CS/Math) MS(EE)

English 15% 10% 10% 30% 15% 15% - - Essay Writing 15% - - 10% 15% 15% 10% 10%

Analytical Skills & IQ 30% 20% 20% - 30% 30% 15% 20%

Basic Math 40% 20% 10% - - 10% - 10% Adv. Math - 50% 40% - - - - 10% Physics - - 20% - - - - -

Specialization Area - - - 20% - 30% 75% 50%

Quantitative Methods - - - 40% 30% - - -

General Knowledge - - - - 10% - - -

Note: There will be Negative Marking and use of calculators is not allowed in the Admission Test. Selection Criteria Selection is based on applicants performance in the Admission Test.

GRE and SAT Examinations Those who have taken SAT examination can apply for admission to the undergraduate programs, i.e. BBA or BS. Information about SAT can be found at: www.collegeboard.com Those who have taken the GRE (subject test) can apply for admission to graduate programs, i.e. MS, MBA or PhD. Information about GRE can be found at: www.ets.org/gre

The institution code for receiving SAT scores is 4575 The institution code for receiving GRE scores is 7386

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ADMISSION TEST

GUIDELINES

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Introduction Performance of candidates in the computer based test is used to prepare a merit list, sorted on the marks obtained in the test (in descending order). The candidates are selected for admission starting from the top of this list. Test Structure The duration of the test can vary, but in most cases it is approximately two hours. The test consists of several multiple choice questions (MCQs). These questions are divided into multiple sections such as Mathematics, English, IQ, etc. Each Test has its own set of sections. Each section is assigned a specific time to attempt, number of questions and weight of questions in that section. A section may also be specified to have the negative marking feature. Information on each section is displayed on the instructions page in the Test Summary Table) which is the first page, which a candidate views immediately after login. Time The maximum time allowed to answer all questions in a section is displayed in the Test Summary Table on the Instructions page. This time is also displayed on every page of the test so that the candidates can pace themselves according to the time left for that section. After the time for a section is up, the candidate is taken to the next section. Candidate can NOT go back to the previous section. This is very important to keep in mind while taking the test. Number of Questions A section has a specified number of questions. This number is displayed in the Test Summary Table and also on every page of the test. Weight of a question All questions in a section are assigned a certain weight, which is used to calculate the candidates score in that section. This information is displayed in the Test Summary Table on the Instructions page. Negative Marking One or more sections may contain negative marking. This information is displayed in the table on the instructions page and also on every page of the test. The candidate has the option to leave the question un-answered to avoid receiving negative marks for a wrong answer. This can be done by using the RESET button to de-select the selected answer choice.

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Instructions Please note the following instructions and guidelines for taking the online admission test: Candidates should NOT bring Calculators, cell phones, or any sort of stationery to the test center. If such items are brought by the candidates, those will be left outside the test center entirely at the candidates risk.

1. All required stationery items (pencil, eraser, sharpener, and blank sheet for rough work) will be provided to the candidates by the Invigilation staff. 2. Candidates MUST reach their specified Test Center by the Reporting Time stated on their Admit Card. Late comers will not be allowed to take the test. 3. Rough work may be done only on the Rough Sheets provided by the invigilation staff. 4 Use of unfair means or non-compliance with the instructions (given in this document or in the examination area) will disqualify the candidate from the test and his/her name will not be included in the merit list of candidates.

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How to take the test The How to take the test page is a self-explanatory page, which gives directions on how to take the computer based test. Candidates should thoroughly read this page in order to avoid any confusion.

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Login Page

1. Just before the start of your test, the invigilation staff will provide you with your login ID and password.

2. Using keyboard of the PC, enter your Login ID and (case sensitive) password (see image 2.2.1).This is the only time that you will use the keyboard.

3. During the test, you should not use the keyboard. The test requires use of mouse only.

4. Click on the Login Button which will take you to the Instructions Page.

5. To get help, click on the Help button

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Instructions Page

1. Carefully and thoroughly read all the instructions given on the Main Instructions Page. Upon successful login, your test ID, test center, test session, degree program, and picture will be displayed on your screen. In case of discrepancy, immediately inform the Invigilation Staff.

2. Read the instructions and the Test Summary table, which contains each Sections Time Allocated, Number of Questions, Weight of questions in the test, and also whether negative marking is applied.

3. After reading the instructions and agreeing with the contents, click the Checkbox 4. To start your test, click the Start Test Button.

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The table given below will differ for BS (CS), BS (Engg) and BBA. The time allocated number of questions and sections will be different. The table given below is only a sample.

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Beginning of Examination

1. Note the figure at the top of the Question Page. You should find your ID, name, and picture in addition to the degree program, test session, subject, and the total number of questions. In case of discrepancy, immediately inform the Invigilation Staff.

2. At the top right corner of the Question Page you will find the Help, Instruction and Log out

Buttons. Help and Instruction pages can be viewed during the test. 3. DO NOT click the Log out button, as it will bring your test to an end. You should click this

button after you have attempted all questions of all the sections. Once logged out, the test is over. You can NOT go back and attempt any remaining questions.

4. First/Last question of every Section is marked in Red on top of the page notifying that it is the

first/last question of the section.

5. Each section is allotted a fixed time to attempt its questions. Figure (Time left: 0:14: 56)shows the position on the screen where the time left to complete the current section is displayed. After the expiry of allotted time, even if you have not answered all or any questions in that section, you will be prompted to move on to the next section.

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6. When time allotted for the last section is over, you will be Logged Out from the test. 7. Each MCQ consists of a statement and (usually 5) answer choices. Read each question

carefully before answering it. Only one of the given answer choices is the correct answer to the question.

8. For each MCQ select just one of the answer choices (that you think is correct). Click the

button next to your answer choice to select your answer. You can still change your answer choice by clicking on the button next to another answer choice. The answer choice will be marked as selected.

9. To leave a question unanswered after you have selected an answer, click on the Reset button,

located just below the last answer choice. 10. You may move forward to the next question or back to the previous question by clicking the

Skip Forward or Skip Back Button respectively. You can move forward or backward to questions within a Section. You CAN NOT go back to the previous sections.

11. To move forward to the next question, click on the Forward Button. 12. To go back to the previous question click on the Back Button. 13. You can move back and forth without entering an answer choice.

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14. The last question of each section has a notification displayed in Red above the question. This

is to inform you that after you move to the next section you will not be allowed to return to the current section.

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Next Section

1. After completing a section, you can move on to the next section by clicking the Next Section Button. This button appears only when the last question of a section is displayed.

2. After Clicking on the Next Section Button you will be presented with the Confirm Section

Change screen. 3. If you click the Yes button you can not return to the prior section under any circumstances.

View Unanswered Questions

1. To view questions that you have left unanswered within the current section, click on the View Unanswered Questions Button.

2. You will be presented with a list of Unanswered Question Screen 3. You can click on any one of the unanswered question numbers. This will take you to that

question. 4. If you do not want to go to an unanswered question click on the Back Button.

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Logging Out

1. On the last question of the last section, the Forward navigation button is changed to Log off button. To complete your test and submit it for assessment, you must click the Log Off button.

2. Upon clicking the Log Out button, you will be asked to re-confirm your action on the Confirmation Screen where you can confirm to log out

3. If you click No you will be taken back to the last question that you were viewing. 5. If you click Yes on the Log out Confirmation screen you will be logged out of the test.

Once you are logged out of the test, you can not get back to the test.

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Test Summary A summary card is displayed upon logging out of the test. It shows the number of Questions Attempted, Un-attempted, Correctly Answered, and Incorrectly Answered Questions.

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STUDY GUIDELINES

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ENGLISH

Questions will cover the following topics: ANALOGY: Analogy is comparison of a pair of words which have some relationship. Some types of relationships are: Synonyms: Words that have similar meanings as WORK: LABOR Antonyms: Words that have opposite meanings as HOT: COLD Descriptive: One word defines the other as BLUE: SKY Manner: as MUMBLE: SPEAK Action and its significance, as BLUSH: DISCOMFITURE Part to whole; one word is a part or piece of the other As ARM: BODY Item to category: one word falls into the group named by the other word as MILK: BEVERAGE Worker and Article created: as in POET: SONNET SENTENCE COMPLETION: Fill up blanks with suitable words. PREPOSITIONS VERBS: Correct tense and number of verbs. Active and Passive voice, Direct and indirect narration.

PHYSICS Questions will be of H.S.C. standard from following topics: Measurements Vectors Equilibrium Motion and Force Work and Energy Circulation Motion Fluid Dynamics Oscillations Waves Optics and optical instruments Heat and thermodynamics Electrostatics and current electricity Electromagnetism and electromagnetic induction Alternating current Electronics Nuclear Physics Atomic Spectra

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ANALYTIC SKILLS AND I.Q.

Questions will include following topics: Number Series: To find next term of a series of given numbers. Letter series: To find next term of a series of given letters. Verbal classification / Odd one out: To find one word which is different from others. Non verbal intelligence test: Questions will be in the form of figures, drawings or pattern. Students have to find the next pattern or a pattern different from others. Visual Logic Test: To perceive how shapes or patterns are connected. Verbal Concept Test: To perceive connection between words.

BASIC MATHEMATICS.

Questions will be of S.S.C. standard including following topics: Algebra: Simple equations; simultaneous equations; quadratic equations, Factorisation Geometry: Properties of triangles, quadrilaterals, polygons, circles. Properties of solids like sphere, cube, cuboids, cone, pyramids, cylinders etc. Ratio and proportion Percentage, profit, loss, simple and compound interest Trigonometry: Trigonometric functions, trigonometric identities. Logarithm: characteristic, mantissa, common and natural logarithm, properties. H.C.F. and L.C.M.

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ADVANCED MATHEMATICS Questions will be of H.S.C. standard including following topics: ALGEBRA: Number system, real and complex numbers Matrices: Addition and multiplication of matrices. Inverse and transpose Sets and set operations. Quadratic equations; Nature of roots Inequalities Series: Arithmetic, geometric, harmonic and arithmeticogeometric series. Permutation, combination and probability Binomial theorem. TRIGONOMETRY Trigonometric functions, identities, inverse trigonometric functions. Graphs of trigonometric and inverse trigonometric functions CALCULUS: Functions, range domain and graph of functions. Limits and continuity. Derivatives, maxima and minima. Antiderivatives, definite integral, area under curves. GEOMETRY: Equations of straight line in various forms/ Circle, ellipse, parabola and hyperbola. Hyperbolic functions. VECTORS: Vector algebra, components in two and three dimensions, dot and cross product of vectors. Projection of one vector on another.

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SAMPLE QUESTIONS WITH KEY

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ENGLISH Fill in the blanks with suitable word:

1. How _____ of matches have we got? a. much boxes b. many box c. much box d. many boxes

2. Their flat is very modern, but they have some antique _____ in it.

a. furnitures b. piece of furnitures c. pieces of furnitures d. pieces of furniture

3. No matter what happens next I _______ help you.

a. am b. have c. will d. would

4. _______ get tired of answering the same questions every day? a. Have you ever b. Had you ever c. Do you ever d. Are you ever

5. I wish it ____________ stop raining!

a. would b. will c. won't d. does

6. I ___________ you said it was going to be a nice day?

a. thought b. thinked c. taught d. think

7. Why don't you throw that shirt away? You haven't ________ it for years.

a. worn b. worned c. wear d. weared

8. I assumed you _______ paying for the repairs until the end of last year.

a. have been b. was been c are being d had been

9. Where is he? He should ___________ home hours ago.

a. were b. have been c. had been d was

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10. I wish we _________ the bus yesterday.

a. miss b. missed c. hadn't missed d havent missed

11. She's so _________, I can't remember the last time she did a day's work.

a. hardworking b. conscientious c. diligent d. idle

12. I waited ages for the bus; one _________ came an hour later.

a. presumably b. ideally c. eventually d generally

13. The tourist arrived by road and by rail. In this sentence and is an adverb of: a. place b. conjunction c. manner d. time

14. Saud's brother left the matter entirely up to _______ and _______ .

a. he --- I b. him --- I c. he --- me d. him --- me

15. Father leaves ___________ home at 7 o'clock so that he can be in his office at 8. a. from b. for c. at d. None

16. He came ___________ train.

a. with b. by a c. by d. with a

17. Nobody died in the accident, but 20 people were ________.

a. damaged b. injured c. spoiled d. broken

18. He was ___ with embezzlement and sentenced to three years in prison.

a. accused b. convicted c. charged d. arrested

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19. Three of the words below go together with 'HEAD' to make a new word. Which word does not make a new word?

a. line b. master c. man d. ache

20. Which of the following is NOT correct? Would you like another slice of ____________?

a. milk b. cake c. orange d bread

21. Which of the following is NOT correct? The guidebook was full of useful __________, like where to

find a good restaurant or a cheap place to stay a. advices b. advice c. pieces of advice d. tips and advice

22. Which of the following is NOT correct? Would you like _________ juice? a. some b. a c. a glass of d. a little

23. He bought flowers. Identify the tense in the given sentence:

a. present tense b. past tense c. future tense d. Both b and c

24. They make shoes in that factory. The passive voice of this sentence is: Shoes _________ in that

factory. a. are made b. are being made c. are making d. None of the above

25. The students will finish the course by July. The passive voice of this sentence is: The course _______

by July. a. is being finished b. has been finished c. will be finished d. None of the above

26. Did the plan interest you? The passive voice of this sentence is:

a. Is the plan interesting? b. Is the plan interesting you? c. Were you interested in the plan? d. Were the plan of interest?

27. Someone will speak Japanese at the meeting. The passive voice of this sentence is:

a. Japanese will spoke at the meeting. b. Japanese will be spoken at the meeting. c. Japanese will be spoke at the meeting. d. Japanese will be speaking at the meeting.

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28. Last year 2,000 new units had been produced by the time we introduced the new design. The active voice of this sentence is: a. We had produced 2,000 new units by the time we introduced the new design last year. b. We have produced 2,000 new units by the time we introduced the new design last year. c. We had produce 2,000 new units by the time we introduced the new design last year. d. We have been producing 2,000 new units by the time we introduced the new design last year.

29. Casual clothes must not be worn. The active voice of this sentence is:

a. You must not worn casual clothes. b. You must not be wear casual clothes. c. You must not wear casual clothes. d. You must not wearing casual clothes.

30. Asif asked, "What are you going to do tonight?" Indirect of this sentence is: a. Asif asked what I would be going to do tonight. b. Asif asked what you were going to do tonight. c. Asif asked me what I was going to do tonight. d. Asif asked what I will do tonight Either b and c

31. Zahid said, "I want to go to South Africa." Indirect of this sentence is:

a. Zahid said that he want to go to South Africa. b. Zahid said that he wanted to go to South Africa. c. Zahid said he wanted to go to South Africa. d. Both b and c

32. "Who did their homework well?" inquired the teacher. Indirect of this sentence is:

a. The teacher inquired who doed their homework well. b. The teacher inquired who had done their homework well. c. The teacher inquired who did do their homework well. d. The teacher inquired who was done their homework well.

33. Zahid said, "I must save my money for my trip to California." Zahid said that he _________ his money for his trip to California. a. must b. must saved c. had to save d. will save

In question 34 to 39 select the word that is opposite in meaning to the capitalises word

34. ADULTATION a. Youth b. Purity c. Brightness d. Defence e. Criticism

35. AFFABLE

a. Rude b. Ruddy c. Needy d. Useless e. Conscious

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36. BAROQUE a. Published b. Constant c. Transformed d. Simple e. Aglow

37. CENTRIFUGAL

a. Centripetal b. Ephemeral c. Lasting d. Barometric e. Algebraic

38. CRUX

a. Affliction b. Spark c. Enents d. Trivial point e. Belief

39. DAUNTLESS

a. Stolid b. Cowardly c. Irrelevant d. Peculiar e. Particular

In questions 40 to 45 find the word most similar in meaning to the capitalised word:

40. BROCHURE a. Opening b. Pamphlet c. Censor d. Bureau e. Pin

41. DEPRAVITY

a. Wickedness b. Sadness c. Heaviness d. Tidiness e. Seriousness

42. ECSTACY

a. Joy b. Speed c. Treasure d. Warmth e. Lack

43. INFIRMITY

a. Disability b. Age c. Inoculation d. Hospital e. Unity

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44. MENIAL

a. Intellectual b. Clearvoyant c. Servile d. Arrogant e. Laudatory

45. TAWDRY

a. Orderly b. Meretricious c. Boldness d. Tremulousness e. Caution

In questions 46 to 50 select the pair of words or phrases that best express a relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalised pair:

46. INDOLENT : ASSIDUOUS a. Powerful : omnipotent b. Abstemious : overindulgent c. Normal : mean d. Rife : vogue e. Beneficial : strong

47. APPREHENSIVE : PETRIFIED

a. Emotional : accord b. Elate : deaden c. Sincere : satisfied d. Cheerful : hilarious e. Happy : hostile

48. CATCALL : DERISION

a. Wolf whistle : admiration b. Horse laugh : dismay c. Snort : approval d. Mutter : indifference e. Sputter : sympathy

49. HEART : RUMP

a. Lungs : collapse b. Appendix : burst c. Stomach : digest d. Intestine : twist e. Teeth : ache

50. MONGREL : COLLIE

a. Goose : gosling b. Gem : ruby c. Alloy : iron d. Pony : bridle e. Bleat : sheep

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KEY (ENGLISH)

Q.No Ans. Q.No Ans Q.No Ans 1 d 18 c 35 a 2 d 19 c 36 d 3 c 20 a 37 b 4 c 21 a 38 d 5 a 22 b 39 b 6 a 23 b 40 b 7 a 24 a 41 a 8 d 25 c 42 a 9 b 26 c 43 a 10 c 27 b 44 c 11 d 28 a 45 b 12 c 29 c 46 b 13 b 30 c 47 d 14 d 31 d 48 a 15 d 32 b 49 b 16 c 33 c 50 a 17 b 34 e

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BASIC MATHEMATICS / Q1: How long would a car traveling at 30 miles per hour take to cover a distance of 44 feet? a) 1 min b) 1 sec c) 1.64 sec d) 2.64 sec Q2: If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days, how many days will 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work? a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 16 Q3: Javed is now x 10 years old. How old will he be 10 years from now? a) x-20 b) x+10 c) x d) x+20 Q4: The perimeter of rectangle is 24 cm. Find its breadth if its length is 8 cm. a) 4 cm b) 12 cm c) 16 cm d) 10 cm Q5: What is the area in square inches, of a square if its diagonal is 6 inches? a) 9 b) 12 c) 15 d) 18 Q6: The population of the town increases by 5% annually and its present population is 9261. The population three years ago was. a) 9000 b) 8000 c) 9800 d) 8900 Q7: At the rate of 2 for 5 paisa, how many envelops can be purchased for 65 paisas? a) 32 b) 26 c) 34 d) 30 Q8: A rectangular tank 25 cm by 20 cm contains 5 liters of water. What is the height of the water in the tank? a) 12 cm b) 10 cm c) 8cm d) 15 cm. Q9: If a man were to sell his horse for Rs. 720 he would lose 25%. What must he sell it for to gain 25%. a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 1250 c) Rs. 1200 d) Rs. 1300 Q10: A medical student has to secure 40% marks to pass. He gets 40 and fails by 40 marks. Find the maximum marks? a) 200 b) 150 c) 175 c) 80

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Q11: If a person bought a carpet for Rs. 20,000 and sold it for Rs. 25,000. What percentage profit did he make on his cost price? a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 50% Q12: The integral part of logarithm is called. a) Characteristic b) Mantissa c) Solution d) root Q13: What is the average of positive integers from 1 to 100 inclusive? a) 49 b) 49.5 c) 50.5 c) 50 Q14: Aslam is now 3 times as old as Javed, but 5 years ago, he was 5 times as Javed was. How old is Aslam now? a) 10 b) 12 c) 24 d) 30 Q15: If x % of y is 10, what is y ?

a) x

10 b) x

100 c) x

1000 d) 100x

Q16: The length of the arc cut off on a circle of radius 6 cm by a central angle of 3

2 radians. a) 10.033 cm b) 12.566 cm c) 9.156 cm d) 12.113 cm Q17: One of the angle of a triangle is 82 degree. The others two angles are in the ratio 2:5. Find the number of degree in the smallest angle of the triangle. a) 14 b) 25 c) 28 d) 38 Q18: Sum of two numbers is 32 and the sum of there squares is 904.Find the greater number. a) 50 b) 40 c) 35 d) 30 Q19: Alam is twice as old as maqsood , who is 5 years older than shami. If their total age is 27 year, how old is shami? a) 3 b) 4 c) 9 d) 30 Q20:The diagonal of a rectangle is 26m and its perimeter is 68m, find its area. a) 34 b) 68 c) 120 d) 240

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Q21: The area of rectangle is 420 inches and diagonal is 29 inches. Find its sides. a) 30, 31 b) 40, 41 c) 20, 21 d) 10, 11 Q22: When acb 42 is a perfect square then the roots will be: a) Irrational b) Rational c) Squared d) Linear Q23: If measure of the three angles of a triangle are ( )ox 153 + , ( ) ( )oo xx 302 and1515 + .What is the measure of unknown angle x? a) 15 o b) 45 o c) 23 o d) 18 o Q24: If one angle of the triangle is 3 times the second and second is 20 less than the third. Find the angle. a) 45 b) 25 c) 53 d) 32 Q25: The volume of a cone is 48 3cm . If the area of the base of the cone is 316cm .Find the height of the cone. a) 3 cm b) 9 cm c) 16 cm d) 1.6cm Q26: If the diameter of a circle increases by 50 percent, by what percent will the area of the circle increase? a) 25% b) 50% c) 100% d) 125% Q27: The right bisector of any chord of a circle passes through the _______ of the circle, a) Diameter b) Tangent c) Centre d) None of these Q28: A circle having the origin as centre touches the line 063 =+ yx its radius is.

a) 523 b)

106 c)

1006 d) none of these

Q29: If d is the diameter of the circle, then 2d represents. a) The area of the circle b) area of the circle c) 2 times area of the circle d) 4 times area of the circle Q30: If the ratio of xCosxSin and is 1 : 2. Then the ratio of xCotx totan is? a) 1 : 4 b) 4 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) None

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Q31: If a diameter of a wheel is 28 cm, how far it would travel in 5 revolutions? a) 140 b) 28 c) 280 d) None of them. Q32: A vertical pole 6 feet high casts a shadow 4 feet long. At the same time a tree makes a shadow 64 feet long. What is the height of the tree? a) 80 feet b) 96 feet c) 72 feet d) 192 feet Q33: The 60th part of one degree angle is called one ____________. a) Second b) Radian c) Degree d) Minute Q34: The measure of each interior angle of a regular hexagon is :

a : 100 deg b. 108 deg c. 120 deg d. 135 deg Q35: If diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal then it can be

A Rectangle B. Square

a: A only b. B only d. A and B e. none

Q36: If diagonals of a quadrilateral are perpendicular to each other then it can be

A Rectangle B. Square

a: A only b. B only c. A and B d. none

Q37: If all sides of a quadrilateral are equal it can be

A. Rectangle B. Parallelogram C. Rhombus D. Trapezium

a) A only b. B only c. C only d: D only

Q38: At least one face of a solid is a triangle. It can be:

A: Cuboid B: Tetrahedron C: Pyramid

a) A only b. B only c. C only d: B and C

Q39: How many edges are there in a tetrahedron?

a: 4 b: 5. c: 6 d: 3

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Q40: If diagonals of a quadrilateral do not bisect each other it is a

a:Rectangle b. Trapezium c.Parallelogram d. Rhombus Q41: Diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal but not perpendicular to each other. It must be a:

a) Square b. Parallelogram c. Rhombus d. Rectangle

Q42: Diagonals of a quadrilateral are not equal but perpendicular to each other. It must be a:

a) Square b. Parallelogram c. Rhombus d. Rectangle

Q43: How many faces does an octahedron have?

a) 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

Q44: How many edges does an octahedron have?

a) 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

Q45: How many vertices does an octahedron have?

a) 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

Q46: If one side of a triangle is a diameter of its circumcircle then it must be:

a) Isosceles b. Equilateral c. Obtuse angled d. right angled

Q47: AB = A if and only if a) AB b) B A c) A B d) B A e) none of these Q48: Six consecutive integers are given. The sum of first three is 27. What is the sum of the last three? a) 29 b) 30 c) 32 d) 33 e) 36 Q.49: Six litres of 20% of solution of alcohol is mixed with 4 litres of 60% solution of alcohol in water. The alcoholic strength of the mixture is: a) 80% b) 40% c) 36% d) 48% e) 50% Q50: If three numbers are added in pairs the sums are 5, 16, 27. The greatest of these numbers is a) 15 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19 e) 22

37

KEY (Basic Mathematics)

Q.No Ans. Q.No Ans Q.No Ans 1 b 18 d 35 d 2 a 19 a 36 b 3 c 20 d 37 c 4 a 21 c 38 d 5 d 22 b 39 c 6 b 23 a 40 b 7 b 24 d 41 d 8 b 25 a 42 c 9 c 26 d 43 c 10 a 27 c 44 c 11 b 28 a 45 b 12 a 29 d 46 d 13 c 30 a 47 a 14 d 31 a 48 e 15 c 32 b 49 c 16 b 33 d 50 d 17 c 34 c

38

ADVANCED MATHEMATICS: Q1: A sequence in which any term minus its immediate previous term gives a constant is called. a) Geometric sequence b) Arithmetic sequence c) Harmonic sequence d) Complex sequence Q2: If n is any positive integer, then ?...........321 2222 =++++ n

a) 6

)12)(1( ++ nnn b) 3

)12)(1( ++ nnn c) 2

)12)(1( ++ nnn d) 6

)12)(1( ++ nn Q3: In a class there are 8 boys and 5 girls. Two class representatives are to be chosen. In how many ways they can be selected if one is to be a boy and other a girl? a) 90 b) 58 c) 48 d) 40 Q4: How many words can be formed if vowels are to be placed at second, fourth and sixth places? a) 740 b) 720 c) 865 d) None of them. Q5: How many natural numbers of four digit can be formed with the four digit 2, 3, 5, 7 number of digit being used more than once in each number? a) 35 b) 24 c) 26 d) 25 Q6: Domain of function xSin 1 is.

a)

2

,2

b)

2

,2

c) [ ]1,1 d) [ ]1,1 Q7: The eccentricity of the conic section 03694 22 =+ yx is:

a) 35 b)

94 c)

51 d)

95

Q8: The normal to a given curve is parallel to x-axis if.

a) 0=dxdy b) 1=

dxdy c) 0=

dydx d) 1=

dydx

39

Q9: xxf =)( the function is a/an. a) Odd function b) Even function c) Composite function d) Polynomial function Q10: Coordinates of the vertices of a triangle ABC are (0 , 6) , (-4 , -6) and (5 , 6) respectively, then the area of the triangle is. a) 12 b) 15 c) 30 d) 60 Q11: 022 = yx represents a) Parabola b) Hyperbola c) straight line d) Pair of straight line perpendicular to each other and passing through origin. Q12: The circumcentre of the triangle, whose vertices are (0 , 0) , (6 , 0) & (0 , 4) is: a) (2 , 0) b) (3 , 0) c) (0 , 3) d) (3 , 2) Q13: A committee of 4 members is to chosen by lot from a group of 7 men and 5 women. Find the probability that the committee will consist of 2 men and 2 women. a) 14/33 b) 15/33 c) 11/33 d) 12/33 Q14: Two coins are tossed simultaneously the probability of obtaining no head no tail. a) 0 b) c) 1 d) 2/4 Q15: Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining all heads? a) 5/8 b) 3/8 c) 1 d) 1/8 Q16: If the first term of a geometric progression is 50 and its common ratio is 4/9 , then its sum to infinity is a) 80 b) 90 c) 100 d) 110 Q17: If the thp term of an A.P q and the thq term is p then thr term is. a) p + q + r b) p + q r c) p q + r d) p q r

40

Q18: Six consecutive integers are given. The sum of the first three is 27. What is the sum of last three? a) 29 b)30 c)32 d) 36 Q19: Harmonic series between 1/3 and 2/5 is. a) 11/4 b) 4 c) 11 d) 4/11 Q20: The equation of the circle which touches the positive x- axis of coordinates and radius one unit is: a) ( ) ( ) 111 22 =+ yx b) 1322 =+ yx c) ( ) ( ) 012 22 =+ yx d) none Q21: The length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola whose equation is 164 22 = yx is. a) 1 b) 20 c) 16 d) 2 Q22: The mid point of the perpendicular from the focus to the directrix is called ____ of the parabola. a) axis b) Vertex c) Latus rectum d) None of these Q23: The volume of parallelepiped whose adjacent edges are represented by the vectors

jikCjiBjA =+== 32 is: a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 Q24: The angle between the two bisectors of opposite quadrants is. a) 80 degree b) 45 degree c) 60 degree d) 90 degree Q25: The area of the triangle bounded by the lines 2054 and0,0 =+== yxyx is: a) 20 b) 10 c) 1/10 d) 1/20 Q26: The coordinate of the foot of the perpendicular from (-2 , 5) to 3x + y + 11=0 is. a) (4 , -5) b) (2 , 3) c) (-5 , 4) d) (3 , 2)

Q27: The limit of the sequence LL,41,

31,

21 is

a) b) 1 c) 2 d) 0

41

Q28: The absolute maximum and minimum value of [ ]2 , 0 intervalon 2)( 23 += xxxxf is. a) ( 1 , 4) b) (-1/3 , 1) c) (4 , 1) d) None of these Q29: If the radius of the circle is increased from 6 cm to 6.1 cm. Find approximate increase in the area. a) 12 cmsq. b) 0.6 cmsq. c) 1.2 cmsq. d) None of these Q30: = ?2xdxSin

a) cx +2sin41 b) cxx + 2sin

41

21 c) cxx ++ 2sin

41

21

d) cxCosx ++ 241

21

Q31: The line =+ ySinxCos always touches the circle. a) 222 =+ yx b) 222 =+ yx c) SinCosyx +=+ 22 d) None of these Q32: The equation of director circle with radius a is given by. a) 222 ayx = b) ayx =+ 22 c) 222 ayx =+ d) 222 2ayx =+ Q33: A matrix of order pm when multiply by another matrix of order np then the no. of column of resultant matrix is? a) m + n b) p c) m d) n Q34: In a given group, how many inverse elements correspond to each element? a) No b) Only one c) More than one d) Two. Q35: In a G.P the first term is 7, the last term is 448 and the sum is 889. Find the common ratio. a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4 Q36: In how many ways can 7 boys be seated at a round table so that two particular boys are next to each other? a) 250 b) 240 c) 245 d) 340

42

Q37: There are 10 balls of different colors. In how many ways can one select 7 of them so as to exclude the white and black balls? a) 9 b) 10 c) 8 d) 12 Q38: How many different arrangements can be made by using all the letters of the word MATHEMATICS? a) 4989600 b) 4889605 c) 4983604 d) 4979620 Q39: A die rolled once the probability of getting a number 4 is a) 3/6 b) 2/6 c) 4/6 d) 1/6 Q40: If 4 pairs of shoes are in a closet and 2 shoes are selected at random, what is the probability that they will be matched pair? a) 1/7 b) 2/7 c) 3/7 d)) 4/7 Q41: If r is the radius of incircle and R is the radius of circumcircle of a triangle ABC, then. a) r = 2R b) R = 2r c) r = R d) r > R

Q42: The period of 5

tan x is.

a) 5 b) 5 c) -5 d) None of these

Q43: The sum of the series 2222 50321 ++++ LL is: a) 32925=n b) 42925=n c) 42025=n d) 32825=n Q44: Sin x1 + ?1 = ySin a) )11( 221 xyxxSin ++ b) )11( 221 yyxxSin c) )11( 221 xyyxSin ++ d) )11( 221 xyyxSin Q45: If n is the even, then the middle term in the expansion ( )nba + is.

a) term2

thn

b) term2

2 thn

+ c) term2

1 thn

+ d) None of them

43

Q46: In how many ways can 7 different books are arranged on a shelf if a specified book be at the centre? a) 299 b) 958 c) 720 d) 820 Q47 Find the total number of ways in which 5 sparrows can perch on 3 trees, if one particular sparrow be alone on a tree. a) 48 b) 43 c) 41 d) None of them. Q48 The product of the cube root of unity is a) 0 b) 4 c) -1 d) 1 Q49: Two coins are tossed simultaneously the probability of obtaining an odd number is: a) 0 b) 1 c) d) Q50: A card is drawn from an ordinary deck of plying cards. What is the probability that it is a red card? a) b) 1/26 c) 1 d) 1/13 Q51: A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of drawing a heart or a diamond. a) 1/9 b) 1/12 c) d) None of them Q52: The derivative of the function 12

2

3)( += xxf with respect to xis. a) )14(3ln +x b) 12 23)14( ++ xx c) [ ] 12 2)4(3ln +xx d) 2x 12 23 +x Q53: Slope of tangent to the curve 252 += xxy at (3, -4) is. a) b) c) 2 d) 1 Q54:If 12 += xy and 2.0=x than ?=y a) 5/2 b) 3 c) 3/2 d) 2/3 Q55: Find the area enclosed between the curve xxy 22 += the lines x = 1 and x = 3 and the x- axis. a) 4/3 b) 50/3 c) 40/3 d)None of these

44

Q56: The circle 012222 =++++ yxyx touches x-axis at the point a) (1 , 0) b) (-1 , 0) c) (2 , 0) d) None of these Q57 Semi latus rectum of parabola 03242 =++ yxy a) -2 b) 2 c) 4 d) -4 Q58: The slope of tangent to the parabola 652 += xxy at x = 2 is. a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) 2 Q59: If one side of a triangle is a diameter of its circumcircle then it must be :

a) Isosceles b. Equilateral c. Obtuse angled d. right angled

Q60. The incircle of a triangle touches all the sides at their mid points. The triangle is

a) Isosceles b. Equilateral c. Obtuse angled d. right angled

45

KEY (Advanced Mathematics)

Q.No Ans. Q.No Ans Q.No Ans 1 b 21 d 41 b 2 a 22 b 42 b 3 d 23 d 43 b 4 b 24 d 44 d 5 b 25 b 45 b 6 d 26 c 46 c 7 a 27 d 47 a 8 a 28 c 48 d 9 b 29 c 49 d 10 c 30 b 50 a 11 d 31 b 51 c 12 d 32 d 52 c 13 a 33 d 53 d 14 a 34 b 54 c 15 d 35 a 55 b 16 c 36 b 56 b 17 b 37 c 57 d 18 d 38 a 58 a 19 d 39 d 59 d 20 a 40 a 60 b

46

ANALYTIC SKILLS AND IQ

Q1. Insert the missing number: 52 53 51 54 ?

a) 56 b) 55 c) 108 d) 50 e) 60 Q2. Insert the missing number 248 216 124 108 62 54 ? 27 a) 39 b) 49 c) 31 d) 29 e) 28 Q3. Insert the missing number 5 6 7 8 10 11 14 ? a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18 e) 19 Q4. Insert the missing letter: G I J J L M M O P P __ a) Q b) R c) S d) T e) N Q5. Which of the following comes next in the series? JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT, ? a) QUR b) RSR c) RUS d) SUR e) RTS Q6. Which of the following comes next in the series? ZUA, XOC, VIE, TEG, ? a) RAI b) RAJ c) SAG d) QAE e) RAG Q7. Nadeem faces East. Turning to his right he walks 50 meters, then turning to his left, he walks 50 meters. Then he turns to his right and walks 50 meters. He turns to his right and walks 100 meter. Again he turns to his right and walks 100 meters. In which direction is he from his starting point?

a) East b) West c) North d) South e) at starting point.

47

Q8.. A man said to a lady, The son of your only brother is the brother of my wife.. What is the lady to the man? a) Mother b) sister c) sister in law d) Grandmother e) Mother in law Q9. Which word describes something different from others? a) enquiry b) biography c) History d) memoir Q10. If 124351 stands for NEWTON then 3512 stands for : a) WONT b) NOTE c) NEON d) TONE e) TOWN Q11. If 1256 stands for MEAN then 6512 stands for a) NAME b) MENA c) NWAM d) NEMA e) MANE Q12. If SLIGHT stands for 426175 then GIST stands for

a) 4586 b) 6845 c) 1645 d) 5486 e 4568 Q13. Jamil never wants to do nothing:. . In the light of the above statement which of the following must be true? a) Jamil wants to do nothing. b) Jamil wants to do something all the time. c) Jamil never wants to do anything. d) Jamil always wants to do nothing. Q14. White dog eat more than white cats. Black dogs eat more than white dogs. Black dogs eat less than black cats. Which makes the most economical pet? a) black cat b)white cat c) black dog d) white dog e) can not be determined. Q15. Which of the following is the odd one out?

a) half b) quarter c) zero d) triple e) sixteenth

48

Q16. Which one of the following would appear as the last word in a dictionary? a) False b) Fanciful c) Fallow d) Fallible e) Fallon Q17. If BOY is coded as ACNPXZ then RTNPMO is the code of

a) KID b) TOM c) BOB d) SON e) LAD Q18. If SPEAR is coded as XBKOY and PULL is coded as BFMM then PLEASE is coded as a) OKHBXK b) XKOBMK c) MOMBFX d) BKMOKX e) BMKOXK Q19. Find the odd one out a) steam b) oxygen c) air d) gold e) hydrogen Q20. Find the odd one. a) Shoaib Akhtar b) Umer Gul c) Sohail Tanveer d) Muhammad Asif e) Shahid Afridi Q21. A person walks 50 meters towards north. He turns right and walks 30 meters, turns left and walks 20 meters. Finally he again turns left and walks 30 meters. What is his distance in meters from his starting point? a) 130 b) 80 c) 70 d) 60 e) 30 Q22. Find the missing number. 5 8 15 13 9 6 ? 10 14 a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e)7 Q23 Find the missing number

3 6 4 8 9 7 9 ? 9 a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e)7

49

Q24. Find the missing number 1 2 4 1 3 9 1 ? 16 a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e)7 Q25 Find the missing number 1 1 1 4 8 16 9 27 ? a) 243 b) 81 c) 54 d) 42 e) 36 Q26. Find the missing number 1 2 3 3 8 ? 9 32 75 a) 5 b)10 c) 15 d) 20 e)45

Q27. Which figure is different from others?

a b c d e

50

Q28. is to as is to a b c d

Q29. Find the odd one out.

a b c d

Q30. Which comes next?

?

a b c d Q31. + =

a b c d

51

Q32. Find the next figure.

? a b c d e Q33. Find the odd one.

x + = a b c d e Q34. Find the odd one. a b c d e Q35. Find the next figure.

? a b c d e

52

Q36.. Find the next figure. ? a b c d e Q37. What is the next figure?

? a b c d Q38. Find the missing figure.

? a b c d e

53

Q39. Find the missing figure.

?

a b c d e Q40. Find the figure which is not matching with the others. a b c d e Q41. Find the one which is different from others. a b c d e Q42 Find the missing figure.

? a b c d e

54

KEY (Analytic Skills & IQ)

Q.No Ans. Q.No Ans Q.No Ans 1 d 15 c 29 a 2 c 16 b 30 d 3 a 17 d 31 b 4 b 18 e 32 c 5 b 19 d 33 e 6 a 20 e 34 e 7 b 21 c 35 d 8 c 22 b 36 b 9 a 23 c 37 d 10 d 24 b 38 c 11 a 25 b 39 c 12 c 26 c 40 a 13 b 27 a 41 e 14 b 28 b 42 b

55

PHYSICS

1. Kinetic energy has same dimensions as _____ a) Work b) Power c) Force d) has no same dimensions with any

2. If you blow up a balloon and then release it, the balloon will fly away. This is an illustration of a) Newton's 1st law b) Newton's 2nd law c) Newton's 3rd law d) the law of gravity

3. The tendency of a body to remain at rest or uniform linear motion is called

a) force b) inertia c) internal energy d) elasticity

4. Weight of a body depends on its location relative to the _________ of the earth

a) center b) surface c) equator d) poles

5. Potential energy is defined for only a certain class of forces called _________. a) non-conservative forces b) electromagnetic forces c) conservative forces d) none

6. When a ball is thrown up vertically and is at its maximum height then it possesses maximum ________.

a) kinetic energy b) potential energy c) both Kinetic and potential energies d) neither

7. Which of the following groups does NOT contain a scalar quantity?

a) velocity, force, power b) displacement, acceleration, force c) acceleration, speed, work d) energy, work, distance

e) pressure, weight, time

56

8. The work done by gravity during the descent of a projectile is: a) positive b) negative c) zero d) depends for its sign on the direction of the y axis e) depends for its sign on the direction of both the x and y axes

9. the process of splitting up of a single vector into its components is called a) Rectangular components b) Resolution of vector c) Multiplication of two vectors d) composition of vector.

10. If a force of 10N is applied to a block with direction parallel to x-axis in positive x-direction and a 5N force parallel to x-axis in negative x-direction then the resultant is:

a) +5N in positive x-direction b) +15N in negative y-direction c) 15 N in positive x direction d) None of these

11. In an elastic collision if kinetic energy before collision is K1 and after the collision K2, then:

a) Ki = 2 Kf b) Ki = 0, Kf = Ki c) K1 = K2 d) none of the above

12. Kinematics is concerned with

a) understanding why objects move the way they do b) describing the movement of objects c) action at a distance

d) None of the above

13. . What are the units of frequency? a) Seconds b) m/s c) Hertz d) Joules

14. The amplitude of oscillation is defined as a) The position of the equilibrium point b) The maximum displacement of the oscillating particle c) The maximum velocity of the oscillating particle d) The maximum acceleration of the oscillating particle

15. Force which causes an oscillating system to slow down is called a a) Restoring force b) Driving force c) Damping force d) None of the above

16. Period of an oscillating system is defined as a) The distance traveled in one oscillation b) The time it takes to travel one oscillation c) The average velocity over one oscillation d) The maximum displacement of an oscillation

57

17. At what point does a simple harmonic system have the maximum kinetic energy? a) x = 0 b) x = max c) x = min d) None Of these

18. The period of a pendulum depends on a) The mass of the particle on the pendulum b) Initial velocity. c) The length of the pendulum d) The initial angular displacement of the pendulum

19. In a ball-earth system potential energy _____ when the ball rises a) Increases b)Decreases c) Remain same d)None of these

20. As a ball falls under gravity it gains _____ energy.

a) Potential b) Kinetic c) Electric d) Internal e)

21. Which one of the following is not undergoing a simple harmonic motion _ _ _ _ _ a) Motion of a pendulum. b) Vibration of a spring. c) Motion of body in a rectilinear path d) Oscillations of mass on an elastic string.

22. The product of force and time is called?

a) Momentum. b) Friction. c) Impulse. d) Friction.

23. Time rate of change of momentum is called? a) Weight. b) Force. c) Mass. d) Acceleration.

24. The physical quantity, which is the measure of inertia, is ________

a) density b) weight c) force d) mass

25. The acceleration in a body is due to a) balanced force

b) unbalanced force c) mass d) electrostatic force

58

26. work done by a force is negative when the angle between the force and displacement is a) 180 b) 90

c) 0 d) 60

27. The magnetic field lines due to a straight wire carrying a current are a) straight

b) circular c) parabolic d) elliptical

28. The magnetic field lines inside a long, current carrying solenoid are nearly a) straight

b) circular c) parabolic d) elliptical

29. If the distance between the two charged bodies is halved, the force between them becomes _______

a) double b) half c) four times d) one half

30. Electric field lines are directed from __________ a) Positive charge to positive charge b) Positive charge to negative charge c) Negative charge to negative charge d) Negative charge to positive charge

31. The electric field inside a hollow sphere is ________

a) Zero b) Infinite c) Greater than zero d) None of these

32. number of electric lines of forces passing through a certain area is known as _________ a) electric field b) electric flux c) electric potential d) electric intensity

33. The configuration of two equal and opposite charges separated by a is small distance is called : a) Ion b) Dipole c) couple d) None of these.

34. The force experienced by a charged particle moving with the velocity V in magnetic field B is

given by. a) F=qV.B b) F=V.B/q c) F=q(V x B) d) none of these

59

35 If the volume of a gas is doubled without changing its temperature, the pressure of the gas is a) reduced to the initial of value b) reduced to 1/4 the initial of value c) doubled d) quadrupled e) not changed 36. If a man moves with a speed equal to 0.5 that of sound away from a stationary organ producing a sound of frequency f, he would hear a sound of frequency

a) less than f b) f c) 1.5f d) 2f e) 4f

37. The leaves of a negatively charged electroscope diverge more when a charged object was brought near its knob. The object must have been:

a) a rubber rod b) an insulator c) a conductor d) negatively charged e) positively charged

38. The emf produced by a generator operating at a constant speed depends mainly on:

a) the thickness of the wire on the armature b) the thickness of the wire on the field magnet c) the strength of the magnetic field d) the length of the time the generator operates e) the size of brushes

39.The operation of a transistor requires

a) that the emitter be heated b) that the base be heated c) that the collector be heated d) that the collector be enclosed in vacuum e) none of the above.

40. The alpha particles emitted by radioactive nuclei are a) sometimes negatively charged b) usually consist of electrons c) are helium nuclei d) are hydrogen nuclei e) none of the above 41.A piece of wire has a resistance R. Another wire of same length and material but twice in diameter will have a resistance: a) R/2 b) R/4 c) 2R d) 4R e) R

60

42.. The difference in loudness of two sounds having intensities I and Io is called intensity level and is given by a) K log(I/Io) b) K log(Io/I) c) K log( I + Io) d) K log( I Io) e) none of the above 43. A 5 meter wire carrying a current 2A is at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.5 weber/m2. The force on the wire is

a) 2N b) 4N c) 5 N

d) 1.5 N e) 2.5 N 44. The back emf of a motor is a) V + IR b)( V + IR)/V c) V IR d) (V + IR)/R e) (V IR)/I 45. Semiconductors at room temperature have a) partially filled conduction band b) a very narrow forbidden energy gap between conduction and valence band c) partially filled valence band d) all of these e) none of these 46. A thin layer of oil on the surface of water looks coloured due to a) polarization of light b) different elements present in oil c) interference of light d) refracrion of light e) none of these 47. The optical resolution of a microscope tells us that a) how close together two point sources of light can be b) how far two point sources of light can be c) how bright the sources of light can be d) how dim the sources of light can be e) none of these 48. Two parallel wires carrying currents in opposite directions a) repel each other b) attract each other c) have no effect on each other d) exert a couple on each other e) none of these

61

49. Entropy is called Time arrow because a) entropy of the universe always decreases b) entropy of the universe is always constant c) entropy of the universe always increases d) entropy sometimes increases sometimes decreases e) none of these 50. Which of the following waves cannot be polarized? a) radio waves b) ultra violet rays c) x rays d) sound waves e) all can be polarised

62

KEY (Physics)

Wish you best of luck in the Admission Test!

Q.No. Ans. Q.No Ans. Q.No Ans.1 a 18 c 35 a 2 c 19 a 36 a 3 b 20 b 37 d 4 a 21 c 38 c 5 c 22 a 39 e 6 b 23 b 40 c 7 b 24 d 41 b 8 a 25 b 42 a 9 b 26 a 43 c 10 a 27 b 44 c 11 c 28 a 45 d 12 b 29 c 46 c 13 c 30 b 47 a 14 b 31 a 48 a 15 c 32 b 49 c 16 b 33 b 50 d 17 a 34 c