1. Rotation of the plane of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following monosaccharides except

a. Glucose b. Glyceraldehyde c. Fructose d. Dihydroxyacetone e. None of the above

2. Ascorbic acid is an example of a. Sugar acid b. Sugar alcohol c. Sugar phosphate d. Deoxy-sugar e. Amino sugar

3. An invert sugar is a. An equimolar mixture of glucose

and fructose b. An equimolar mixture of a-

glucose and 13-glucose c. An equimolar mixture of a-

fructose and 13-fructose d. The sugar which changes its

optical activity from levo- to dextrorotatory

e. None of the above 4. A disaccharide formed of two glucose

units is a. Lactose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Amylose e. Amylopectin

5. Milk sugar is a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose e. None of the above

6. Cane sugar is a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose e. None of the above

7. Malt sugar is a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose e. None of the above

8. Starch is an example of a. Galactosans b. Mannosans c. Glucosaminans d. Glucosans e. Fructosans

9. Glycogen is an example of a. Glucosans b. Galactosans c. Mannosans d. Glucosaminans e. Fructosans

10. Starch is an example of a. Structural polysaccharides

present in animals b. Structural polysaccharides

present in plants c. Nutrient polysaccharides present

in animals d. Nutrient polysaccharides present

in plants e. None of the above

11. Which of the following has a free anomeric carbon atom

a. Glucose b. Mannose c. Lactose d. Sucrose e. Fructose

12. A polysaccharide indigestible by man is a. Cellobiose b. Glycogen c. Amylopectin d. Cellulose e. Amylose

13. A branch component of starch is a. Glucose b. Amylopectin c. Amylose d. Maltose e. None of the above

14. Which of the following statements characterizes glucose

a. It usually exists in the furanose form

b. It is a ketose c. Carbon 2 is the anomeric carbon

atom d. It forms part of the disaccharide

sucrose e. It is oxidized to form sorbitol

15. Which of the following contains ketone group

a. Ribulose b. Glucose c. Mannose d. Galactose e. Lactose

16. Which of the following is non fermentable sugar?

a. Maltose b. Sucrose c. Glucose d. Fructose e. Lactose

17. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields a. Two moles of glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Galactose and fructose d. Glucose and mannose

18. Ribitol is a. Deoxy sugar b. Amino sugar c. Sugar alcohol d. Sugar acid

19. Inulin is a simple polysaccharide built up of

a. Glucosamine b. Galactose c. Fructose d. Aldose

20. The end products of glycogen hydrolysis by acid is

a. Dextrin b. Maltose c. Amylose d. Glucose

21. The richest site for fructose in the body is a. Mammary gland b. Seminal fluid c. Thyroid gland d. Prostate

22. D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers with respect to carbon atom number

a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 1

23. Which of the following polysaccharides is not a polymer of glucose

a. Amylose b. Glycogen c. Inulin d. Amylopectin

24. Reduction of glucose produces a. Mannitol b. Sorbitol c. Dulcitol d. Glucuronic acid

25. Gluconic acid, saccharic acid and glucuronic acid are produced from glucose by

a. Reduction b. Treatment with acids c. Oxidation d. Treatment with bases

26. Galactose is present in the structure of a. Sucrose b. Lactose c. Lecithin d. Glycogen

27. Which statement is incorrect a. Glucose and mannose are

Epimers b. α- and β-glucose are Anomers c. Glucose and galactose are

Anomers d. Ribose and xylose are epimers

28. The invert sugar is a. Maltose b. Sucrose c. Hydrolytic products of sucrose d. Hydrolytic products of maltose

29. Sorbitol is a. A sugar alcohol b. Obtained from glucose c. Obtained from fructose d. All of the above

30. By complete acid hydrolysis of starch we obtain

a. Maltose b. α-glucose c. β-glucose d. All of the above

31. The blood sugar is a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Ribose d. Galactose e.

32. Ribulose is an example of a. Aldopentose b. Ketohexose c. Ketopentose d. Deoxy sugar e. Sugar alcohol

33. Cellulose is a. Formed of β-glucose b. Not digested in human intestine c. A simple polysaccharide d. All of the above

34. Dextrose is a. An aldopentose b. An aldohexose c. A ketohexose d. A ketopentose

35. Sorbitol can be obtained from fructose by a. Oxidation b. Reduction c. Hydrolysis d. Acetylation

36. A reducing disaccharide is a. Glucose b. Mannose c. Maltose d. Fructose

37. Glucose and mannose are epimers, this means that

a. They are mirror image to each other

b. One is aldose, the other is a ketose c. They differ only in the

configuration to one carbon d. One is pyranose the other is

furanose 38. Starch is

a. A heterogeneous polysaccharide b. Composed of β-glucose c. Not digested by amylase d. All of the above e. None of the above

39. The grape sugar is a. Fructose b. Sucrose c. Glucose d. Mannose

40. Lactose is a. A non-reducing sugar b. Formed of α-glucose and β-

fructose c. both (a) and (b) d. None of the above

41. Honey is the natural example for a. Sucrose b. Maltose c. Invert sugar d. Lactose

42. Reducing property of monosaccharide is tested by

a. Seliwanoff's test b. Molisch’s test c. Fehling test d. Rothera’s test e. Shape of osazone crystals

43. Inulin is a polymer of a. Glucose b. Levulose c. Galactose d. Mannose

44. α.glucose is present in structure of

a. Dextrins b. Dextran c. Glycogen d. All of the above

45. Amylase enzyme can hydrolyse a. Starch b. Dextrins c. Glycogen d. All of the above

46. Glucose and lactose are similar to each other in that both are

a. Reducing b. Able to give the same osazone c. Present in milk d. All of the above

47. Which of the following is a disaccharide? a. Starch b. Cellulose c. Glycogen d. Ribose e. Lactose

48. Which carbohydrate will you find in greatest abundance in potatoes?

a. Starch b. Cellulose c. Sucrose d. Glycogen e. Lactose

49. D-glucuronic acid is an example of a. Aldonic acid b. Aldaric acid c. Uronic acid d. Saccharic acid e. None of the above

50. Reduction of monosaccharides yields a. Sugar alcohols b. Sugar acids c. amino sugars d. Deoxy-sugars e. None of the above

51. Hydrogen gas in presence of a metal can reduce fructose to

a. Mannitol b. Ribitol c. Glycerol d. Glucose e. None of the above

52. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of a. alpha Glucose b. Beta Glucose c. Both of above d. None of the above

53. The epimer of glucose is:

a. Fructose b. Galactose c. Ribose d. Deoxyribose

54. Alpha and Beta forms of D-glucose are

referred to as: a. Epimers b. Anomers c. Enediols d. Tautomers

55. Which of the following does not give a

positive test for a reducing sugar? a. Ribose b. Galactose c. Maltose d. Sucrose

56. Cellulose is a: a. Branched polymer containing or

1 —> 4 and on 1 —> 6 glycosidic linkages

b. Straight chain polymer consisting of B 1 —> 4 glycosidic units

c. Polymer containing glucose, galactose and glucosamine

d. Mucopolysaccharide 57. In order that a compound possesses

optical activity it must be: a. Colored b. Symmetrical c. Inorganic d. Asymmetric

58. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields:

a. Galactose and glucose b. Maltose and glucose c. Fructose only d. Fructose and glucose

59. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of: a. Fructose b. Glucose-1-phosphate c. Mannose d. Glucose

60. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?

a. Amylose b. Hyaluronic acid c. Heparin d. Palmitic acid

61. The predominant carbohydrate of muscle a. D-fructose b. D-glucose c. Lactose d. Glycogen

62. Lactose is also called: a. Blood sugar b. Invert sugar c. Milk sugar d. Animal starch

63. An example of pentose is: a. Galactose b. Mannose c. Ribose d. Fructose

64. An example of Hexose is: a. Ribose b. Ribulose c. Xylulose d. Mannose

65. A mucopolysaccharide with blood anticoagulant activity is:

a. Chondroitin sulphate B b. Chondroitin sulphate D c. Keratan sulphate II d. Heparin

66. Beta 1-4 glycosidic bond is present in : a. maltose b. lactose c. sucrose d. none of the above

67. Number of stereo-isomers of glucose is : a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. none of the above

68. A homopolysaccharide made up of

fructose is : a. inulin b. dextrin c. cellulose d. glycogen

69. In fructofuranose ,the anomeric carbon is

a. carbon 1 b. carbon 2 c. carbon 3 d. carbon 4

70. A carbohydrate found in the DNA : a. ribose b. ribulose c. deoxyribose d. all of the above

71. Ribulose is a : a. ketotetrose b. aldotetrose c. ketopentose d. aldopentose

72. In D-glyecraldehyde, -OH group is present on the right hand side of carbon atom number :

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1,2 & 3

73. A disaccharide made up of two glucose units :

a. maltose b. sucrose c. dextrin d. lactose

74. A carbohydrate found only in milk : a. glucose b. lactose c. galactose d. maltose

75. A carbohydrate ,known commenly as invert sugar :

a. lactose b. sucrose c. fractose d. glucose

76. The homopolysaccharide among the following is :

a. heparin b. hyaluronic acid c. dermatan sulphate d. cellulose

77. The heteropolysaccharide among the following is :

a. inulin b. starch c. heparin d. cellulose

78. In straight chain structure of D-glucose, -OH group is present on the left hand side of carbon atom number :

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

79. The following causes levorotation : a. D-fructose b. L-glucose c. both of them d. None of them

80. The carbon atom which becomes asymmetric when the straight chain form of monosaccharide changes into ring form is called :

a. anomeric carbon atom b. epimeric carbon atom c. isomeric carbon atom d. none of the above

81. In straight chain structure of D-ribose, -OH group is present on the right hand side of carbon atom number :

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. all of the above

82. In glucopyranose the anomeric carbon

atom is number: a. 2 b. 1 c. 5 d. 6

83. In alpha-D glucopyranose, -OH groups projecting below the plane of the ring, are attached to carbon atoms of numbers:

a. 1,2 & 3 b. 1,2 & 5 c. 1,2 & 4 d. 2,3 & 4

84. Sugar present in DNA is a. ribose b. xylulose c. Arabinose d. deoxyribose

85. Sugar present in RNA is: a. Ribose b. Xylulose c. Arabinose d. Deoxyribose

86. Sugar present in seminal fluid is: a. glucose b. fructose c. galactose d. maltose

87. All the following polysaccharides have glucose as their monomer EXCEPT

a. Starch b. dextrin c. Inulin d. glycogen

88. End product of starch on acid hydrolysis is

a. glucose b. fructose c. maltose d. dextrin

89. End product of enzyme hydrolysis of

starch is a. glucose b. fructose c. maltose d. dextrin

90. Beta 1,4 glycosidic linkages are present in

a. Glycogen b. starch c. cellulose d. inulin

91. All the following are

homopolysaccharides EXCEPT a. Cellulose b. starch c. glycogen d. heparin

92. All the following are heteropolysaccharides EXCEPT

a. Hyaluronic acid b. chondroitin sulphate c. Inulin d. Heparin

93. Which of the following poly saccharine is

a naturally occurring anti coagulant? a. Hylauronic acid b. chondroitin sulphate c. heparin d. keratosulphate

94. One of the following carbohydrates is not

digested in the human intestinal tract a. Starch b. cellulose c. lactose d. sucrose

95. Amylopectin differ from amaylose by a. alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage b. beta 1,4 glycosidic linkage c. alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage at

branching

d. alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage at branching

96. One of the following polysaccharides is called animal starch:

a. glucose b. heparin c. dextrin d. glycogen

97. Glucose on oxidation with H2O2 gives: a. Hyaluronic acid b. Glucuronic acid c. Glucaric acid d. Mucic acid

98. Sorbitol is: a. A sterol b. An amino alcohol c. A sugar alcohol d. A glycerol derivative

99. The functional group responsible for the reducing property of glucose is present on which carbon atom?

a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1

Answers

1. D 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. E 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. C 37. C 38. E

39. C 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. D 46. A 47. E 48. A 49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. D 58. D 59. D 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. D 66. D 67. C 68. A 69. B 70. C 71. C 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. D

77. C 78. B 79. C 80. A 81. D 82. B 83. B 84. D 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. C 91. D 92. C 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. D 97. B 98. C 99. D

1. True statements about lipids include the

following except a. They are an intracellular energy

source b. They are poorly soluble in water c. They are structural components

of membranes d. They are composed of only

carbon, hydrogen and oxygen 2. Hydrogenation of oil is

a. The basis of artificial fat formation

b. Oxidation reaction of lipids c. The basis for soap formation d. All of the above

3. An unsaturated fatty acid with 3 double bonds is

a. Stearic acid b. Lignoceric acid c. Linoleic acid d. linolenic acid

4. Lecithin contains a. Two fatty acids b. Glycerol c. Phosphoric acid d. Choline e. All of these

5. An essential fatty acid is a. Linoleic b. Linolenic c. Arachidonic d. All of these

6. A non-essential fatty acid is a. Oleic b. Linoleic c. Linolenic d. Arachidonic

7. A lipid containing sphingosine is a. Lecithin b. Ganglioside c. Cardiolipin d. Cephalin

8. Adipose tissue fats are mainly a. Phospholipids b. Triglycerides c. Lipoproteins d. Sulfolipid

9. Addition of choline to phosphatidic acid will produce

a. Lysolecithin b. Choline plasmalogen c. Phosphatidyl serine d. Lecithin

10. The double bond in cholesterol is present between the following 2 carbons

a. 4 and 5 b. 5 and 6 c. 7 and 8 d. 22 and 23

11. Fatty acids that are dietary essentials in humans include which of the following

a. Palmitic acid b. Stearic acid c. Oleic acid d. Linoleic Acid

12. A substance not present in the hydrolytic products of lecithin is

a. Saturated fatty acid b. Glycerol c. Phosphoric acid d. Ethanolamine

13. The free fatty acid of blood are a. Metabolically inert b. Mainly bound to B-lipoproteins c. Stored in the fat depots d. Mainly bound to serum albumin

14. An unsaturated fatty acid with 3 double

bonds is a. Stearic acid b. Lignoceric acid c. Linoleic acid d. Linolenic acid

15. Plasma lipoproteins can be separated by a. Electrophoresis b. Ultracentrifugation c. Both of these d. None of these

16. A non-essential fatty acid is a. Oleic b. Linolenic c. Arachidonic d. All of these

17. A 18 carbon fatty acid not synthesized in

the body is a. Lignoceric b. Palmitoleic c. Stearic d. Linoleic

18. A compound normally used to conjugate bile acids is

a. Serine b. Glucuronic acid c. Fatty acids d. Calcium e. Glycine

19. Fatty acids that must be obtained from the diet by humans include

a. Oleic b. Plamitoleic c. Palmitic d. Stearic e. Linoleic

20. Hydrolysis of a mixture of phospholipids

may yield all the following except a. Serine b. Choline c. Galactose d. Glycerol e. Phosphate

21. A substance not present in the hydrolytic products of lecithin is

a. Saturated fatty acid b. Glycerol c. Phosphoric acid d. Ethanolamine

22. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is a. Oleic b. Palmitoleic c. Linoleic d. Palmitic

23. Which of the following is not a phospholipid

a. Cerebroside b. Plasmelogen c. Lecithin d. Splingomyelin

24. An anti-oxidant is a substance that a. Prevents saponification b. Used to produce rancidity of

lipids c. Used to protect lipids against

rancidity d. Used for hardening of oils

25. Lipids are: a. Structural constituents of cell

membrane b. Components having high energy

value c. Soluble in non-polar solvents d. All of the above

26. An example for simple lipid is: a. Triglyceride (T riacylglycerol) b. Cephalin c. Fatty acids d. Glycerol

27. Which one of the following is not a compound lipid?

a. Plasmalogen b. Waxes c. Lecithin d. Sphingomyelin

28. Cholesterol is an: a. Compound lipid b. Simple lipid c. Derived lipid d. Aliphatic alcohol

29. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs due In deficiency of:

a. Plasmalogen b. Svinsvmyflin c. Dipalmimoyl lecithin d. Phosphatidyl serine

30. Which is a major costituent of lung surfactantl?

a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin b. Cholesbeml c. Phosphalidic add d. Glycerol

31. Carbohydrate moiety present in cerebroside in:

a. fructose b. Galactose c. Ribose d. Mannose

32. Sphingosine, as amino alchol in a constituent of all the following except:

a. Ganglioside b. Cerebroside c. Cephalin d. Sphingomyelin

33. which is not constituent of gangliosides: a. Sialic acid b. Glycerol c. Sphingosine d. Long-chain fatty acid

34. Which of the following is monounsaturated fatty acids

a. Linoleic Acid b. Alpha linolenic Acid c. Oleic Acid d. Arachidonic Acid

35. Which of the following is a precursor to prostaglandins

a. Linoleic Acid b. Alpha linolenic Acid c. Oleic Acid d. Arachidonic Acid

36. All the following are essential together except

a. Omega 3 b. Linoleic acid c. Arachidonic acid d. Stearic acid

37. Which of the following is the variable element of fat

a. Triacylglycerol in blood b. Stored glycogen c. True fat d. Glycerophospholipids

38. 1 gram of fat is oxidised into a. 9.3 Kcal b. 4.1 Kcal c. 5.6 Kcal d. 2.1 Kcal

39. The precursor compound of glycerophospholipids is

a. Dipalmitoilglycerol b. Triacylglycerol c. Phosphatidic acid d. Glycogen

40. The L-isomer of glycerol phosphate is found in

a. Plant sterols b. Natural phosphoglycerols c. Blood lipoproteins d. Tissue lipid bilayer

41. The amphipathic property of phospholipids is because they have

a. Phosphoryl bases as polar heads b. Hydrocarbon non polar tails c. Leads to formation of micelles in

water d. All of the above

42. All are correct about lecithin except a. The base here is choline b. Present in animal’s cell

membrane c. One of the most important

clotting factors d. Dipalmitoyl form is important for

lung surfactant 43. All of the following are true about

dipalmitoyl lecithin except a. Postition 1, 2 is occupied by

palmitate b. Found in extracellular fluid of

alveoli c. Its loss decreases surface tension

of alveolar fluid leading to alveolar collapse

d. Its loss leads to respiratory distress syndrome

44. All are true about cephalin except a. Abundant in animal cell

membranes b. Base is ethanolamine c. Has 2 forms 3 & 2 cephalin d. Takes part in formation of lung

surfactant e. One of the important clotting

factors

45. Cardiolipin a. Used to test for syphilis b. 2 molecules of phosphatidic acid

bound to glycerol c. Found in large amounts in inner

mitochondrial membrane d. First isolated from heart e. Important clotting factor

46. Which of the following is the constant element of fat

a. Triacylglycerol in blood b. Stored glycogen c. True fat d. Glycerophospholipids

47. Which of the following is the chemical reaction of breaking glycerophospholipids

a. Hydrolysis by Phospholipases b. Polyunsaturated Fatty acid

peroxidation c. Phosphodiesterase reaction

48. The membrane-bound glycerophospholipids control cell permeability in

a. Heart b. Lung c. Nerves d. Liver

49. All the following are the functions of

non-membrane bound glycerophospholipids except

a. In bile for solubilisation of cholesterol, digestion and absorption of dietary lipids

b. In plasma lipoproteins c. Mediators of hormone action d. Increase surface tension in lung

alveoli

50. All of the following are hydrolytic products of sphingophospholipids except

a. Sphingosine b. Glycerol c. Higher fatty acid d. Phosphoric acid e. Base

51. All the following statements about Ceramide are true except

a. The parent structure of membrane components found in brain and myelin sheath of nerves

b. The fatty acid moiety is saturated or mononunsaturated

c. The amino group of sphingosine is connected by a hydrogen bond to the fatty acid

52. The most abundant sphingophospholipids in animals are

a. Glycosphingolipids b. Ceramides c. Sphingomyelins. d. Sulfatides

53. The sphingomyelin polar head group is: a. Phosphoryl choline b. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine c. Phosphatidyl inositol d. Phosphoryl Co-A

54. The following occur in the outer leaflet of

plasma membrane a. Sphingophospholipids b. Glycerophospholipids c. Glycolipids d. Steroids

55. All the following are functions of cell surface glycolipids except

a. Cell to cell communication b. Tissue immunity c. Blood group antibodies d. Species specificity

56. All the following are true about cerebrosides except

a. They are neutral because they contain neutral sugar molecules as their polar heads

b. The sugars are bound to hydroxyl group of ceramide

c. Glucocerebroside is the major glycosphingolipid in brain and nervous tissue

d. The bond between sugers and hydroxyl groups is Beta-1,1 glycosidic link

57. The USF include all except a. Steroids b. Carotenoids c. FSVs d. Glycerols e. High molecular weight alcohols

58. All of the following are true about USF except

a. They include steroids and FSVs b. Can be hydrolysed by alkali c. Can be separated from other types

of fat by saponification d. It stands for Unsaponifiable

Fraction of fats 59. Which of the following is not correct

about the steroid nucleus a. It’s nucleus is called

cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene ring

b. There is a methyl group at C10 and C13

c. The total number of carbon atoms including the methyl groups is 17

d. The 6 carbon atoms of the hexagonal ring are completely saturated

60. Which of the following is incorrect about sterols

a. They are a type of steroids b. They have a hydroxyl group at C3 c. They have an aliphatic side chain

at C17 d. Ergosterol is an animal sterol

while 7-dihydrocholesterol is a plant sterol

61. The main sterol in the body is a. 7-dihydrocholesterol b. Cholesterol c. Ergosterol d. 22-dihydroergosterol

62. All of the following are true about cholesterol except

a. It’s a major constituent of plasma membrane

b. It’s a precursor of sex hormones, cortical hormones & Vit. D

c. Synthesized by the body and found in plant fats which are the major source

d. Formed in the body from acetyl Co-A

63. Which is incorrect about the chemistry of cholesterol

a. Hydroxyl group at C3 b. Aliphatic side chain at C17 c. It’s formed of 29C d. A double bond between C5 & C6

64. Which of the following compounds is converted by UV rays into cholecalciferol

a. 7-dihydrocholesterol b. Cholesterol c. Ergosterol d. 22-dihydroergosterol

65. The extra methyl group in plant sterols is at

a. C29 b. C3 c. C24 d. C17

66. All of the following is true about plant sterols except

a. They have a double bond between C22 & C23

b. Ergocalciferol is formed by photolysis from plants

c. Yeast is the main source of ergocalciferol

d. D3 is more potent than D2 e. 22-dihydroergosterol is called

pro-vit D4

Answers 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. E 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. E 19. E 20. C 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. c 25. d 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. c

40. b 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. e 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. c 52. c 53. a 54. c 55. c 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. d

1. Which of the following is most found in protein molecule? a. Carbon b. Hydrogen c. Oxygen d. Nitrogen

2. No of naturally occuring aminoacids is : a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

3. All of the following are aliphatic amino acids except : a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Proline d. Lysine

4. One of the following is neutral amino acid : a. Arginine b. Lysine c. Glutamine d. Valine

5. All of the following are hydroxy containing amino acids except : a. Serine b. Threonine c. Valine d. Tyrosine

6. One of the following is optically non active amino acid a. Valine b. Tyrosine c. Glycine d. Threonine

7. All of the following are polar amino acids except : a. Serine b. Glutamate c. Arginine d. Alanine

8. All of the following are essential

amino acids except : a. Lysine b. Aspartate c. Tryptophan d. Hisitidine

9. Lysine : a. Basic Only ketogenic b. Ketogenic glucogenic c. Acidic glucogenic d. Non essential

10. All of the following are primary

aminoacids except : a. Cysteine b. Cystine c. Alanine d. Arginine

11. Which of the following is precursor of T3 and T4 : a. GABA b. Dopa c. B- Alanine d. Di-iodotyrosine

12. Zwitter ion are : a. Basic b. Acidic c. Neutral d. Carry both -ve & +ve charges e. Both c and d

13. The unit of peptides is : a. Moiety b. Residue c. Polypeptide d. Both a and b

14. Lactic acid is buffered by : a. L.Carnosine b. Glutathione c. Casenogin d. Dopa

15. N terminal of glutathione is : a. Glycine b. Cysteine c. Glutamate d. Aspartate

16. Which of the following is BLOOD iron carrier? a. Haemoglobin b. Albumin c. Transferrin d. Globulin

17. Storage form of iron : a. Transferrin b. Ferritin c. Myosin d. Actin

18. Which of the following protien is found in bone : a. Keratin b. Ossein c. Mucin d. Actin

19. Type of bonds between C terminal and N terminal is : a. Covalent b. Disulphide bond c. Peptide d. Ionic e. Both a and c

20. Type of bond between nitrogen and carbonyl group : a. Hydrogen bonds b. Covalent bond c. Peptide bond d. Disulphide bond

21. All of the following are non covalent except : a. Hydrophobic interactions b. Disulphide bond c. Hydrogen bond d. Electrostatic bond

22. Primary structure of proteins refers to : a. Coiling and folding in form of

specific structure b. Number of amino acids in a

chain c. 3D structure d. Alpha and Beta sheets

23. Denaturation involves : a. Peptide bonds b. Primary structure of protein c. Secondary structure d. Function e. Both c and d

24. Tertiary structure of proteins involves EXCEPT : a. Domains b. Globular c. Fibrous d. Beta sheets

25. All of the following are simple proteins except : a. Histones b. Albumin c. Keratins d. Glycoprotein

26. Which of the following is sulphur highly containing protein : a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Ossein d. Reticulin

27. Casenogen is a. Chromoprotein b. Phosphoprotein c. Glycoprotein d. Lipoprotein

28. X-ray is a chemical agent for protein denaturation a. True b. False

29. Increase viscosity of proteins is due to a. Denaturation b. Isoelectric point c. Both d. None

30. Separation of low molecular weight protein from high one is : a. Dialysis b. Cromotography c. Electrophoiesis d. Ultracentrifugation

31. Example of basic essential amino acids

a. Arginine b. Histidine c. Lysine d. All of the above e. None of the above

32. Example of non-protein amino acid

a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Tryptophan d. All of the above e. None of the above

33. Example of non-protein amino acid

a. Alanine b. Citrulline c. Phenylalanine d. Leucine

34. Glutathione is an example for a. Amino acid b. Dipeptide c. Polypeptide d. Protein e. Tripeptide

35. The active group of glutathione is

a. Amino group b. Sulfhydryl group c. Carboxylic group d. Imino group e. Peptide linkage

36. The peptide bond is a. Covalent bond b. Non-covalent bond c. Weak bond d. Responsible for secondary

structure of protein e. Between sulfhydryl groups

37. First order of protein structure refers to

a. Bending of protein chain b. Number and sequence of

amino acids c. Three dimensional structure of

protein d. Site of disulfide bonds e. Non-covalent bonds in protein

molecule 38. Second order of protein

structure refers to a. Number and sequence of

amino acids b. Three dimensional structure of

protein c. Proteins formed of more than

one monomer d. Bending of protein molecule e. Dependence on covalent bonds

39. Third structure of protein structure refers to

a. Number and sequence of amino acids

b. Three dimensional structure of protein

c. Proteins formed of more than one monomer

d. Bending of protein molecule e. Dependence on covalent bonds

40. Fourth structure of protein structure refers to

a. Proteins formed of more than one monomer

b. Myoglobin is an example. c. Depends on covalent bonds d. None of the above e. All of the above

41. Covalent bond is a. A weak bond b. A true chemical bond c. A hydrogen bond d. Responsible for secondary

structure of protein e. Liable to be destroyed

42. Example of essential aromatic amino acids

a. Threonine b. Alanine c. Phenyl alanine d. Glycine e. Cysteine

43. Protein of high biological value a. Contains essential amino acids b. Is poor in essential amino acids c. Is of plant source d. Contains amino acid glycine e. Is a basic protein

44. Albumin is a. Insoluble in water b. Heat coagulable protein c. A plant protein

d. A protein of low biological value

e. Poor in essential amino acids 45. Globulin is

a. A basic protein b. A protein of low molecular

weight c. Heat coagulable protein d. Easily soluble in water e. A fibrous protein

46. Keratin is a. Protein of tendons b. Rich in sulfur c. Poor in cysteine d. Conjugated protein e. Soluble in water

47. Collagen contains high percentage of

a. Glycine b. Tryptophan c. Phenyl alanine d. Serine e. Valine

48. Caseinogen is a. Simple protein b. Derived protein c. Phosphoprotein d. Rich in sulfur containing

amino acids e. Presentin plasma

49. On electrophoresis for plasma proteins using buffer of pH 8.6

a. The proteins are neutral b. The proteins carry negative

charge c. The proteins carry positive

charge d. The proteins are easily

precipitated e. The proteins are denaturated

50. Albumins are separated by a. 1/2 saturated ammonium

sulfate b. Full saturated ammonium

sulfate c. 20% saturated ammonium

sulfate d. 60% saturated ammonium

sulfate e. 10% saturated ammonium

sulfate 51. Albumins and globulins are

defined as: a. Derived protein b. Conjugated protein c. Fibrous protein d. Globular protein e. Lipoprotein

52. Plasma proteins are separated by

a. Dialysis b. Electrophoresis c. Filtration

d. Alcohol precipitation 53. Example of essential sulphur

containing amino acids a. Lysine b. Cysteine c. Cystine d. Alanine e. Methionine

54. The bonds present in the primary structure of protein are

a. Peptide bonds b. Hydrogen bonds c. Disulfide bonds d. All of these

55. A protein rich in proline and hydroxy proline is

a. Globin b. Collagen c. Casein d. Histone

56. The buffering property of proteins is due to the presence of

a. Acidic and basic groups b. Hydrogen bonds c. Indole groups d. Hyrophobic bonds

57. Arginine, lysine and ornithine are

a. Obtained by hydrolysis of proteins

b. Essential amino acids c. Basic amino acids d. Derived from butyric acid

58. Glycine Is characterized by a. Absence of an asymmeteric

carbon b. Absence of optical activity c. The shortest amino acid d. All of these

59. Ornithine is a. A basic amino acid b. An essential amino acid c. Present in protein structure d. All of these

60. Albumin, globulin and casein are

a. Milk proteins b. Plasma proteins c. Egg proteins d. Meat proteins

61. Cysteine, cystine and methionine are

a. Essential amino acids b. Present in protein structure c. Acidic amino acids d. All of these

62. A protein that gives positive biuret test is

a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Casein d. All of these

63. A basic amino acid present in protein structure is

a. Histidine b. Citruline c. Ornithine d. All of these

64. Example of amino acid containing guanido group

a. Arginine b. Lysine c. Histidine d. Valine e. Leucine

65. Keratin is a. A scleroprotein b. Rich in cystine c. A simple protein d. All of these

66. A fibrous protein is a. Albumin b. Myosin c. Casein d. Globulin

67. Glycine is a. A non-optically active amino

acid b. Present in structure of

glutathione c. A neutral amino acid d. All of these

68. Proteins associated with nucleic acid in nucleo-protein are

a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Keratin d. Histones

69. ln proteins, the alpha-helix and Beta-pleated sheet are examples of

a. Primary structure b. Secondary structure c. Tertiary structure d. Quaternary structure

70. A tetra peptide contains the following number of preptide bonds

a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

71. A globular protein is a. Actin b. Myosin c. Collagen d. Albumin

72. Example of branched amino acid

a. Valine b. Leucine c. Isoleucine d. All of the above e. None of the above

73. Example of hydroxy containing amino acids

a. Serine b. Phenyl alanine c. Tryptophan d. Proline e. Glutamic acid

74. Example of amino acids containing imino group

a. Glycine b. Valine c. Proline d. Lysine e. Phenyl alanine

75. Example of an amino acid containing sulfhydryl group

a. Alanine b. Cysteine c. Proline d. Tryptophan e. Lysine

76. Example of non-optically active amino acid

a. Proline b. Alanine c. Glycine d. Phenylalanine

77. Which of the following statements about amino acids is not true?

a. Amino acids are ampholytes b. Aminoacids are linked through

peptide bonds to form proteins c. Amino acids are not

Crystalline compounds d. Leucine is a purely ketogenic

amino acid 78. The amino acids found in

biological proteins are of: a. D-Configuration and

dextrorotatory b. L-Configuration and

levorotatory c. D-Configuration and

levo/dextrorotatory d. L-Configuration and

dextro/laevoratatory 79. Which amino acid doesn’t

occur in proteins of biological system? a. Ornithine b. Arginine c. Cystine d. Histidine

80. All amino adds are optically active except:

a. Serine b. Glycine c. Tryptophan d. Threonine '

81. Which of the following amino acids possesses an imino group? a. Tryptophan b. Hydroxylysine c. Tyrosine d. Proline

82. An amino acid which contains a disulphide bond is:

a. Lysine b. Methionine c. Homocysteine d. Cystine

83. Chemically keratin is a: a. Globulin b. Fibrous protein c. Tripeptide d. Conjugated protein

84. The most abundant protein in the human body is:

a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Myosin d. Albumin

85. Denaturation of proteins is often characterised by:

a. Loss of biological activity b. Always being irreversible c. Being greater the lower the

temperature d. Changes in primary structure

86. Decarboxylation of amino acids will result in the formation of:

a. Amines b. Imino acids c. Basic amino acids d. Amides

87. The number of amino acid residues in one spiral of alpha-helix of proteins is usually:

a. 2.6 b. 3.6 c. 4.6 d. 5.6

88. Which of the following is not found in proteins?

a. Citrulline b. Arginine c. Methionine d. Cysteine

89. The only amino acid containing indole ring is:

a. Tryptophan b. Tyrosine c. Histidine d. Phenylalanine

90. With the exception of glycine, all amino acids found in proteins are:

a. Optically active b. Dextrorotatory c. Of L-configuration d. Levorotatory

91. Essential amino acids are so named because:

a. They are essential for life process

b. Cannot be synthesized in the body

c. Deficiency leads to genetic diseases

d. Important in cell growth 92. Casein is a:

a. Lipoprotein b. Mucoprotein c. Phosphoprotein d. Chromoprotein

93. Which is a basic amino acid? a. Lysine b. Tyrosine c. Glycine d. Leucine

94. An amino acid containing imidazole group ls:

a. lsoleucine b. Arginine c. Proline d. Histidine

95. The major linkage between amino acids in protein is the:

a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond c. Sulphide bond d. Peptide bond

96. An example of a chromoprotein is:

a. Casein b. Hemoglobin c. Peptone d. Collagen

97. When a peptide bond is formed there is removal of :

a. CO2 b. H2O c. NH3 d. H+

98. Aspartic acid is a (an): a. Monoamino

dicarboxylic acid b. Diamino

monocarboxylic acid c. Aromatic amino acid d. Imino acid

99. All amino acids are optically active except:

a. Glycine b. Serine c. Threonine d. Tryptophan

100. Amino acid which synthesizes many hormones is:

a. Valine b. Phenylalanine c. Alanine d. Histidine

Answers 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. E 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. E 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. E 33. B

34. E 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B 51. D 52. B 53. E 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. D 66. B

67. D 68. D 69. D 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. A 75. C 76. B 77. D 78. C 79. D 80. A 81. B 82. D 83. D 84. B 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. A 91. A 92. B 93. C 94. A 95. D 96. D 97. B 98. B 99. A

100. A 101. b

1- Group of organic catalysts, protein in nature, present inside the living cells …… a- Enzymes b- Catalysts c- Hormones d- None of the above

2- All of the following is true regarding enzymes except ….. a- Heat labile b- Colloidal c- Dialyzable d- High molecular weight

3- Organic substance on which the enzyme acts ……. a- Substrate b- Co-Enzyme c- Product d- None of the above

4- All of the following can be considered as a co Enzyme for transfer of H except ….. a- Biotin b- ATP c- FAD d- Folic acid

5- One of the following can be considered as a co Enzyme for transfer of groups other than H except ….. a- Biotin b- ATP c- FAD d- Folic acid

6- One of the following is considered a feature of Enzymes except …… a- Globular Proteins b- Undergo Denaturation c- Simple Proteins d- Non-Specific

7- Enzyme acts on a special type of bond at specific site and attached to specific groups …… a- Group Specifity b- Absolute Specifity c- Relative Specifity d- Optical Specifity

8- D-amino acid Oxidase represents …… a- Group Specifity b- Absolute Specifity c- Relative Specifity d- Optical Specifity

9- Pancreatic Lipase represents ……. a- Group Specifity b- Absolute Specifity c- Relative Specifity d- Optical Specifity

10- Special sequence of amino acids in the protein molecule of the enzyme to which the substrate is attached……. a- Catalytic Site b- Active site c- Allosteric Site d- None of the above

11- All sequences of amino acids which affect the activity of the enzyme …… a- Catalytic Site b- Active site c- Allosteric Site d- All of the above

12- Substrate induces a conformational change in the catalytic site ……. a- Lock and key model b- Flexible model of catalytic site c- Rigid model of catalytic site d- None of the above

13- Concentration of the product increases directly by time ……. a- Maximum Velocity b- End velocity c- Initial Velocity d- None of the above

14- Increase in substrate concentration leads to …….. a- Increase of velocity b- Increase in enzyme activity c- Increase of V max d- All of the above

15- Substrate concentration which produces half maximal velocity (½Vmax.) ………. a- Full Concentration b- Null Concentration c- Michael’s Concentration d- All of the above

16- Increase in enzyme concentration ……. the rate of reaction a- Increase b- Decrease c- No effect d- Permissive effect

17- Complete irreversible loss of enzyme activity occurs at …… a- 37 degree C b- 45 degree C c- 0 degree C d- 60-65 degree C

18- Temperature at which the enzymatic reaction velocity is maximal …… a- Optimum Temperature b- 37 degree C c- 65 degree C d- A and b together e- None of the above

19- Optimum PH for Trypsin is …… a- 6.8 b- 8.4 c- 8 d- 2

20- Optimum PH for Alkaline Phosphatase a- 6.8 b- 8.4 c- 8 d- 2

21- All of the following inhibits enzymatic activity except a- Physical Agents b- Heating c- Shaking d- Red and Blue lights

22- Pepsin is activated through …….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators

23- Glyceraldehyde 3-P dehydrogenase is activated through ….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators

24- Metaloenzymes is activated through ….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators

25- Tyrosinase requires …… a- ZN ++ b- CU ++ c- CL – d- MG ++

26- Phosphofructokinase enzyme is activated through ….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators

27- Activation by Phosphorylation excludes one of the following ……. a- Hormone sensitive lipase b- Glycogen Phosphyrlase c- Glycogen Synthetase d- None of the above

28- Competitive inhibition includes all of the following except a- Chemical structure of the inhibitor

closely resembles that of the substrate. b- Combines Reversibly with the enzyme c- When both the substrate and the

inhibitor are present they compete for the same binding site.

d- V max is decreased e- Is removed by increases the

concentration of inhibitor 29- Reversible noncompetitive Inhibition

includes all of the following except a- I combine with the enzyme away from

the catalytic site. b- The I is not similar to the substrate in

structure. c- The I can combine with the free

enzyme or with the enzyme substrate d- increase the Km

30- Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase Resembles ……. a- Reversible Non Competitive Inhibition b- Irreversible noncompetitive Inhibition c- Allosteric inhibition d- Competitive inhibition

31- Increased product concentration …… the enzyme activity a- Increases b- Decreases c- No effect d- Permissive effect

32- Substances which stimulate gene expression into protein ……. a- Inducer b- Suppressor c- Repressors d- Co-Enzymes

33- Concerning Isoenzyme ……. a- Have quaternary structure and the

individual subunits in each isoenzyme are different from the others

b- They act on the different substrate and will give the same product

c- They have different affinity to the substrate.

d- They are present in different tissues. 34- HMMM is present in ……..

a- Heart b- Kidney c- Liver d- Muscles

35- HHMM is present in a- Kidney b- Muscles c- Heart d- None of the above e-

36- Non Functional plasma enzymes include all of the following except ….. a- Transaminases ( AST & ALT ) b- Alkaline Phosphatase c- Lipoprotein lipase d- None of the above

37- Increased in bone metastasis ……… a- Alkaline phosphatase b- Creatine kinase c- LDH d- None of the above

38- Increased in Prostatic Carcinoma ……… a- Alkaline phosphatase b- Creatine kinase c- LDH d- None of the above

39- Decreased in Galactosemia ……… a- Streptokinase b- Digestive enzymes c- Galactosyl transferase d- α-chymotrypsin

40- Treatment of intraocular hemorrhage is done by a- Streptokinase b- Digestive enzymes c- LDH d- α-chymotrypsin

41- The oxidation process occurs by ……… a- Addition of oxygen. b- Removal of hydrogen. c- Loss of electron d- All of the above

42- Redoxes that use oxygen as a hydrogen receptor are called …….. a- Oxidases b- Hyper peroxidases c- Dehydrogenases d- Oxygenases

43- Catalase is specifically abundant in all of the following except …….. a- Liver b- Kidney c- Erythrocytes d- Milk and leucocytes

44- Enzymes utilizing H2O2 as substrate ………. a- Oxidases b- Hyper peroxidases c- Dehydrogenases d- Oxygenases

45- LDH depends on ………. In dehydrogenation a- Nicotinamide b- FAD c- C.AMP d- None of the above

46- Enzymes which catalyze transfer of functional groups (G) other than hydrogen between a pair of substrates ……. a- Transferase b- Oxygenases c- Dehydrogenases d- Hydrolases

47- All of the following are included in Transferase class of enzymes except ……. a- Transaminase b- Hydrolase c- Transglycosayl d- None of the above

48- Split terminal peptide linkage splitting one amino acid at a time is …….. a- Estrases b- Endoeptidases c- Exopeptidases d- Glycosidases

49- Fumerase is an example of ……. a- Transferase b- Hydrolase c- Oxidase d- Lyases

50- Lipase is an example of ……. a- Transferase b- Estrases c- Oxidases d- Lyases

51- Enzymes link two molecules using energy from ATP …… a- Lyases b- Hydrolase c- Ligase d- Redox

52- Carboxylase is an example of ……. a- Transferase b- Estrases c- Oxidases d- Ligases

Choose (A) for true and (B) For false of the following

53- Pepsin acts on peptide bonds between amino groups of aromatic amino acid and carboxylic group of another amino acid

54- Enzymes are usually specific in action 55- In Absolute specificity the enzyme acts at different rates on one type of bond in

Compounds chemically related 56- Enzymes may be considered to lower energy barriers for chemical reactions 57- Increase in the substrate concentration will lead to decrease in enzyme activity 58- Increase in enzyme concentration increase the rate of reaction 59- Some enzymes containing SH groups requires Minerals to be activated 60- In Competitive inhibition Vmax of the enzyme is not decreased 61- Inducers are substances which inhibit gene expression 62- Isoenzyme is oligomeric enzyme

Model Answers:

1- A 2- C 3- A 4- C 5- C 6- D 7- A 8- D 9- C 10- A 11- B 12- B 13- C 14- A 15- C 16- A 17- D 18- D 19- C 20- B 21- D 22- A 23- B 24- C 25- B 26- D 27- C 28- D 29- D 30- A 31- B

32- A 33- B 34- D 35- A 36- A 37- A 38- B 39- C 40- D 41- D 42- A 43- D 44- B 45- A 46- A 47- B 48- C 49- D 50- B 51- C 52- D 53- A 54- A 55- B 56- A 57- B 58- A 59- B 60- A 61- B

1. All the following about passive transport is true except: a. Occurs through intermolecular spaces in the membrane or in combination with a carrier

protein b. The motion of molecules is from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration c. Occurs by the aid of the kinetic energy of the molecules d. Needs energy input from the cell

2. All the following molecules move into the cells passively except a. Oxygen & CO2 b. Electrolytes c. Glucose d. Proteins e. Amino acids

3. Which is true about trans-membrane channels: a. Oxygen passes through its specific channel from outside the cell to the inside b. The acetylcholine sodium gated channel needs a specific ligand to open c. All sodium channels are ligand gated d. The fat soluble vitamins have their own channel to pass through the membrane

4. True or false a. The greater the surface area of the membrane the higher the rate of diffusion. b. Great concentration difference of the substance on both sides of the membrane decreases

the rate of diffusion. c. The higher the difference in pressure of the fluids on both sides of the membrane, the less

the rate of diffusion. d. Ions pass from negatively charged medium to positively charged one even if there is no

concentration difference. e. The rate of diffusion increases by increasing the permeability of the membrane. f. Membrane permeability is the rate of transport through a unit area of the membrane for a

given concentration difference. g. A large number of channels through which the substance can diffuse increases the rate of

diffusion h. The permeability and rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the degree of the resistance

of the channel to the moving substance is directly proportional i. Permeability of the membrane is inversely related to the molecular weight of the substance j. Increase in temperature leads to increase in permeability k. The greater the thickness of the membrane the lesser will be its permeability

5. All the following statements about facilitated diffusion are true except: a. It is called carrier-mediated diffusion b. Non-polar molecules as fat soluble vitamins need their own carrier c. In most cases the carrier is a lipoprotein d. Occurs in cases of large sized particle and lipid insoluble (polar) molecules

6. All the following statements about primary active transport is true except a. Occurs only through the lipid layer of the cell membrane b. Requires energy from ATP breakdown c. Doesn’t need a specific carrier protein d. The sodium-potassium (Na+-K+) pump

7. Choose the false statement about the sodium potassium pump.... a. It’s action is not affected by the sodium and potassium leak channels b. Pumps sodium ions outward of the cell and potassium ions to the inside c. The concentration of K+ inside the cell is 30 times higher than that outside d. It operates more or less continuously to drive Na+ out of the cell and pump K+ back into the

cell, against their concentration gradient. 8. The Na+ K+ pump has all the following properties except:

a. Is formed of two separate globular proteins b. Needs 2 ATP molecules per pump to operate c. Has 3 receptor sites for sodium ions on the inside of the cell. d. Has 2 receptor sites for potassium ions on the outside surface. e. It has an ATPase activity.

9. All the following are functions of Na+ K+ pump except: a. It is responsible for maintaining sodium & potassium conc. differences across the cell

membrane needed for excitable tissue action thus it’s said to be electrogenic b. Maintains intracellular potassium necessary for protein metabolism. c. It’s responsible for initiating the receptor action potential d. It maintains a negative electrical voltage inside the cells. e. It keeps the osmotic equilibrium and controls cell volume.

10. All the following are true about secondary active transport except: a. The carrier has two sites that must be occupied before acting b. Both molecules move against their concentration gradient c. They are all coupled systems d. They have two types co-transport and counter transport carriers

11. True or false: a. Glucose and amino acids move with sodium into the cells (Co-transported) b. Calcium moves outside the cell using sodium’s energy c. Sodium and hydrogen carrier is a co-transport system

12. Match

I. 1 gram molecular weight of osmotically active solute of the un-dissociated solute

a. Tonicity

II. Ability of a solution to change the shape of cells by altering their internal water volume

b. Osmotic pressure

III. Determined by the number of particles per unit volume of fluid c. Osmosis IV. Diffusion of a solvent, such as water, through a selectively permeable membrane

to the other side in which there is higher concentration of the solute to which the membrane is impermeable

d. Osmolarity

V. It is the process that forces water and solutes through a membrane or capillary wall by the hydrostatic pressure

e. Osmolality

VI. Number of osmoles per kilogram of solvent f. Osmole VII. Osmolar concentration expressed as osmoles/L of solution (The total

concentration of all solute particles) g. Filtration

VIII. The pressure needed in the concentrated solution to prevent water movement from the diluted side.

13. True or false

a. The normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 300 milliosmoles/kilogram of water.

b. Cells placed in 0.9% saline or 5% glucose solution swell rapidly c. A strong saline solution is hypertonic so a cell placed in it will lose water and shrink. d. 0.5 Saline is hypotonic e. The driving force for filtration is a pressure gradient that pushes solute-containing fluid (filtrate)

from a higher-pressure area to a lower-pressure area. f. The resting membrane potential ranges from -50 to -100 where the minus sign indicates that the

outside of the cell is negative compared to its inside g. The membrane of the cell is more permeable to sodium than potassium h. In most cells, Cl– does not contribute to the resting membrane potential because, even though the

membrane is permeable to Cl–, its entry is resisted by the negative charge of the interior due to protein anions.

14. All of the following are causes participating in resting membrane potential except:

a. Selective permeability across the cell membrane: b. Active Na+-K+ pump. c. Permeability of membrane to K+ because of leakage channel d. Motion of protein anions to the outside of the cells

15. Match

1. Water a. 15% 2. Proteins b. 60% 3. Fats c. 7% 4. Minerals d. 18%

16. Match 1. Intracellular fluid a. ¼ of body water 2. Extracellular fluid b. 1/12 of body water 3. Interstitial fluid c. 2/3 of body water 4. Intravascular fluid d. 1/3 of body water

17. True or false

The amount of body water decline with age and is affected by the quantity of body fat Transcellular fluid is found in pleura and joint cavities Homeostasis is the ability of the body to maintain constant conditions in its internal environment inspite

of changes in the surroundings. Homeostasis depends on nervous and endocrinal systems for communication All homeostatic systems have 3 components and 2 pathways Most of homeostatic control mechanisms are negative feedback mechanisms In negative feedback systems, the output is opposite to the original stimulus thus reduces its intensity The negative feedback mechanisms prevent sudden severe changes within the body An Example of negative feedback mechanism is the body reaction to high blood CO2 level In positive feedback mechanisms, the response enhances the original stimulus Cascades create a “vicious cycle” The range of maintenance of physiological function in positive feedback is bigger than that of negative

feedback Negative feedback maintains the physiological function within narrow ranges Childbirth is an example for positive feedback mechanisms

Answers 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. T-F-F-F-T-T-T-F-F-T-T 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. T-T-F 12. F – A – B – C – G – E – D - B 13. T - F – T – F – T – F – F - T 14. D 15. B – D – A – C 16. C – D – A – B 17. All are true

1. Elbow joint is a type of: a. Synovial pivot joint b. synovial condylar joint c. fibrous syndesmosis d. none of the above

2. Epiphyseal plate is a type of a. secondary cartilagenous joint b. Primary cartialgenous joint c. Plane joint d. Gomphosis joint

3. The urinary bladder is located in a. left iliac fossa b. hypogastric region c. the pelvic cavity d. both b & c

4. The peritoneum is a : a. Mucous membrane b. Cutaneous membrane c. serous membrane d. None of the above

5. Inferior tibio-fibular joint is a a. synovial polyaxial joint b. synovial biaxial ellipsoid joint c. fibrous joint d. syndesmosis joint e. both c & d

6. A type of secondary cartilagenous is: a. knee joint b. wrist joint c. sutures of the skull joint d. symphysis pubis joint

7. The parietal pleura membrane : a. lines the fibrous pericardial b. lines the chest wall c. covers the lung d. covers the heart

8. The visceral pleura membrane a. covers the lung b. covers the heart muscle c. lines the chest wall d. lines the fibrous

9. There are more than ………forming the skeleton

a. 150 b. 216 c. 200 d. 125

10. Patella is a type of : a. sesmoid bone b. irregular bone c. flat bone d. pneumatic bone

11. The growing end of the humerus a. the upper end b. the lower end c. all of the above d. none of the above

12. The non growing end of the femur is: a. the upper end b. The lower end c. All of the above d. None of the above

13. The membrane(s) that line the cranial cavity are/is called :

a. The visceral pleura b. The parietal pleura c. The visceral pericadium d. The parietal pericardium e. None of the above

14. The thoracic and the abdominal cavities are separated by :

a. the diaphragm b. the meninges c. the dura mater d. the pia mater

15. The left lumbar region includes a. The right kidney b. The spleen c. the liver d. the left kidney

16. The left iliac fossa includes: a. the ascending colon b. the descending colon c. the left kidney d. the spleen

17. The chamber of the heart that receives the deoxygenated blood is :

a. the right artium b. the left artium c. the left ventricle d. the right ventricle

18. The chamber of the heart that the deoxygenated blood is:

a. the right atrium b. the left atrium c. the left ventricle d. the right ventricle

19. The blood vessel which carry deoxygenated blood from the heart is

a. the aorta b. the superior vena cava c. the four pulmonary veins d. the pulmonary artery

20. The ratio between the thickness thewall of the left ventricle to the right ventricle is :

a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 3:1 d. 1:3

21. Enter(s) the liver: a. only one artery called hepatic

artery b. only one vein called hepativ vein c. hepatic artery & portal artery d. hepatic artery & portal vein

22. Systemic circulation is the ofthe blood from……..and its return to……

a. the right artium to the the left ventricle

b. the left ventricle to the right artium

c. the right ventricle to the left artium

d. the left artium to the right ventricle

23. The root of the teeth & alveolarmargin of maxilla or mandible typeof :

a. fibrous sutures joints b. fibrous syndesmosis joint c. fibrous gomphosis d. fibrous joint

24. All of the following are types synovial uniaxial joints except:

a. elbow joint b. superior radio-ulnar c. knee joint d. radio-carpal joint

25. Carpometacarpal joint of the a type of: a. biaxial saddle joint b. uniaxial hinge joint c. primary cartilagenous joint d. synovial biaxial

26. The valve between the right and the right ventricle is called

a. a.mitral valve b. b.tricuspid valve c. c.semilunar valve d. d.septum

27. Both right and left coronary arteriessupply the heart with………blood and arise from ……….

a. a.oxygenated & ascending aorta b. b.deoxygenated & descending

aorta c. c.deoxygenated & ascending aorta d. oxygenated & descending aorta

28. The anterior interventricular branch of the :

a. a.the aorta b. b.the palmonary artery c. c.the right coronary d. d.the left coronary artery

29. The movement occurs only the feet where the planter surface of foot faces medially is called:

a. supination b. pronation c. inversion d. eversion

30. The normal resting position forearm is called:

a. supination b. pronation c. inversion d. eversion

31. Match 1. Primary cartilaginous joint a. Intercarpal joint 2. Secondary cartilaginous joint b. Shoulder joint 3. Plane synovial joint c. Sutures of the skull 4. Poly axial joint d. Symphysis pubis 5. Fibrous joint e. Superior radioulnar joint 6. Pivot joint

32. Match 1. Flexion a. Means bending 2. Abduction b. The planter surface of the foot

faces medially 3. Extension c. Is the normal resting position of the

forearm 4. Adduction d. Means straightening . 5. Supination e. Means movement away from the

median plane 6. Inversion f. Means movement towards the

median plane 7.Eversion

33. Match

1. Rotation a. The anterior surface of the bone faces laterally 2. Pronation b. Is the movement around the long axis of the bone 3. Circumduction c. The planter surface of the foot faces laterally. 4. Medial rotation d. The anterior surface of thebone faces medially 5. Eversion e. Occurs in the hip & the shoulder bones. 6. Lateral rotation f. Where the radius and the ulna are crossed and the thumb is

medial 7. Inversion

34. Match 1. The left hypochondriac region a. The right kidney 2. The left lumbar region b. The duodenum 3. The left iliac fossa c. The spleen 4. The umbilical region d. The left kidney 5. The epigastric region e. The descending colon 6. The right lumbar region

35. Match 1. The hypogastric region a. The stomach 2. The right hypochondriac region b. The urinary bladder (full) 3. The right iliac region c. The urinary bladder (empty) 4. The epigastric region d. The liver 5. The umbilical region e. The duodenum

f. Illeocaecal junction

36. Match 1. Long bones a. Skull 2. Short bones b. Vertebrae 3. Flat bones c. Ilium 4. Irregular bones d. Metacarpal bones 5. Pneumatic bones e. Patella 6. Sesamoid bones

37. Match 1. Superior vena cava a. An artery that carries deoxygenated

blood 2. Inferior vena cava b. Pumps oxygenated blood to body

parts 3. The pulmonary artery c. Carries deoxygenated blood from

upper body parts 4. The aorta d. Carry the oxygenated blood from the

lung 5. The four pulmonary veins e. Carries deoxygenated blood from

lower body parts 38. Match

1. The right atrium a. Present between the right atrium and right ventricle

2. The right ventricle b. Has the thickest wall 3. The left atrium c. Receives the oxygenated bloof from

the lungs through the 4 pulmonary veins

4. The left ventricle d. Pumps the deoxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery

5. The tricuspid valve e. Receives deoxygenated blood from body parts

39. Match 1. The mitral valve a. Present at the beginning of the

pulmonary artery 2. Pulmonary valve b. Present at the beginning of big

arteries 3. The aortic valve c. Prevents backflow to left atrium

during heart contraction 4. Semi-lunar valves d. Present at the beginning of the aorta

40. Match 1. Sutures of the skull a. Primary cartilaginous 2. Roots of the teeth b. Fibrous gomphosis 3. Distal tibio-fibular joint c. Synovial uniaxial hinge 4. The growing ends of long bones d. 2ry cartilaginous 5. Symphysis pubis e. Fibrous syndesmosis 6. Elbow joint f. Fibrous sutures 7. Superior radi-ulnar joint g. Synovial plane 8. Knee joint h. Synovial biaxial ellipsoid 9. Wrist joint i. Synovial uniaxial condylar 10. Carpometacarpal joint of thumb j. Synovial uniaxial pivot 11. Hip joint k. Synovial biaxial saddle 12. Intercarpal joints l. Synovial polyaxial

41. Which of the following is true of the anatomical position?

a. The humerus is proximal to the scapula.

b. The radius is medial to the ulna. c. The vertebral arch is ventral to

the vertebral body. d. The femur is superior to the

fibula. e. The phalanges of the foot are

cranial to the metatarsals.

42. If the body were sectioned along a ___ plane, it would be divided into ___ portions.

a. sagittal…anterior and posterior b. sagittal…superior and inferior c. coronal…superior and inferior d. coronal…right and left e. horizontal…superior and inferior

43. Which of the following is true of a median plane of the hand?

a. It becomes a horizontal plane when the hand is medially rotated 90 degrees.

b. It becomes a coronal plane when the brachium (upper arm) is laterally rotated 90 degrees and abducted 90 degrees.

c. It is the same as a frontal plane. d. It remains a median plane

regardless of limb or body position.

e. It is oriented mediolaterally. 44. A radiologist wishes to image the body in

a plane parallel to both scapulae. Which of the following choices best describes the desired sectioning?

a. Horizontal section b. Transverse section c. Frontal section d. Sagittal section e. Oblique section

45. A young boy uses his right hand to screw-in a new light bulb. Which of the following terms best describes the screw-home movement of his forearm?

a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Pronation d. Adduction e. Supination

46. Bones are often classified according to their shape and/or developmental pattern. Which of the following choices is an example of a flat bone?

a. Humerus b. Sternum c. Hamate d. Maxilla e. Patella

47. In endochondral ossification, bone replaces most of an initial cartilage model. Which of the following refers to the part of a bone ossified from the primary ossification center?

a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Metaphysis d. Epiphyseal plate e. Condyle

48. A 16-year-old boy crashes his mountain bike and suffers a fractured tibia. Which of the following damaged structures would most likely produce the acute pain emanating from the fractured tibia?

a. Nerves in compact bone b. Nerves in trabecular bone c. Surrounding muscle and tendon

receptors d. Periosteal nerves e. Vascular nerves

49. Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

a. Humeroulnar joint b. Middle radioulnar joint c. Intervertebral disc joint d. Cranial sutural joint e. Tibiotalar joint

50. Synovial joints allow free movement between their bony elements. They are classifi ed into multiple subtypes according to the shape of the articulating surfaces and/or the degree of movement allowed. Which of the following synovial joint types permits multiaxial movement?

a. Pivot b. Ball and socket c. Condyloid d. Saddle e. Hinge

51. A physician delivers an intramuscular injection into the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Which of the following sequences describes the correct order of tissue layers pierced by the needle, passing from superficial to deep?

a. Epidermis, dermis, superficial fascia, epimysium, deep fascia

b. Dermis, epidermis, superficial fascia, deep fascia, epimysium

c. Dermis, epidermis, superficial fascia, epimysium, deep fascia

d. Epidermis, dermis, superficial fascia, deep fascia, epimysium

e. Epidermis, superficial fascia, dermis, deep fascia, epimysium

52. A physician discovers that his 72-year-old patient is leaking blood from a vessel that normally carries oxygen-depleted blood. Which of the following vessels is most likely damaged?

a. Pulmonary trunk b. Pulmonary veins c. Abdominal aorta d. Coronary arteries e. Common carotid arteries

Answers 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. E 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. E 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. B

27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. -/D/A/B/C/E 32. A/E/D/F/C/B/- 33. B/F/E/D/C/A/- 34. C/D/E/B/-/A 35. B/D/E/A/E 36. -/D/C/B/A/E 37. C/E/A/B/D 38. E/D/C/B/A 39. C/A/D/B 40. F/B/E/A/D/C/J/I/H/K/L/G 41. D 42. E 43. D 44. C 45. E 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. A

1. The mechanism of DNA and RNA synthesis are similar in all the following except

a. They involve release of pyrophosphate from each nucleotide added

b. They require activated nucleotide precursor

c. The direction of synthesis is 5'-->3'

d. =They both require a primer 2. Another name for reverse

transcriptase is a. DNA dependent DNA

polymerase b. DNA dependent RNA

polymerase c. =RNA dependent DNA

polymerase d. RNA dependent RNA

polymerase 3. In eukaryotes, the 40 S pre-initiation

complex contains all the following initiation factors except

a. eIF-1 b. eIF-2 c. eIF-3 d. =eIF-4

4. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiatestranslation in eukaryotes is

a. =Mehtionyl tRNA b. Formylmethionyl tRNA c. Tyrosinyl tRNA d. Alanyl tRNA

5. All the following statements about recognition of a codon on mRNA by an anticodon on tRNA are correct except

a. The recognition of the third base of the codon is not very precise

b. Imprecise recognition of the third base results in wobble

c. Wobble is partly responsible for the degeneracy of the genetic code

d. =Wobble results in incorporation of incorrect amino acids in the protein

6. All the following statements about charging of tRNA are correct except

a. It is catalysed by amino acyl tRNA synthetase

b. =ATP is converted into ADP and Pi in this reaction

c. The enzyme recognizes the tRNA and the amino acid

d. There is a separate enzyme for each tRNA

7. All the following statements about tRNA are correct except

a. A given tRNA can be charged with only one particular amino acid

b. =The amino acid is recognized by the anticodon of tRNA

c. The amino acid is attached to end of tRNA

d. The anticodon of tRNA finds the complementary codon on mRNA

8. Non-coding sequence are present in the genes of

a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. =Eukaryotes d. All of these

9. All the following statements about genetic code are correct except

a. It is degenerate b. It is unambigous c. It is universal d. =It is overlapping

10. Genetic code is said to be degenerate because

a. It can undergo mutations b. A large proportion of DNA is

non-coding c. One codon can code for more

than one amino acids d. =More than one codons can

code for the same amino acids

11. Codons are present on

a. Non-coding strand of DNA b. =hnRNA c. tRNA d. None of these

12. Anticodons are present on a. Coding strand of DNA b. mRNA c. =tRNA d. rRNA

13. The anticodon region is an important partof the structure of

a. rRNA b. =tRNA c. mRNA d. hnRNA

14. All of the following statements about post-transcriptional processing of tRNA are true except

a. Introns of some tRNA precursors are removed

b. CCA is added at 3′ end c. =7-Methylguanosine tri-

phosphate cap is added at 5′ end

d. Some bases are methylated

15. Introns in genes a. Encode the amino acids which

are removed during post-translational modification

b. Encode signal sequences which are removed before secretion of the proteins

c. =Are the non-coding sequences which are not translated

d. Are the sequences that intervene between two genes

16. The mammalian DNA polymerase involved in error correction is

a. DNA polymerase α b. =DNA polymerase β c. DNA polymerase γ d. DNA polymerase δ

17. Primase activity is present in a. DNA polymerase II b. =DNA polymerase α c. =DNA polymerase β d. =DNA polymerase δ

18. A consensus sequence on DNA, called TATAbox, is the site for attachment of

a. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b. =DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

c. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

d. DNA topoisomerase II

19. Newly synthesized tRNA undergoes posttranscriptional modifications which includeall the following except

a. Splicing b. folding and base-pairing c. cleavage d. =Addition of C-C-A terminus

at 5’ end 20. Post-transcriptional modification of

hnRNA involves all of the following except

a. Addition of 7-methylguanosine tri-phosphate cap

b. Addition of polyadenylate tail c. =Insertion of nucleotides d. Deletion of introns

21. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor of

a. =mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. None of these

22. In mammals, synthesis of mRNA is catalysed by

a. RNA polymerase I b. =RNA polymerase II c. RNA polymerase III d. RNA polymerase IV

23. Mammalian RNA polymerase III synthesises

a. rRNA b. mRNA c. =tRNA d. None of these

24. In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from

a. DNA to DNA b. DNA to protein c. RNA to protein d. =DNA to RNA

25. A plasma cell : a. Has a small central nucleus b. Has an acidophilic cytoplasm c. Shows pseudopodia and

microvilli d. All of the above e. =None of the above

26. Mammalian RNA polymerase I synthesises

a. mRNA b. =rRNA c. tRNA d. hnRNA

27. Non-sense codons bring about a. Amino acid activation b. Initiation of protein synthesis c. =Termination of protein

synthesis d. Elongation of polypeptide

chains

28. The elongation step of protein synthesis results in the splitting of how many high energy bonds?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. =4

29. Polysomes don't contain a. Protein b. =DNA c. mRNA d. rRNA

30. Which pathway is correct for catabolism of purines to form uric acid?

a. Guanylate→Adenylate→Xanthine→hypoxanthine→ Uric acid

b. Guanylate→inosinate→Xanthine→hypoxanthine→ Uric acid

c. Adenylate→Inosinate→Xanthine hypoxanthine→ Uric acid

d. =Adenylate→Inosinate→hypoxanthine Xanthine→Uric acid

31. Synthesis of GMP from IMP requires a. ammonia and ATP b. =NAD+ and ATP c. ammonia and GTP d. GTP and NADP+

32. Two nitrogen of the pyrimidines ring are obtained from

a. Glutamine and Carbamoyl-p b. =Asparate and Carbamoyl-p c. Glutamate and ammonia d. Glutamine and ammonia

33. In humans, the principal metabolic product of pyrimidines is

a. Uric acid b. Allantoin c. Hypoxanthine d. =β-alanine

34. Using written convention which one of thefollowing sequences is complimentary to TGGCAGCCT?

a. =ACCGTCGGA b. ACCGGCGGA c. AGGCTGCCA d. TGGCTCGGA

35. A key substance in the committed step of pyrimidines biosynthesis is

a. Ribose-5-phosphate b. =Carbamoyl phosphate c. Glutamine d. ATP

36. In humans, the principal break down product of purines is

a. ammonia b. Allantin c. Alanine d. =Uric acid

37. Inosine is the biological precursor of a. Cytosine and Uric acid b. =Adenine and Guanine c. Orotic acid and Uridylic acid d. Adenosine & Thymidine

38. Glycine contributes to the following C and N of purine nucleus :

a. C1, C2 and N7 b. C8, C8 and N9 c. =C4, C5 and N7 d. C4, C5 and N9

39. The four nitrogen atoms of purines are derived from

a. Urea and ammonia b. ammonia, Asparate and

Glutamate c. =Aspartate, Glutamine and

Glycine d. ammonia, glycine and

glutamate 40. Which one of the following

contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?

a. =Aspartate b. Carbanoyl phosphate c. Carbon dioxide d. Tetrahydrofolate

41. tRNA has a. =Clover leaf structure b. anticodon arm c. poly ‘A’ tail at the 3’ end d. Cap at 5’ end

42. Uric acid is the catabolic end product

of a. Porphyrine b. =Purines c. Pyrimidines d. Pyridoxine

43. Carbon 6-of purine skeleton comes from

a. =Atmospheric carbon dioxide b. 1 carbon moiety carried by

folate c. Betoine d. Methionine

44. Which one of the following causes frame shift mutation?

a. Transition b. Transversion c. =Deletion d. Substitution of purine to

pyrimidine 45. In the biosynthesis of DNA, the joining

enzyme ligase requires a. GTP b. =ATP c. CTP d. UTP

46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes eukaryotic DNA?

a. They involve release of pyrophosphate from each nucleotide precursor and Mg2+

b. The direction of synthesis is 3'-->5'

c. =They require a primer 5’ → 3’ d. None of these

47. Which one of the following binds to specific nucleotide sequences?

a. =RNA polymerase b. Repressor c. Inducer d. Restriction

48. Sulphur isn't present in a. Thiamine b. Lipic acid c. =Thymine d. Biotin

49. Restriction enzymes have been found in

a. Humans b. Birds c. =Bacteria d. Bacteriophage

50. Anticodon sequence are seen in a. =tRNA and transcribed DNA

strand b. tRNA and complementary DNA

strand c. mRNA d. mRNA and complementary

DNA strand 51. The total RNA in cell tRNA constitutes

a. 1–10% b. =10–20% c. 30–50% d. 50–80%

52. Which one of the following is not a constituent of RNA?

a. =Deoxyribose b. Uracil c. Adenine d. Guanine

53. In DNA, genetic information is located in

a. Purine bases b. Pyrimidine bases c. =Purine and pyrimidine bases d. sugar

54. A Gene is a. A single protein molecule b. A group of chromosomes c. An instruction for making a

protein molecule d. =A bit of DNA molecule

55. In RNA, apart from ribose and phosphate, all following are present except

a. Adenine b. Guanine c. =Thymine d. Cytosine

56. Elongation of a peptide chain involves all the following except

a. mRNA b. GTP c. =met-tRNA d. Elongation factors

57. Genetic information in human beings is stored in

a. RNA b. =DNA c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

58. If in a nucleic acid there are more than 8000 nucleotides it is most likely

a. RNA b. =DNA c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

59. All following are naturally occurring nucleotides except

a. Cyclic AMP b. ATP c. =DNA d. IMP

60. The genetic code operates via a. The protein moiety of DNA b. The base sequences of DNA c. =The nucleotide sequence of

mRNA d. The base sequence of tRNA

61. Codons are in a. DNA b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

62. Genes are a. RNA b. =DNA c. lipoproteins d. Chromoproteins

63. mRNA ready for protein synthesis has the poly _______ tail.

a. G b. =A c. U d. C

64. The mRNA ready for protein synthesis has the ________ cap.

a. ATP b. CTP c. =CH3-GTP d. UTP

65. RNA synthesis requires a. RNA primer b. RNA template c. =DNA template d. DNA primer

66. RNA directed DNA polymerase is a. Replicase b. Transcriptase c. Polymerase–III d. =Reverse transcriptase

67. Translation results in the formation of a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. =A protein molecule

68. A mRNA of eukaryotes can code for a. =Only one polypeptide b. Two polypeptides c. Three polypeptides d. Five polypeptides

69. A synthetic RNA having the sequence of UUUUUU (Poly U) will give a protein having poly ______.

a. Alamine b. =Phenyl alanine c. Glycine d. Methionine

70. The mitochondrial DNA is a. Like the nuclear DNA in

structure b. Single stranded, linear c. =Double stranded, circular d. Single stranded, circular

71. In addition to the DNA of nucleus there DNA is

a. =Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Plasma membrane

72. Okasaki fragments are small bits of a. RNA b. DNA c. =DNA with RNA heads d. RNA with DNA heads

73. Translation is the formation of a. DNA from a parent DNA b. mRNA from a parent mRNA c. pre mRNA from DNA d. =protein through mRNA

74. DNA is a. Usually present in tissues as a

nucleo protein and cannot be separated from its protein component

b. =A long chain polymer in which the internucleotide linkages are of the diester type between C-3’ and C-5’

c. Different from RNA since in the latter the internucleotide linkages are between C-2’ and C-5’

d. Hydrolyzed by weak alkali (pH9 to 100°C)

75. Which of the following contains a deoxy sugar?

a. RNA b. =DNA c. ATP d. UTP

76. RNA does not contain a. Adenine b. =OH methyl cytosine c. Uracil d. d-ribose

77. Acid hydrolysis of ribonucleic acid would yield the following major products :

a. d-deoxyribose, cytosine, adenine

b. d-ribose, thymine, Guanine c. d-ribose, cytosine, uracil,

thymine d. =d-ribose, uracil, adenine,

guanine, cytosine 78. How many high-energy phosphate

bondequivalents are required for amino acidactivation in protein synthesis?

a. 1 b. =2 c. 3 d. 4

79. Which of the following statements about nucleic acid is most correct?

a. Both pentose nucleic acid and deoxypentose nucleic acid contain the same pyrimidines

b. =Both pentose nucleic acid and deoxypentose nucleic acid Contain the same purines

c. RNA contains cytosine and thymine

d. DNA and RNA are hydrolysed by weak alkali

80. The structural stability of the double helix of DNA is as cribbed largely to

a. Hydrogen bonding between adjacent purine bases

b. Hydrophobic bonding between staked purine and pyrinuidine nuclei

c. Hydrogen bonding between adjacent pyrimidine bases

d. =Hydrogen bonding between purine and pyrimidine bases

81. This compound has a double helical structure.

a. =Deoxyribonucleic acid b. Ribonucleic acid c. Flavine-adevine dinucleotide d. Nicotinamide adamine

dinucleotide

82. From DNA the genetic message is transcribed into this compound :

a. Protein b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

83. Among the different types of RNA, which one has the highest Percentage in the cell?

a. mRNA b. =rRNA c. tRNA

84. A polyribosome will have about _______ individual ribosomes.

a. 20 b. =10 c. 5 d. 2

85. What is the sub-cellular site for the biosynthesis of proteins?

a. Chromosomes b. Lymosomes c. =Ribosomes d. Centrosomes

86. ATP is required for a. Fusion of 40S and 60S of

ribosome b. Accommodation tRNA amino

acid in a site of ribosome c. Movement of ribosome along

mRNA d. =formation of tRNA amino acid

complex

87. GTP is not required for a. Capping of mRNA b. Fusion of 40S and 60S of

ribosome c. Accommodation of tRNA

amino acid d. =Formation of tRNA amino

acid complex 88. A Eukaryotic ribosome is made up of

________ sub units. a. =40S and 60S b. 40S and 50S c. 40S and 80S d. 60S and 80S

89. mRNA is complementary copy of a. 5′-3′ strand of DNA b. =3′-5′ strand of DNA c. Antisense strand of DNA d. tRNA

90. If DNA of a cancer cell is introduced into a normal cell, the recipient cell

a. Destroys the DNA b. Loses its ability to divide c. Dies d. =Changes into a cancer cell

91. A cancer cell is characterized by a. Uncontrolled cell division b. Invasion of neighbouring cells c. Spread to distant sites d. =All the above

92. Twenty cycles of PCR can provide an amplification of

a. =1000000 b. 10000 c. 200000 d. 2000

93. Which of the following may be used as a cloning vector?

a. Prokaryotic plasmid b. bacteriophage c. Cosmid d. =All the above

94. For production of eukaryotic protein by recombinant DNA technology in bacteria, the template used is

a. Eukaryotic gene b. hnRNA c. =mRNA d. All of these

95. A particular protein in a mixture can be detected by

a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting c. =Western blotting d. None of these

96. An antibody probe is used in a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting c. =Western blotting d. None of these

97. A radioactive isotope labelled DNA probe is used in

a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

98. A particular RNA in a mixture can be identified by

a. Western blotting b. Eastern blotting c. =Northern blotting d. Southern blotting

99. Fragments of DNA can be identified by the technique of

a. Western blotting b. Eastern blotting c. Northern blotting d. =Southern blotting

100. The normal function of restriction endonucleases is to

a. Excise introns from hrRNA b. Polymerize nucleotides to form

RNA c. Remove primer from okazaki

fragments d. =Protect bacteria from foreign

DNA

101. All of the following statements about restriction endonucleases are true except :

a. They are present in bacteria b. They act on double stranded

DNA c. They are used in recombinant

DNA d. =They always produce sticky

ends 102. Restriction endonucleases split

a. RNA b. Single stranded DNA c. =Double stranded DNA d. DNA-RNA hybrids

103. A frame-shift mutation changes the reading frame because the genetic code

a. Is degenerate b. Is overlapping c. =Has no punctuations d. Is universal

104. Insertion of a base in a gene can cause

a. Change in reading frame b. Garbled amino acid sequence

in the encoded protein c. Premature termination of

translation d. =All of these

105. If the codon UAC on mRNA changes into UAG as a result of a base substitution in DNA, it will result in

a. Silent mutation b. Acceptable mis-sense mutation c. =Nonsense mutation d. Frameshift mutation

106. Haemoglobin S is an example of a/an

a. Silent mutation b. Acceptable mis-sense mutation c. Unacceptable mis-sense

mutation d. =Partially acceptable mis-sense

mutation 107. Amino acid sequence of the

encoded protein is not changed in a. =Silent mutation b. Acceptable mis-sense mutation c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

108. The effect of a mis-sense mutation can be

a. Acceptable b. Partially acceptable c. Unacceptable d. =All of these

109. A silent mutation is most likely to result from

a. Substitution of the first base of a codon

b. =Substitution of the third base of a codon

c. Conversion of a nonsense codon into a sense codon

d. Conversion of a sense codon into a nonsense codon

110. Substitution of a base can result in a

a. Silent mutation b. Mis-sense mutation c. Nonsense mutation d. =All of these

111. Degeneracy of the genetic code denotesthe existence of

a. Base triplets that do not code for any amino acids

b. Codons consisting of only two bases

c. Codons that include one or more of the unusual bases

d. =Multiple codons for a single amino acid

112. A point mutation results from a. =Substitution of a base b. Insertion of a base c. Deletion of a base d. All of these

113. The proteins destined to be transported out of the cell have all the following features except

a. They possess a signal sequence b. After synthesis, they are

delivered into Golgi apparatus c. Ribosomes synthesizing them

are bound to endoplasmic reticulum

d. =They are tagged with ubiquitin

114. Puromycin causes premature chain termination in

a. Prokaryotes b. Eukaryotes c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

115. Erythromycin binds to the prokaryotic ribosome

a. Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA

b. Inhibits Peptidyl transferase activity

c. =Inhibits translocation d. Causes premature chain

termination 116. Peptidyl transferase activity of the

large prokaryotic ribosomal subunits is inhibited by

a. Rifampicin b. Cycloheximide c. =Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin

117. After formation of a peptide bond, mRNA is translocated along the ribosome by

a. eEF-1 and GTP b. =eEF-2 and GTP c. Peptidyl transferase and GTP d. Peptidyl transferase and ATP

118. Peptidyl transferase activity is present in

a. 40 S ribosomal subunit b. =60 S ribosomal subunit c. eEF-2 d. Amino acyl tRNA

119. eIF-1A and eIF-3 are required a. For binding of amino acyl

tRNA to 40 S ribosomal subunit b. For binding of mRNA to 40 S

ribosomal subunit c. For binding of 60 S subunit to

40 S subunit d. =To prevent binding of 60 S

subunit to 40 S subunit 120. The first amino acyl tRNA

approaches 40 S ribosomal subunit in association with

a. eIF-1A and GTP b. =eIF-2 and GTP c. eIF-2C and GTP d. eIF-3 and GTP

121. The codon which serves as translation start signal is

a. =AUG b. UAG c. UGA d. UAA

122. Genetic information flows from a. DNA to DNA b. =DNA to RNA c. RNA to cellular proteins d. DNA to cellular proteins

123. In the process of transcription in bacterial cells

a. Initiation requires rho protein b. RNA polymerase incorporates

methylated c. =Both the sigma unit and core

enzymes of RNA d. Primase is necessary for

initiation 124. The correct statement concerning

RNA and DNA polymerases is a. RNA polymerase use

nucleoside diphosphates b. RNA polymerase require

primers and add c. DNA polymerases can add

nucleotides at both d. =All RNA and DNA

polymerases can add

125. The eukaryotic nuclear chromosomal DNA

a. =Is a linear and unbranched molecule

b. Is not associated with a specific membranous

c. Is not replicated semiconservatively

d. Is about of the same size as each prokaryotic

126. The function of a repressor protein in anoperon system is to prevent synthesis by binding to

a. The ribosome b. =A specific region of the

operon preventing c. The RNA polymerase d. A specific region of the mRNA

preventing 127. All pribnow boxes are variants of

the sequence : a. =5′–TATAAT –3′ b. 5′–GAGCCA –3′ c. 5′–UAACAA –3′ d. 5′–TCCTAG –3′

128. 5’-Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped with

a. Guanosine tri-phosphate b. =7-Methylguanosine tri-

phosphate c. Adenosine tri-phosphate d. Adenosine diphosphate

129. The first codon to be translated on mRNA is

a. =AUG b. GGU c. GGA d. AAA

130. AUG, the only identified codon for methionine is important as

a. A releasing factor for peptide chains

b. A chain terminating codon c. Recognition site on tRNA d. =A chain initiating codon

131. In biosynthesis of proteins the chain terminating codons are

a. =UAA, UAG and UGA b. UGG, UGU and AGU c. AAU, AAG and GAU d. GCG, GCA and GCU

132. The formation of initiation complex during protein synthesis requires a factor :

a. =IF-III b. EF-I c. EF-II d. IF-I

133. Genetic code is a. =Collection of codon b. Collection of amino acids c. Collection of purine nucleotide d. Collection of pyrimidine

nucleotide

134. The amino terminal of all polypeptide chain at the time of synthesis in human is tagged to the amino acid residue :

a. =Methionine b. Serine c. N-formyl methinine d. N-formal serine

135. Initiation of protein synthesis begins with binding of

a. =40S ribosomal unit on mRNA b. 60S ribosomal unit c. Charging of tRNA with specific

amino acid d. Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA

on mRNA 136. Initiation of protein synthesis

begins with binding of a. =40S ribosomal unit on mRNA b. 60S ribosomal unit c. Charging of tRNA with specific

amino acid d. Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA

on mRNA 137. Initiation of protein synthesis

requires a. ATP b. AMP c. GDP d. =GTP

138. The enzyme amino acyl tRNA synthetaseis involved in

a. Dissociation of discharged tRNA from 80S

b. =Charging of tRNA with specific amino acids

c. Termination of protein synthesis

d. Nucleophilic attack on esterified carboxyl

139. In the process of activation of amino acids for protein synthesis, the number of high energy phosphate bond equivalent utilised is

a. 0 b. 1 c. =2 d. 4

140. Translation results in a product known as

a. =Protein b. tRNA c. mRNA d. rRNA

141. In the process of elongation of chain binding of amino acyl tRNA to the A site requires

a. =A proper codon recognition b. GTP c. EF-II d. GDP

142. The newly entering amino acyl tRNA into a site requires

a. EF-II b. Ribosomal RNA c. mRNA d. =EF-I

143. The tRNA in the A site carries out a nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl tRNA occupying the P site. This reaction is catalysed by α-amino group of the new amino acyl

a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. =Peptidyl transferase d. DNA ligase

144. The nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA occupying the P site and the group of the new amino acyl tRNA, the number of ATP required by the amino acid on the charged tRNA is α-amino

a. =Zero b. One c. Two d. Four

145. Degeneracy of genetic code

implies that a. Codons do not code for specific

amino acid b. =Multiple codons must decode

the same amino c. No anticodon on tRNA

molecule d. Specific codon decodes many

amino acids 146. Translocation of the newly formed

peptidyl tRNA at the A site into the empty P site involves

a. =EF-II, GTP b. EF-I, GTP c. EF-I, GDP d. Peptidyl transferase, GTP

147. In eukaryotic cells a. Formylated tRNA is important

for initiation of b. =Cyclohexamide blocks

elongation during c. Cytosolic ribosomes are

smaller than those d. Erythromycin inhibits

elongation during

148. Tetracylin prevents synthesis of

polypeptide by a. Blocking mRNA formation

from DNA b. Releasing peptides from

mRNA-tRNA complex c. Competing with mRNA for

ribosomal binding d. =Preventing binding of amino

acyl tRNA 149. The gene which is transcribed

during repression is a. Structural b. =Regulator c. Promoter d. Operator

150. The enzyme DNA ligase a. Introduces super-helical twists b. =Connects the end of two DNA

chains c. Unwinds the double helix d. Synthesises RNA primers

151. Restriction endonucleases a. Cut RNA chains at specific

locations b. Excise introns from hnRNA c. Remove Okazaki fragments d. =Act as defensive enzymes to

protect the host bacterial DNA from DNA of foreign organisms

152. The most likely lethal mutation is a. Substitution of adenine for

cytosine b. =Insertion of one nucleotide c. Deletion of three nucleotides d. Substitution of cytosine for

guanine 153. In the following partial sequence

of mRNA, a mutation of the template DNA results in a change in codon 91 to UAA. The type of mutation is

88 89 90 91 92 93 94 GUC GAC CAG UAG GGC UAA CCG

a. Mis-sense b. =Silent c. Nonsense d. Frame shift

154. Restriction endonucleases

recognize and cut a certain sequence of

a. Single stranded DNA b. =Double stranded DNA c. RNA d. Protein

155. Positive control of induction is best described as a control system in which anoperon functions

a. Unless it is switched off by a derepressed

b. Only after a repressor protein is inactivated by an inducer

c. Only after an inducer protein, which can be inactivated by a corepressor, switches it on

d. =Only after an inducer protein, which is activated by an inducer, switch it on

156. Genetic code is a. Overlapping b. =Non-overlapping c. Not universal d. Ambiguous

157. Interferon a. Is virus specific b. Is a bacterial product c. Is a synthetic antiviral agent d. =Requires expression of

cellular genes 158. Repressor binds to DNA sequence

andregulate the transcription. This sequenceis called

a. Attenuator b. Terminator c. Anti terminator d. =Operator

159. Okazaki fragment is related to

a. =DNA synthesis b. Protein synthesis c. mRNA formation d. tRNA formation

160. The region of DNA known as TATA BOX is the site for binding of

a. DNA polymerase b. DNA topoisomerase c. =DNA dependent RNA

polymerase d. Polynucleotide phosphorylase

161. Reverse transcriptase is capable of synthesising

a. =RNA → DNA b. DNA → RNA c. RNA → RNA d. DNA → DNA

162. Peptidyl transferase activity is located in

a. Elongation factor b. A charged tRNA molecule c. =Ribosomal protein d. A soluble cytosolic protein

163. Ultraviolet light can damage a

DNA strand causing a. Ultraviolet light can damage a

DNA strand covalently bounded dimer

b. =Two adjacent pyrimidine residues to form covalently bonded dimer

c. Disruption of phosphodiesterase linkage

d. Disruption of non-covalent linkage

164. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to sugar by

a. Salt bond b. Hydrogen bond c. =Ester bond d. Glycosidic bond

165. Cyclic AMP can be formed from a. AMP b. ADP c. =ATP d. All of these

166. A substituted pyrimidine base of pharmacological value is

a. 5-Iododeoxyuridine b. Cytisine arabinoside c. =5-Fluorouracil d. All of these

167. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide sequence of

a. Coding strand b. Ribosomal RNA c. tRNA d. =Template strand

168. In DNA, the complementary base of adenine is

a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Uracil d. =Thymine

169. In DNA, three hydrogen bonds are formed between

a. Adenine and guanine b. Adenine and thymine c. =Guanine and cytosine d. Thymine and cytosine

170. Nuclear DNA is present in combination with

a. Histones b. Non-histones c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

171. Number of guanine and cytosine residues is equal in

a. mRNA b. tRNA c. =DNA d. None of these

172. Alkalis cannot hydrolyse a. mRNA b. tRNA c. =rRNA d. DNA

173. Codons are present in a. Template strand of DNA b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

174. Amino acid is attached to tRNA at a. 5’-End b. =3’-End c. Anticodon d. DHU loop

175. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal subunits are

a. 30 S and 40 S b. 40 S and 50 S c. =30 S and 50 S d. 40 S and 60 S

176. The smallest RNA among the following is

a. rRNA b. hnRNA c. mRNA d. =tRNA

177. The number of adenine and thymine bases is equal in

a. =DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

178. In DNA replication the enzyme required in the first step is

a. DNA directed polymerase b. =Unwinding proteins c. DNA polymerase d. DNA ligase

179. The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine in DNA is

a. One b. =Two c. Three d. Four

180. The complementary base of adenine in RNA is

a. Thymine b. Cystosine c. Guanine d. =Uracil

181. Extranuclear DNA is present in a. Ribosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Lysosomes d. =Mitochondria

182. Mitochondrial DNA is present in a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. =Eukaryotes d. All of these

183. Transfer RNA transfers a. Information from DNA to

ribosomes b. Information from mRNA to

cytosol c. =Amino acids from cytosol to

ribosomes d. Proteins from ribosomes to

cytosol 184. Nucleotides required for the

synthesis of nucleic acids can be obtained from

a. Dietary nucleic acids and nucleotides

b. De novo synthesis c. Salvage of pre-existing bases

and nucleosides d. =De novo synthesis and salvage

185. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotide occurs in

a. Mitochondria b. =Cytosol c. Microsmes d. Ribosomes

186. The nitrogen atoms for de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides are provided by

a. Aspartate and glutamate b. Aspartate and glycine c. =Aspartate, glutamine and

glycine d. Aspartate, glutamate and

glycine

187. The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is

a. Operon b. Repressor gene c. =Cistron d. Replicon

188. For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, glycine provides

a. One nitrogen atom b. One nitrogen and one carbon

atom c. Two carbon atoms d. =One nitrogen and two carbon

atoms 189. For de novo synthesis of purine

nucleotides, aspartate provides a. =Nitrogen 1 b. Nitrogen 3 c. Nitrogen 7 d. Nitrogen 9

190. In the purine nucleus, carbon 6 is contributed by

a. Glycine b. =CO2 c. Aspartate d. Glutamine

191. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of

a. Purine nucleotides b. Pyrimidine nucleotides c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

192. Inosine monophophate is an intermediate during the de novo synthesis of

a. =AMP and GMP b. CMP and UMP c. CMP and TMP d. All of these

193. Xanthosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of

a. TMP b. CMP c. AMP d. =GMP

194. In the pathway of de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, all the following are allosteric enzymes except

a. PRPP glutamyl amido transferase

b. Adenylosuccinate synthetase c. IMP dehydrogenase d. =Adenylosuccinase

195. All of the following enzymes are unique to purine nucleotide synthesis except

a. =PRPP synthetase b. PRPP glutamyl amido

transferase c. Adenylosuccinate synthetase d. IMP dehydrogenase

196. PRPP synthetase is allosterically inhibited by

a. AMP b. ADP c. GMP d. =All of these

197. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP glutamylamido transferase is

a. AMP b. ADP c. GMP d. =All of these

198. Termination of the synthesis of the RNA molecule is signalled by a sequence in the template strand of the DNA molecule, a signal that is recognized by a termination protein, the

a. =Rho (ρ) factor b. σ factor c. δ factor d. ε factor

199. An allosteric inhibitor of adenylosuccinatesynthetase is

a. =AMP b. ADP c. GMP d. GDP

200. An allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenaseis

a. AMP b. ADP c. =GMP d. GDP

201. After termination of the synthesis of RNA molecule, the core enzymes separate from the DNA template. The core enzymes then recognize a promoter at which the synthesis of a new RNA molecule commences, with the assistance of

a. Rho (ρ) factor b. δ factor c. β factor d. =σ factor

202. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by

a. rRNA b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. Polysomes

203. HDL is synthesized and secreted from :

a. Pancreas b. =Liver c. Kidney d. Muscle

204. In mammalian cells, rRNA is produced mainly in the

a. Ribosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. =Nucleolus d. nucleus

205. Mature RBCs don't contain a. glycolytic enzymes b. HMP shunt enzymes c. =Pyrimidine nucleotide d. ATP

206. All the following bases are pyrimidine except :

a. cytosine b. =adenine c. thymine d. uracil

207. A pyrimidine nucleotide is a. GMP b. AMP c. =CMP d. IMP

208. Adenine is a. =6-Amino purine b. 2-Amino-6-oxypurine c. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine d. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine

209. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine is a. Thymine b. cytosine c. =uracil d. Guanine

210. The chemical name of guanine is a. 2,4-Dioxy-5-

methylpyrimidine b. =2-Amino-6-oxypurine c. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine d. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine

211. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkage with the phosphate in a nucleotide structure is

a. C1 b. C3 c. C4 d. =C5

212. The most abundant free nucleotide in mammalian cells is

a. =ATP b. NAD c. GTP d. FAD

213. The nucleic acid base found in mRNA but not in DNA is

a. adenine b. cytosine c. guanine d. =uracil

214. In RNA molecule ‘Caps’ a. Allow tRNA to be processed b. =Are unique to eukaryotic

mRNA c. Occur at the 3’ end of tRNA d. Allow correct translation of

prokaryotic mRNA 215. In RNA molecule guanine content

does not necessarily equal its cytosine content nor does its adenine content necessarily equal its uracil content since it is a

a. =Single strand molecule b. Double stranded molecule c. Double stranded helical

molecule d. Polymer of purine and

pyrimidine ribonucleotides 216. The sugar moiety present in RNA is

a. Ribulose b. =Ribose c. Arabinose d. Deoxyribose

217. Lipofuscin is more frequently seen in :

a. Cardiac muscles b. Superficial epithelial cells c. Nerve cells d. Both A & B e. =Both A & C

218. 2,4-dioxy pyrimidine is : a. guanine b. cytosine c. =uracil d. thymine

219. In RNA molecule a. Guanine content equals

cytosine b. Adenine content equals uracil c. Adenine content equals

guanine d. =Guanine content does not

necessarily equal its cytosine content.

220. The structure of tRNA appears like a

a. Helix b. Hair pin c. =Clover leaf d. Coil

221. Although each specific tRNA differs from the others in its sequence of nucleotides, all tRNA molecules contain a base paired stem that terminates in the sequence CCA at

a. =3′ Termini b. 5′ Termini c. Anti-codon arm d. 3′5′ -Termini

222. DNA rich in A-T pairs have a. 1 Hydrogen bond b. =2 Hydrogen bonds c. 3 Hydrogen bonds d. 4 Hydrogen bonds

223. In DNA molecule a. Guanine content does not

equal cytosine content b. Adenine content does not equal

thymine content c. Adenine content equals uracil

content d. =Guanine content equals

cytosine content 224. DNA rich in G-C pairs have

a. 1 Hydrogen bond b. 2 Hydrogen bonds c. =3 Hydrogen bonds d. 4 Hydrogen bonds

225. In a DNA molecule the thymine concentration is 30%, the guanosine concentration will be

a. 10% b. =20% c. 30% d. 40%

226. In a DNA molecule, the guanosine content is 40%, the adenine content will be

a. =10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%

227. Infantile convulsions due to lesser formation of gamma amino butyric acid from glutamic acid is seen in the deficiency of

a. Glutamate-dehydrogenase b. =Pyridoxine c. Folic acid d. Thiamin

228. Compound used as chemotherapy of cancer

a. alloxan b. 5 fluorouracil c. thiouracil d. 6 mercaptopurine e. =b & d

229. Intestinal nucleosidases act on nucleosidesand produce

a. Purine base only b. Phosphate only c. Sugar only d. =Purine or pyrimidine bases

and sugars 230. In purine biosynthesis carbon

atoms at 4and 5 position and N at 7 position arecontributed by

a. =Glycine b. Glutamine c. Alanine d. Threonine

231. 2,6,8 trioxypurine is a. adenine b. =uric acid c. guanine d. None of the above

232. All of the following are about tRNA except

a. considered as soluble RNA b. =constitutes 5% of all RNA c. composed of 74 to 95

nucleotides d. carry amino acids to mRNA

233. Which of the following in the structure of both purine & pyrimidine

a. aspartate b. CO2 c. glutamic acid d. glutamine e. =b &d

234. A nucleoside consists of a. Nitrogenous base b. =Purine or pyrimidine base +

sugar c. Purine or pyrimidine base +

phosphorous d. Purine + pyrimidine base +

sugar +phosphate

235. A nucleotide consists of a. A nitrogenous base like choline b. Purine + pyrimidine base +

sugar +phosphate c. =Purine or pyrimidine base +

sugar d. Purine or pyrimidine base +

phosphorous 236. A purine nucleotide is

a. =AMP b. UMP c. CMP d. TMP

237. An allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase is

a. AMP b. ADP c. =GMP d. GDP

238. The available PRPP is used preferentially for

a. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides

b. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides

c. =Salvage of purine bases d. Salvage of pyrimidine bases

239. The end product of purine catabolism in man is

a. Inosine b. Hypoxanthine c. Xanthine d. =Uric acid

240. The enzyme common to catabolism of all the purines is

a. Adenosine deaminase b. =Xanthine Oxidase c. Guanase d. None of these

241. Daily uric acid excretion in adult men is

a. 2-6 mg b. 20-40 mg c. 150-250 mg d. =40-600 mg

242. Dietary purines are catabolised in a. Liver b. Kidneys c. =Intestinal mucosa d. All of these

243. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides occurs in

a. Mitochondria b. =Cytosol c. Microsomes d. Ribosomes

244. An enzyme common to de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides and urea is

a. Urease b. =CPS c. Asparate transcarbamoylase d. Argininosuccinate

245. The nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine nucleusare provided by

a. Glutamate b. Glutamate and asparate c. Glutamine d. =Glutamine and asparate

246. The carbon atoms of pyrimidine nucleusare provided by

a. Glycine and asparate b. =CO2 and aspartate c. CO2 and glutamate d. CO2 and glutamine

247. Nitrogen at position 1 of pyrimidine nucleuscomes from

a. Glutamine b. Gluatamate c. Glycine d. =Asparate

248. GMP is an allosteric inhibitor of all the following except

a. PRPP synthetase b. PRPP glutamyl amido

synthetase c. IMP dehydrogenase d. =Adenylosuccinate synthetase

249. Nitrogen at position 3 of pyrimidine nucleuscomes from

a. =Glutamine b. Glutamate c. Glycine d. Aspartate

250. Nitrogen at position 1 of pyrimidine nucleuscomes from

a. =Glutamine b. Glutamate c. Glycine d. Asparate

251. Direction of RNA synthesis is a. =5′ → 3’ b. 3′ → 5’ c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

252. Synthesis of RNA and a DNA template is known as

a. Replication b. Translation c. =Transcription d. Mutation

253. Satellite DNA contains a. =Highly repetitive sequences b. Moderately repetitive

sequences c. Non-repetitive sequences d. DNA-RNA hybrids

254. Melting temperature of DNA is increased by its

a. A and T content b. =G and C content c. Sugar content d. Phosphate content

255. Melting temperature of DNA is the temperature at which

a. Solid DNA becomes liquid b. Liquid DNA evaporates c. DNA changes from double

helix into supercoiled DNA d. =Native double helical DNA is

denatured 256. In mammalian cell cycle, synthesis

of DNA occurs during a. =S phase b. G1 phase c. Mitotic Phase d. G2 phase

257. Reverse transcriptase catalyses a. Synthesis of RNA b. Breakdown of RNA c. =Synthesis of DNA d. Breakdown of DNA

258. All of the following statements about RNA-dependent DNA polymerase are true except :

a. It synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template

b. It is also known as reverse transcriptase

c. It synthesizes DNA in 5’→3’ direction

d. =It is present in all the viruses

259. DNA polymerase delta possesses a. Polymerase activity b. 3’→5’ Exonuclease activity c. 5’→3’ Exonuclease and

polymerase activities d. =3’→5’ Exonuclease and

polymerase activities 260. AMP is an allosteric inhibitor of

a. PRPP synthetase b. Adenylosuccinate synthetase c. =Both (a) and (b) d. None of these

261. Reverse transcriptase activity is present in the eukaryotic :

a. DNA polymerase α b. DNA polymerase γ c. =Telomerase d. DNA polymerase II

262. DNA fragments are sealed by a. DNA polymerase II b. =DNA ligase c. DNA gyrase d. DNA topoisomerase II

263. The unwound strands of DNA are held apart by

a. =Single strand binding protein b. Double strand binding protein c. Rep protein d. DNAA protein

264. Helicase causes a. Rewinding of DNA and require

ATP as a source of energy b. Rewinding of DNA but do not

require any source of energy c. =Unwinding of DNA and

require ATP as a source of energy

d. Unwinding of DNA but do not require any source of energy

265. For unwinding of double helical DNA

a. =Energy is provided by ATP b. Energy is provided by GTP c. Energy can be provided by

either ATP or GTP d. No energy is required

266. During replication, the template DNA is unwound

a. At one of the ends b. At both the ends c. =At multiple sites d. Nowhere

267. In RNA, the complementary base of adenine is

a. Cytosine b. Guanine c. Thymine d. =Uracil

268. RNA primer is formed by the enzyme

a. Ribonuclease b. DNA polymerase delta c. =DNA polymerase alpha d. DNA polymerase gamma

269. After formation of replication fork a. Both the new strands are

synthesized discontinuously b. =One strand is synthesized

continuously and the other discontinuously

c. Both the new strands are synthesized continuously

d. RNA primer is required only for the synthesis of one new strand

270. Okazaki pieces are formed during the synthesis of

a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. =DNA

271. The first reaction unique to purine nucleotide synthesis is catalysed by

a. PRPP synthetase b. =PRPP glutamyl amido

transferase c. Phosphoribosyl glycinamide

synthetase d. formyl transferase

272. Okazaki pieces are made up of a. RNA b. DNA c. =RNA and DNA d. RNA and proteins

273. Formation of RNA primer : a. =Precedes replication b. Follows replication c. Precedes transcription d. Follows transcription

274. Direction of DNA synthesis is a. =5’ → 3’ b. 3’ → 5’ c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

275. Replication of DNA is a. Conservative b. =Semi-conservative c. Non-conservative

276. Synthesis of DNA is also known as a. Duplication b. =Replication c. Transcription d. Translation

277. Deoxyribonucleotides are formed by reduction of

a. Ribonucleosides b. Ribonucleoside

monophosphates c. =Ribonucleoside diphosphates d. Ribonucleoside tri-phosphates

278. Increased urinary excretion of orotic acid can occur in deficiency of

a. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase

b. OMP decarboxylase c. Mitochondrial ornithine

transcarbamoylase d. =All the above

279. All of the following occur in orotic aciduria except

a. =Increased synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides

b. Increased excretion of orotic acid in urine

c. Decreased synthesis of cytidine tri-phosphate

d. Retardation of growth 280. All of the following statements

about primary gout are true except a. Uric acid stones may be

formed in kidneys b. Arthritis of small joints occurs

commonly c. =Urinary excretion of uric acid

is decreased d. Inflammation of big toe occurs

281. All of the following statements about uric acid are true except

a. It is a catabolite of purines b. It is excreted by the kidneys c. =It is undissociated at pH

above 5.8 d. It is less soluble than sodium

urate 282. Free purine bases which can be

salvaged are a. Adenine and guanine b. Adenine and hypoxanthine c. Guanine and hypoxanthine d. =Adenine, guanine and

hypoxanthine 283. The following abnormality can

cause primary gout : a. Deficiency in G-6-P (type I,

von Gerk's) b. elevation of glutathione

reductase c. resistance of PRPP synthetase to

allosteric inhibition d. =All the above

284. Free ammonia is liberated during the catabolism of

a. Cytosine b. Uracil c. Thymine d. =All of these

285. β -Aminoisobytyrate is formed from catabolism of

a. Adenine b. Guanine c. =Thymine d. xanthine

286. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is activated by

a. Glutamine b. =PRPP c. ATP d. Aspartate

287. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is inhibited by

a. =UTP b. CTP c. PRPP d. TMP

288. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides is regulated by

a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

b. Aspartate transcarbamoylase c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

289. All of the following statements about thioredoxin reductase are true except :

a. =It requires NADH as a coenzyme

b. Its substrates are ADP, GDP, CDP and UDP

c. It is activated by ATP d. It is inhibited by dADP

290. Tetrahydrofolate is required as a coenzyme for the synthesis of

a. UMP b. CMP c. =TMP d. All of these

291. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides, the first ring compound to be formed is

a. Carbamoyl aspartic acid b. =Dihydro-orotic acid c. Orotic acid d. Orotidine monophosphate

292. All the enzymes required for de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides are cytosolic except

a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

b. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

c. Dihydro-orotase d. =Dihydro-orotate

dehydrogenase

293. The enzyme required for salvage of free purine bases is

a. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase

b. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl

c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

294. For the synthesis of TMP from dump, a coenzyme is required which is

a. N10- Formyl tetrahydrofolate b. N5- Methyl tetrahydrofolate c. =N5, N10- Methylene

tetrahydrofolate d. N5- Formimino

tetrahydrofolate 295. CTP synthetase forms CTP from

a. CDP and inorganic phosphate b. CDP and ATP c. =UTP and glutamine d. UTP and glutamate

296. For synthesis of CTP and UTP, the amino group comes from

a. Amide group of Asparagine b. =Amide group of glutamine c. α-Amino group of glutamine d. α-Amino group of glutamate

297. Conversion of uridine diphosphate into deoxyuridine diphosphate requires all the following except

a. Ribonucleotide reductase b. Thioredoxin c. =Tetrahydrobiopterin d. NADPH

298. The first pyrimidine nucleotide to be formed in de novo synthesis pathway is

a. =UMP b. CMP c. CTP d. TMP

299. Aspartate contributes the following carbon atoms of the pyrimidine nucleus :

a. C2 and C4 b. C5 and C6 c. C2, C4 and C6 d. =C4, C5 and C6

300. The carbon atom at position 2 of pyrimidine nucleus is contributed by

a. =CO2 b. Glycine c. Aspartate d. Glutamine

301. Deoxycytidine kinase can salvage a. Adenosine b. Adenosine and deoxyadenosine c. Adenosine and guanosine d. =Adenine and adenosine

302. Adenosine kinase can salvage a. Adenosine b. =Adenosine and

deoxyadenosine c. Adenosine and guanosine d. Adenon and adenosine

303. Salvage of purine bases is regulated by

a. Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase

b. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl

c. =Availability of PRPP d. None of these

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. E 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B

36. D 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. C 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. C 65. C 66. D 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. C

71. A 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. D 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. C 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. D 91. D 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. C 96. C 97. C 98. C 99. D 100. D 101. D 102. C 103. C 104. D 105. C

106. D 107. A 108. D 109. B 110. D 111. D 112. A 113. D 114. C 115. C 116. C 117. B 118. B 119. D 120. B 121. A 122. B 123. C 124. D 125. A 126. B 127. A 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. A 132. A 133. A 134. A 135. A 136. A 137. D 138. B 139. C 140. A

141. A 142. D 143. C 144. A 145. B 146. A 147. B 148. D 149. B 150. B 151. D 152. B 153. B 154. B 155. D 156. B 157. D 158. D 159. A 160. C 161. A 162. C 163. B 164. C 165. C 166. C 167. D 168. D 169. C 170. C 171. C 172. C 173. B 174. B 175. C

176. D 177. A 178. B 179. B 180. D 181. D 182. C 183. C 184. D 185. B 186. C 187. C 188. D 189. A 190. B 191. C 192. A 193. D 194. D 195. A 196. D 197. D 198. A 199. A 200. C 201. D

202. B 203. B 204. C 205. C 206. B 207. C 208. A 209. C 210. B 211. D 212. A 213. D 214. B 215. A 216. B 217. E 218. C 219. D 220. C 221. A 222. B 223. D 224. C 225. B 226. A 227. B

228. E 229. D 230. A 231. B 232. B 233. E 234. B 235. C 236. A 237. C 238. C 239. D 240. B 241. D 242. C 243. B 244. B 245. D 246. B 247. D 248. D 249. A 250. A 251. A 252. C 253. A

254. B 255. D 256. A 257. C 258. D 259. D 260. C 261. C 262. B 263. A 264. C 265. A 266. C 267. D 268. C 269. B 270. D 271. B 272. C 273. A 274. A 275. B 276. B 277. C 278. D 279. A

280. C 281. C 282. D 283. D 284. D 285. C 286. B 287. A 288. C 289. A 290. C 291. B 292. D 293. C 294. C 295. C 296. B 297. C 298. A 299. D 300. A 301. D 302. B 303. C

1. The first product of fertilization is: a) Oocyte b) Zygote c) Macula d) Blastocyst

2. All of the following concerning male testis are true except: a) Contains 1-3 seminefrous tubules

(structural unit) b) Divided into 250 lobes. c) Formed of Sertoli cells and

spermatogonia d) Spermatogonia are supporting cells and

assist in the release of mature sperms 3. Which of the following is the narrowest

part of the female uterine tube? a) Ampulla b) Fimbriated end c) Interstitial part d) Isthmus

4. Which of the following is not considered one of the female external genitalia? a) Mons pubis b) Labia minora c) Vestibule d) Uterus

5. All of the following are steps of spermatogenesis except: a) Spermatogonium divides by mitotic

division giving spermatogonia. b) Secondary spermatocyte gives 2

spermatids by mitotic division. c) Spermatids are converted to

spermatozoa by spermiogenesis d) None of the above

6. Concerning oogenesis which of the following is not true: a) It is differentiation of an oogonia

present in the medulla into mature ova. b) Oogenesis passes into two stages of

maturation. c) In the prenatal maturation process the

oogonia is surrounded by follicular cells derived from the epithelial covering of the ovary

d) Zona pellucid in the postnatal maturation phase is secreted by granulose cells.

7. T or F: In oogenesis the primary oocyte is arrested at the prophase of the first meiotic division due to the presence of the Meiosis stimulatory factor.

8. Which of the following concerning mature ovum is not true? a) The ooplasm contains nutritive material

that nourishes the embryo. b) Nucleus of the ovum is called germinal

spot while nucleolus is named germinal vesicle.

c) The ovum’s life span is 1-3 days. d) The ovum has 2 membranes

surrounding it. 9. The sperm in comparison to the ovum is:

a) Larger in size b) Has more abundant cytoplasm c) Less motile d) Has 2 types of chromosomes

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the follicular stage of the ovarian cycle? a) Formation of the membrane granulosa. b) Secretion of the zona pellucid c) Formation of the follicular antrum d) None of the above

11. One of the following is not a factor from the factors causing ovulation: a) Increase in the levels of luetenizing

hormone. b) Degeneration of the ovarian surface c) Increase in the intrafollcular pressure. d) Muscular contraction of the ovarian

wall. e) None of the above

12. Concerning luteal phase of the ovarian cycle which of the following is true: a) Occurs at about day 14 b) Formation of the corpus luteum occurs

in this phase. c) In this phase the corpus luteum secretes

estrogen hormone mainly. d) All of the above

13. One of the following hormones helps in maintaining the corpus luteum if fertilization occurs: a) Human chorionic

somatomammotropin. b) Human chorionic gonadotropin c) Estrogen d) Progestrone

14. The only layer which is not shed during menstruation is: a) Stratum basale b) Stratum compactum c) Stratum spongiosum d) None of the above.

15. All of the following are contents of the menstrual flow except: a) RBC and WBC b) Desquamated endometrium c) Cervical mucus and vaginal cells. d) None of the above

16. The stage of the menstrual cycle that is under the influence of progesterone hormone is: a) Progestational phase b) Proliferative phase c) Menstural phase d) All of the stages

17. HCG hormone is secreted by which of the following: a) Syncitiotrophoblast b) Cytotrophoblast c) Corpus luteum d) Corpus haemorragicum

18. Fertilization is the process of formation of a: a) Zygote b) Macula c) Blastocyst d) None of the above

19. Fertilization of an ovum occurs in: a) Ampulla of fallopian tube b) Isthmus of fallopian tube c) Infundibulum of fallopian tube d) None of the above

20. Sperm must undergo the following reaction/s to be able to fertilize an ovum: a) Capacitaion b) Acrosome reaction c) A & B d) None of the above

21. One the following is not a result of fertilization: a) Restoration of diploid number of

chromosomes b) Determination of the chromosomal sex

of the embryo c) Meiotic cell division of the zygote d) A & C

22. Embryonic stem cells are derived from: a) Inner cell mass b) Outer cell mass c) Zona pellucida d) Morula

23. Implantation occurs at the …… day after fertilization: a) 4th b) 5th c) 6th d) 7th

24. Ectopic pregnancy is: a) Abnormal fertilization b) Normal fertilization c) Abnormal implantation d) Normal implantation

25. The type of placenta that lies in the lower segment but does not encroach on the internal os of the cervical canal is: a) Placenta paritalis b) Placenta marginalis c) Placenta centralis d) None of the above

26. One of the following is not a part of the deciduas: a) Decidua basalis b) Decidua centralis c) Decidua paritalis d) Decidua marginalis

27. One of the following changes does not occur in the 2nd week of development of the embryo: a) Trophoblast differentiate into 2 layers b) Inner cell mass differentiate into 3

layers c) Primary mesoderm splits into

somatopleuric and splancopleuric primary mesoderm

d) None of the above 28. One of the following structures is not an

Ectodermal derivative: a) Enamel of teeth b) Internal ear c) Lens of eye d) Urogenital system

29. The urinary system is a derivative of one of the following layers: a) Paraximal mesoderm b) Intermediate mesoderm c) Lateral mesoderm d) None of the above

30. Folding of the embryo occurs by the end of the …… week: a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 4th d) 5th

31. Which of the following is a result of folding of the embryo? a) Embryo is constricted at the yolk sac b) Brain forms most of the cephalic part of

the embryo c) Formation of the umbilical cord and the

allantois d) Heart becomes ventral in position e) All of the above

32. Which of the following is a major characteristic of meiosis I?

a) Splitting of the centromere b) Pairing of homologous

chromosomes c) Reducing the amount of DNA to

1N d) Achieving the diploid number

of chromosomes e) Producing primordial germ

cells

33. A normal somatic cell contains a total of 46 chromosomes. What is the normal complement of chromosomes found in a sperm?

a) 22 autosomes plus a sex chromosome

b) 23 autosomes plus a sex chromosome

c) 22 autosomes d) 23 autosomes e) 23 paired autosomes

34. Which of the following describes the number of chromosomes and amount of DNA in a gamete?

a) 46 chromosomes, 1N b) 46 chromosomes, 2N c) 23 chromosomes, 1N d) 23 chromosomes, 2N e) 23 chromosomes, 4N

35. Which of the following chromosome compositions in a sperm normally results in the production of a genetic female if fertilization occurs?

a) 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes

b) 22 homologous pairs of chromosomes

c) 23 autosomes plus an X chromosome

d) 22 autosomes plus a Y chromosome

e) 22 autosomes plus an X chromosome

36. In the process of meiosis, DNA replication of each chromosome occurs, forming a structure consisting of two sister chromatids attached to a single centromere. What is this structure?

a) A duplicated chromosome b) Two chromosomes c) A synapsed chromosome d) A crossover chromosome e) A homologous pair

37. A young woman enters puberty with approximately 40,000 primary oocytes in her ovary. About how many of these primary oocytes will be ovulated over the entire reproductive life of the woman?

a) 40,000 b) 35,000 c) 400 d) 48 e) 12

38. How much DNA does a primary spermatocyte contain?

a) 1N b) 2N c) 4N d) 6N e) 8N

39. During meiosis, pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs, which permits large segments of DNA to be exchanged. What is this process called?

a) Synapsis b) Nondisjunction c) Alignment d) Crossing over e) Disjunction

40. During ovulation, the secondary oocyte resides at what specific stage of meiosis?

a) Prophase of meiosis I b) Prophase of meiosis II c) Metaphase of meiosis I d) Metaphase of meiosis II e) Meiosis is completed at the time

of ovulation 41. Concerning maturation of the female

gamete (oogenesis), when do the oogonia enter meiosis I and undergo DNA replication to form primary oocytes?

a) During fetal life b) At birth c) At puberty d) With each ovarian cycle e) Following fertilization

42. When does a secondary oocyte complete its second meiotic division to become a mature ovum?

a) At ovulation b) Before ovulation c) At fertilization d) At puberty e) Before birth

43. How soon after fertilization occurs within the uterine tube does the blastocyst begin implantation?

a) Within minutes b) By 12 hours c) By day 1 d) By day 2 e) By day 7

44. Which of the following events is involved in cleavage of the zygote during week 1 of development?

a) A series of meiotic divisions forming blastomeres

b) Production of highly differentiated blastomeres

c) An increased cytoplasmic content of blastomeres

d) An increase in size of blastomeres

e) A decrease in size of blastomeres

45. Which of the following structures must degenerate for blastocyst implantation to occur?

a) Endometrium in progestational phase

b) Zona pellucida c) Syncytiotrophoblast d) Cytotrophoblast e) Functional layer of the

endometrium 46. Which of the following is the origin of the

mitochondrial DNA of all human adult cells?

a) Paternal only b) Maternal only c) A combination of paternal and

maternal d) Either paternal or maternal e) Unknown origin

47. Individual blastomeres were isolated from a blastula at the 4-cell stage. Each blastomere was cultured in vitro to the blastocyst stage and individually implanted into four pseudopregnant foster mothers. Which of the following would you expect to observe 9 months later?

a) Birth of one baby b) Birth of four genetically different babies c) Birth of four genetically identical babies d) Birth of four grotesquely deformed

babies e) No births

48. In oogenesis, which of the following events occurs immediately following the completions of meiosis II?

a) Degeneration of the zona pellucida

b) Sperm penetration of the corona radiata

c) Formation of a female pronucleus

d) Appearance of the blastocyst e) Completion of cleavage

49. Which of the following components plays the most active role in invading the endometrium during blastocyst implantation?

a) Epiblast b) Syncytiotrophoblast c) Hypoblast d) Extraembryonic somatic

mesoderm e) Extraembryonic visceral

mesoderm 50. Between which two layers is the

extraembryonic mesoderm located? a) Epiblast and hypoblast b) Syncytiotrophoblast and

cytotrophoblast c) Syncytiotrophoblast and

endometrium d) Exocoelomic membrane and

syncytiotrophoblast e) Exocoelomic membrane and

cytotrophoblast

51. During week 2 of development, the embryoblast receives its nutrients via

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Reverse osmosis d) Fetal capillaries e) Yolk sac nourishment

52. Which of the following are components of the definitive chorion?

a) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and epiblast

b) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and cytotrophoblast

c) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and syncytiotrophoblast

d) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast

e) Extraembryonic visceral mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast

53. At what location does the amniotic cavity develop?

a) Between the cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

b) Within the extraembryonic mesoderm

c) Between the endoderm and mesoderm

d) Within the hypoblast e) Within the epiblast

54. At the end of week 2 of development (day 14), what is the composition of the embryonic disk?

a) Epiblast only b) Epiblast and hypoblast c) Ectoderm and endoderm d) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and

endoderm e) Epiblast, mesoderm, and

hypoblast 55. Which germ layers are present at the end of

week 3 of development (day 21)? a) Epiblast only b) Epiblast and hypoblast c) Ectoderm and endoderm d) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and

endoderm e) Epiblast, mesoderm, and

hypoblast 56. Which process establishes the three

definitive germ layers? a) Neurulation b) Gastrulation c) Craniocaudal folding d) Lateral folding e) Angiogenesis

57. The first indication of gastrulation in the embryo is

a) Formation of the primitive streak

b) Formation of the notochord c) Formation of the neural tube d) Formation of extraembryonic

mesoderm e) Formation of tertiary chorionic

villi 58. Intermediate mesoderm will give rise to the

a) Neural tube b) Heart c) Kidneys and gonads d) Somites e) Notochord

59. The lateral mesoderm is divided into two distinct layers by the formation of the

a) Extraembryonic coelom b) Intraembryonic coelom c) Cardiogenic region d) Notochord e) Yolk sac

60. The epiblast is capable of forming which of the following germ layers?

a) Ectoderm only b) Ectoderm and mesoderm only c) Ectoderm and endoderm only d) Ectoderm, mesoderm,

endoderm e) Mesoderm and endoderm only

61. A male newborn has a hemangioma on the left frontotemporal region of his face and

scalp. The cells forming the hemangioma are derived from which of the following cell layers?

a) Ectoderm only b) Mesoderm only c) Endoderm only d) Ectoderm and mesoderm e) Endoderm and mesoderm

62. Which structure is derived from the same embryonic primordium as the dorsal root ganglia?

a) Gonads b) Kidney c) Pineal gland d) Liver e) Adrenal medulla

63. Which structure is derived from the same embryonic primordium as the kidney?

a) Gonads b) Epidermis c) Pineal gland d) Liver e) Adrenal medulla

64. Chromosomes move apart during meiosis in which stage?

a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene e) Diakinesis

65. Supporting cells of spermatogenesis are called:

a) Spermatid b) Secondary spermatocyte c) Sertoli cells d) All of the above e) None of the above

66. When blood vessels appear in the core of the villus it is called:

a. Primary villus b. Secondary villus c. Tertiary villus d. Definitive villus e. None of the above

67. Structure not forming placental barrier is: a. Fibrinoid tissue b. Connective tissue c. Cytotrophoblast d. Syncytiotrophoblast e. Endothelium of maernal blood

vessels 68. Gastrulation is:

a. Differentiation of blastocyst into bilaminar disc

b. Differentiation of morula into blastocyst

c. Differentiation of bilaminar disc into trilaminar disc

d. Folding of trilaminar disc e. None of the above

69. Which of the following has a haploid no. of chromosomes:

a. Primary spcrmatocyte b. Lst polar body c. Primary oocyte d. Secondary oocyte e. Spermatid

70. All are derived from primordial germ cells, except:

a. Corona radiata b. Ovum c. 2nd polar body d. Spermarid e. 1st polar body

71. Acrosome cap is derived from: a. Mitochondria b. Golgi apparatus c. Microtubules d. ER e. Nucleus

72. Which of the following is derived from granulosa cells:

a. 1st polar body b. Zona pellucida c. 2nd polar body d. Ovum e. Corona radiata

73. True regarding ectopic pregnancies are: a. The implantation site is outside the

uterine cavity b. 95% occur in fallopian tubes c. Ruptured ectopic is associated with

shock d. Previous PID causes increased risk

of ectopic pregnancy e. All of the above

74. True regarding fertilization is/are: a. Occurs in ampulla of fallopian tube b. Ovum is viable for 12-24 hrs after

ovulation c. Second polar body forms after

fertilization d. Fertilization induces chemical

changes in zona pellucida, preventing polyspermy

e. All of the above 75. True statement is/are, except:

a. Menstrual flow occurs on degeneration of corpus luteum

b. Maintenance of endometrium depends on availability of oestrogen

c. Secretory phase of endometrium depends on progesterone

d. Missed period occurs due to increased maternal hCG

e. Initial phase of endometrial cycle depends on oestrogen

76. True regarding ovulation are all, except: a. Ovulation entails rupture of

secondary follicle b. Ovulation follows LH surge c. Ovulation precedes increased

progesterone secretion d. Oestrogen secretion precedes

ovulation e. None of the above

77. All are true regarding 4th month of gestation, except:

a. Large scale ossification occurs b. Hair follicles form c. Fetus has high growth rate d. Sexual dimorphism has not

occurred e. Gonadal differentiation occurs

78. Following are true of embryonic period, except:

a. Major organ systems are established

b. Lanugo hair appears c. Sensitivity to teratogens high d. Gastrulation and neurulation occur e. Limb buds appear

79. All are true about cytotrophoblast, except: a. Cytotrophoblastic cells from a

highly proliferative epithelium b. Cytotrophoblastic cells have

prominent nucleoli c. Abundant mitochondria d. Abundant smooth ER e. Glycogen granules seen

80. All are true about syncytiotrophoblast except:

a. It develops from cytotrophoblast b. Microvilli seen on outer surface c. Nuclei of this layer divide

constantly but not the cytoplasm

d. Cytoplasm contain abundant membrane bond vcsiclcs

e. Syncytiotrophoblast is an invasive cell layer

Answers 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. F 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. E 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B

28. D 29. B 30. B 31. E 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. E 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. E 44. E 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. E 51. A 52. D 53. E 54. B

55. D 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. B 62. E 63. A 64. D 65. C 66. C 67. E 68. C 69. E 70. A 71. B 72. E 73. E 74. E 75. B 76. E 77. D 78. B 79. D 80. C

1. All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except: a. Maintaining the structural integrity

of the cell b. Absolute permeability c. Regulating cell-cell interactions d. Recognizing, via receptors, antigens

and foreign cells as well as altered cells

2. Transducing intracellular physical or chemical signals into extracellular events is one of the functions of the plasma membrane. a. True b. False

3. The cell membrane appears as a trilaminar structure, with outer and inner electron lucent lines and a middle electron dense zone in between a. True b. False

4. All of the following are characters of the phospholipids entering in the structure of the cell membrane except: a. Each phospholipid molecule consists

of one polar hydrophilic head and two non polar hydrophobic tails.

b. The polar heads are mainly derived from glycerol conjugated to a nitrogenous compound

c. The polar heads projecting towards the centre of the membrane while the non polar tails face the tissue

fluid at the outer surface and the intracellular fluid at the cytoplasmic surface of the membrane.

d. The non-polar tail of the phospholipid molecule consists of two long-chain fatty acids

5. ………… responsible for the partial permeability of the cell membrane a. Unsaturated fatty acid b. Phospholipids c. Glycerol conjugated to nitrogenous

compound d. None of the above

6. ……………… responsible for increasing the fluidity of the cell membrane a. Unsaturated fatty acid b. Phospholipids c. Glycerol conjugated to nitrogenous

compound d. None of the above

7. ………… enhance the mechanical stability and flexibility of the membrane a. Unsaturated fatty acid b. Phospholipids c. Glycerol conjugated to nitrogenous

compound d. Cholesterol

8. All of the following are true about integral proteins except: a. Channels serve to transport ions

(Na+, K+) actively across the membrane.

b. Enzymes Membrane proteins posses various enzymatic activity for example:

c. Linkers serve to anchor the intracellular cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix.

d. Structural proteins form junctions between neighboring cells.

9. Which of the following is true about peripheral membrane proteins: a. They are embedded into lipid bilayer

but they exhibit a loose association with membrane surface through ionic interaction mainly with integral proteins.

b. They are usually located on the extracellular surface

c. Functionally, they regulate cell signaling and many other important cellular events,

d. They aren’t also associated with the the cytoskeletal apparatus

10. All of the following describing the fluid mosaic model except: a. The membrane as being composed

of a sea of lipids in which globular protein molecules are floating like icebergs.

b. this molecular arrangement is static c. protein displacement is restricted

by either their attachment to cytoskeletal elements or by the presence of occluding junctions as in epithelial cells

d. All of the above 11. Functions of the cell coat include:

a. Protects the cell surface. b. Serves for cellular recognition. c. Shares in cell adhesion. d. Acts as receptor sites for hormones. e. All of the above

12. Which of the following are mechanisms of exocytosis: a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Regulated secretion d. Receptor mediated endocytosis

13. All of the following are true about pinocytosis except: a. It is a non selective process b. for uptake of fluid containing ions

and small protein molecules c. The pinocytotic vesicles formed are

large and have smooth surface. d. This process is most evident in the

endothelium of blood vessels.

14. ………. is the ingestion of large solid particles, such as bacteria and cell debris a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Regulated secretion d. Receptor mediated endocytosis

15. Cargo receptors are found in …………….. a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Regulated secretion d. Receptor mediated endocytosis

16. Individuals suffering from early atherosclerosis have defect in …….. receptors

a. LDL b. HDL

17. Secretary granules are present in ………… of exocytosis a. Regulated secretion b. Constitutive secretion

18. which of the following are examples of regulated secretion: a. plasma cells secreting

immunoglobulins b. Fibroblasts secreting collagen. c. Pancreatic acinar cells d. None of the above

19. All of the following are membranous organelles except: a. Nucleus b. endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Ribosomes

20. All of the following are true concerning ribosomes except: a. Small subunit that contains a single

molecule of ribonucleic acid (RNA) and 30 associated small proteins.

b. large subunit that consists of two molecules of RNA and about 40 associated proteins

c. large subunit that consists of one molecule of RNA and about 40 associated proteins

d. RNA molecules are synthesized in the nucleus while the proteins in the cytoplasm

21. Free ribosomes are aggregated in clusters of 10 or more connected by rRNA thread forming polysomes. a. True b. False

22. ……………. Responsible for synthesis of the special proteins for secretion a. Free ribomsomes b. Attached ribosomes c. Both

23. Protein secreting sell are rich in all of the following except: a. Rough endoplasmin reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Ribosomes d. Golgi apparatus

24. All protein synthesis is initiated in th ER a. True b. False

25. All of the following are functions of rough endoplasmic reticulum except: a. participate in the synthesis of

secretory, plasma membrane and lysosomal proteins

b. the site of protein post-translational modification

c. detoxification and conjugation of noxious substances

d. acts as quality checkpoint in the process of protein production

26. all of the following are functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except: a. the major site of membrane lipids

(phospholipids and cholesterol) synthesis.

b. Abundant in the liver cells c. participates in the contraction

process of muscle cells d. participates in the synthesis of

glycogen in the liver e. responsible for sequestration and

release of Na ions 27. protein secreting cells exhibit

cytoplasmic eosinphilia while steroid secreting cells exhibit cytoplasmic basophilia a. true b. false

28. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is formed of flattened cisternae while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is formed of interconnecting branching tubules a. true b. false

29. All of the following contain abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum except: a. Testis b. Ovaries c. Stomach d. Fibroblasts e. Liver

30. Cholesterol functions in the plasmalemma to a. increase fluidity of the lipid bilayer b. decrease fluidity of the lipid bilayer c. facilitate the diffusion of ions

through the lipid bilayer d. assist in the transport of hormones

across the lipid bilayer e. bind extracellular matrix molecules

31. The cell membrane consists of various components, including integral proteins. These integral proteins a. are not attached to the outer leaflet b. are not attached to the inner leaflet c. include transmembrane proteins d. are preferentially attached to the E-

face e. function in the transport of

cholesterolbased hormones 32. Which one of the following transport

processes requires energy? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Passive transport c. Active transport d. Simple diffusion

33. Which one of the following substances is unable to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion? a. 02 b. N2 c. Na+ d. Glycerol e. CO2

34. One of the ways that cells communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as a. a receptor molecule b. a signaling molecule c. a spectrin tetramer d. an integrin e. an anticodon

35. Which of the following statements concerning plasma membrane components is true? a. All G proteins are composed of three

subunits. b. The glycocalyx is usually composed

of phospholipids. c. Ion channel proteins are energy-

dependent (require adenosine triphosphate).

d. Gated channels are always open. e. Ankyrin binds to band 3 of the red

blood cell plasma membrane

36. The nuclear pore complex a. permits free communication

between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

b. is bridged by a unit membrane c. is located only at specific nuclear

pore sites permits passage of proteins via receptor rmediated transport

37. Which one of the following nucleotides is present only in ribonucleic acid (RNA)? a. Thymine b. Adenine c. Uracil d. Cytosine e. Guanine

38. Anticodons are located in a. messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) b. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) c. transfer RNA (tRNA) d. small nuclear ribonucleoprotein

(snRNP) e. heterogeneous nuclear

ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) 39. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is

duplicated in the cell cycle during the a. G2 phase b. S phase c. M phase d. G1 phase e. Go phase

40. Which of the following organelles divides by fission? a. Golgi complex b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum c. Peroxisome d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. Centriole

41. Which of the following not seen in the routine histological sections: a. Cell membrance b. ER c. Golgi apparatus d. Ribosomes

42. Golgi apparatus can be seen by …….. a. Silver stain b. Osmium stain c. Histochemical demonstration of

enzymes d. All of the above

43. All of the following are true about the cis face of golgi apparatus except: a. convex in shape, directed to the cell

interior b. It is called mature face c. related to small transport vesicles d. closest to the rER

44. which of the following is true about the trans face of golgi apparatus: a. convex in shape, directed to the cell

interior b. It is called mature face c. related to small transport vesicles d. closest to the rER

45. TGN is located between the rER and the cis face of the Golgi apparatus. a. True b. False

46. Which of the following is a function of golgi apparatus: a. Post-transitional modifications of

proteins through removal, adding or modification of sugars previously synthesized in rER.

b. Packaging and sorting of different macromolecules into vesicles

c. Routing vesicles to the right destination inside the cell

d. All of the above 47. All of the following is true about the

early endosomes except: a. a part in the pathway of the

receptor mediated endocytosis. b. They contain the receptor – ligand

complexes. c. The membrane of the endosomes

actively pumps H ions into its exterior. This elevating the pH of endosomes to more than 6

d. Ligand move to late endosome

48. Which of the following is true about late endosomes: a. They are regular vesicles that

located deep within the cytoplasm near the Golgi complex

b. They receive ligands from early endosomes and have acidic pH 5.5

c. They receive vesicles containing lysosomal enzymes from cis Golgi network

d. They begin to degrade the ligand before full receipt of the lysosomol enzymes

49. Lysosomes are clathrin coated vesicles + late endosomes a. Ture b. False

50. All of the following are true except: a. Small particles + lysosomes =

multivesicular bodies b. Large particles + lysosomes =

phagolysosomes c. Non functional organelles +

lysosomes = autophagosomes d. Early endosomes + clathrin coated

vesicles = lysosomes 51. Lipofucsin pigment is a character of

aging cell: a. True b. False

52. Gaucher's disease results in accumulation of glycoproteins and Tay-Sachs disease results in accumulation of lipids in lysosomes of neurons. a. True b. False

53. All of the following contain mitochondria except: a. Liver b. RBCs c. Terminal keratinocytes d. Bones e. B&C

54. The ribosomes contribute to the acidophilia of the cytoplasm while the mitochondria contribute to its basophilia a. True b. False

55. Mitochondria can be stained by all of the following except: a. H&E b. Silver stain c. Iron hematoxylin stain d. Janus green stain

56. All of the following are true about mitochondria except: a. The outer membrane is involved in

synthesis and metabolism of mitochondrial lipids

b. Outer membrane is folded into numerous cristae containing porin protein

c. Inner membrane is highly impermeable

d. Protein complexes act as proton pumps that transport H+ from the matrix into the intermembrane space

57. The inner mitochondrial membrane contains all of the following except: a. respiratory electron carrier protein

complexes b. ATP synthtase c. Porin proteins d. Proton pumps

58. All of the following are contents of the matrix space except: a. pyruvate and fatty acids b. mitochondrial DNA c. few ribosomes d. ATP synthase

59. Almost all the mitochondria of fertilized eggs are contributed by a. Oocyte b. Sperm c. Both

60. ATP is synthesized in ……….. a. Mitochondria b. Peroxisomes c. Both

61. Mitochondria & peroxisomes replicate by splitting into 2 and have their own genetic material a. True b. False

62. Cholesterol synthesis occurs in …………. a. ER b. Peroxisomes c. Both

63. Fatty acids oxidation occurs in …………. a. Mitochondria b. Peroxisomes c. Both

64. All of the following are true about glycogen granules except: a. It is not seen in routine histological

preparations (H&E) b. it can be stained with the periodic-

acid Schiff reaction and the Best's carmine stain

c. It may be present in the form of solitary particles called α-particles or may be aggregated in rosettes called β-particles

d. Present mainly in the liver & muscles

65. All of the following are true about actin filaments except: a. Formed of monomers of G-actin >>

F- actin >> double helix >> actin filament

b. Polymerization occurs more rapid at the minus end while depolymerization is faster at the plus end

c. Actin filaments are arranged either parallel to each other forming a bundle or anastomosing forming networks

a. Actin binds to myosin in the muscles for contraction.

66. Which of the following isn’t true about microtubules: a. fine tubules that have a diameter of

25 nm b. formed of 12 protofilaments c. polar dynamic structures (as actin)

having a plus end directed towards the periphery of the cell and a minus end directed to the MTOC

d. form permanent part of some cell components such as centeriole, cilia and flagella.

67. Dynein moves the vesicle /organelle toward the cell periphery while Kinesin moves them toward the cell center a. True b. False

68. MTOCs present in: a. Centrosome b. Basal bodies from which cilia and

flagella c. Both

69. Which of the following isn’t true about intermediate filaments: a. lack polarity b. structural role and participate in

cell motility c. do not bind ATP d. They attach to desmosomes, and

their main job is to provide mechanical stability to the cell and resist pulling forces exerted on the cell

70. All of the following are true about intermediate filament except: a. Keratin filaments present in

epithelial cells b. vimentin in fibroblasts, endothelial

cells and leukocytes c. glial fibrillary acidic protein in

astrocytes d. lamins lining the outer surface of

nuclear envelope 71. all of the following are true about

centrosome except: a. none membranous organelle found

usually close to the nucleus b. the centrioles surrounded by the

centrospheres c. The wall is composed of nine triplets

of microtubules with a sum of 27 microtubules.

d. Each triplet is composed of three microtubules (one complete microtubule formed of 13 protofilaments and 2 incomplete microtubules formed of 11 protofilaments)

72. All of the following are true about structure of the cilia except: a. Basal body formed of 9 triplets of

microtubules (i.e. 27 microtubules) b. Shaft formed of 20 microtubules c. Basal bodies present in the basal

part of the cytoplasm while the shaft extend from the cell surface

d. Rootlets extend from underneath the basal body, in the form of radiating microtubules anchoring the cilium into the cytoplasm.

73. Because of the frequent presence of ribosomes on its outer surface, the nuclear envelope may be considered a specialized portion of the

a. Golgi complex b. sER c. plasma membrane d. rER e. Nucleolus

74. Which of the following organelles would show the highest concentration of label after being subjected to enzyme histochemical methods designed to detect the location of acid phosphatase?

a. Plasma membrane b. Lysosomes c. Ribosomes d. sER e. Microtubules

75. The electron microscopic appearance of a unit membrane is best described as

a. A porous membrane b. A lipid bilayer c. A tri-laminar structure d. A penta-laminar structure e. None of the above

76. Which of the following is formed of actin or actin-like proteins

a. Basal bodies b. Microtubules c. Intermediate filaments d. Cilia e. Microfilaments

77. the synthesis of all proteins appears to be initiated on

a. free polyribosomes b. rER c. Golgi complex d. Nucleosomes

78. For continually dividing cells, which phase would not be present

a. Prophase b. G0 c. G1 d. G2 e. S

79. A secondary lysosome a. Contains a mixture of hydrolytic

enzymes and phagocytosed material

b. May become a residual body c. Is an organelle formed by fusion

of primary lysosomes and phagosomes

d. All of the above e. None of the above

80. Functions of golgi complex include a. Packaging of secretory materials b. Synthesis of polysaccharides c. Concentration of secretory

products d. Sulfation of polysaccharides e. All of the above

81. Functions of biologic membranes include

a. Compartmentalization of the cytoplasm

b. Homeostasis c. Transduction of signals d. Selective uptake of nutrients into

the cell e. All of the above

82. Functions involving centrioles include a. Mitosis b. Organization of golgi apparatus c. Cell motility d. Movements of cytoplasmic

vesicles e. All of the above

83. A phagosome a. Contains densely packed,

inactive hydrolytic enzymes b. Is formed by budding from a

lysosomes c. Is surrounded by a membrane

originally derived from the golgi complex

d. Contains the material engulfed during endocytosis

e. All of the above 84. The structures dispersed and then

reorganized during each pass through cell cycle include

a. The spindle apparatus b. The nucleolus c. The nuclear envelope d. The golgi complex e. All of the above

85. Substances that must pass through the nuclear pores to assume their normal roles in cell functions include

a. mRNA b. ribosomal subunits c. ribosomal proteins d. all of the above

86. Nucleosomes a. Are chromatin subunits b. Include 8 histones each c. All have equal amounts of DNA d. All of the above

87. rRNA is synthesized by a. rER b. Free polyribosomes c. sER d. Nucleolus e. Nuclear lamins

88. All of the following are components of intermediate filaments EXCEPT:

a. Actin b. Desmin c. Vimentin d. Cytokeratin

89. Ribosomes aren’t found in mature RBCs. From this, and from knowledge of the ribosome function and distribution, one can deduce all the following EXCEPT:

a. Mature RBCs are incapable of protein synthesis, even if they contain mRNA b. RBCs never have a nucleolus at any point in their development c. Mature RBCs contain no rER d. Mature RBCs can’t synthesize any new enzymes e. Mature RBCs can’t synthesize any new haemoglobin

90. Match 1. Location of krebs cycle enzymes a. Mitochondrial matrix 2. Site of calcium ion sequestration b. Mitochondrial matrix granule 3. Location of electron transport system c. Inner mitochondrial membrane 4. Forms shelf-like or tubular projections

(cristae) into the matrix d. Outer mitochondrial

membrane 5. Location of mitochondrial DNA e. None of the above 6. Location of globular structures with

ATPase activity

91. Match 1. Site of synthesis of protein for secretion a. Centrioles 2. Site of synthesis of actin and tubulin b. Free polysomes 3. Site of sulfated GAGs c. Mitochondria 4. Site of intense ATP production d. rER 5. Site of steroid hormone synthesis e. sER 6. 1ry site of packaging of secretory

products f. Golgi

7. Site of core glycosylation of secretory proteins

92. Match 1. Synthesized on poly-ribosomes a. CHOs 2. Can be hydrolyzed by enzymes found

in lysosomes b. Lipids

3. Synthesized by nucleolus c. Nucleic acids 4. Project from the cell surface in

branched chains and confer a chemical identity upon the cell

d. Proteins

5. Added to proteins in golgi apparatus e. All of the above 6. Most numerous molecules in cell

membranes

93. Match 1. More likely to be membrane-limited a. Organelles 2. Often act as storage depots for

metabolic precursors b. Cytoplasmic inclusions

3. More active participants in cell functions

c. Both

4. Usually located in the cytoplasm d. Neither 5. More likely to contain enzymes 6. Regarded as more temporary

occupants of the cell

94. Match 1. Polymers of protein subunits a. Microtubules 2. Composed of actin b. Microfilaments 3. Considered component of cytoskeleton c. Both 4. Composed of tubulin heterodimers d. Neither 5. Can increase of decrease in length

according to cytoplasmic conditions

6. Form the “purse-string” constriction in mitotic cells

7. May be composed of desmin or vimentin

8. Important components of centrioles 9. Include protofilaments 10. Important components of axonemes 11. Have an outer diameter of about 24 12. Usually require myosin for contraction 13. Important components of cilia and

flagella

95. Acidic Keratin I. Type I a. Epithelial cells

96. Basic keratin II. Type II b. Fibroblasts,

endothelium and leukocytes

97. Lamins III. Type III c. Muscles 98. Neurofilament IV. Type IV d. Astrocytes 99. Desmin V. Type V e. Peripheral nerve fibers 100. Peripherin f. Nerve cells

101. Vimentin g. Inner side of nuclear

envelope 102. Glial fibrillary

acidic protein

103. Cholesterol functions in the

plasmalemma to a. Increase fluidity of the lipid

bilayer b. Decrease fluidity of the lipid

bilayer

c. Facilitate the diffusion of ions through the lipid bilayer

d. Assist in the transport of hormones across the lipid bilayer

e. Bind extracellular matrix molecules

104. The cell membrane consists of various components, including integral proteins. These integral proteins

a. Are not attached to the outer leaflet

b. Are not attached to the inner leaflet

c. Include transmembrane proteins d. Are preferentially attached to the

E-face e. Function in the transport of

cholesterol-based hormones 105. Which one of the following

transport processes requires energy? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Passive transport c. Active transport d. Simple diffusion

106. Which one of the following substances is unable to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

a. 02 b. N2 c. Na+ d. Glycerol e. CO2

107. Symport refers to process of transporting

a. a molecule into the cell b. a molecule out of the cell c. two different molecules in the

opposite direction d. two different molecules in the

same direction

e. a molecule between the cytoplasm and the nucleus

108. One of the ways that cells communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as

a. a receptor molecule b. a signaling molecule c. a spectrin tetramer d. an integrin e. an anticodon

109. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) travels through the bloodstream, enters connective tissue spaces, and attaches to specific sites on target- cell membranes. These sites are

a. peripheral proteins b. signaling molecules c. G proteins d. G-protein-linked receptors e. ribophorins

110. Which of the following statements concerning plasma membrane components is true?

a. All G proteins are composed of three subunits.

b. The glycocalyx is usually composed of phospholipids.

c. Ion channel proteins are energy-dependent (require adenosine triphosphate).

d. Gated channels are closed till a certain stimulus occurs

111. The nuclear pore complex a. permits free communication

between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

b. is bridged by a unit membrane c. is located only at specific

nuclear pore sites d. permits passage of proteins via

receptor mediated transport 112. Which one of the following

nucleotides is present only in ribonucleic acid (RNA)?

a. Thymine b. Adenine c. Uracil d. Cytosine e. Guanine

113. Anticodons are located in a. messenger ribonucleic acid

(mRNA) b. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) c. transfer RNA (tRNA) d. small nuclear ribonucleoprotein

(snRNP) e. heterogeneous nuclear

ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) 114. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is

duplicated in the cell cycle during the a. G2 phase b. S phase c. M phase d. G1 phase e. Go phase

The response options for the next five items are the same. Each item will state the number of options to select. Choose exactly this number. For each description, select the most appropriate structure. (A) Nuclear pore complex (B) Nucleolus (C) Heterochromatin (D) Outer nuclear membrane (E) Euchromatin

115. An inclusion not bounded by a membrane that is observable only during interphase 116. Continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulum 117. Controls movement of proteins in and out of the nucleus 118. Site of transcriptional activity 119. Clumps of nucleoprotein concentrated near the periphery of the nucleus

120. Cytokinesis is the division of a. A cell. b. A nucleus. c. Cytoplasm. d. A chromosome. e. DNA.

121. The genetic material in the nucleus is located in the

a. Nucleolus. b. Nuclear membrane. c. Nuclear sap. d. Chromosomes. e. Vacuole.

122. Which of the following does mitosis normally accomplish?

a. Production of two identical daughter cells.

b. Production of two nuclei with identical genetic content.

c. Precise division of the cytoplasm and its distribution to two daughter cells.

d. Reproduction of mitochondria and chloroplasts.

e. Production of a cancer cell. 123. Where does the duplication of

chromosomes occur? a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase

d. Anaphase e. Telophase

124. In what phase does the movement of individual chromosomes towards opposite poles occur?

a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophases

125. In what phase does the arrangement of chromosomes along the equator of the cell occur?

a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophases

126. In what phase does the disappearance of nuclear membrane and nucleoli occur?

a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase

127. In what phase does the DNA become visible strands?

a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase

128. The two chromatids of a chromosome separate from each other during

a. Prophase. b. Metaphase. c. Anaphase. d. Telophases. e. Interphase.

129. Meiosis involves _______ division(s) of a nucleus.

a. one b. two c. four d. eight e. ten

130. Which of the following are typical of both mitosis and of the first division of meiosis?

a. The genetic material in the nucleus is duplicated prior to division.

b. Spindle fibers form.

c. Two nuclei form as a result of the division.

d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

131. Which of the following is characteristic of the first division of meiosis but not mitosis?

a. Chromosomes are duplicated prior to division.

b. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear in prophase.

c. Sister chromatids are attached to each other at the centromere.

d. Homologous chromosomes pair. e. none of the above

132. Which of the following are ways that meiosis differs from mitosis?

a. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced.

b. In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cell.

c. In meiosis, at least some of the daughter cells differ genetically from each other.

d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

133. The number of cells produced by meiosis is ________ the number of cells produced by mitosis.

a. One-fourth b. Half c. Equal to d. Twice e. Four times

134. The number of chromosomes in daughter cells produced by meiosis is ________ the number of chromosomes in daughter cells produced by mitosis.

a. One-fourth b. Half c. Equal to d. Twice e. Four times

135. Which of the following is unique to meiosis?

a. Nuclear membrane breaks down b. DNA organizes into

chromosomes c. Crossing-over d. Chromosomes align along the

central plate of the cell e. None of the above

136. Daughter cells produced in meiosis are identical.

a. True b. False

137. Chromosome duplication occurs prior to both mitosis and meiosis.

a. True b. False

138. In leptotene stage of meiosis the following occur :

a. two homologous chromosomes pair up forming 23 bivalents

b. chromosomes codense becoming shorter and thicker

c. chromosomes appear as thin threads

d. crossing over occurs 139. The difference between mitosis and

second meiotic division is : a. in second meiosis there is no

spilting of centromere b. Not preceeded by S-phase c. All of the above d. Neither is right

140. During interphase of the cell cycle a. The cell increases in size b. Replication of genetic

material takes place c. The duration taken is longer

than mitosis d. All of the above

141. Regulation of cell cycle takes place by

a. Hormonal control mechanism

b. Checkpoints c. Both A & B d. Neither is right

142. The interphase is a. Between two successive

germinal cell division b. Shorter than cell division

(mitosis) c. DNA content = N d. None of the above

143. G1 is characterized by a. Longest period b. DNA synthesis c. DNA content is 4N d. All of the above

144. In the S phase a. DNA content is 4N b. Replication of cell organelles c. Complete separation

between two cells d. All of the above

145. During G1 phase which of the following enzymes is acting

a. Cyclin A b. Cyclin B c. Cyclin D

d. Cyclin S 146. DNA damage checkpoints are

a. Present only in G1 & S phase b. Block cell cycle destruction c. Trigger cell death by

apoptosis d. All of the above

147. DNA replication checkpoints are a. Present in G2 & G1 phases b. Detect the presence of DNA c. Repair of damaged DNA d. All of the above

148. All of the following are properties mitosis except:

a. Occurs in a somatic cell b. Consists of 2 successive

divisions c. Repair to cells takes place d. None of the above

149. All of the following occur in telophase except

a. Mitotic spindle disappears b. DNA content = 2N c. Chromatids migrate towards

the opposite pole d. None of the above

150. All of the following are true about meiosis except

a. Occurs in germ cells b. Consists of two successive

divisions c. Formation of gametes d. None of the above

151. Prophase I a. Nuclear membrane

disappears b. DNA content = 2N c. Five stages d. All of the above

152. Centromeres divide in a. Metaphase I b. Prophase I c. Telophase I d. Second division

153. All the following cells have short life span except

a. Blood cells b. Smooth muscle cells c. Epithelial cells of GIT d. None of the above

154. Stem cell niches have the following properties except

a. Created by tissue cells and extracellular matrix

b. Anchor stem cells with tight junction

c. Regulate the cell cycle d. None of the above

155. Embryonic stem cell have the following except

a. 4 or 5 days old b. Multipotent stem cells c. Immunologically inactive d. None of the above

156. All the following are true about necrosis except

a. Physiological process b. Programmed cell death c. Controlled by several genes d. All of the above

157. Apoptosis occurs in all of the following except

a. Hypoxia b. Hormone dependent

involution c. To get rid of destructive cells d. Maintain a constant number

of cells

Answers:

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. E 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. E 27. B 28. A 29. D

30. B 31. C 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. E 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. E 54. B 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. D

59. A 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. B 66. B 67. B 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. D 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. C 76. E 77. A 78. B 79. D 80. E 81. E 82. E 83. D 84. E 85. D 86. D 87. D

88. A 89. B 90. A/B/C/C/A/

C 91. D/B/F/C/E/

F/D 92. D/E/C/A/A/

B 93. A/B/A/C/A/

B 94. C/A/C/B/C/

B/D/A/A/A/A/B/A

95. I/a 96. II/a 97. V/g 98. IV/f 99. III/C 100. III/

e 101. III/b 102. III/d 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. C 107. D 108. B 109. D

110. D 111. D 112. C 113. C 114. B 115. B 116. D 117. A 118. E 119. C 120. C 121. D

122. B 123. A 124. D 125. C 126. B 127. B 128. C 129. B 130. D 131. D 132. D 133. D

134. B 135. C 136. B 137. A 138. C 139. B 140. D 141. C 142. D 143. A 144. A 145. C

146. C 147. B 148. B 149. C 150. D 151. B 152. D 153. B 154. B 155. B 156. D 157. A