assignment 2010

1

Q1. (a) Explain the main features of sequential engineering approach.

(b) Explain with a neat diagram the foundation model of concurrent

Q2. (a) Define concurrent engineering. What are the objectives of concurrent engineering?

(b) In product developement process, when could the design for X methodologies be used judiciously by the designers?

Q3. (a) Describe design for assembly process.

(b) Expalin the steps involved in DFMA process.

Q4. (a) Explain in details the Kano’s model.

(b) What is vice of customer? Explain the various methods of gathering the voice of customer.

Q5. (a) Explain the various phases of QFD proceses.

(b) Explain in detail the various matrices in the house of quality.

Q6. (a) What are the main applications of rapid prototyping?

(b) What is SLS? Hos does SLS process work?

Q7. (a) Explain dissatistier, satisfier and delignters the various methods of gathering the voke of customer

(b) Explain the steps involved in DFMA proces.

Q8. (a) What is reverse engineering? What are the different uses of reverse engineering?

(b) Describe in brief the constraints of data acqution techniques.

Q9. (a) What is neat by the term RAPID TOOLING? Enmerate the direct rapid tool production methods.

(b) Describe direct shell production casting.

Q10. (a) Write short notes on:

(i) Topographic Shape Formation (TSF)

(ii) Direct and indirect rapid tooling processes.

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT

BME-023

ADVANCED MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Advanced Manufacturing Technology.

Maximum Marks : 100 Weightage : 30%

Course Code : BME-023 Last Date of Submission : Nov. 30, 2010

BTME

2

Q1. (a) Define the following properties of a material: (i) Ductility (ii) Toughness (iii) Hardness (iv) Creep

(b) What are the factors to be considered in the selection of materials for the design machine elements?

Q2. A steam boiler is to be designed for a working pressure of 2.5 N/mm2 with its inside diameter 1.6 m. Give the design calculations for the longitudinal and circumferential joints for the following working streses for steel plates and rivets: In tension = 75 Mpa; In shear = 60 Mpa; In crashing = 125 Mpa. Draw the joints to a suitable scale.

Q3. A rectangular steel plate is welded as a cantilever to a vertical column and supports a single concentrated load P, as shown Figure 1. Determine the weld size if shear stress in the same is not to exceed 140 MPa.

Figure :1

Q4. A mild steel shaft trammits 20 kW at 200 rpm. It carries a central load of 900 N and is simply supported between the bearings 2.5 metres apart. Determine the size of the shaft, if the allowable shear stress is 42 Mpa and the maximum tensile of compressive stress is not to exceed 56 Mpa. What size of the shaft will be required if it is subjected to gradually applied loads?

Q5. A pair of helical gears are to trammit 15 kW. The teeth are 20° stub in diametral plane and have a helix angle of 45°. The pinion runs at 10,000 rpm and has 80 mm pitch diameter. The gear has 320 mm pitch diameter. If the gears are made of cost steel having allowble static strength of 100 Mpa; determine a suitable module and face width from static strength

considerations and check the gears for wear, given MPa.618σes =

Q6. (a) Find the diameter of a solid steel shaft to transmit 25 kW at 200 rpm. The ultimate shear stress fro the steel may be taken as 360 MPs and a factor of safety as 7. If a hollow shaft is to be used in place of the solid shaft, find the ratio of inside to outside diameters is 0.5.


BME-024

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all

Blocks of Mechanical Engineering Design.



BTME

100

P = 60 kN

150 50

Weld

3

(b) How the shaft is design when it is subjected to twisting moment only?

Q7. Design a journal bearing for a centrifugal pump from the following data: load on the jounal = 20,000 n; speed of the journal = 900 r.p.m.;type of oil is SAE10; for which the absolute viscosity at 55°C =0.014 Kg/m – s; ambient temperature of oil = 15.5°C; maximum bearing pressure for the pump = 1.5 N/mm2. calculate also mass of the lubricating oil required for artificial cooling, if rise of temperature of oil be limited to 10°C. Heat dissipation coefficient = 1232 W/m2/°C.

Q8. A centrifugal clutch is to be designed to transmit 15 kW at 9000 rpm. The shoes are four in numbers. The speed at which the engagement begins is ¾th of the running speed. The inside radius of the pulley rim is 150 mm. the shoe are lined with ferrodo for which the coefficient of friction may be taken as 0.25. Determine:

(i) Mass of the shoes and

(ii) Size of the shoes

Q9. (a) Discuss the different types of belts and their material used for power transmission

(b) A leather belt 9 mm х 250 mm is used to drive a cost iron pulley 950 mm in diameter at 350 rpm. If the active arc on the smaller pulleys is 120° and the stress in tight side is 2 MPa, find the power capacity of the belt. The density of leather belt may be taken as 980 kg/m3, and the coefficient of friction of leather on cast iron is 0.35.

Q10. (a) What is the function of a spring? Classify the springs according to their shapes. Draw neat sketch indicting in each case whether stresses are induced by bending or by torsion.

(b) Design a helical compression spring for a maximum load of 1000 N for a deflection of 30 mm using the value of spring index as 5. The maximum permissible shear stress for spring wire is 420 MPa and modulus of rigidity is 84 kN/mm2.

Take Wahl’s factor,

,C

0.615

44C

14CK +

−

−= where C = spring index.

4

Q1. (a) What is maintenance Management? Explain the objectives of plant Engineering and management?

(b) Explain the different functions of plant Engineering and Management?

Q2. (a) Distinguish between the centralized and decentralized systems of plant engineering.

(b) Discuss the importance of co-ordination function with reference to the plant Engineering and Management.

Q3. (a) List out the factors influencing the maintenance policies. How do you formulate a maintenance strategy? Explain.

(b) Explain the systematic maintenance procedure by top down-bottom up approach.

Q4. (a) Write the procedure steps of scheduling the preventive maintenance.

(b) Describe the procedure of optimal solution for processing ‘n’ jobs through three machines and hence for ‘n’ jobs through ‘m’ machine.

Q5. (a) The repairing activity on eight machines take the time as shown below. Sequence them to minimize the idle time of repairmen and schedule in a chart.

Machine A B C D E F G H

Repair team-1 5 4 22 16 15 11 9 4

Repair team-2 6 10 12 8 20 7 2 21

(b) Find the sequence that minimizes the total elapsed time in hours to complete the following jobs on 3 machines. Prepare Gantt chart.

Jobs

Machines A B C D E

M1 3 8 7 5 2

M2 3 4 2 1 5

M3 5 8 10 7 6

Q6. (a) What is A-B-C analysis? Explain the step–by-step method to conduct the A-B-C analysis.


BME-025

CONDITION MONITORING & MAINTENCE ENGINEERING


Blocks of Condition Monitoring & Maintenance engineering.



BTME

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(b) What is codification? What is its significance in maintenance spare parts management? What are the advantages of codification?

Q7. (a) The cost of a machine is Rs.6100/- and its scrap value is only Rs. 100. the maintenance costs are found from experience to be as given below:

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Maintenance Cost Rs.

100 250 400 600 900 1200 1600 2000

When should the machine be replaced?

(b) A fleet owner fins from his part records that the cost per year of running a vehicle whose purchase price is Rs.60000 are as under:

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Running Cost Rs. 4000 5000 6000 7000 8000 1000 15000

Resale Value Rs. 25000 14000 8000 4000 2000 1500 1500

There after running costs increase by Rs. 1500, but resale value remains constant as Rs. 2500. At what age is a replacement is due?

Q8. (a) 800 bulbs are in use and it costs Rs. 12 to replace Individual bulb which has burnt out. If all bulbs were replaced simultaneously it would cost Rs. 6 per bulb. It is proposed to replace all bulbs at fixed intervals of time, whether or not they have burnt out and to continue replacing burnt out as and when they fail. The failure rates have been observed for certain type of light bulbs are as follows:

Week 1 2 3 4 5

Percent failing by the end of week 15 20 40 50 100

At what intervals all the bulbs should be replaced? At what group replacement price per bulbs would a policy of strictly individual replacement become preferable to the adopted policy?

(b) There are 1000 bulbs in the system survival rate is given below:

Week 0 1 2 3 4

Bulb in operation at the end of week 1000 850 500 200 100

The group replacement of 1000 bulbs costs Rs. 100 and individual replacement is Rs. 0.50 per bulb suggest suitable replacement policy.

Q9. (a) Explain the meaning and significance of the two parameters of the weibull distribution? Discuss the characteristics of shape parameters.

(b) In a reliability analysis, it is found that the data is fit in 2 parameter weibull distributions with the shape parameter as 1.4 days and scale parameter as 2.5 days. Design the reliability in terms of characteristics life, optimal life, B1 life B-1 life, T (Median) and T (Mode).

Q10. (a) What do you understand by total productive maintenance? Differentiate between Total productive maintenance (TPM) and Total Quality Management (TQM).

(b) Define and explain the concept of kaizen. Discuss the applications of kaizen on process, operation, layout and equipment.

6

Q1 (a) (i) Determine the rate of heat loss per hour through a 3.5 2m boiler plate if it is 20

mm thick with thermal conductivity 50 W/m-K the inner surface of the wall is covered with a layer of scale and deposits 2 mm thickness having a conductivity of 1 W/m-K. The hot gas temperature of the plate is 250 °C while that on the cold air (outside) is 200 °C. Also determine interface temperature.

(ii) Determine the loss by radiation from a steel tube 70 mm diameter and 3 m long at a temperature of 227 °C. the tube is located in a huge room having wall temperature 27 °C.

(b) A furnace wall consist of two lawyer 22.5 cm of brick (K = 4.984 kJ/hr. m mC /o ) and

12.5 cm of insulating brick (K = 0.623 kJ/hr. )C/mmo the temperature inside the

furnace is 1650 °C and the unit surface conductance at the inside wall is 245.28

kJ/hr. Cmo the temperature of the surrounding atmosphere is 27 C and the unit

surface conductance at the outer wall is 40.88 kJ/hr m2 °C. Neglecting the thermal resistance of the mortar joints. Estimate (i) the rate of heat loss per m2 of wall and the temperatures at the (ii) intersurface, and (iii) outer surface.

Q2. (a) A brick wall of a building is 30 cm thick and has inside surface temperature of C24o

and an outside surface temperature of – 6 °C the wall is 2.75 m high and 6.1 m long. Estimate (i) the heat transfer by conduction through the wall per hour and (ii) the conductance and resistance of the wall. The coefficient of conductivity of the brick

material is 2.6 kJ/hr. in Co .

(b) The inside temperature of refrigerator is required to be 7 °C the walls are constructed with two mild steel sheets 3 mm thick with 5 cm of glass wool insulation between them. The heat transfer coefficient on inner and outer surface of refrigerator are 10 W/ m2 °C and 12.5 W/ m2 °C. Find the rate of heat removed from the refrigerator when it is kept in a kitchen room. The temperature in kitchen is 28 °C and K for mild steel is 40 W/m °C and glass wool is 0.04 W/m °C.

Q3. (a) Water flows inside a tube 45 mm in diameter and 3.2 m long at a velocity of 0.78 m/s. Determine the heat transfer co-efficient and the rate of heat transfer if the mean water temperature is 50 °C and the wall is isothermal at 70 °C. For water at 50 °C

take k = 0.66 W/mK, v = 0.478 x /sm10 26− and Prandtl number =2.98.

(b) A hot plate 1 m x 1.5 m is maintained at 300 °C. Air at 25 °C blows over the plate. If the convective heat transfer coefficient is 20 W / m °C calculate the rate of heat transfer.


BME-027

HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.


Course Code: BME- 027 Last Date of Submission: November 30, 2010

BTME

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Q4. (a) Calculate the following for an industrial furnaces in the form of a black body and emitting radiation of m 2500 °C

(i) Monochromatic emissive power at 1.2 µm length,

(ii) Wavelength at which the emission is maximum,

(iii) Maximum emissive power,

(iv) Total emissive power, and

(v) Total emissive power of the furnace if it is assumed as a real surface with emissivity, equal to 0.9

(b) A body at 1000 °C in black surface surroundings at 500 °C has an emissivity of 0.42

at 1000 °C and an emissivity of 0.72 at C500o .Calculate the rate of heat loss by

radiation per 2m .

(i) When the body is assumed to be grey with 0.42.ε =

(ii) When the body is not grey. Assume that the absorptivity is independent of the surface temperature

Q5. (a) In a counter-flow double pipe heat exchanger, water is heated from 25 °C to 65 °C by an oil with a specific heat of 1.45 kJ/kg K and mass flow rate of 0.9 kg/s. The oil is

cooled from 230 °C to 160 °C. If he overall ha transfer coefficient is 420 W / m2 °C, calculate the following:

(i) The rate of heat transfer

(ii) The mass flow rate of water, and

(ii) The surface area of the heat exchanger.

(b) Water flows inside a tube 45 mm in diameter and 3.2 m long at a velocity of 0.78 m/s. Determine the heat transfer co-efficient and the rate of heat transfer if the mean water

temperature is 50 °C and the wall is isothermal at 70 °C. For water at 50 °C take k = 0.66 W / mK, v = 0.478 X 10-6 m2 / s and Prandtl number = 2.98.

Q6. (a) Estimate the diffusion rate of water from the bottom of a test tube 1.5 cm in diameter

and 15 cm long into dry atmosphere at 25 °C. Take diffusivity of water in air as 0.256

cm2/sec. and saturation pressure of water at 25 °C = 0.0316 bar.

(b) An open circular tank of 7.6 m diameter contains a volatile solvent at 25 °C. The top of the surface of liquid is covered by a stagnant air film of 5 cm thick. The concentration of solvent vapour beyond thin film may be neglected. If the solvent is worth Rs.20/-per litre, estimate the loss per day. Data: vapour pressure of solvent at

25 °C = 100 mm of Hg. sp. gr. of solvent = 0.88, Molecular weight = 78, diffusivity in air = 0.09 cm2/sec.

Q7. (a) Oxygen is diffusing through carbon monoxide with carbon monoxide non-diffusing.

The total pressure is 1 atmospheric and temperature is 0 °C. The partial pressure of oxygen at two planes 0.2 cm apart is 100 and 50 mm of Hg respectively. The diffusivity of mixture is 1.85 x 10−5 m2/sec. Calculate the rate of diffusion of oxygen in kg mole/m2 sec through each square cm of two planes.

(b) In an oxygen nitrogen mixture at 10 atmospheric pressure and 25 °C, the concentration of oxygen at two planes of 0.2 cm apart are 10 and 20 percent by volume respectively. Calculate the rate of diffusion of oxygen expressed as kg/m2 hr for the case of unicomponent diffusion (Nitrogen as non-diffusing). Value of diffusivity of oxygen is 1.81 x 10-5m2/sec.

8

Q8. (a) Determine the mass transfer coefficient of a certain vapour flowing over a flat plate 300 mm long at a Reynolds number of 2.15 х 105 when the kinematic viscosity and mass diffusivity are 1.68 x 10-5m2/s and 2.173 x 10-9m2/sec respectively.

(b) Air with a velocity of 3 m/sec is flowing over a tray of full of water. Assuming

temperature of 20 °C and temperature of water on the surface 15 °C, determine the amount of water evaporated per hour. Length of the tray along the air flow direction is 30 cm and its width is 50 cm. Take total pressure of water as 1.00 bar and partial

pressure of water vapour in it as 0.0078 bar. Properties of air are ρ = 1.205 kg/m3, Cp = 1.00 kJ/kg K, k = 0.025 w/mk, v = 15x10-6m2/sec. D = 0.15 m2/hr.

Q9. (a) (i) What is convective mass transfer co-efficient and what are its units?

(ii) Define the Fourier number and Biot number for mass transfer.

(b) Air at 35°C and 2 atm flows at a velocity of 30 m/sec over a flat plate of 0.5 m long. Calculate average mass transfer coefficient of water vapour in air. Assume concentration of vapour in air as very small. Take diffusion coefficient of water vapour

in air as .m/sec10256.0D4−×= Properties of air at 35 °C, ρ = 1.146 kg/ 3

m ,

kJ/kg1.006Cp = kg/msec.102,µk 5−×=o

Q10. (a) Define Fick’s first and second law of diffusion. Describe the various mechanism of mass transfer

(b) Discuss the analogy between heat and mass transfer.

9

Q.1 (a) Define viscosity and its role in fluid flow.

(b) Determine the viscosity of the liquid for a rotating cylinder by using the following data

Outer diameter = 200 mm

Inner diameter = 100 mm

Depth of immersion of cylinder = 350 mm

Clearance at the bottom = 6 mm

Angular speed = 100 rpm

Torque = 0.6 Nm

Q.2 (a) A pilot static tube placed in the centre of a 200 mm pipeline has one orifice pointing upstreams and the other perpendicular to it. If the pressure difference between the two orifices is 40 mm of water when the discharge through the pipe is 1305 litres/minute. Calculate the coefficient of pilot tube. Take mean velocity in pipe to be 0.83 of the central velocity.

(b) An oil having viscosity of 1.48 poise and specific gravity 0.9 flows through a pipe 25 mm diameter and 300 m long at 1/10 of the critical velocity for which Reynolds number is 2500. Find

(i) the velocity of flow through the pipe.

(ii) the power of the flow.

Q.3 (a) A uniform water stream at 5 m/sec over a rough surface, placed parallel to the flow and towed at 3 m/sec opposing the flow. Calculate the power required to tow the plate if it is 2 m long and 1 m wide.

(b) A flat-plate, 1.5 × 1.5 m, moves at 50 km/hr in a stationary air and density 1.15 kg/m3. If the coefficient of drag and lift are 0.10 and 0.85 respectively, determine

(i) the lift force,

(ii) the drag force,

(iii) the resultant force, and

(iv) the power required to keep the plate in motion.

Q.4 (a) Assuming that rate of discharge ‘Q’ of a centrifugal pump is dependent upon the

mass density ‘ρ’ of fluid, pump speed ‘N’ rpm, the diameter of impeller ‘D’. The


BME-028

FLUID MECHANICS


Blocks of Fluid Mechanics.



BTME

10

pressure ‘P’ and the viscosity of fluid ‘µ’, shown by using π-theorem that it can be represented by :

3

2 2 2( ) ,

gHQ ND

N D N D

γ= φ

where H = head; γ = kinematic viscosity of fluid.

(b) A 1 : 10 scale model of a submarine moving far below the surface of water is tested in a water tunnel. If the speed of the prototype is 8 m/s, determine the corresponding velocity of water in the tunnel. Also determine the ratio of the drag for the model and the prototype.

6 2seawater 1.121 10 m /s−

γ = × 3seawater 1027 kg/mρ =

6 2seawater 1.00 10 m /s−

γ = × 3seawater 1000 kg/mρ =

Q.5 (a) The maximum flow through a rectangular flume 1.8 m wide and 1.2 m deep is 2.65 m3/sec. It is proposed to install a suppressed sharp crested rectangular weir across the flume to measure flow. Find the maximum height at which the weir crest can be placed in order that water may not overflow the sides of the flume. Assume (Cd = 0.9).

(b) The velocity of water is 6.2 m/s at upstream. At a point 16 m downstream, the diameter reduces from 30 cm to 15 cm. Calculate the pressure at this point, if the pipe is horizontal with flow downward.

Q.6 (a) A sphere of radius 2.8 cm having relative density of 3.02 is freely falling in the tank of oil. Compute the fall velocity of sphere and the drag force. Given that the mass density of oil is 900 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity is 1.48 × 10– 4 m2/s.

(b) A cylinder of 500 mm diameter is rotating at 540 rpm in air stream of velocity 12 m/s. If it develops a lift of 96 N per metre length of the cylinder, determine the ratio of

actual to theoretical lift? Take ρ = 1.236 kg/m3.

Q.7 (a) Define the following terms :

(i) Slip,

(ii) Free stream velocity,

(iii) Surface drag,

(iii) Nominal thickness, and

(iv) Boundary layer.

(b) Differentiate between the following :

(i) Rotational and Irrotational flow.

(ii) Isothermal and Isentropic flow.

(iv) Forced vortex and Free vortex.

(v) Uniform and Non-uniform flow.

Q.8 (a) The power P required by the pump is a function of discharge Q, head H, g, viscosity µ

and mass density ρ of the fluid, speed of rotation N and impeller diameter D. Obtain the relevant dimensionless parameters.

(b) A napththa pipe of 80 cm diameter and 150 cm long steel pipe of 6 m thickness carries the product at a velocity of 3 m3/s. What will be the pressure

11

if a valve at the downstream end of the pipe is closed in (i) 3 seconds, and (ii) 11 seconds.

E for steel and naptha are 2.08 × 1011 N/m2 and 2.08 × 109 N/m2 respectively.

Q.9 (a) Gasoline which has a vapour pressure of 5.5 × 104 Pa [abs] and density P = 660 kg/m3 flows through a constriction in a pipe where the diameter is reduced from 20 cm to10 cm. The pressure in the 20 cm pipe just up stream of the constriction is 50 kPa. If the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of mercury, calculate the maximum discharge passed through this constriction without cavitation occurring.

Figure 1

(b) A liquid column contour for testing in a steel mill for special steels contains water, molten metal (S = 11.87) and lubricating oil for quenching (s = 0.9). If h1 = 0.02 m, h2

= 0.35 m and h3 = 0.021 m, compute the pressure difference in vessels A and B. γ of water may be taken as 9.806 kN/m3.

Figure 2

Q.10 (a) Special closure of sluice gates of Yamuna at the entry to Delhi are 18 m in width and semi-circular of opening (which remains closed usually except when opened for release of water) of 0.6 m at the depth of 0.45 m. Find the resultant force.

Figure 3

1 2

oh h2

h3

Water

Lubricating

A

Molten metal at 90

oC

B

0.45

0.6 Sluice gate opening cover

C

12

Q.1 (a) What is robot? Name few typical applications of an industrial robot?

(b) What are the “ Laws of Robotics”?

Q.2 (a) How many joints a wrist should have and why?

(b) Name few robot manufacturers and their robot programming languages.

Q.3 (a) Why are pneumatic actuators preferred in factories?

(b) Explain the working principle of variable reluctance stepper motor?

Q4. (a) How to reduce the processing time in a vision system?

(b) Write how the robots can be used in medical surgery?

Q5. (a) Assume that [QA]F and [QB]A are given by

[ ] [ ]

−

=

−

=

100

045Cos45Sin

045Sin45Cos

Qand;

100

030Cos30Sin

0030sin30Cos

QABFA

oo

oo

oo

oo

Find [ ] .FBQ

(b) If [TA]F be the homogeneous matrix representing a transformation of the fixed frame to a new frame A with respect to frame F, and [TB]F be author transformation to a frame B, also with respect to frame F, find the resultant transformation matrix.

Q6. (a) Matix [Q]F is a rotation matrix and by definition, as in equation

[ ]( ) [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ]{ }1QQQQorQQand1,QdetTFFF

TF

TF

1FF ====−

where 1 in bold face denotes the

3×3 identity matrix. Its determinant is one, ie. Det([Q}F)=1, In specific cases, for

example, in equation ( )[ ]

,

F

100

00CosαSinα

0SinαCosα

ZQ

−

−

≡ The determinant of the matrix,

[Q]F can be calculated using the formula as

[ ]( ) ( ) ( )( ) ( ) 1αSinαCos000Sinα0Sinα0CosαCosαZQdet 22F =+=−+−+−=

(b) Prove [ ]( ) 1Qdet F =

Q7. (a) What is the order of a trajectory that has to satisfy position, velocity and acceleration constraints at the initial and final points?

(b) What are the difficulties of cartesian space scheme?


BME-029

ROBOTICS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Robotics.



BTME

13

Q8. (a) How one can avoid the use of higher order polynomials while several points are specified?

(b) What is the system when the roots of the characteristic equations are real and unreal?

Q9. (a) Write the advantage of PID control?

(b) What are the types of on-line programming?

Q10. (a) What are the types of off-line programming?

(b) What is programming by simulation?

14

Q1. (a) Describe different types of wastes. How can waste be used? What is municipal solid waste? Describe different categories of MSW.

(b) What is the solid waste scenario in Indian cities? What is integrated solid waste management?

Q2. (a) How do you classify waste? What functions are identified in waste management? What is an incinerator?

(b) How are particulate matters removed from flue gas of an incinerator? Distinguish between pyrolysis and starved air incineration.

Q3. (a) What is aerobic microbial composting? Distinguish it from vermiculture.

(b) What is land filling? What are three types of landfills? How is site for landfill selected?

Q4. (a) What characteristics are used to describe chemical state of wastewater?

(b) Distinguish between short term acute hazard and long term environmental hazard.

Q5. (a) Discuss different treatments given to hazardous waste before final disposal. Why are such treatments necessary? Give names of such disposal methods which do not require pretreatments.

(b) What is incineration? What are different incineration technologies? What are the advantages of rotary kiln?

Q6. (a) Describe medical wastes and problems it can create. What are different methods of treating medical wastes and its final disposal?

(b) Compare the advantages and disadvantages of dumping waste at sea and injecting in deep ground wells.

Q7. (a) What preparations are to be made for recycling a waste? How is the performance of a recycling process judged?

(b) What are different considerations made in design of equipment and machine to reduce chances of failure?

Q8. (a) Describe how robot can cause hazards to workers? Discuss precautions to be observed by workers while lifting loads.

(b) What is a heat stroke? What symptoms you should look for to ascertain that a person has received heat stroke? How should the victim be treated?

Q9. (a) Why does a fire occur? Describe fire classes and portable extinguishers used against them.


BME-030

SAFETY ENGINEERING

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.


Course Code: BME- 030 Last Date of Submission: November 30, 2010

BTME

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(b) What is the role of first aid in responding to emergency? Describe contents of a first aid kit. What are different elements of emergency planning?

Q10 (a) What is a disaster? Distinguish between a man-made and natural disaster. Describe briefly the after effects of such disasters as earthquake, floods and cyclone.

(b) What is safety training and why is it necessary? Discuss the role of trainer and attributes a trainer of safety should possess. Describe four steps of training – preparation, presentation, application and evaluation.

16


BME 031

ENERGY CONVERSION

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Computer Aided Process Planning.


Course Code : BME 031 Last Date of Submission: 30th November,2010

BTME

Q1. (a) What are the merits and demerits of Renewable Energy sources? Compare

renewable and non-renewable energy sources.

(b) Explain with the help of block diagram working of a hydroelectric power plant. What are the advantages of hydroelectric power plant?

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q2. (a) (i) With the help of neat sketches, explain the working of Nuclear power plant.

(ii) State the function of the following parts of a nuclear power plant.

• Nuclear reactor

• Moderator

• Control rod

(b) State the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power plants. (5 + 5 = 10)

Q3. (a) A simple impulse turbine has a blade speed of 350 m/s and blade sped to steam

velocity (inlet) ratio is 0.45. Nozzles are inclined at 20° to plane of rotation and steam

leaves the stage at an angle of 70° to the plane of rotation. Determine,

(i) Blade inlet angle (θ)

(ii) Kinetic energy of steam at outlet.

(b) A De-Laval turbine is supplied with steam at pressure of 15 bar and 250° C and back pressure is 0.12 bar. The nozzle efficiency is 0.9, blade velocity coefficient is 0.8.

Mechanical efficiency of turbine is 0.9. The nozzle angle is 20°. The blades are

symmetric and blade angle is 30°.

Draw the velocity diagram and calculate

i) Speed of the rotor if mean diameter of wheel is 75 cm

ii) Steam consumption per kW-hr

iii) Blade efficiency

iv) Stage efficiency

v) Axial thrust per kg of steam

vi) Percentage loss in exit (5 + 5 = 10)

17

Q4. (a) A convergent-divergent nozzle is supplied with steam at a pressure of 1 MN/m2 and

225°C. Super-saturated expansion occurs according to pV1.3 = C in the nozzle down to an exit pressure of 0.32 MN/m2. The exit diameter of the nozzle is 25 mm. If the flow through the nozzle is chocked, determine

(i) exit velocity,

(ii) mass flow

(iii) throat diameter

(b) Steam at 30 bar, 300°C expands to 5 bar through a nozzle isentropically. Calculate exit velocity. Assume steam is entering at velocity of 200 m/s. Also calculate area at exit of the nozzle for flow of 2 kg/sec.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q5. (a) A refrigeration system of 10.5 tonnes capacity at an evaporator temperature of −12°C

and a condenser temperature of 27°C is needed in a food storage locker. The

refrigerant ammonia is sub-cooled by 6°C before entering the expansion valve. The vapour is 0.95 dry as it leaves the evaporator coil. The compression in the compressor is of adiabatic type. Using p-h chart find:

(i) Condition of vapour at outlet of the compressor

(ii) Condition of vapour at entrance to evaporator

(iii) C.O.P.

(iv) Power required, in kW.

Neglect valve throttling and clearance effect.

(b) In a simple vapour compression cycle, following are the properties of the refrigerant R-12 at various points:

Compressor inlet h2 = 183.2 kJ/kg v2 = 0.0767m3/kg

Compressor discharge h3 = 222.6 kJ/kg v3 = 0.0164 m3/kg

Compressor exit h4 = 84.9 kJ/kg v4 = 0.00083 m3/kg

The piston displacement volume for compressor is 1.5 litres per stroke and its volumetric efficiency is 80%. The speed of the compressor is 1600 r.p.m Find:

(i) Power rating of the compressor (kW);

(ii) Refrigerating effect (kW). (5 + 5 = 10)

Q6. (a) In an air standard gas turbine engine, air at a temperature of 15°C and a pressure of 1.01bar enters the compressor, where it is compressed through a pressure ratio of 5.

Air enters the turbine at a temperature of 815°C and expands to original pressure of 1.01bar. Determine the ratio of turbine work to compressor work and the thermal efficiency when the engine operates on ideal Brayton cycle.

KkJ/kg1.005C1.4,γ:Take p ==

(b) In an open cycle constant pressure gas turbine air enters the compressor at 1 bar and 300 K. The pressure of air after the compression is 4 bar. The isentropic efficiencies of compressor and turbine are 78% and 85% respectively. The air-fuel ratio is 80:1. Calculate the power developed and thermal efficiency of the cycle if the flow rate of air is 2.5 kg/s.

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Take cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K and γ = 1.4 for air and cpg = 1.147 kJ/kg K and γ = 1.33 for gases. R = 0.287 kJ/kg K. Calorific value of fuel = 42000 kJ/kg.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q7. (a) Find the required air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine whose turbine and compressor

efficiencies are 85% and 80% respectively. Maximum cycle temperature is 875°C.

The working fluid can be taken as air (cp = 1.0 kJ/kg K, and γ = 1.4) which enters the

compressor at 1 bar and 27°C. The pressure ratio is 4. The duel used has calorific value of 42000 kJ/kg. There is a loss of 10% of calorific value in the combustion chamber.

(b) A gas turbine unit receives air at 1 bar and 300 K and compresses it adiabatically to 6.2 bar. The compressor efficiency is 88%. The fuel has a heating valve of 44186 kJ/kg and the fuel-air ratio is 0.017 kJ/kg of air.

The turbine internal efficiency is 90%. Calculate the work of turbine and compressor per kg of air compressed and thermal efficiency.

For products of combustion, cp = 1.147 kJ/kg K, and γ = 1.333. (5 + 5 = 10)

Q8. (a) A four cylinder four-stroke S.I. engine has a compression ratio of 8 and bore of 100 mm, with stroke equal to the bore. The volumetric efficiency of each cylinder is equal to 75%. The engine operates at a speed of 4800 r.p.m with an air-fuel ratio 15.

Given that the calorific value of fuel = 42 MJ/kg, atmospheric density = 1.12 kg/m3, mean effective pressure in the cylinder = 10 bar and mechanical efficiency of the engine = 80%, determine the indicated thermal efficiency and the brake power.

(b) A single-cylinder four-stroke diesel engine running at 1800 r.p.m. has a bore of 85 mm and a stroke of 110 mm. It takes 0.56 kg of air per minute and develops a brake power output of 6 kW while the air-fuel ratio is 20:1. The calorific value of the fuel used is 42550 kJ/kg, and the ambient air density is 1.18 kg/m3.

Calculate:

(i) The volumetric efficiency, and

(ii) Brake specific fuel consumption. (5 + 5 = 10)

Q9. (a) The volume ratios of compression and expansion for a diesel engine as measured from an indicator diagram are 15.3 and 7.5 respectively. The pressure and

temperature at the beginning of the compression are 1 bar and 27°C.

Assuming an ideal engine, determine the mean effective pressure, the ratio of maximum pressure to mean effective pressure and cycle efficiency.

Also find the fuel consumption per kWh if the indicated thermal efficiency is 0.5 of ideal efficiency, mechanical efficiency is 0.8 and the calorific value of oil 42000 kJ/kg.

Assume for air: cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K; cv = 0.718 kJ / kg K, γ = 1.4.

(b) The minimum pressure and temperature in an Otto cycle are 100 kPa and 27°C. The amount of heat added to the air per cycle is 1500 kJ / kg.

(i) Determine the pressures and temperatures at all points of the air standard Otto cycle.

(ii) Also calculate the specific work and thermal efficiency of the cycle for a compression ratio of 8 :1.

Take for air: cv = 0.72 kJ / kg K, and γ = 1.4. (5 + 5 = 10)

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Q10. (a) Steam is expanded in a set of nozzles from 10 bar and 200°C to 5 bar. What type of nozzle is it? Neglecting the initial velocity find minimum area of the nozzle required to allow a flow of 3 kg / s under the given conditions. Assume that expansion of steam to be isentropic.

(b) Dry saturated steam enters a frictionless adiabatic nozzle with negligible velocity at a

temperature of 300°C. It is expanded to a pressure of 5000 kPa. The mass flow rate is 1 kg / s. Calculate the exit velocity of steam.

Properties of Steam

(5 + 5 = 10)

Enthalpy (kJ / kg) Entropy (kJ / kg / °C) Specific volume (m3 / kg)

Sat. temp.

(°C)

Sat.’ pressure (kPa)

Sat. liq. Sat. vap Sat. liq Sat. vap Sat. liq Sat. vap

300 263.91

8593 5000

1345 1154.5

2751 2794.2

3.2552 2.9206

5.7081 5.9735

0.0014 0.0012

0.0216 0.0394

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Q1. (a) What do you understanding about industrial engineering? How do you differentiate Industrial Engineering with mechanical engineering? Explain with suitable examples.

(b) List and describe the various tools and techniques adopted by Industrial Engineering (IE) department.

Q2. (a) Describe how is an Industrial Engineer so significant in fixing the wages and incentives of industrial Jobs?

(b) What is Management Information System (MIS)? Explain its characteristics aiding managers in good decision making.

Q3. (a) Explain in detail the various functions of Industrial Engineering (IE) before, during and after the establishment of organization or an industry.

(b) Define production and productivity. Distinguish between them. Also establish the relation between work study and productivity.

Q4. (a) The observed time for an element is 0.4minute and the pace rating is 90% and the sum of all secondary adjustments amount to 20%. Find the normal time.

(b) The observed time of an element is 0.7 minute and the pace rate is 80%. If the normal time is decided as 0.73 minute, find what percent of adjustment is added towards job defiantly.

Q5. (a) Ten observations were taken by a time study observer for a particular task. Check weather the number of observations is sufficient for 5% limit of accuracy and 95% confidence level. Indicate the number of observations required.

Table - 1

Time Frequency

0.2 2

0.3 1

0.4 3

0.5 1

0.6 3

(b) What do you understand by work sampling? Explain the role of work sampling and time study in improving the productivity.


BME-035

INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING & OPERATIONS RESEARCH


Blocks of Industrial Engineering & Operations Research.



BTME

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Q6. (a) Find the initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem by (i) minimum cost method, and (ii) North-West corner method.

To

P Q R Supply

A 2 7 4 5

B 3 3 1 8

C 5 4 7 7

D 1 6 2 14

Demand 7 9 18

From

(b) A manager is facing problem of assigning 5 jobs to 5 operators. Each job must be performed only by one operator. The cost of processing of each job by each operator is given below in Rs.

Operators

P Q R S T

A 7 5 9 8 11

B 9 12 6 11 10

C 8 5 4 6 8

D 7 3 6 8 5

Jobs

E 3 6 7 5 11

Determine the assignment of jobs to the operators so that it will result in minimization of cost.

Q7. (a) A manufacturing company is producing two products A and B. Each requires processing on two machines 1 and 2. Product A requires 3 hours of processing on machine 1 and 2 hours on machine 2. Product B requires 2 hours of processing on machine 1 and 6 hours on machine 2. The unit profit for product A and B are Rs. 10 and Rs. 20 respectively. The available time in a given quarter on machine 1 and machine 2 are 1200 hours and 1500 hours respectively. The market survey has predicted that not more than 400 units of product A and not more than 250 units of product B can be sold in given quarter. The company wants to determine the product mix to maximize the profits. Formulate the problem as linear programming mathematical model and solve it graphically.

(b) A special diet for a patient in the hospital must have at least 8000 units of vitamins, 100 units of minerals and 2800 units of calories. Two types of foods X and Y are available in the market at the cost of Rs. 8 and Rs. 6 respectively. One unit of X contains 400 units of vitamin, 2 units of minerals and 80 units of calories. One unit of food Y contains 200 units of vitamins, 4 units of minerals and 80 units of calories. What combination of foods X and Y be used so that the minimum requirement of vitamins, minerals and calories is maintained and the cost incurred by the hospital is miminised? Use simplex method.

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Q8. (a) ABC manufacturing company makes three products x1, x2 and x3 with contribution per unit to profit Rs. 2, Rs. 4 and Rs. 3 respectively. Each of three products passes through three centres as part of production process. The time required in each centre to process one unit of each product is as given below :

Product Centre 1 Hours/Unit

Centre 2 Centre 3

x1 3 2 1

x2 4 1 3

x3 2 2 2

Time Available (Hours)

60 40 80

Determine the optimal mix for next week production in order to maximize the overall profit.

(b) What is a transportation problem? How is it useful in business?

A transport corporation has tracks at 3 garages A, B and C in a city. The number of trucks available in each garage, the number of trucks required by each customer and the distance from garage to customer’s locations are given below :

Customers Garages

1 2 3 4 Availabilities

A 7 6 9 12 12

B 8 6 7 10 8

C 10 7 8 12 10

Requirement 4 3 5 8

Just before sending the trucks, it is known that road from B to customer 2 is closed for traffic due to road block. How should the trucks be assigned to customers in order to minimize the total distance to be covered due to road block?

Q9. (a) Two companies A and B are competing for the same product. Their different strategies are given in the following pay-off matrix.

Company B B1 B2 B3 A1 2 -2 3 Company A A2 -3 5 -1

Determine the best strategies and find the value of the game.

(b) The following is the pay-off table for a zero-sum two-person game, with the pay –off being the amounts player B loses to player A:

Play - B I II

I 2 -2 Play A II -3 5

Determine the best strategies and find the value of the game.

Q10. (a) Describe steps involved in decision making. What are the criteria for decision making under uncertainty?

(b) Describe envelopment Analysis:

(i) Data envelopment Analysis (DEA).

(ii) Analytical Hierarchy Process (AHP).

(iii) Analyze Network Process (ANP).

assignment 2010

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