b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 2) which of the numbered features on this

Chapter 10

1) Which of the numbered features on this figure is a continental shelf?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

2) Which of the numbered features on this figure is a continental slope?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

3) Which of the following CANNOT be observed on a seismic-reflection profile?

A) orientation of rock layers

B) shape of the seafloor

C) folds

D) faults

E) All of these can be observed.

4) Which of the following is NOT a way in which we map and investigate the seafloor?

A) bouncing sound waves from a ship off the bottom

B) drilling holes into the seafloor from ships

C) using satellites to observe the sea surface

D) conducting seismic surveys to investigate rock layers

E) We use all of these techniques.

5) Rock units beneath the seafloor can be imaged with sound waves using a method called

A) seismic-reflection profiling.

B) magnetic profiling.

C) bounce profiling.

D) physical profiling.

6) What method produces images of the materials beneath the seafloor using sound waves?

A) seismic-reflection profiling

B) ocean drilling

C) satellites

D) submersibles

7) What information can be determined directly by analyzing drill cores?

A) the type of sediment on the seafloor

B) the rate of sediment deposition

C) the type of rock on the seafloor

D) All of these choices are correct.

8) Which of the following is associated with mid-ocean ridges?

A) a great thickness of oceanic sediment trapped within the central rift

B) very smooth topography as a result of the sedimentary cover

C) melting of the entire thickness of the asthenosphere to produce magma

D) compression that buckles the crust forming the ridge

E) None of these choices are correct.

9) Which of the following is associated with a fast-spreading ridge?

A) rates of about 10 centimeters per year or more

B) a broad ridge because the rocks remain hotter farther from the center of spreading

C) less of a deep central rift than in a slow spreading ridge


10) What occurs near black smokers?

A) Circular features (called chimneys) form, composed of sulfide and sulfate minerals.

B) Heated fresh water is derived from the land.

C) Organic-rich shale burns in the subsurface.

D) Coal-rich layers burn in the subsurface.


11) What is the ultimate source of food for animals living around deep-sea hydrothermal vents?

A) sunlight and photosynthesis

B) the decay of creatures that float on the ocean surface and settle to the bottom

C) nuclear energy from the heated uranium-rich rocks

D) bacteria that break down hydrogen sulfide

12) What is the source of energy for giant worm tubes and clams that live at hydrothermal vents?

A) bacteria that break down H2S

B) plants that grow on the seafloor

C) sunlight

13) Which creatures belong to the community of organisms that live at hydrothermal vents?

A) giant clams

B) red worm tubes

C) white crabs

D) All of these creatures belong to the community of organisms that live at hydrothermal vents.

14) The source of heat for the water emitted by black smokers at the mid-ocean ridges comes

from

A) magma.

B) friction.

C) radioactive decay.

D) an unknown source.

15) Which of these numbers is near a site with active seafloor spreading?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


16) Which of these numbers is on the abyssal plane?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


17) Which of these numbers is near a continental shelf?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


18) Which of these numbers is closest to an oceanic trench?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


19) Which of these numbers has the thinnest sequence of marine sediments?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


20) This figure shows ages of seafloor. Which of the numbered sites is on the oldest seafloor,

based on its position?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

21) This figure shows ages of seafloor. Which of the numbered sites is on the youngest seafloor,


A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

22) This figure shows ages of seafloor. Which pair of numbers likely has crust of similar age?

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 2 and 4

E) 3 and 4

23) This figure shows ages of seafloor. Which of the numbered sites is on the deepest seafloor,


A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

24) This figure shows ages of seafloor. Which of the numbered sites is on the shallowest

seafloor, based on its position?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

25) What setting has the thinnest cover of sediment in the oceans?

A) mid-ocean ridges

B) abyssal plain

C) oceanic trenches

D) continental shelves and slopes along passive margins

26) The deepest parts of the seafloor are

A) mid-ocean ridges.

B) abyssal plain.

C) seamounts.

D) oceanic trenches.

E) continental shelves.

27) Which of the following parts of the seafloor are the shallowest?

A) mid-ocean ridges

B) abyssal plain

C) oceanic trenches

D) continental shelves

28) Which parts of the seafloor have the youngest oceanic crust?

A) mid-ocean ridges

B) abyssal plain

C) oceanic trenches

D) continental shelves along passive margins

29) Why does the elevation of the seafloor decrease from the mid-ocean ridge to the abyssal

plain?

A) The oceanic lithosphere cools and becomes denser.

B) The weight of sediments depresses the oceanic crust.

C) The oceanic plate is flexed downward near a subduction zone.

D) Slab rollback pulls the oceanic lithosphere deeper.

30) In what setting does the thickest sediment accumulate in the oceans?

A) mid-ocean ridges in any location in the ocean

B) abyssal plain in the middle of the ocean

C) oceanic trenches in the middle of the ocean

D) continental shelves and slopes along passive margins

31) In the Atlantic Ocean, where is the oldest oceanic crust?

A) Mid-ocean ridges

B) Abyssal plain next to the continents

C) Oceanic trenches

D) Seamounts

E) Continental shelves close to the shoreline

32) On a map showing the age of the seafloor, why are the patterns symmetrical in the Atlantic

Ocean but not the Pacific Ocean?

A) Spreading along the Atlantic ridge added seafloor to plates on both sides, while subduction

has consumed large areas of old oceanic crust in the Pacific.

B) Subduction occurred at the same rate along the eastern and western sides of the Atlantic, but

not in the Pacific.

C) Subduction has consumed large areas of old oceanic crust in the Atlantic, more than in the

Pacific.

D) Spreading in the Atlantic has been faster than seafloor spreading in the Pacific

33) On the map shown, R has the youngest oceanic crust because

A) it is at a spreading center.

B) it is at a passive margin.

C) it is at a trench.

34) Which area shown on the map has the greatest seafloor depth?

A) (T) trench

B) (P) passive margin

C) (R) oceanic ridges

35) Which area shown on the map has the shallowest seafloor depth?

A) (P) passive continental margin

B) (R) oceanic ridge

C) (T) trench

36) If you wanted to locate hot spots on Earth, which of the following would NOT be good place

to look?

A) the volcanically active end of a linear island chain

B) clusters of volcanically active islands

C) Hawaii and the Galapagos

D) All of these would be good places.

37) Most oceanic plateaus are

A) small pieces rifted apart from continents.

B) places where the seafloor has been buckled upward by convergence.

C) constructed by volcanic eruptions probably over mantle plumes.

D) large fan-shaped mounds deposited by turbidity currents.

38) If you drilled into an oceanic plateau, what would you most likely find?

A) a thin layer of oceanic sediment over continental crust

B) andesitic volcanoes buried by turbidity currents

C) a normal thickness of oceanic crust overlain by andesitic volcanoes

D) large amounts of basalt derived from melting in the mantle

39) Hot spots form linear island chains because

A) the plate moves relative to the underlying hot spot.

B) they are aligned with trenches formed by subduction.

C) they occur along the mid-oceanic ridges.

40) What do the island chains of Hawaii, Tahiti, and Tristan da Cunha have in common?

A) They formed from hot spots.

B) They are part of island arcs.

C) They are part of an oceanic plateau.

41) The red dots that coincide with volcanically active island chains shown on the map are called

A) hot spots.

B) mid-ocean ridges.

C) abyssal plains.

D) island arcs.

42) Which of the following is associated with a typical island arc?

A) oceanic trench

B) subduction

C) melting in the mantle

D) ocean-ocean convergence

E) All of these choices are correct.

43) Island arcs are curved because

A) the shapes of the continents were arcuate as they rifted apart.

B) the shape of the mid-ocean ridge matches the shape of the continents.

C) Earth is a sphere, not a flat plane.

D) most terranes added to the continental margin are circular.

44) Which of the following letters marks the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands off Alaska?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) E

45) Which of these numbered features is an atoll?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3



46) What is a popular model for the formation of an atoll?

A) A moderate-sized meteoroid forms a circular crater on the seafloor.

B) A volcanic eruption forms a large circular caldera.

C) A volcanic island forms and subsides.

D) A barrier reef becomes buried by volcanic eruptions.

47) Which of the following places would NOT be a good place to visit a reef?

A) shallow seas that are relatively free of suspended sediment

B) the area offshore of northeastern Australia

C) the Caribbean

D) islands in the southwestern Pacific Ocean

E) shallow, clear waters off Iceland

48) Which of these numbered features is on the continental shelf?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


49) Which of these numbered features is on the continental slope?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


50) Which of these numbered features has the thinnest sediment?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4


51) Which of the following are associated with turbidity currents?

A) A dense slurry of water and sediment that moves downhill

B) submarine canyons

C) submarine fans

D) graded beds


52) Which of the following is associated with a continental slope?

A) submarine canyons

B) turbidity currents

C) submarine landslides


53) If you were looking for graded beds, where would be a good place to look?

A) in a warm and shallow lagoon

B) in the center of an atoll

C) just offshore of a sediment-poor beach

D) in a submarine fan


54) Submarine canyons in the continental slope are eroded by

A) turbidity currents.

B) rivers.

C) glaciers.

55) Which of the following features are NOT associated with salt structures along the Gulf Coast

of the United States?

A) a layer of salt deposited during continental rifting

B) folding and doming of layers above rising masses of salt

C) puzzling bumps and pits on the seafloor

D) a steep slope or escarpment marking the front of a large mass of salt

E) All of these are present in this region.

56) How do most salt deposits form?

A) dense slurries of sediment and water along continental slopes

B) rapid deposition offshore of deltas, like in the Gulf of Mexico

C) evaporation of water, such as in restricted seaways

D) conversion of limestone to dolostone

57) Salt is less dense and weaker than other types of rocks so it flows upward to form

A) domes.

B) folds.

C) basins.

D) faults.

58) These globes show the position of the continents and ocean basins at various times in the

past. What is the correct order of these globes, from oldest to youngest?

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 1, 4, 3, 2

C) 4, 3, 2, 1

D) 4, 3, 1, 2

E) 4, 1, 3, 2

59) Approximately when did the central Atlantic Ocean form?

A) four billion years ago

B) two billion years ago

C) two hundred million years ago

D) twenty million years ago

E) two thousand years ago

60) How did the South Atlantic Ocean Form?

A) Asia rifted apart from Europe.

B) Africa and North America collided to form the Appalachian Mountains.

C) A piece of California started moving northward up the west coast.

D) South America rifted apart from Africa.


61) Which two continents rifted apart to form the central Atlantic Ocean?

A) India and Australia

B) South America and Antarctica

C) Europe and Asia

D) North America and Africa


Chapter 12

1) Which of the following types of faults does NOT generate earthquakes?

A) Normal fault

B) Reverse fault

C) Thrust fault

D) Strike-slip fault

E) All types of faults can generate earthquakes.

2) What do the two stars near the center of this block represent?

A) the location of the earthquake

B) the star at depth is the place where the earthquake is generated

C) the star at depth is the hypocenter

D) the star on the surface is the epicenter


3) An earthquake generated on this type of fault would most likely be associated with a

A) subduction zone.

B) divergent plate boundary.

C) rift.

D) caldera.

E) transform boundary.

4) The earthquake location shown as the red dot is generated on what type of fault?

A) Reverse fault

B) Normal fault

C) Thrust fault

D) Strike-slip fault

5) Which of the following is NOT a way that volcanoes and magma can cause earthquakes?

A) Volcanic explosions cause seismic waves.

B) Volcanoes can load the crust, causing faulting and earthquakes.

C) Many volcanoes have steep, unstable slopes that can cause landslides that shake the ground.

D) Moving magma within or below the volcano can cause earthquakes.

E) All of these are ways that volcanoes can cause earthquakes.

6) In what order will the seismic stations (#1 and #2) detect seismic waves generated by the

earthquake shown in the image?

A) Station 1 will detect them first, followed by Station 2.

B) Station 2 will detect them first, followed by Station 1.

C) Stations 1 and 2 will detect the waves at the same time.

D) Only station 2 will detect waves because Station 1 is too close to the hypocenter.

7) Most earthquakes occur at depths of

A) less than 100 km.

B) greater than 100 km.

C) 100-700 km.

8) Earthquakes in subduction zones generally only occur at depths of

A) up to 700 km.

B) greater than 700 km.

C) 700-1000 km.

9) Which of the following may create earthquakes?

A) movement along faults

B) volcanic eruptions and magma movement

C) landslides

D) explosions and human activity

E) All these may create earthquakes.

10) The fault scarp in this photograph apparently formed

A) when an earthquake rupture offset the surface.

B) when the area beneath the scarp was dropped down relative to the area to the left.

C) more than 50 million years ago.

D) when material on the left was compacted.


11) Which of the following may indicate the presence of a fault scarp?

A) Break in a slope along a hill side

B) A "step" in the landscape

C) Freshly exposed, generally linear feature with little/no vegetation

D) All of these can indicate the presence of a fault scarp.

12) The image shows a surface expression of slip along a normal fault caused by an earthquake.

What is the indicated feature?

A) Fault scarp

B) Hanging wall

C) Graben

D) Hypocenter

13) On this map of southeastern Asia and adjacent areas, which site would have earthquakes

along a mid-ocean ridge?

A) 1, In the Indian Ocean

B) 2, In Tibet

C) 3, Near Japan

D) 4, Near the Tonga island arc

14) On this map of southeastern Asia and adjacent areas, which site would have earthquakes

along a subduction zone?

A) 1, In the Indian Ocean

B) 2, In Tibet

C) 3, Near Japan

D) 4, Near the Tonga island arc

E) 3 and 4

15) On this map of earthquakes near Japan, why do shallow earthquakes occur to the east and

deeper earthquakes occur to the west?

A) The continental crust is thicker to the east.

B) The crust is hotter near Japan, closer to the volcanoes.

C) There is a continental collision to the east.

D) The subduction zone dips to the west.

16) On this map of South America and adjacent areas, which site would have earthquakes along

a subduction zone?

A) 1, The oceanic trench

B) 2, Below the magmatic belt

C) 3, Along a passive margin

D) 4, In the middle of the Atlantic Ocean

E) Both 1 and 2

17) On this map of South America and adjacent areas, which site would have earthquakes related

to plate divergence?





E) Both 1 and 2

18) On this map of South America and adjacent areas, which site would have the deepest

earthquakes?





E) Both 1 and 2

19) If an area has shallow, intermediate, and deep earthquakes, what can you infer about the

area?

A) It is near a subduction zone.

B) The shallow earthquakes will be closer to the trench than deeper ones.

C) The depth pattern of earthquakes can be used to determine which way the slab is inclined.

D) This area has the potential for large earthquakes.


20) Which of the following is true about where earthquakes occur?

A) Earthquakes are randomly distributed across most of Earth.

B) Earthquakes mostly occur away from plate boundaries.

C) Deep and intermediate-depth earthquakes occur near subduction zones.

D) Deep earthquakes are most common near rising mantle plumes.

21) Most earthquakes occur along

A) plate boundaries.

B) continental margins.

C) major rivers.

D) lines parallel with Earth's magnetic field.

22) Where do most earthquakes occur near mid-ocean ridges?

A) at great depths (more than 100 km)

B) along the axis of the ridge and on transform faults that connect ridge segments

C) in the asthenosphere where mantle undergoes decompression melting

D) on the boundary between the mantle and the oceanic crust


23) Most large earthquakes on subduction zones occur because of

A) warming of cold oceanic crust.

B) melting of cold oceanic crust.

C) melting of the mantle.

D) energy released in erupting volcanoes.

E) faulting along the plate boundary.

24) Which of the following is a major source of earthquakes associated with continental

collisions?

A) thrust faults

B) slip along the plate boundary

C) faulting in a wide area adjacent to the collision zone


25) In which of the following ways may earthquakes be generated within a continental plate?

A) intrusions of magma

B) continental rifting and normal faulting

C) transform faults

D) movement of preexisting faults subjected to new stress


26) Which of the following is a characteristic of P-waves?

A) They compress and then expand the rock in the direction the wave travels.

B) They are generated near the surface and only compress the rock as they travel.

C) They travel slower than other seismic waves.

D) They displace the rock back and forth in a direction that is perpendicular to their travel

direction.

E) They cannot be recorded on seismographs.

27) This diagram indicates that

A) S-waves are the first wave to arrive at station and then die out into P-waves.

B) S-waves are the last wave to arrive at the station.

C) P-waves arrive first, followed by S-waves.

D) surface waves arrive first, followed by S-waves and then P-waves.

E) surface waves cause the smallest vibrations.

28) What is NOT true about seismic waves?

A) Most seismic waves can be described as a series of repeating crests and troughs.

B) The material within the wave moves long distances along with the wave.

C) Some seismic waves travel on the surface and are called surface waves.

D) Some surface waves shuffle material side to side while others move material up and down.

E) Some seismic waves travel through the interior of Earth.

29) Which of the following is a characteristic of S-waves?

A) They cannot travel through liquids.

B) They shear rock from side to side or up and down.

C) They displace the rock in a direction that is perpendicular to their travel direction.


30) The time it takes for a complete wave to pass, is the

A) wave amplitude.

B) period.

C) wave height.

31) On this time-travel curve, if a large earthquake is 400 km away from the station, what can

you say about the arrivals of the P- and S-waves?

A) The P-waves will arrive 40 seconds before the S-waves.

B) The P-waves will arrive 400 seconds before the S-waves.

C) No S-waves will arrive at this distance from the earthquake.

D) None of these choices are correct.

32) Using this nomogram, what is the magnitude of an earthquake that is 500 km from a seismic

station and has an amplitude of 0.2 mm?

A) 2.0

B) 4.0

C) 6.0

D) 7.0

E) 10.2

33) The diagram below shows the record of one earthquake on seismograms at three different

stations in a seismic network. These three seismograms show:

A) ISCO station is closest to the earthquake.

B) WUAZ station was right at the earthquake.

C) DUG station is farthest from the earthquake.

D) WUAZ is the closest station, followed by DUG, and then ISCO.


34) The diagram below shows data from a single earthquake plotted on a diagram that shows the

mathematical relationship between distance, magnitude, and S-wave amplitude. What do these

data show?

A) The distance between stations WUAZ and DUG is 680 km.

B) Station ISCO is 22 km from the earthquake epicenter.

C) The local magnitude of the earthquake recorded by these three stations is 4.1 MI.

D) Station DUG was closest to the earthquake.

35) The Modified Mercalli Intensity rating map below shows intensity values that range from

more than X to less than III. What does this map show?

A) This earthquake had a Richter magnitude of 10 or 11 near the source.

B) This earthquake had a Richter magnitude of 3 or 6 along the East Coast.

C) The earthquake was not felt in southern Florida.

D) Shaking was felt only very near to the earthquake.

E) Building damage occurred in all of the zones that are shaded on this map.

36) How do we determine the location of a recent earthquake?

A) Measure the amplitude of surface waves in a single station.

B) Point video cameras at the landscape to record which way the surface moves.

C) Use seismic records from three or more stations.

D) Read old newspaper accounts of how the land moved.


37) If three seismic stations have the following P–S intervals: DUG = 57 sec, WUAZ = 73 sec,

ISCO = 14 sec, what is the order from closest station to the earthquake to the one farthest away?

A) ISCO-DUG-WUAZ

B) DUG-ISCO-WUAZ

C) WUAZ-DUG ISCO

D) ISCO-WUAZ-DUG

38) Which are true of "Richter" or "Local" magnitude calculations?

A) use maximum S-wave amplitude on a seismogram

B) use a nomograph to relate distance, magnitude, and amplitude

C) most commonly used

D) All of these are true.

39) Shaking during an earthquake can

A) liquefy unconsolidated sediments, causing destruction of buildings on top of them.

B) generate a tsunami.

C) trigger landslides.

D) cause rigid buildings to collapse.


40) The shaded areas on this map have significant earthquake risks because

A) the area is near an active plate boundary.

B) the area is over a subduction zone.

C) there are many active strike-slip faults.

D) stress generated on far-off plate boundaries can reactivate ancient faults.

41) The image indicates that

A) two major zones exist for earthquake risk in the eastern United States.

B) the risk for earthquakes in extreme southeast Missouri is very low.

C) the eastern United States is under no risk for earthquakes.

D) Florida has the highest risk for earthquakes along the east coast.

42) Sudden movement on a fault can cause a tsunami when

A) a hurricane or cyclone is occurring.

B) the fault suddenly uplifts or downdrops the seafloor.

C) hot water trapped below the seafloor is released.

D) a fault on land has a large displacement.


43) Landslides and volcanic eruptions can cause a tsunami by

A) causing ground shaking.

B) causing large winds and fast-moving pyroclastic flows.

C) causing a large mass of rock to catastrophically displace the water.

D) forming large gas bubbles under water.

E) heating up the water, causing it to expand.

44) Which of the following cannot cause a tsunami?

A) Faulting

B) An underwater landslide

C) A volcanic eruption

D) A strike-slip fault on land

E) All of these can cause a tsunami.

45) Which of the following is true about tsunamis?

A) In deep water they are slow enough that a boat can outrun them.

B) They form a high wall of water when still in deep water.

C) A tsunami can flood areas that are several kilometers inland.



46) On this map of South America and adjacent areas, which site would most likely generate a

tsunami?





47) Earthquakes, landslides, and volcanic eruptions that occur beneath the sea may generate a

large sea wave called a

A) tsunami.

B) tide.

C) P-wave.

D) rogue wave.

48) What feature suggests that this is a strike-slip fault rather than some other kind of fault?

A) the presence of a fault scarp

B) the soft appearance of the landscape

C) the horizontal offset of the drainage channel

D) differences in vegetation across the fault

E) the lack of human development

49) What features in the image help you identify the location of the fault?

A) Stream channel runs parallel with faults

B) Linear ridges and valley

C) Scarp


50) The cause of the P-wave shadow zone includes

A) P-waves are converted to S-waves, which cannot travel through the core.

B) some P-waves are refracted upward before they reach this zone.

C) some P-waves are refracted inward into the core, through which they cannot travel.

D) the P-waves travel curved paths and are prevented from reaching the core-mantle boundary.


Chapter 14

1) What is the origin of smooth troughs cutting across the landscape in the Great Lakes area?

A) The areas were covered by soft marine sediments.

B) A huge flood coming from Iowa flowed toward the Great Lakes.

C) Glaciers carved the smooth troughs.


2) What type of glacier is shown on the gently sloping land near the coastline?

A) tropical coast glacier

B) shoreline glacier

C) piedmont glacier

D) continental ice sheet

3) What happens on either side of the equilibrium line in a glacier?

A) Sublimation occurs only above the line and melting occurs only below the line.

B) Melting occurs only above the line and sublimation occurs only below the line.

C) Above the equilibrium line, the amount of accumulation exceeds the amount lost by various

processes.

D) Air temperatures are below freezing below the line and above freezing above the line.

4) What happens when a glacier encounters the sea or a lake?

A) The ice is more dense than water and so scrapes along the bottom.

B) White icebergs float but blue icebergs sink to the bottom.

C) Large blocks of ice collapse off the front of the glacier and become icebergs.

D) Rocks released from melted icebergs float on the water surface.


5) Which of the following is NOT a way glaciers move downhill?

A) The glacier can slide over bedrock.

B) A glacier can move by internal shear and flow.

C) The upper parts of glaciers can fracture.

D) The lower part of a glacier flows faster than the upper part.

6) What happens to snowflakes as they become progressively buried within glaciers?

A) They become less dense because of large amounts of trapped air.

B) They begin to melt as they are insulated from the cold air.

C) They become interlocking crystals of ice.

D) They can become brighter white because of trapped air.


7) Abrasion is distinguished from plucking in that abrasion is

A) a smooth scraping, while plucking is a more jagged gouging of the bedrock.

B) a jagged gouging, while plucking is a smooth scraping of the bedrock.

C) an erosional feature while plucking is a depositional feature.

D) a depositional feature while plucking is an erosional feature.

8) The feature in this photograph was formed by

A) plucking.

B) abrasion.

C) plucking on the left and abrasion on the right.

D) abrasion on the left and plucking on the right.

9) The feature in this photograph is a(n)

A) drumlin.

B) roche moutonnée.

C) esker.

D) kame.

10) Till is

A) sorted but not stratified.

B) stratified but not sorted.

C) sorted and stratified.

D) neither sorted nor stratified.

11) What carved this U-shaped valley?

A) a rapidly downcutting river

B) a slowly downcutting river

C) wind

D) glacier

12) Which feature on this diagram is a cirque?

A) 1, the circular depression at the head of the valley

B) 2, a lake in the upper valley

C) 3, a steep ridge

D) 4, a valley that is above the level of the main valley

13) Which feature on this diagram is an arête?



C) 3, a steep ridge


14) Which feature on this diagram is a hanging valley?



C) 3, a steep ridge


15) What is this bowl-shaped, glacially carved feature?

A) hanging valley

B) arête

C) cirque

D) continental ice sheet

16) Which of the features labeled on this figure is a kettle?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) E

17) Which of the features labeled on this figure is a drumlin?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) E

18) What does a terminal moraine represent?

A) the end of a polished and scratched segment of bedrock

B) the sharp ends of a jagged ridge formed by glaciers

C) the end of an ice sheet that is floating in the sea

D) a pile of sediment deposited at the end of the glacier

E) the final time that two glaciers come together

19) What is permafrost?

A) curly crystals of frost that form early in the morning

B) ice and snow that exist throughout the entire year

C) ice and snow that are permanently in motion

D) the upper part of the ground that remains frozen throughout the year

20) Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence left behind by glaciers?

A) scratched and polished bedrock

B) scattered stones (dropstones) in fine-grained sediment

C) changes in the isotopic compositions of marine shells

D) V-shaped valleys

E) All of these are evidence left behind by glaciers.

21) What happens to different isotopes of oxygen in this figure?

A) Evaporation concentrates lighter isotopes in the resulting water vapor.

B) Precipitation forms ice that is enriched in heavier isotopes relative to seawater.

C) Melting of ice preferentially releases heavier isotopes back into the ocean.


22) Today, which land area in the Northern Hemisphere is largely covered by an ice sheet?

A) Greenland

B) Europe

C) Asia

D) North America

23) The present-day tilt of Earth's axis of rotation is 23.5º. What would be the result of less tilt,

as shown here?

A) High latitudes would receive less direct sunlight during the summer, causing cooler

temperatures.

B) A decrease in glaciers.

C) More hours of sunlight on the equator, resulting in warmer global temperatures.


24) The present-day tilt of Earth's axis of rotation is 23.5º. What would be the result of more tilt,

as shown here?

A) High latitudes would receive less direct sunlight during the summer, causing cooler

temperatures.

B) a decrease in glaciers

C) a decrease in the effects of the seasons


25) How could changes in Earth's tilt influence global climate?

A) A high angle of tilt causes snow and ice to fall off the planet.

B) A minimum angle of tilt causes high latitudes to receive less sunlight during the summer,

causing an increase in glaciers.

C) A maximum angle of tilt causes Earth to reflect more sunlight into space, causing an increase

in glaciers.

D) A high angle of tilt causes the continents to move away from the poles leading to more

glaciers.

26) The amount of solar heating can increase from

A) a decrease in sunspot activity and energy output from the Sun.

B) a decrease in snow and ice cover on Earth's surface.

C) a decrease in the amount of greenhouse gases.

D) a huge volcanic eruption that adds ash and dust to the atmosphere.

27) Which site will most likely experience rapid erosion?

A) 1, cliffs composed of hard rocks

B) 2, sediments in a delta

C) 3, the seafloor deep beneath the waves

D) 4, the coastline of a bay

E) 5, the coastline in a branching embayment

28) Factors that affect the appearance of a shoreline include

A) the hardness of bedrock along the coast.

B) climate and vegetation.

C) whether sea level has risen or fallen relative to the coast.


29) The orientation of a coastline affects the appearance of a shoreline primarily because it

influences

A) the direction of prevailing winds.

B) which way river sediment enters the shoreline system.

C) the erosive effects of waves.

D) how much sun it receives.

30) How can climate influence the processes along coastal landscapes?

A) It controls the amount of precipitation, which affects the amount of erosion.

B) It affects the size and intensity of storms.

C) Wet climates result in more vegetation which may stabilize the soil.

D) Melting glaciers cause sea level to rise.


31) With the Moon in this position, which area will experience high tide?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 1 and 3

E) 2 and 4

32) With the Moon in this position, which area will experience low tide?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 1 and 3

E) 2 and 4

33) With the Sun and Moon in this position, what does the side of the Earth facing the moon

experience?

A) a normal high tide

B) a normal low tide

C) a spring tide

D) a neap tide

34) With the Sun and Moon in this position, what does the side of the Earth facing the moon

experience?

A) a normal high tide

B) a normal low tide

C) a spring tide

D) a neap tide

35) When will an area experience high tide?

A) in the early afternoon when water temperatures are highest

B) when there is a quarter moon in the sky

C) when the moon is directly overhead or on the opposite side of Earth

D) during a period of intense sunspot activity

36) What causes high and low tides?

A) The tendency for water on a spinning globe to be thrown outward.

B) Daily heating and cooling of the seas, which causes seawater to contract and expand.

C) A rise in sea level during the day because of an increase in storms.

D) Water is pulled by the gravity of the Moon.


37) There are two high tides and two low tides in each 25-hour period because

A) Earth orbits around the Sun in a little over 24 hours.

B) the Moon orbits Earth in 25 hours.

C) Earth completes a full rotation every 24 hours but the Moon moves too.

D) heating and cooling of the seas twice each day.

38) If waves approach the shore at an angle they

A) die out before they reach the shore.

B) begin to break in water depths deeper than the wave base.

C) bend so they approach the shore more directly.

D) do none of these because waves do not approach the shore at an angle.

39) High tides are higher than average and low tides are lower than average when

A) the Moon and the Sun are aligned relative to the Earth.

B) it is a full moon.

C) it is a new moon.


40) Which dashed line in this figure would be the wave base?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 1 and 2

E) 2 and 3

41) How deep would the effects of this wave likely reach?

A) Only on the surface

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) Much deeper than 3

42) What is the depth of wave base?

A) the depth to which wave action extends

B) a depth equal to three times the wavelength of waves

C) the process by which waves move material along the bottom in very deep water

D) the inside of a tubular breaking wave that is perfect for surfing


43) Which of the following is true about how waves form and break upon the shore?

A) Most waves form from upwelling of deep waters.

B) Waves get smaller as wind speed increases.

C) Waves begin to change when they reach water shallower than wave base.

D) Waves break in a counterclockwise direction because of rotation of the Earth.


44) How do waves propagate across the water?

A) The wave moves forward but water moves in a circular motion.

B) Water near the surface moves less than water at depth.

C) Water within the wave travels as far as the wave does.


45) Which of the following can influence whether a shoreline gains or loses sand with time?

A) the amount of precipitation on land

B) the amount of sediment in rivers

C) a longshore current

D) prevailing wind direction


46) Which of the following is NOT a possible source of large stones along a shoreline?

A) Waves swirl away loose pieces of bedrock.

B) Undercutting by waves causes steep rock faces to collapse into the sea.

C) Some rivers can deposit large cobbles near the shoreline.

D) Large storms erode the deep seafloor and transport the rocks toward the beach.

47) Sand and other sediment

A) can move laterally along the coast if waves approach the beach at an angle.

B) only move up and down the slope of the beach.

C) can slump downward if the sea bottom has too gentle a slope.

D) are moved by the wind if the material is coarser than sand.


48) How is sand moving (overall) in the diagram of the beach?

A) laterally to the right

B) laterally to the left

C) offshore toward the sea

D) constantly toward the shore

49) Which way is the current moving along this coastline?

A) out to sea

B) in toward the coast

C) from right to left

D) from left to right

50) How did the sea cave in this feature form?

A) erosion of a promontory by waves

B) erosion by blowing beach sand

C) removal of rocks by giant lobsters

D) a rapid drop in sea level

51) What features are shown in this photograph?

A) coral reefs

B) karst topography

C) pinnacles and sea stacks

D) sea caves


Chapter 17

1) Which of these numbered features contains most of Earth's water?

A) 1. oceans

B) 2. atmosphere

C) 3. glaciers and ice sheets

D) 4. groundwater

E) 5. lakes

2) Which of these numbered features contains most of Earth's freshwater?

A) 1. oceans

B) 2. atmosphere

C) 3. glaciers and ice sheets

D) 4. groundwater

E) 5. lakes

3) Which of the following settings contains the least amount of water?

A) oceans

B) lakes

C) groundwater

D) ice caps and glaciers

E) atmosphere

4) In which areas on the accompanying figure is condensation occurring?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 and 3

E) 2 and 4

5) Which of the following is a correctly described part of the hydrologic cycle?

A) Raindrops form through the process of evaporation.

B) Precipitation refers to minerals coating sand grains with natural cement.

C) Most groundwater forms when water on the surface infiltrates into the ground.

D) Movement of water is restricted to rainfall and rivers.


6) Which of the following units cannot be used to measure the volume of water?

A) gallon

B) cubic meter

C) acre

D) liter

7) Which source of drinking water is most likely to be pure and safe to drink?

A) spring water

B) bottled spring water

C) river water

D) municipal water

8) Which of the following energy sources drives the hydrologic cycle?

A) internal heat energy

B) river flow

C) wind energy

D) solar energy

E) gravity

9) Which of the following factors least influences infiltration capacity?

A) slope of the land

B) nature of the vegetative cover

C) rainfall intensity

D) prior wetted condition of the soil

E) ambient temperature

10) Which of the following statements correctly describes the production of water on Earth?

A) Most of Earth's water originated during the planet's formation and from comets.

B) Earth processes are continually creating and destroying water.

C) The amount of water on Earth has been increasing rapidly over the past 1,000 years.

11) Which of the following contributes water to a stream?

A) direct precipitation

B) groundwater

C) snowmelt

D) All of these contribute water to a stream.

12) Which two uses consume most freshwater in the United States?

A) drinking water and showering

B) mining and raising livestock

C) irrigation and drinking water

D) mining and industrial use

E) thermoelectric power and irrigation

13) Most groundwater pumped in the United States is used for

A) industry.

B) irrigation.

C) drinking water.

D) swimming pools.

14) Which one of the following statements is true regarding the Earth's supply of freshwater?

A) The largest volume exists in lakes and reservoirs.

B) There is more in the form of water vapor in the atmosphere than there is as liquid

groundwater.

C) There is more freshwater in glaciers and ice sheets than exists as groundwater.

D) There is more water in rivers than exists as soil moisture and groundwater.

15) The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency establishes drinking water standards to

A) determine how much water each state can use on a yearly basis.

B) set a safe limit on the concentration of select contaminants in groundwater.

C) control the bottled drinking water industry.

16) Which of the following is a valid statement with relevance to groundwater?

A) In most sediments, adjacent grains fit tightly together.

B) Fractures are the main way groundwater moves through some rocks, such as granite.

C) Most groundwater occurs in caves and underground lakes.


17) What is the main way groundwater accumulates?

A) Seawater in the oceans loses its salt via the process of saltation.

B) Magma releases water as part of the hydrologic cycle.

C) Precipitation and surface water infiltrate through the upper layers of soil.

D) Plants release water and carbon dioxide through their roots.

18) Which of the following materials probably has the highest porosity?

A) dry, uncompacted clay particles

B) granite with few fractures but very large crystals

C) a limestone that has a few percent open cavities

D) poorly sorted sediment

19) Which of the following materials probably has the highest porosity?

A) poorly sorted sediment

B) sediment composed only of rounded cobbles that rest directly on one another

C) a mixture of sand, silt, and clay

D) a coarse-grained granite

20) Which of the following materials probably has the lowest porosity?

A) well sorted, fine-grained sediment

B) well sorted, coarse-grained sediment

C) unfractured granite

D) sand with well-rounded grains

21) Which of the following materials probably has the highest permeability?

A) highly fractured granite

B) compacted clays with moderate porosity

C) highly porous volcanic rock with holes that are isolated from one another

D) granite with sparse fractures that are filled with insoluble material

22) Which of the following materials probably has the lowest permeability?

A) highly fractured granite

B) compacted clay with abundant tiny pore spaces

C) loosely cemented, well-sorted sediment

D) loosely cemented, well-rounded sand grains

23) What is a possible way to decrease permeability?

A) Fracture a rock.

B) Compact sediment.

C) Have groundwater dissolve cement between the grains.



24) Which of the following materials has high porosity and high permeability?

A) unfractured granite

B) well-sorted gravel

C) compacted clay

D) uncompacted clay

E) poorly sorted sand, silt, and clay

25) In a material that holds groundwater, porosity

A) controls the amount of water that can be stored.

B) determines the composition of the cement between grains and clasts.

C) does not depend on the size and shape of grains and clasts.

D) is constant from one type of material to another.

26) Which of the following is NOT true about the water table?

A) The water table is right at the land surface in swamps.

B) The water table is generally horizontal.

C) The water table is above the land surface in lakes.

D) Overpumping can change the slope of the water table.

27) What is a main way surface waters become groundwater?

A) Water in the unsaturated zone evaporates.

B) Water flows through the unsaturated zone and into the saturated zone.

C) Water flows from the saturated zone and into the unsaturated zone.

D) Water flows from the water table through the unsaturated zone.


28) What is the nature of the water table?

A) It is the boundary between the saturated zone and unsaturated zone.

B) Below the water table, water fills pore spaces and can flow.

C) Infiltrating water generally passes through the water table to become groundwater.


29) Which of the following is NOT true about the unsaturated zone?

A) Pore spaces in the unsaturated zone contain air with no water.

B) It overlies the water table.

C) It overlies the saturated zone.

D) There is an unsaturated zone below some rivers.

30) What is a possible way to increase permeability?

A) Fracture the rock.

B) Fill the pores with a natural cement.

C) Compact a clay so that the particles are aligned.


31) Which of the following materials has low porosity and low permeability?

A) unfractured granite

B) uncompacted clays

C) limestone with caverns

D) well-sorted sand

32) Which of the following materials would best to drill into for a good supply of groundwater?

A) shale

B) salt

C) sand and gravel

D) granite


33) Approximately how fast does groundwater move beneath the surface of the Earth?

A) a few centimeters per day

B) a few meters per day

C) a few kilometers per day

D) a few kilometers per hour

34) Groundwater velocity (the rate of movement of ground water) is most strongly influenced by

which of the following factors?

A) local climate and humidity

B) depth to the water table

C) presence of wells

D) the slope (gradient) of the water table

35) Which of the following is NOT true about groundwater flow?

A) In some igneous groundwater reservoirs, flow is determined by the orientation of fractures.

B) Excess pumping from wells can cause subsidence and reduction of porosity.

C) A decrease in the gradient (slope of the water table) increases the velocity.

D) Water moves from areas where the water table is highest to areas where it is lowest.

36) The water table is the

A) top of the zone of saturation.

B) bottom of the zone of saturation.

C) zone of saturation.

37) The part of the subsurface where most of the pore spaces are filled with air is the

A) unsaturated zone.

B) saturated zone.

C) aquifer.

38) Each number on this figure refers to a location with groundwater in a subsurface material

that is consistent in character across the entire figure. Of these locations, which would likely

have the fastest groundwater flow?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5


that is consistent in character across the entire figure. Of these locations, which one has the water

table most clearly above the surface?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5


that is consistent in character across the entire figure. Of these locations, which would likely

have the slowest groundwater flow?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 4 and 5

E) 1 and 5


that is consistent in character across the entire figure. Of these locations, which two sites are on

the opposite side of a groundwater divide?

A) between 1 and 2

B) between 2 and 3

C) between 3 and 4

D) between 4 and 5


42) Which of the following is true about the water table?

A) The water table has a similar shape to topography but is more subdued.

B) The water table is highest in elevation beneath lakes.

C) In any area, the water table slopes a consistent amount and direction.



43) Which of the following would NOT be a preferred characteristic of a good aquifer?

A) high permeability

B) high porosity

C) unsaturated pores


44) Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a confined aquifer?

A) perched water table

B) lake

C) artesian well

D) unsaturated zone

45) Which of the following aquifers require a low permeability zone above it or below it?

A) artesian aquifer

B) perched aquifer

C) confined aquifer


46) Which of the following controls the rate of groundwater flow?

A) the slope of the water table

B) the permeability of the rocks

C) how fractured the rocks are


47) The permeability of a material refers to

A) the volume of air space in a material.

B) a meandering stream's movement across the underlying bedrock.

C) the ease with which a stream erodes material.

D) the ability of water to flow through a material.

48) Which of the following combinations make for the best groundwater reservoir?

A) low permeability and low porosity

B) low permeability and high porosity

C) high permeability and low porosity

D) high permeability and high porosity

49) This cross section shows the location of a septic tank with harmful bacteria and 5 wells.

Which well is least likely to become contaminated?

A) Well A

B) Well B

C) Well C

D) Well D

E) Well E

50) Which sequence of rocks in the associated figures could result in a confined aquifer (L = low

permeability and H = high permeability)?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

51) Under what conditions is it possible for a material to have both high porosity and low

permeability?

A) It is not possible to have both high porosity and low permeability.

B) It is possible only if the rock is a sandstone.

C) It is possible only if the rock is a granite.

D) It is possible if the void spaces are very small or are not well connected.

52) Which of the following statements about porosity is NOT valid?

A) The amount of water that can be stored depends on the porosity.

B) Porosity partly depends on size and shape of grains and clasts.

C) Better sorted sediments have more porosity than unsorted ones.

D) Fractures may be the only real porosity in some igneous rocks.

E) All of these are valid

53) This cross section shows the location of 5 wells and the water table. Which well is most

likely to be an artesian well?

A) Well A

B) Well B

C) Well C

D) Well D

E) Well E

54) The shape of a water table is determined by the topography of the surface of the land above

it. The high part of a water table separating parts sloping in opposite directions is called the

A) groundwater divide.

B) aquifer.

C) hydraulic gradient.

55) The slope of a water table is also called the

A) hydraulic gradient.

B) groundwater divide.

C) aquifer divide.

D) groundwater gradient.

56) The term for groundwater that is confined and rises in a well because it is under pressure is

A) artesian.



57) A large body of permeable, saturated material through which groundwater can flow well

enough to yield sufficient water to wells and springs is a(n)

A) aquifer.



D) aquitard.

58) The permeability of a rock layer on which perched water sits is

A) very low.

B) very high.

C) equal to the hydraulic gradient.

59) Of these four lakes, which ones are above the water table?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 and 4


60) In which of these four lakes is the water table above the land surface?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 and 4


61) Which of these four lakes could be replenished by groundwater?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 and 4


62) Which of these four lakes could only exist if they if they received water from precipitation or

runoff from the land?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 and 4

E) 2 and 4

63) How would this stream interact with groundwater?

A) Groundwater would flow into the stream, adding water.

B) The stream would lose water as water in the stream flows sideways and up.

C) The groundwater and stream water would not interact.

D) The stream will only contain water if it is raining at that time.

64) How would this stream interact with groundwater?

A) Groundwater would flow sideways into the stream, adding water.

B) Groundwater would flow upward, adding water to the stream.

C) The stream would lose water to the groundwater.

D) The groundwater and stream water would not interact.

65) Which of the following is a common setting for a spring?

A) a limestone aquifer that intersects the surface

B) a permeable upper layer with a water table deep below the surface

C) a nonpermeable upper layer with a water table deep below the surface

D) an unconfined aquifer with a water table deep below the surface

66) Which of the following is a common setting for a spring?

A) The water table intersects the surface.

B) A permeable rock overlies a less permeable one.

C) Sedimentary rocks overlie crystalline rocks along an unconformity.



67) Where on this cross section would water at the surface infiltrate to become groundwater?

A) 1, 2, and 3

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 4

D) 2 only

E) 4 only

68) Where on this cross section would groundwater most likely flow out to the surface?

A) 1, 2, and 3

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 4

D) 2 only

E) 4 only

69) Which of the following is true about how a lake can relate to the water table?

A) A lake that is above the water table may lose water to groundwater.

B) The water table intersects, or is higher than, the surface in many lakes.

C) A lake can gain water if it is lower than the water table in areas adjacent to the lake.


70) Which of the sites on this cross section would be the most likely place for a spring?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

71) A spring is a place where water flows naturally from rock

A) onto the land surface.

B) into a cave.

C) farther underground.

72) How are springs affected by faulting?

A) Faults provide a permeable pathway for groundwater movement to the surface.

B) Faults stop the flow of groundwater to the surface, as they usually form an impermeable layer.

C) Faults and springs are rarely found in the same geologic location.

73) This map shows elevations of the water table beneath an area. The water table slopes toward

the

A) south.

B) north.

C) northeast.

D) northwest.

74) This map shows elevations of the water table beneath an area. Which of the following maps

is the correct contour map for the water table elevations shown?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

75) Using the diagram below, if you were a geologist looking for water, which area would you

drill an exploratory well into?

A) Permeable sands

B) Granite

C) Impermeable clay

76) Using the figure shown of a contour map of groundwater locations, determine the general

direction of the groundwater flow.

A) South

B) North

C) East

D) West

77) The arrows drawn perpendicularly to the contour lines on the contour map shown indicate

the direction of the groundwater flow. In this example the groundwater is

A) flowing down the slope of the water table from higher contours to lower ones.

B) flowing up the slope of the water table from lower contours to higher contours.

C) flowing parallel to the slope of the water table from lower contours to higher contours.

78) How did this cone of depression in the groundwater form?

A) An artesian spring flowed upward on all sides.

B) The earth's rotation causes groundwater to twirl in a counter-clockwise direction.

C) Groundwater is pumped from the well faster than it can flow to replenish what is lost.

D) Clay horizons cause perched water to flow away from a central point.

79) Which of the following cannot be caused by overpumping of ground water?

A) a cone of depression

B) subsidence and compaction of the aquifer

C) a change in the direction of groundwater flow

D) bringing contamination into previously uncontained wells

E) All of these are possible consequences of overpumping.

80) This figure shows a new well that will pump out groundwater faster than it can be replaced.

What will the water table look like after pumping?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

81) The area shown on this cross section will experience subsidence from groundwater

withdrawal. Which of the following statements is likely to be true about the subsidence?

A) The amount of subsidence will be constant across the area.

B) The aquifer will regain its porosity once the water is replaced.

C) The subsidence can be reversed (undone) by pumping in saltwater.


82) What is a possible consequence of overpumping of groundwater?

A) inflation of the aquifer due to an increase in porosity

B) flooding due to rising groundwater levels

C) along the coast, pulling saltwater into wells that were previously fresh


83) What could happen if this well is overpumped?

A) It will run out of water and become a dry well.

B) It will yield more water over time.

C) The water table will drop, causing sand to flow into the well.

D) The bottom of the lens of fresh water will rise, causing the well to draw in salt water.

84) This map shows contours of the water table, the location of four factories (labeled A, B, C,

and D), and contaminated and uncontaminated wells. Which way will the contamination flow?

A) north and northeast, up the contours

B) south and southwest, down the contours

C) northwest and southeast, parallel to the contours

D) Impossible to tell because the movement of contamination is independent of groundwater.

85) This map shows contours of the water table, the location of four factories (labeled A, B, C,

and D), and contaminated (x) and uncontaminated wells (–). Which factory contaminated the

groundwater?

A) Factory A

B) Factory B

C) Factory C

D) Factory D

b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 2) which of the numbered features on this

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