by ca rahul kumar
TRANSCRIPT
Current Economics MCQs (Jan
2019 to Feb 20) + Eco Survey 2020
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by CA Rahul Kumar
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350+ Current Economy MCQs for Prelims 2020
WITH
Answers & explanations to
WITH ORIGINAL SOURCE LINKS
By CA Rahul Kumar
Period : Jan 2019 to Feb. 2020 + Economic Survey
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4) March, April & May 2020 Current MCQs will be uploaded on
our telegram channel
Sources –
1) The Hindu and Indian Express
2) P.I.B.
3) Economic Survey (latest 2)
4) Budget 2020 (latest 2)
5) NITI Aayog Strategy document
6) Yojna monthly
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INDEX
Sn.
No.
Name of the Topic (No of MCQs) Page No
1. National Income (21) 3
2. Money and Banking (31) 13
3. External Sector including International Institutions (37) 28
4. Money and Capital Markets +NBFC (19) 41
5. Public Finance (7) 48
6. Taxation 52
7. Inflation (4) 60
8. Unemployment and Poverty (25) 63
9. Population and Demography (1) 71
10. International Institution (27) 71
11. Industry (37) 80
12. Agriculture (39) 90
13. Infrastructure (14) 103
14. Social Sector (14) 107
15. Service Sector (4) 111
16. Sustainable Development (22) 113
17. Government Schemes (27) 120
18. Miscellaneous (12) 129
Note – Questions given in blue font are from Economic Survey 2019-20
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NATIONAL INCOME
Q1. Consider following statements:
1. The Fifth Economic Census (5th EC) is being conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MoSPI) in 2019.
2. Economic Census is the complete count of all establishment located within the geographical
boundary of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp:
Economic Census-2019
The Seventh Economic Census (7th EC) is being conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MoSPI) in 2019. In the current Economic Census, MoSPI has partnered with CSC
e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle under the Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology as the implementing agency for 7th EC. In the 7th EC, an IT based
digital platform for data capture, validation, report generation and dissemination will be used. The
fieldwork for the 7th EC is likely to commence by the end of June 2019 or next month. The results
of the exercise will be made available after verification and validation of the field work.
About Economic Census
Economic Census will cover all establishments including household enterprises, engaged in
production or distribution of goods/services (other than for the sole purpose of own consumption) in
non-farm agricultural and non-agricultural sector will be counted. The coverage is same as the one in
6th Economic Census, conducted in 2013.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573472
Q2. The goal to make India a 5 trillion-dollar economy is to be achieved by?
(a) 2022
(b) 2024
(c) 2020
(d)2030
Ans: b
Exp: “The goal to make India a $5 trillion economy by 2024 is challenging, but can surely be
achieved,” said PM, according to an official statement. For this, the States should recognise their core
competence and aim to increase their economy by 2 to 2.5 times, working towards raising GDP targets
right from the district level, he said. He added that the common man’s purchasing power would
increase as a result. He urged the States to focus on their potential to grow exports.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-wants-states-to-put-in-concerted-efforts-in-growth-
endeavour/article27949885.ece
Q3. Consider the following statements about the Indian Economy -
1. India’s GDP growth has steadily increased from 2017.
2. India is the fifth largest economy in terms of GDP.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
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c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Ans: b
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
The deceleration in India’s GDP growth since 2017 has tracked the decline in world output.
Q4.World Economic Outlook is published by
a. OECD
b. World Bank
c. IMF
d. UNCTAD
Ans: c
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
Q5.Consider the following statements
1. On the supply side, the deceleration in GDP growth has been contributed generally by all
sectors.
2. On the demand side, the deceleration in GDP growth was caused by a decline in the growth
of real fixed investment.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Ans: b
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
On the supply side, the deceleration in GDP growth has been contributed generally by all sectors save
‘Agriculture and allied activities’ and ‘Public administration, defence, and other services’.
Q6.Consider the following statements
1. The length of India's business cycle is about 13 quarters.
2. The last recorded low growth was in Q2 of 2019-20
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Ans: c
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
(INFLATION CHAPTER)
Q7. Consider the following statements :
1. There has been an uptick in headline inflation.
2. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation has increased sharply.
Select the correct code
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a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Ans: d
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
WPI declined sharply from 3.2% in April 2019 to 2.6% in December 2019
(UNEMPLOYMENT CHAPTER)
Q8.Consider the following statements :
1. There has been a decrease in the share of formal employment.
2. In urban regions, there has been a shift of employment from salaried jobs to self- employed.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Ans: d
Exp: Reference Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
As per the latest available data on employment, there has been an increase in the share of formal
employment, as captured by ‘Regular wage/salaried’, from 17.9 per cent in 2011-12 to 22.8 per cent
in 2017-18.
In urban region, there has been a shift of employment from self- employed to salaried jobs
(MONEY BANKING CHAPTER)
Q9.Consider the following statements
1. The stance of the Monetary Policy Committee of the Reserve Bank of India was
accommodative.
2. The transmission of policy rates has been stagnant across different market segments.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Ans: a
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
The stance of the Monetary Policy Committee of Reserve Bank of India continued to be
accommodative as it reduced the policy repo rate by 135 basis points since February 2019.
The transmission has varied across different market segments
Q10. Which of the following statements are true about GVA contribution
(i) Share of agriculture and allied sectors in the total GVA of the country has declined.
(ii) The contribution of industrial activities to GVA has increased.
(iii)The contribution of the services sector to GVA has moved ahead faster.
Select the correct code
a. (i), (ii, (iii)
b. (i), (iii) only
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c. (ii), (iii) only
d. All the above
Ans: b
Exp: Reference- Economic Survey 2019-2020 (Vol 2) crux by CA Rahul Kumar
Share of agriculture and allied sectors in the total GVA of the country has declined from 2009-14 to
2014-19 mainly on account of relatively higher growth performance of tertiary sectors.
The contribution of industrial activities to GVA has also declined from 2009-14 to 2014-19.
Services sector has moved ahead faster, distancing itself further from agriculture and industry.
(PUBLIC FINANCE CHAPTER)
Q11. Consider the following statements
1. Highest component in the composition of government expenditure is the expenditure on
defence services, salaries, pensions, interest payments and major subsidies.
2. The share of capital expenditure in total expenditure is envisaged to decline
Which of the following statements are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The composition of government expenditure in the last few years reveals that expenditure on
defence services, salaries, pensions, interest payments and major subsidies account for more than
sixty per cent of total expenditure.
Share of capital expenditure in total expenditure is envisaged to decline roughly by a percentage point
in 2019-20 BE over 2018-19 PA.
(PUBLIC FINANCE CHAPTER)
Q12. Which among the following statements is not true?
a. Revenue receipts have grown at a much higher pace during the current financial year.
b. There is low growth in Net Tax revenue.
c. Capital expenditure has grown at roughly three times compared to the last financial year.
d. There has been an increase in the fiscal deficit of the Central Government compared to last
year.
Ans: d
Exp: The Fiscal Deficit is 12.7 % for April-November 2019-2020 against 17.1 % for April-November
2018-2019
(PUBLIC FINANCE CHAPTER)
Q13. Consider the following statements
1. Out of the total liabilities of the Central Government. 90% of it is public debt.
2. The total liabilities of the Central Government, as a ratio of GDP, has been consistently
declining.
Which of the following statements are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans; c
Exp: Total liabilities of the Central Government at end March 2019 stood at `84.7 lakh crore and 90
per cent of which was public debt.
Total liabilities of the Central Government, as a ratio of GDP, has been consistently declining,
particularly after the enactment of the FRBM Act, 2003.
(PUBLIC FINANCE CHAPTER)
Q14. Consider the following statements
1. The fiscal deficit of the General Government is expected to decline in 2019-20.
2. The combined liabilities of Centre and States have also decreased in 2019.
Which of the following statements are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: The combined liabilities of Centre and States have increased to 69.8 per cent of GDP as on end-
March 2019 (RE) from 68.5 per cent of GDP as on end-March 2016.
(INDUSTRY CHAPTER)
Q32.Consider the following statements
1. As per industry-wise distribution of recognized startups, IT Services accounted for the highest
percent of startups.
2. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Delhi are the top three performers in terms of State-wise
distribution of recognized startups in India.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Maharashtra, Karnataka and Delhi are the top three performers in terms of State-wise
distribution of recognized startups in India (Figure 7). As per industry-wise distribution of recognized
startups, IT Services accounted for 13.9 per cent followed by Healthcare and Life Sciences (8.3 per
cent) and education (7.0 per cent)
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
(EXTERNAL CHAPTER)
Q33. Consider the following statements
1. During 2019-20, total FDI Equity inflows were higher than 2018-19.
2. 80% of FDI Equity inflows came from Singapore, Mauritius, Netherlands, USA and Japan.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
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Exp: During 2019- 20 (up to September, 2019), total FDI Equity inflows were US$26.10 billion as
compared to US$22.66 billion during 2018-19 (up to September, 2019). Out of FDI Equity inflows
of US$26.10 billion during 2019-20 (up to September, 2019), nearly 80 per cent have come mainly
from Singapore, Mauritius, Netherlands, USA and Japan.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q34. Consider the following statements
1. India stood at third position in the production of crude steel.
2. It is also the largest consumer of finished steel.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : d
Exp: India stood at second position in the production of crude steel (Figure 9). It is also the third
largest consumer of the finished steel after China and USA.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q35. Consider the following statements
1. Textile sector is the biggest employer after agriculture.
2. Exports of textile have increased in 2018-19 compared to 2017-18.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Textiles contributed 18.0 per cent of manufacturing and 2.0 per cent of GDP in 2017-18. The
share of textiles and clothing in India’s total exports was 12 per cent in 2018- 19. The sector is the
biggest employer after agriculture and it employs 4.5 crore people directly and 6 crore people in allied
sectors.
Exports of textile and clothing products including handicrafts from India have increased to US$40.4
billion in 2018-19 from US$ 39.2 billion in 2017-18 registering a growth of 3 per cent.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q36. Consider the following statements
1. India is now the global leader in monthly data consumption.
2. India is the largest energy consumer in the world.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Total broadband connections increased by about ten times, from 610 lakh in 2014 to 5,946 lakh
in June 2019. This has accelerated the growth in internet traffic, with data usage touching the highest
ever level of 462 lakh terabytes in the year 2018. India is now the global leader in monthly data
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consumption, with average consumption per subscriber per month increasing 157 times from 62 MB
in 2014 to 9.8 GB in June 2019.
India is the third largest energy consumer in the world after USA and China
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
(MONEY BANKING CHAPTER)
Q15. Consider following statements:
1. Out of the six Members of Monetary Policy Committee, three Members will be from the RBI and
the other three Members of MPC will be appointed by the Central Government.
2. The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall hold
office for a period of two years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Out of the six Members of Monetary Policy Committee, three Members will be from the RBI
and the other three Members of MPC will be appointed by the Central Government. The Members of
the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall hold office for a period
of four years.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/growth-prop/article26207118.ece
Q16. Consider the following:
1. India’s GDP in nominal terms is higher than its GDP in purchasing power parity (PPP) terms.
2. The economy of India is a developing mixed economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The economy of India is a developing mixed economy. It is the world’s seventh-largest
economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP). The country ranks
139th in per capita GDP (nominal) with $2,134 and 122nd in per capita GDP (PPP) with $7,783 as
of 2018. After the 1991 economic liberalisation, India achieved 6-7% average GDP growth annually.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp- business/industrial-growth-declines-to-20-month-low-
inflation-up/article26826066.ece
Q17. Consider the following statements:-
1. India currently spends 2.5 per cent of the GDP on health.
2. United States currently spends about 8.5% of its GDP on health.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
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Ans: d
Exp: India currently spends 1.15 per cent of the GDP on health.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/moving-away-from-1/article26074736.ece
US spends around 17% of its GDP on health
https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SH.XPD.CHEX.GD.ZS?locations=US
https://www.cms.gov/Research-Statistics-Data-and-Systems/Statistics-Trends-and-
Reports/NationalHealthExpendData/NationalHealthAccountsHistorical
(PUBLIC FINANCE CHAPTER)
Q18. Which of the following is/are included in Public Debt of India:-
1. Small savings
2. Provident funds
3. External debt
4. Treasury bills
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: c
Exp: In India, public debt refers to a part of the total borrowings by the Union Government which
includes such items as market loans, special bearer bonds, treasury bills and special loans and
securities issued by the Reserve Bank. It also includes the outstanding external debt.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/centres-debt-to-gdp-falls-states-
rises/article26065459.ece
Q19. Consider the following statements:-
1. The Chinese Economy is half of the US Economy in terms of nominal GDP 2018-19.
2. The Indian Economy is one third of the Chinese Economy in terms of nominal GDP 2018-19.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: c
Exp: The U.S. economy is still the largest in the world with a nominal GDP forecast to exceed USD
21 trillion in 2019. China jumped up to second place with a nominal GDP of USD 9.2 trillion. India
is projected to overtake both the UK by 2020 to become the fifth largest economy in the world with
a nominal GDP of USD 2.9 trillion having overtaken the French economy in 2018.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/shape-of-the-slowdown/article26030889.ece
(MONEY BANKING)
Q20. Consider the following statements:-
1. The Monetary Policy Committee of India is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in
India.
2. The committee is answerable to the RBI Governor if the inflation exceeds the range prescribed for
three consecutive months.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: a
Exp: The committee is answerable to the Government of India if the inflation exceeds the range
prescribed for three consecutive months.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/rbi-on-the-horns-of-a-
dilemma/article26046029.ece
Q21. Consider the following Statements-
1. The average growth of the Indian economy between 2014-15 and 2017-18 was 7.3%.
2. Indian economy is projected to be the fastest-growing major economy in 2018-19 and 2019-20 as
per IMF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither1nor2
Ans: c
Exp: The average growth of the economy between 2014-15 and 2017-18 was 7.3%, the fastest among
major economies in the world, the Ministry said in its Year End Review 2018.“Indian economy is
projected to be the fastest-growing major economy in 2018-19 and 2019-20 [International Monetary
Fund October 2018 database]. This is borne [out] by GDP growth of 7.6% in the first half of 2018-
19,” it said.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/economy-on-track-to-maintain-high-growth-
rate/article25894488.ece
22. Which of the following defines the virtuous cycle of growth ?
a. Increase fixed investment -> accelerates GDP growth -> higher growth in consumption
b. Increase fixed investment -> higher growth in consumption -> accelerates GDP growth
c. Accelerates GDP growth -> Increase fixed investment -> higher growth in consumption
d. Higher growth in consumption ->Increase fixed investment- > accelerates GDP growth
Ans : a
Q31. Ease of Doing Business Report is published by
a. World Bank
b. UNCTAD
c. IMF
d. WTO
Ans: a
Q37. Energy Transition Index is published by
a. EIU
b. UNICEF
c. World Bank
d. World Economic Forum
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Ans: d
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MONEY AND BANKING
Q1. CDR, SDR, S4A, JLF terms recently seen in news are related to
(a) Chandrayaan Mission
(b) Mission Shakti
(c) Restructure of defaulted loans
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
Exp: Restructuring schemes such as CDR, SDR, S4A and the JLF.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/debt-recovery-back-to-square-one-for-
rbi/article26923809.ece
Q2. Consider following statements:
1. RBI is profit making agency by managing borrowings.
2. Reserve Bank of India has transferred an interim surplus of rupees 28,000 crore to the Centre.
3. This is first time such transfer has taken place from RBI to centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: RBI is profit making agency by managing borrowings. Reserve Bank of India has transferred
an interim surplus of rupees 28,000 crore to the Centre. This is second time such transfer has taken
place from RBI to centre.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/centre-must-not-look-upon-the-reserve-bank-as-a-cash-
cow/article26621480.ece
Q3. PCA framework gets triggered when a bank breaches which of the following?
1. Crossing 6% net NPA
2. Return on Assets (ROA) less than 0.25%
3. CRAR less than 9%, but equal or more than 6%
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b (crossing 10% net NPA)
Exp: The trigger points along with structured and discretionary actions that could be taken by the
Reserve Bank are described below:
1. CRAR
(i) CRAR less than 9%, but equal or more than 6%
(ii) CRAR less than 6%, but equal or more than 3%
(iii) CRAR less than 3%
2. Net NPAs
(i) Net NPAs over 10% but less than 15%
(ii) Net NPAs 15% and above point, bank’s Board is called for discussion on corrective plan of action.
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3. ROA less than 0.25%
https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-takes-3-banks-off-prompt-corrective-action-
framework/article26379149.ece
Q4. The benchmark rates for Treasury Bills is announced by
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL)
Ans: d
Exp: Banks had four options from which to choose the external benchmark: the repo rate, the 91-day
treasury bill, the 182-day T-bill or any other benchmark interest rate produced by the Financial
Benchmarks India Private Ltd (FBIL).
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/repo-rate/article26367801.ece
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Bank Boards Bureau (BBB):
1. It helps Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
2. It appoints the heads of public sector banks and other financial Institutions
3. All the Members and Chairman of BBB are part time appointment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: With a view to improve the governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs), the Government of
India has set up an autonomous Banks Board Bureau (BBB). The Bureau will recommend for
selection of heads - Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions and help banks in developing
strategies and capital raising plans. It will also advise banks how to go ahead with mergers and
acquisitions. Banks Board Bureau has three ex-officio members and three expert members in addition
to Chairman. All the Members and Chairman will be part time. The appointments have been made
for a period of two years.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/bbb-identifies-75-senior-officers-for-
leadership-roles-in-psbs/article26884969.ece
Q6. Which of the following clearly explains the term ‘haircuts’ in the banking system?
(a) It is the difference between loan amount and actual value of the asset used as the collateral.
(b) It is the difference between the actual dues from the borrower and the amount she/he settles with
the bank.
(c) It is the difference between the total interest of the loan and the subvention provided by the
Government.
(d) Both statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context.
Ans: d
Exp: A haircut is the difference between the loan amount and the actual value of the asset used as
collateral. The haircut reflects the lender’s perception of the risk of fall in the value of assets. In the
context of loan recoveries, it is the difference between the actual dues from a borrower and the amount
he settles with the bank. Haircuts are used as a last resort when there is absolutely no hope of a
recovery and the loan is written off for a one time settlement.
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https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-know-
about/article26913848.ece
Q7. Consider following statements
1. MUDRA loans are not available for purchase of CNG Tempo/Taxi as public transport carrier.
2. MUDRA loans are available for Khadi Activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: MUDRA loans would be available for purchase of CNG Tempo/Taxi, in case the applicant
intends to use the vehicle as public transport carrier. MUDRA loans are applicable for any activity
which results in income generation. As Khadi is one of the eligible activities under Textile sector and
in case MUDRA loans are taken for income generation, the same can be covered.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562143
Q8. With reference to the ‘liquidity coverage ratio (LCR)’, consider the following statements:
1. The LCR assures that financial institutions have the necessary assets on hand to meet any long-
term liquidity disruptions.
2. RBI has allowed banks to use their Government bonds held under the minimum SLR requirement
to count as liquid assets for computing LCR.
3. Government securities under the Marginal Standing Facility and Facility to Avail Liquidity for
Liquidity Coverage Ratio can also be considered for LCR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp:
o The LCR assures that financial institutions have the necessary assets on hand to ride out any
short- term liquidity disruptions.
o The LCR requires that the stock of liquid assets should equal to 90 percent (from January
2018) of the total net cash outflows over 30 days.
o This will increase to 100 percent by January 2019.
o As banks have to maintain such liquid assets over and above the mandated SLR requirement,
the RBI has allowed banks to dip into a portion of their Government bonds held under the
mandated SLR requirement to count as liquid assets for computing LCR.
o Assets allowed as Level 1 High Quality Liquid Assets (HQLAs) for the purpose of computing
LCR of banks include Government securities in excess of the minimum SLR requirement.
o Within the mandatory SLR requirement, HQLA assets include Government securities allowed
by the RBI under the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) —at 2% of the bank’s NDTL — and
under Facility to Avail Liquidity for Liquidity Coverage Ratio (FALLCR) —at 13% of the
bank’s NDTL.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-tweaks-lcr-norms-to-boost-
liquidity/article26734605.ece
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Q9. India conferred the Honorary Rank of General of the Indian Army on General Purna Chandra
Thapa. He is from:
(a) Bhutan Army
(b) Nepal Army
(c) Indian Army
(d) Chinese Army
Ans: b
Exp: The President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind, conferred the Honorary Rank of General of the
Indian Army on Sukirtimaya Rashtradeep General Purna Chandra Thapa, Chief of the Army Staff,
Nepalese Army, for his commendable military prowess and immeasurable contribution to fostering
Nepal’s long and friendly association with India, at a special Investiture Ceremony held at Rashtrapati
Bhavan today.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1559703
Q10. Consider the following statements: -
1. The Capital Conservation Buffer has been introduced with the objective to increase capital
requirements in good times and decrease the same in bad times.
2. Counter-cyclical Buffer is to ensure that banks maintain a cushion of capital that can be used to
absorb losses during periods of financial and economic stress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: The Capital Conservation Buffer is to ensure that banks maintain a cushion of capital that can
be used to absorb losses during periods of financial and economic stress.
Counter-cyclical Buffer has been introduced with the objective to increase capital requirements in
good times and decrease the same in bad times.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/rbi-notifies-deferment-of-capital-buffer-norms-
as-per-boards-call/article25964632.ece
Q11. Consider the following: -
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. SDRs
3. Reserve Position in the IMF
4. Gold
Which of the above are included in Foreign exchange reserves of Reserve bank of India?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: d
Exp: All of above are included in Foreign exchange reserves of Reserve bank of India.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/rbi-reserves-ratio-among-the-
highest/article25876191.ece
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Q12. Consider the following: -
1. Gross NPA: 100 Crores
2. Provision Aside: 10 Crores
3. At the end of the year, the bank collects 85 Crores only.
From the above figures, what is the figure of the Net NPA of Bank?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 15 Crore
(b) 10 Crore
(c) 5 Crore
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
Exp: Now actual NPA is 15 Crores - Provision is 10 Crores = Net NPA = 5 Crores
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/npa-ratios-improve-but-are-still-high-
das/article25876202.ece
Q13. Consider the following Statements: -
1. Tokenisation involves a process in which a unique token masks sensitive card details.
2. Customers can be charged a nominal fee for availing tokenisation service.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Customers cannot be charged for availing tokenisation service.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/customers-cannot-be-charged-for-availing-tokenisation-
service-rbi/article25943839.ece
Q14.Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen
in news?
(a)The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining
to that bank.
(b)The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial
transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c)The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s
debit cards.
(d)The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their
customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Ans: c
Exp: Merchant discount rate (MDR) is the fee levied by banks from merchants for providing them
with payment (settlement) infrastructure— or POS (point-of-sale) machines. Zero MDR refers to the
proposal made by the Centre in its last budget to do away with all charges (including MDR) on digital
payment transactions.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/no-more-discounts-on-credit-card-payment-at-petrol-
pumps/article29508656.ece
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Q15.The rate of exchange for foreign currencies is determined by
(a) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
(b) Central Board of Direct Taxes
(c) RBI
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: In exercise of the powers conferred by Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962), and
in supersession of the notification of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs No. 66/ 2019-
CUSTOMS (N.T.), dated 19 th September, 2019 except as respects things done or omitted to be done
before such supersession, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs hereby determines that
the rate of exchange of conversion of each of the foreign currencies.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1586891
Q16.Which one of the following best describes the term “Bill Discounting” sometimes seen in news?
(a) Bill Discounting is a discount/ fee which a bank takes from a seller to release funds before the
credit period ends.
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial
transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s
debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their
customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Ans: a
Exp: Bill Discounting is a discount/ fee which a bank takes from a seller to release funds before the
credit period ends. This bill is then presented to seller's customer and full amount is collected.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q17.Consider the following statements:
1. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-
one funds transfer.
2. NEFT system also facilitates one-way cross-border transfer of funds from India to Nepal.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-
to-one funds transfer. NEFT system also facilitates one-way cross-border transfer of funds from India
to Nepal.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/rbi-asks-banks-to-waive-neft-
charges/article30323488.ece
Q18. Consider following statements:
National Payments Corporation of India(NPCI)
1. is an initiative of Bank Board Bureau and RBI under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement
Systems Act, 2007
2. is “Not for Profit” Company, which intends to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system
in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.
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3. has developed the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet the electronic
tolling requirements of the Indian market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b )1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: d
Exp: It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under
the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It is a “Not for Profit” Company
under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013),
with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well
as electronic payment and settlement systems. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has
developed the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet the electronic tolling
requirements of the Indian market.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/transactions-on-aadhaar-
enabled-payments-system-cross-20-crore-in-july-npci/article29034872.ece
https://www.npci.org.in/about-us-background
Q19.Reserve Bank of India recently revised its guidelines on liquidity risk management framework
for:
(a) Banks
(b) Pension Funds
(c) Insurance Companies
(d) Non-banking finance companies (NBFCs)
Ans: d
Exp: Liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) norms for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) will take
effect on 1 December 2020. According to the RBI’s final guidelines on liquidity risk management
framework for NBFCs and core investment companies, LCR, which refers to the share of high quality
liquid assets to be set aside to meet short-term obligations, will be introduced in stages. Guidelines
issued by the central bank on liquidity risk management would discourage NBFCs to go for short-
tenor borrowings. Some non-banks in recent times came under financial stress due to the mismatch
in the asset-liability profiles. In light of this, the recently issued guidelines by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) would also improve discipline in liquidity maintenance and transparency through better
reporting standards.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/rbi-extends-rollout-date-for-lcr-norms-to-dec-
next-year-11572891939725.html
https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/banking-finance/lcr-frameworks-will-improve-nbfcss-
liability-profile-ind-ra/1771874/
Q20.Consider the following statements:
1. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016.
2. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies,
Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans: c
Exp: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016 under the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code). It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency
Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information
Utilities.
Source- https://www.ibbi.gov.in/about
Q21.With reference to Merchant Discount Rate, consider following statements:
1. It is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through
credit and debit cards in their establishments.
2. All companies with a turnover of Rs 50 crore or more need to provide the facility of payment
through RuPay Debit card and UPI QR code to their customers, under which no MDR fee will be
charged from customers as well as merchants
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp:
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified a Budget announcement which said that
business establishments with annual turnover of more than ₹50 crore, shall offer low-cost digital
modes of payment (such as BHIM UPI, UPI QR Code, Aadhaar Pay, Debit Cards, NEFT, RTGS etc.)
to their customers, and also no charge or Merchant Discount Rates (MDR) shall be imposed on
customers and merchants.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/no-mdr-charges-on-transactions-via-rupay-upi-from-
january-nirmala-sitharaman-11577522520944.html
Q22.Consider the following statements:
1. Unified Payments Interface has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI).
2. With a UPI-enabled bank account, one can make real-time bank-to-bank payments, and even
transact using Aadhaar number, mobile number or Virtual Payment Address (UPI-iD).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Unified Payments Interface has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI). While the payment platform has been around since 2015, it received a big push after
demonetisation drive in November, 2016. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is essentially a single
platform that merges different banking services and features under one umbrella.
Source:https://www.financialexpress.com/money/bhim-2-0-transacting-with-ease/1760502/
Q23.Which among the following organisations recently launched a global consortium for digital
currency governance?
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(a) IMF
(b) World Bank
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) World Economic Forum
Ans: d
Exp: The World Economic Forum (WEF) in its annual meeting in Davos, launched a global
consortium for digital currency governance. The Global Consortium for Digital Currency Governance
will aim to increase access to the financial system through innovative policy solutions that are
inclusive and interoperable.
Source:https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/wef-forms-1st-global-consortium-for-
digital-currency-governance-120012401111_1.html
Q24. With reference to prompt corrective action (PCA) framework, consider the following
statements:
1. The RBI introduced the PCA framework in 2002 as a structured early-intervention mechanism for
banks that become under-capitalised due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of
profitability.
2. It is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
3. The PCA framework deems banks as risky if they slip some trigger points-capital to risk weighted
assets ratio (CRAR), net NPA, Return on Assets (RoA) and Tier 1 Leverage ratio.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to impose restrictions on urban cooperative banks
(UCBs) for deterioration of financial position, in line with the prompt corrective action (PCA)
framework that is imposed on commercial banks. Under the revised SAF, UCBs will face restrictions
on worsening of 3 parameters: Net non-performing assets exceed 6% of net advances, losses for two
consecutive financial years or have accumulated losses on their balance sheets and Capital adequacy
ratio (CAR) falls below 9%.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/stressed-urban-cooperative-banks-to-face-pca-
like-curbs/article30496445.ece
Q25. Which among the following in India released the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion
(NSFI) for the period 2019-2024?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Finance
Ans: a
Exp: Recently, Reserve Bank of India released National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) for
the period 2019-2024. It aims to strengthen the ecosystem for various modes of digital financial
services in all Tier-II to Tier VI centres to create the necessary infrastructure to move toward saless-
cash society by March 2022.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-chalks-out-financial-inclusion-strategy-for-
2024/article30537029.ece
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Q26. With reference to the Block chain technology, consider the following statements:
1. Block chains are open, distributed ledger that can chronologically record transactions between two
parties efficiently in near real time.
2. It generally has key characteristics of centralization, persistency, anonymity and auditability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: It is well-known that block chain is the core technology of Bitcoin and other crypto currencies,
which has now emerged as a disruptive innovation with a wide range of applications. Block chain
technology generally has key characteristics of decentralization, persistency, anonymity and
auditability.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/using-blockchain-tech-can-improve-
governance/article30601253.ece
Q27.Consider the following statements
1. Small finance banks (SFBs) are primarily set up to undertake basic banking activities of acceptance
of deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections, including small business units, small
and marginal farmers, micro and small industries etc.
2. Payments Banks can apply for conversion into SFB after five years of operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
Exp: A small finance bank is primarily set up to undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of
deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections, including small business units, small and
marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector entities. The objectives of setting
up of SBFs is to further financial inclusion and supply of credit "through high technology-low cost
operations" Payments banks willing to convert themselves into small finance banks (SFBs) can apply
for such a licence only after five years of operations, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said in the
final guidelines on on-tap licensing for SFBs.
Source:https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=48807
https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-lays-down-guidelines-for-payments-banks-sfb-
licence/article30195255.ece
Q28.Consider following statements:
1. For enforcement of auditing standards and ensuring the quality of audits, Government has
established National Financial Reporting Authority as an independent regulator.
2. Pursuant to Government’s advice to PSBs, they have been obtaining certified copy of passport of
the promoters/directors and other authorised signatories of companies availing loan facilities of more
than Rs. 100 crore .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Increase in detection and reporting of bank frauds due to Government’s proactive measures.
Key steps taken in this regard include:
- Government has issued instruction that all accounts exceeding Rs. 50 crore, if classified as
NPAs, be examined by banks from the angle of possible fraud. In addition, Public Sector
Banks (PSBs) have also been advised to seek a report on the borrower from the Central
Economic Intelligence Bureau, in case an account turns NPA.
- Proactive action has been taken against wilful defaulters, with FIRs being registered by PSBs
against 2,881 wilful defaulters.
- For enforcement of auditing standards and ensuring the quality of audits, Government has
established National Financial Reporting Authority as an independent regulator.
- Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 has been enacted in order to deter economic offenders
from evading the process of Indian law by remaining outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts.
- Pursuant to Government’s advice to PSBs, they have been obtaining certified copy of passport
of the promoters/directors and other authorised signatories of companies availing loan
facilities of more than Rs. 50 crore, and are ensuring rotational transfer of officials/employees
on sensitive posts.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573465
Q29. Consider the following:
1. Bank Nationalisation Day came into existence ever since 14 banks were nationalised by the
government on July 19, 1969.
2. First Bank with Indian capital-Punjab National Bank was Founder of the Bank is Bal Gangadhar
Tilak.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Bank Nationalisation Day came into existence ever since 14 banks were nationalised by the
government on July 19, 1969. First Bank with Indian capital-Punjab National Bank, Founder of the
Bank was Lala Lajpat Rai.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/letters/bank-nationalisation/article28970408.ece
Q30.The reserves of RBI include
1. Contingency Fund
2. The currency and gold revaluation reserve (CGRA)
3. Investment revaluation account
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
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Exp: The RBI had Rs 10.46 lakh crore in reserves, bulk of it under two heads—currency and gold
revaluation reserve (Rs 6.91 lakh crore) and contingency reserve (Rs 2.32 lakh crore).
The currency and gold revaluation reserve (CGRA) accounts for 19.11% of total assets and the
contingency reserve for another 6.41%. Back in 2004, a committee under Usha Thorat, then Deputy
Governor, examined the question of what should be the ideal size of RBIs reserves. It suggested that
the CGRA should be 12.26 % of total assets while the contingency reserve should be 5.5 %, totalling
17.76 % in all. But the RBI Board did not accept there commendation and preferred to continue with
the level set by an earlier committee in 1997. That committee, under V. Subrahmanyam, had set a
contingency reserves level of 12 % of total assets. There serves are built through transfers from the
annual surpluses in the profit and loss account of RBI. The balance surplus after transfer to reserves
is given to the Centre as dividend.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/gift-from-rbi-on-transfer-of-funds-to-
government/article29271664.ece
Q31. Consider the following:
1. Prudential Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets is issued by RBI.
2. The provisions of these directions shall not apply to NBFC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: These directions shall be called the Reserve Bank of India (Prudential Framework for
Resolution of Stressed Assets) Directions 2019.
The provisions of these directions shall apply to the following entities:
Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks); All India Term Financial
Institutions (NABARD, NHB, EXIM Bank, and SIDBI); Small Finance Banks; and, Systemically
Important Non-Deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC-ND-SI) and Deposit
taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC-D).
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/iba-finalises-revised-inter-creditor-
agreement/article28119021.ece#
Q32. The most appropriate term for “convertible digital currencies” or “digital equivalent of cash” is
(a) Digital wallet
(b) e-cash
(c) Crypto currency
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
Exp: Crypto currencies are legally defined as “convertible digital currencies” (according to the US
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network directive issue dearly in 2013) or as a “digital equivalent of
cash” (according to the European legislation EC/2009/110 on electronic money).
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/is-banning-cryptocurrencies-the-
solution/article28787561.ece )
Q33. Consider the following:
1. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin
address.
2. Bitcoin has a very small carbon footprint.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Bitcoins can be sent directly to anyone, anywhere in the world. The only requirement is that
you should have a Bitcoin address of the recipient. The use of crypto currency Bitcoin emits 22 mega
tonnes of carbon dioxide annually, comparable to the emissions of cities such as Las Vegas and
Vienna, says a study.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/bitcoin-use-causing-huge-co2-emissions-
study/article27979548.ece
Q34. Consider the following statements:
1. Insolvency Research Foundation (IRF) has been established by SIPI in partnership with the Indian
Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA).
2. It is an independent research centre to serve public good and help in robust policy making based
on deep research.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Insolvency Research Foundation (IRF) has been established by SIPI in partnership with the
Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA), Ministry of Corporate Affairs, as an independent
research centre to serve public good and help in robust policy making based on deep research. IRF
will aim to develop a community in pursuit of scholarship in the field of insolvency. It will seek to
strengthen the interaction between government and academics in public policy making. Its activities
will lead to emergence of a cadre of scholars and a robust network of academics, scholars and jurists
in area of insolvency.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1581185
Q35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October 2010.
2. It is a unique regulator which regulates a profession as well as processes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016 under the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code). It is a key pillar of the ecosystem responsible for
implementation of the Code that consolidates and amends the laws relating to reorganization and
insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals in a time bound manner
for maximization of the value of assets of such persons, to promote entrepreneurship, availability of
credit and balance the interests of all the stakeholders. It is a unique regulator: regulates a profession
as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency
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Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities. It writes and
enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution, corporate liquidation,
individual insolvency resolution and individual bankruptcy under the Code. It has recently been
tasked to promote the development of, and regulate, the working and practices of, insolvency
professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information utilities and other institutions, in
furtherance of the purposes of the Code. It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the
Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the
profession of valuers in the country.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1581185
Q36. “SWEEKAR” and “SWAGAT” recently seen in news are related to
(a) Biodiesel from cooking oil
(b) Illegal migrants
(c) Digital payment ecosystem
(d) Child adoption
Ans: c
Exp: India’s first indigenously developed payment ecosystem for transport based on National
Common Mobility Card (NCMC) standards was launched in March 2019. This is the first of its kind
in India. NCMC Card, SWEEKAR (Swachalit Kiraya: Automatic Fare Collection System) and
SWAGAT (Swachalit Gate) issued on NCMC Standards.
http://yojana.gov.in/FULLPDFYOJANAAUGUST2019.pdf
Q37.Consider the following statements
1. During 2019-20, the 10-year benchmark G-Sec yield mostly softened.
2. Systemic liquidity in 2019-20 has been largely in surplus.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: G-sec yields traded with a softening bias at the beginning of Q1:2019-20, taking cues from
several positive developments during Q4:2018-19, viz., monetary policy easing and a change in the
policy stance from calibrated tightening to neutral; injection of durable liquidity; announcement of
the voluntary retention route (VRR); and successive benign inflation prints.
Given deficit liquidity conditions in April and May, lending by MFs declined while borrowing by
MFs increased in the collateralised segment during these two months. With systemic liquidity turning
surplus since June, lending by MFs increased while borrowing declined marginally in the
collateralised segment during June- September.
https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/PublicationsView.aspx?id=19331
Q38.Consider the following statements
1. Despite a decrease in policy rates, the credit growth in the economy has been declining since
the beginning of this year.
2. The growth of loans from NBFCs has been increasing since the beginning of this year.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
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c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The loans are not getting cheaper because banks are shying away from transferring the entire
repo rate cut to customers. There is already a reduction of 2.85 per cent in repo rate but banks have
not transferred the benefits to consumers; they have not reduced interest rates in proportion to repo
rate cuts.
Faced with sustained challenges in raising capital at competitive prices and a slowing economy, non-
banking financial (NBFC) sector is set to record their lowest loan growth in over a decade in the
ongoing fiscal year of 2020, rating agency Crisil said on Wednesday.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/nbfc-loan-growth-set-to-hit-a-
decadal-low-of-6-8-
report/articleshow/72475297.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campai
gn=cppst
https://www.businesstoday.in/sectors/banks/loans-not-getting-cheaper-after-reserve-bank-of-india-
repo-rate-cuts-mpc-meet/story/391440.html
Q39.Consider the following statements
1. The insurance penetration for Life insurance has increased from 2011.
2. The non-life insurance has increased consistently.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: According to the report, the life insurance penetration was at 4.6% in 2009 but visibly showed
a downward trend after that. According to Pankaj Razdan, CEO, Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance Co.
Ltd, volatility in the stock market in 2008-2009 and regulatory changes in 2010 adversely impacted
the sale of Ulip (unit-linked insurance plan) products and premiums. “Penetration in India reflected a
flat trend of 2.7% from FY 2014-15 to 2016-17.
Non-life insurance industry meanwhile grew. The industry recorded a penetration of 0.97% in FY
2018-19 compared to 0.93% in FY 2017-18. The density of non-life insurers also grew marginally
from $18 in FY 2017-18 to $19 in FY 2018-19.
https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/insurance-penetration-in-india-at-3-69-one-of-
the-lowest-across-the-world-1550491451271.html
https://cafemutual.com/news/insurance/18197-indias-insurance-penetration-is-just-37
Q30. Consider the following statements
1. The real GVA of the industrial sector has been steadily declining.
2. The low growth in the industrial sector is primarily due to the manufacturing sector.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
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Exp: Industrial sector performance in terms of its contribution in GVA improved in 2018-19 over
2017-18. However, as per the estimates of Gross Domestic Product by National Statistical Office
(NSO), the real GVA of industrial sector grew by 1.6 per cent in first half (H1) (April-September) of
2019-20, as compared to 8.2 per cent in H1 of 2018-19.
The low growth in industrial sector is primarily due to manufacturing sector which registered a
negative growth of 0.2 per cent in 2019-20 H1.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q40. In the recent amalgamation of the three banks i.e. Bank of Baroda, Vijaya and Dena Bank,
which of the banks is/are transferee bank/(s)?
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Vijaya and Dena Banks
(c) Bank of Baroda and Dena Bank
(d) Bank of Baroda, Vijaya and Dena Bank
Ans: a
Exp: The Union Cabinet approved the amalgamation of the three banks, with Bank of Baroda as the
transferee bank, and Vijaya and Dena as transferor banks. This would mean that the merged entity
would be known as the Bank of Baroda.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/share-swap-ratio-for-bank-merger-
cleared/article25894656.ece
EXTERNAL SECTOR
Q1. Consider following statements:
1. India recently revoked the Most Favoured Nation status bestowed on Pakistan in 1996 in retaliation
to the terror attack in Uri.
2. Revoking it means India can levy whatever import tariffs it wants.
3. Pakistan has granted MFN status to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: India recently revoked the Most Favoured Nation status bestowed on Pakistan in 1996 in
retaliation to the terror attack in Pulwama. Revoking it means India can levy whatever import tariffs
it wants. Pakistan has never granted MFN status to India.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-most-favoured-nation-status/article26283898.ece
Q2. Significant Reduction Exceptions (SRE) sometimes seen in the news recently is associated with
which of the following?
(a) Waiver from US sanctions
(b) Kimberly Process
(c) Cabotage laws
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
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Exp:
US granted waivers from its oil sanction from Iran is also known as Significant Reduction
Exceptions (SRE).
It was granted to eight countries — India, China, Japan, South Korea, Taiwan, Turkey, Italy and
Greece for six months until May 2, 2019.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-to-get-additional-supplies-to-compensate-
iranian-oil-loss-pradhan/article26918415.ece
Q3. ‘Significant reduction exemptions [SRE]’, recently seen in news
(a) Waiver on Iran Oil imports
(b) Reduction in Carbon footprint
(c) Reduction plastic use
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: the United States will not issue any additional Significant Reduction Exceptions [SREs] to
existing importers of Iranian oil.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-ends-waiver-for-india-on-iran-
oil/article26914949.ece
Q4. Consider following statements:
1. Solid plastic waste has been prohibited from import into the country.
2. Polyethylene Terephthalate is a form of Nylon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Solid plastic waste has been prohibited from import into the country.
Polyethylene Terephthalate is a form of polyester.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/environment-ministry-plugs-loophole-
that-allowed-plastic-waste-import/article26449791.ece
Q5. Consider following statements:
1. The objective of launching RCEP was mutually beneficial economic partnership agreement among
the ASEAN Member States and ASEAN’s FTA partners.
2. India is not a member of RCEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The objective of launching RCEP was mutually beneficial economic partnership agreement
among the ASEAN Member States and ASEAN’s FTA partners.
India is a member of RCEP.
https://www.pressreader.com/india/the-hindu/20190303/282205127186562
Q6. Consider following statements:
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1. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the
Ministers of its Member jurisdictions.
2. The FATF’s decision making body, the FATF Plenary, meets two times per year.
3. Pakistan is on the ‘grey list’ of countries of risk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by
the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The FATF’s decision making body, the FATF Plenary,
meets three times per year. Pakistan is on the ‘grey list’ of countries of risk.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/fatf-keeps-pakistan-on-greylist-condemns-pulwama-
attack/article26340558.ece
Q7. With reference to Most Favoured Nation principle, consider the following statements:
1. MFN status gives preferential treatment to certain countries so as to have a better trade relationship.
2. It is applicable only to goods and services are exempted.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: MFN is the principle that mandates equal treatment of all trading partners by a country. Grant
someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products) and you have
to do the same for all other WTO members.
Some exceptions are allowed under strict conditions
o Free trade agreements can discriminate between goods originating within and outside the group.
o Developing countries may be given special access to markets.
o Barriers may be raised against unfair trade of products from specific countries.
o Countries are allowed to discriminate, in services, in limited circumstances.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-most-favoured-nation-status/article26283898.ece
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. 100% FDI under automatic route is permitted in inventory based model of e-commerce or multi-
brand retailing.
2. FDI is not permitted in marketplace model of e-commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp:
o Foreign e-commerce entities would engage only in Business to Business(B2B) e-commerce and not
in Business to Consumer (B2C) e-commerce.
o 100% FDI under automatic route is permitted in marketplace model of e-commerce.
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o FDI is not permitted in inventory based model of e-commerce or multi-brand retailing.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/optimistic-about-indian-market-despite-changes-in- e-
commerce-fdi-policy-walmart/article26191762.ece
Q9. Consider the following statements w.r.t objectives of EXIM Bank of India: -
1. Act on business principles with due regard to public interest.
2. Providing financial assistance to exporters and importers.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: c
Exp: both are correct.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1560103
https://www.eximbankindia.in/objectives
Q10. Consider the following statements:-
1. External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) norms are decided by Cabinet Committee of Economic
Affairs.
2. The ceiling for External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) is $750 million or equivalent per financial
year.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: b
Exp: Reserve Bank of India has decided to liberalise external commercial borrowing (ECB) norms,
allowing all companies that are eligible for receiving foreign direct investment, to raisefunds through
the ECB route. All eligible borrowers can now raise ECBs up to $750 million or equivalent per
financial year under the automatic route replacing the existing sector-wise limits.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/rbi-eases-norms-for-external-commercial-
borrowing/article26008871.ece
Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. RuPay Card has been launched in Bhutan.
2. The electricity generated by the Mangdechhu hydro power project will meet the energy
requirements only of Bhutan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp:Most of the electricity generated by the Mangdechhu hydro power project will meet the energy
requirements of Bhutan and the surplus electricity will be exported to India. Mr. Modi also launched
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the RuPay Card in Bhutan by making a purchase at Simtokha Dzong, built in 1629 by Shabdrung
Namgyal, which functions as a monastic and administrative centre and is one of the oldest dzongs in
Bhutan.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-modi-inaugurates-mangdechhu-hydroelectric-power-
plant-in-bhutan/article29120270.ece
Q12. Which of the following is not a member of `The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)’?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Turkmenistan
(d) Tajikistan
Ans: c
Exp: Members of SCO-China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan, India,
Pakistan.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575039
Q13. Consider the following:
1. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1980 by the
Ministers of its Member jurisdictions.
2. Pakistan was placed on the grey list by the FATF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by
the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and
promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money
laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial
system. The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary
political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas. Pakistan was
placed on the grey list by the FATF.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/fatf-india-says-pakistan-must-take-verifiable-
irreversible-steps-against-terrorism/article28107371.ece
Q14. Which one of the following sectors does not allow 100% FDI under automatic route as per
the FDI Policy 2018?
(a) Agriculture & Animal Husbandry
(b) Coal & Lignite
(c) Thermal Power
(d) Chit Funds
Ans: d
Exp: FDI is not allowed in chit funds sector. It comes under the list of prohibited sectors, which also
includes lottery business including government/ private lottery, online lotteries etc, chit funds, trading
in transferable development rights (TDR) etc.
Source:http://www.makeinindia.com/policy/foreign-direct-investment
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Q15. India has ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to
Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (MLI). Consider the following statements-
1. The MLI is a result of concerted work by the G20 countries to tackle the issue of base erosion and
profit shifting, something that affects them all.
2. BEPS is a tax avoidance strategy used by multinational companies by exploiting gaps and
mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations.
3. India was part of the Ad Hoc Group of more than 100 countries and jurisdictions from the G20,
OECD and other interested countries, which worked on the finalizing the text of the Multilateral
Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Exp: MLI is a result of concerted work by the G20 countries to tackle the issue of base erosion and
profit shifting.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/business/centre-ratifies-convention-to-curb-company-profit-
shifting/article28264714.ece
Q16. “REER” and “NEER” sometimes mentioned in the news are related to
(a) Indicators of external competitiveness.
(b) Extinct species
(c) Mini satellites
(d) Drones
Ans: a
Exp: The indices of Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and Real Effective Exchange Rate
(REER) are used as indicators of external competitiveness. NEER is the weighted average of bilateral
nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/portfolio/big-story/what-is-reer/article24779863.ece#!
Q17. “Libra” recently seen in news is
(a) A new global currency
(b) Star war movie
(c) Space mission
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: ‘Libra’ — described as “a new global currency” — was unveiled on Tuesday in a new initiative
in payments for the world’s biggest social network with the potential to bring crypto-money out of
the shadows and into the mainstream.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/libra-is-facebooks-
cryptocurrency/article28067219.ece
Q18. Consider following statements:
1. Japan has w.e.f. 5 June 2019 withdrawn India’s GSP benefits.
2. These are unilateral, non-reciprocal and non-discriminatory benefits extended by some developed
countries to developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The United States of America (USA) has w.e.f. 5 June 2019 withdrawn India’s GSP benefits.
These are unilateral, non-reciprocal and non-discriminatory benefits extended by some developed
countries to developing countries. India as part of our bilateral trade discussions, had offered
resolution on significant US requests in an effort to find a mutually acceptable way forward. It is
unfortunate that this did not find acceptance by the US. India, like the US and other nations shall
always uphold its national interest in these matters. We have significant development imperatives and
concerns and our people also aspire for better standards of living. This will remain the guiding factor
in the Government’s approach.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573061
Q19. Consider the following:
1. The objective of launching RCEP negotiations was to achieve a modern, comprehensive, high-
quality, and mutually beneficial economic partnership agreement among the ASEAN Member States
and ASEAN’s FTA partners.
2. India is not partner to RCEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: In August 2012, the 16 Economic Ministers endorsed the Guiding Principles and Objectives for
Negotiating the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership. The RCEP negotiations were
launched by Leaders from 10 ASEAN Member States (Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia,
Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Viet Nam) and six ASEAN
FTA partners (Australia, People’s Republic of China, India, Japan, Republic of Korea, and New
Zealand) during the 21st ASEAN Summit and Related Summits in Phnom Penh, Cambodia in
November 2012.
The objective of launching RCEP negotiations is to achieve a modern, comprehensive, high-quality,
and mutually beneficial economic partnership agreement among the ASEAN Member States and
ASEAN’s FTA partners. The RCEP negotiations commenced in early 2013.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/quad-one-way-to-fix-regional-issues-australian-
envoy/article27819823.ece
Q20.Which of the following agency develops Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index?
(a) Ministry of commerce and industry
(b) NITI Ayog
(c) Ministry of statistics and Programme Implementation
(d) PMO
Ans: a
Exp: The index is developed by the Commerce and Industry Ministry along with Deloitte. LEADS
index makes a perception-based assessment of international trade logistics across Indian states and
UTs–focusing on users and stakeholders. Gujarat has retained the highest place in these condedition
of the Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index.
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https://www.google.com/search?q=LEADS+Index&rlz=1C1CHBF_enIN821IN821&oq=LEADS+I
ndex+&aqs=chrome..69i57j0l7.2997j1j7&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8
Q21. APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development for which of
the following scheduled products:
1. Pickles, Papads and Chutneys
2. Herbal and Medicinal Plants
3. Guar Gum
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the
following scheduled products:
• Fruits, Vegetables and their Products.
• Meat and Meat Products.
• Poultry and Poultry Products.
• Dairy Products.
• Confectionery,Biscuits and Bakery Products.
• Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products.
• Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds.
• AlcoholicandNon-AlcoholicBeverages.
• Cereal and Cereal Products.
• Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts.
• Pickles, Papads and Chutneys.
• Guar Gum.
• Floriculture and Floriculture Products.
• Herbal and Medicinal Plants.
In addition to this, APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility to monitor import of sugar.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1586891
Q22. With reference to Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) consider the
following statements:
1. The objective of launching RCEP negotiation was to achieve a mutually beneficial economic
partnership agreement among the ASEAN member states only.
2. India is not a member to RCEP.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with
six partners namely People’s Republic of China (ACFTA), Republic of Korea (AKFTA), Japan
(AJCEP), India (AIFTA) and Australia and New Zealand (AANZFTA).
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
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Q23. Consider the following statements related to Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
1. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body.
2. India is a Member of the FATF.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body. India is a Member of
the FATF.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-japan-call-upon-pakistan-to-act-on-
terror/article30125707.ece
Q24. “INSTEX”, recently seen in news is related to
(a) mission to facilitate non-USD transactions
(b) space mission to Saturn
(c) New instrument for transaction in share market
(d) mission to study Artic
Ans: a
Exp: The Instrument in Support of Trade Exchanges (INSTEX) is a European special-purpose
vehicle (SPV) established in January 2019. Its mission is to facilitate non-USD transactions and non-
SWIFT to avoid breaking U.S. sanctions.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/6-european-nations-join-iran-barter-
system/article30131764.ece
Q25. Among the following, which one is not member of RCEP?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Australia
(c) Japan
Ans: a
Exp: India’s decision to leave the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) was not
taken at the last minute, Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal told Parliament, in a
statement, on Tuesday while defending the government’s decision to quit the 16-nation Free Trade
Agreement (FTA) among the ASEAN and other countries.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rcep-decision-not-last-minute-piyush-
goyal/article30269935.ece
Q26.With reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following:
1. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Charter was signed during the St. Petersburg SCO Heads of
State meeting in June 2002.
2. Pakistan will host the 19th council of heads of government of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation next year.
3. The SCO is a China-led security bloc in which India and Pakistan were admitted as full members
in 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: India will host the 19th council of heads of government of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation next year. The SCO is a China-led security bloc in which India and Pakistan were
admitted as full members in 2017.
Source:https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/india-to-host-19th-council-of-heads-
of-government-of-sco-next-year-vladimir-norov-119111201069_1.html
Q27.Recently, European Union has expressed interest in exploring a bilateral investment protection
agreement (BIPA) with:
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Saudi Arabia
Ans: b
Exp: European Union (EU) has expressed interest in exploring a bilateral investment protection
agreement (BIPA) with India that would be delinked from the proposed free trade agreement (FTA)
where ongoing negotiations are in a state of limbo. The EU wants to follow the model it adopted with
Singapore with which it has recently concluded trade and investment deals separately. The proposal
has been made to India, which is yet to respond.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/eu-wants-a-separate-investment-
protection-pact-with-india/article30390422.ece
Q28.A new division named ‘New and Emerging Strategic Technologies (NEST)’ will be set up under
the:
(a)NITI Aayog
(b)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(c)Ministry of External Affairs
(d)Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans: c
Exp: With India grappling with issues like the security implications of the introduction of 5Gand
artificial intelligence, the ministry of external affairs has announced the setting up of a new division
on New and Emerging Strategic Technologies (NEST). The division will act as the nodal point in
India’s foreign ministry for all matters connected to new and emerging technologies including
exchange of views with foreign governments and coordination with domestic ministries and
departments. It will also help assess foreign policy and international legal implications of emerging
technology and technology-based resources. The desk will also be involved in negotiations to
safeguard Indian interests at multilateral for alike the United Nations or the G20 where rules
governing the use and access to such technologies could be decided.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/govt-sets-up-division-on-new-and-emerging-
strategic-technologies-11578052462379.html
Q29.With reference to RuPay, consider following statements:
1. It is the first-of-its-kind domestic Debit and Credit Card payment network of India.
2. RuPay is a product of National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL).
3. All RuPay ATM-cum-debit cardholders are presently eligible for accidental death and permanent
disability insurance cover.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: b
Exp: RuPay is a product of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the umbrella
organisation that powers retail payments in the country.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/npci-slashes-mdr-for-debit-
cards/articleshow/71117251.cms?from=mdr
https://www.financialexpress.com/money/7-amazing-benefits-of-rupay-debit-credit-cards-
payments-this-system-is-tailor-made-for-india-how-it-can-help-you/887281/
Q30.Consider the following statements
1. CAD to GDP ratio has been significantly improving from 2009-14 to 2014-19
2. The CAD to GDP ratio was lower in the first half of 2019-20.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The CAD, which was 2.1 per cent of GDP in 2018-19, has improved to 1.5 per cent in H1 of
2019-20 on the back of significant reduction in trade deficit
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap01_vol2.pdf
Q31.Consider the following statements
1. An increase in merchandise exports to GDP ratio has a net positive impact on BOP position.
2. India’s top 5 trading partners jointly account for more than 50% of India’s total merchandise
trade.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: An increase in merchandise exports to GDP ratio has a net positive impact on BOP position.
Over the years the merchandise exports to GDP ratio has been declining, entailing a negative impact
on the BoP position.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q32.Consider the following statements
1. In 2019-20 (April-November), petroleum products continued to be the largest imported
commodity, in value terms.
2. In the export basket of 2019-20 (April-November), crude petroleum had the largest share.
Select the correct code
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a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: In 2019-20 (April-November), petroleum products continued to be the largest exported
commodity, in value terms. In the import basket of 2019-20 (April-November), crude petroleum had
the largest share followed by gold and petroleum products.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q33.Consider the following statements
1. India’s net services surplus has been steadily increasing in relation to GDP.
2. The surplus on net services has been significantly financing the merchandise trade deficit.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The surplus on net services has been significantly financing the merchandise trade deficit. The
financing reached its peak to about two-thirds of merchandise deficit in 2016-17 before declining to
less than half in the last couple of years (Figure 19). Given a steady decline in net services to GDP
ratio, the extent of financing will steadily fall unless merchandise trade deficit improves in relation
to GDP.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q34.Arrange the following items in the increasing order of its share in the service exports basket
(i) Business services
(ii) Software services
(iii) Transportation
(iv) Travel
Select the correct code
a. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
b. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
c. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
d. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Ans: b
Exp: The composition of service exports has remained largely unchanged over the years. Software
services constitute the bulk of it at around 40-45 per cent, followed by business services at about 18-
20 per cent, travel at 11-14 per cent and transportation at 9-11 per cent
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q35. Logistics Performance Index is released by
a. World Bank
b. UNCTAD
c. IMF
d. EU
Ans: a
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Q36. Consider the following statements
1. Net remittances from Indians employed overseas have been constantly increasing year after
year.
2. The net FDI into the country almost doubled from 2009-14 to 2014-19.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: An increase in net remittances improves the BoP position. Net remittances from Indians
employed overseas has been constantly increasing year after year and has continued doing so with
the amount received in the first half of 2019-20 being more than 50 per cent of the total receivables
in 2018-19
The impressive improvement in BoP position from March, 2014 to March, 2019 is mainly attributed
to almost doubling of net FDI into the country from 2009-14 to 2014-19.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q37. What is Net International Investment Position?
a. It measures the gap between two countries' stock of foreign assets at a specific point in time.
b. It measures the gap between a nation’s stock of foreign assets and foreigner’s stock of that
nation’s assets at a specific point in time.
c. It measures the gap between two countries' IMF tranche at a specific point in time.
d. It measures the gap between the export ratio of two countries.
Ans:a
Exp: NIIP measures the gap between a nation’s stock of foreign assets and foreigner’s stock of that
nation’s assets at a specific point in time.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q38. Consider the following statements with respect to Kimberley Process Certification
System (KPCS)
1. It came in to effect through a United Nations General Assembly Resolution.
2. It is a non binding agreement to remove conflict diamonds from the global supply chain.
3. India is one of the founding members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans: a
Exp:
Kimberley process is a joint initiative of Government, International Diamond Industry and Civil
Society to stem the flow of Conflict Diamonds.
Conflict Diamonds are rough diamonds used by rebel movements or their allies to finance conflict
aimed at undermining legitimate governments.
It came into effect in 2003 through a UNGA Resolution with representation from 81countries
including EU.
India is one of the founding members.
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It is a binding agreement to remove conflict diamonds from the global supply chain.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/centre-fears-broader-definition-of-conflict-diamond-
may-hurt-trade-by-india-others/article26924055.ece
MONEY AND CAPITAL MARKETS (+NBFC)
Q1. Consider following statements:
1. A mortgage is a debt instrument.
2. Mortgages are also known as claims on property
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: both are correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/rbi-rate-cut-will-prevent-mortgage-rate-rise-
moodys/article26813208.ece
Q2. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Competition Commission of India (CCI): -
1. The Commission is required to give opinion on competition issues referred by a statutory authority.
2. CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: c
Exp: both are correct.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1560364
Q3. Consider following statements-
1. A company incorporated in India and registered under the Companies Act, 1956 / Companies Act,
2013 can issue and operate Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) after receiving authorisation from
RBI.
2. Interest is payable on Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) balances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: A company incorporated in India and registered under the Companies Act, 1956 / Companies
Act, 2013 can issue and operate Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) after receiving authorisation
from RBI. No interest is payable on Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) balances.
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https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/ppi/article26367810.ece
Q4. Consider following statements-
1. The electoral bonds are available at specified branches of the State Bank of India (SBI) for 10 days
each in the months designated by the government from time to time.
2. The bonds may be bought for any value, in multiples of 1,000 or 10,000 rupees only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The electoral bonds are available at specified branches of the State Bank of India (SBI) for 10
days each in the months designated by the government from time to time. The bonds may be bought
for any value, in multiples of 1,000, 10,000, 1 lakh, 10 lakh or 1 crore rupees.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-explains-what-is-an-electoral-bond-and-how-
do-we-get-one/article22367124.ece
Q5.Which of the following is an example of Gandhian trusteeship philosophy?
(a) Planting of trees
(b) Corporate social responsibility
(c) Feeding poor
(d) Paying taxes
Ans: b
Exp: CSR is a true manifestation of Bapu’s Trusteeship Philosophy: President of India.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q6.Consider the following statements regarding:
Assertion (A): Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds listed and traded on stock exchanges
like shares.
Reason (R): ETF simply copies an index and endeavours to accurately reflect its performance.
Mark correct answer as:
(a) if both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is true but R is false
(d) if A is false but R is true
Ans: b
Exp: Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like
shares. Index ETFs are created by institutional investors swapping shares in an index basket, for units
in the fund. Usually, ETFs are passive funds where the fund manager doesn’t select stocks on your
behalf. Instead, the ETFs imply copies an index and endeavours to accurately reflect its performance.
In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market
hours.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-
exchange-traded-funds/article9957174.ece
Q7.Consider the following statements:
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1. Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) means any fund established or incorporated in India which is a
privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian
or foreign, for investing it in accordance with a defined investment policy.
2. AIF also includes funds covered under the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, SEBI
(Collective Investment Schemes) Regulations, 1999 or any other regulations of the Board to regulate
fund management activities.
3. An AIF under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 can be established or
incorporated in the form of a trust or a company or a limited liability partnership or a body corporate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: AIF does not include funds covered under the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, SEBI
(Collective Investment Schemes) Regulations, 1999 or any other regulations of the Board to regulate
fund management activities.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/sebi-nudges-aifs-to-make-more-
disclosures-for-better-transparency/articleshow/69884129.cms?from=mdr
https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/faqfiles/jan-2017/1485861425527.pdf
Q8.Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by:
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) Department of Economic Affairs
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Ans: b
Exp: All the credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies)
Regulations, 1999 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. Currently there are six
credit rating agencies in India which are registered under SEBI namely-CRISIL, ICRA, CARE,
SMERA, FitchIndia, ONICRA.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/rating-agency-ceos-cant-be-
part-of-rating-panel-sebi/articleshow/71917636.cms?from=mdr
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/view-why-it-is-high-time-to-review-
credit-rating-agencies-regulation/articleshow/70682175.cms?from=mdr
Q9.Consider the following statements:
1. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is an investor-owned fund manager
2. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
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Exp: National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is an investor-owned fund
manager, anchored by the Government of India (GoI) in collaboration with leading global and
domestic institutional investors.
We manage over USD 3 billion of capital commitments across three funds, each with its distinct
investment strategy.
Our funds have investment mandates to invest in infrastructure assets and related businesses that are
likely to benefit from the long-term growth trajectory of the Indian economy. Our investment
objective is to generate attractive long-term risk-adjusted returns for our investors on a sustainable
basis. We are professionally driven with strong governance processes.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/cppib-to-invest-600-mn-via-niif/article30196199.ece
Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is the RBI Governor.
2. FSDC was formed to bring greater coordination among financial market regulators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The Chairman of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is the Finance
Minister of India. FSDC was formed to bring greater coordination among financial market regulators.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575006
Q11. Consider following statements regarding significance of ‘Regulatory Sandbox’:
1. The Securities and Exchange Board of India and The Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India have announced working guidelines based on The Reserve Bank of India’s
final draft on regulatory sandbox
2. The three sandboxes are aimed at creating an environment of eased regulations for testing new
product-based and technology-based innovations.
3. However, unlike the RBI sandbox, which won’t accept applications from participants with
solutions based on crypto currency, credit rating, credit registry and chain marketing services,
IRDAI has set no such restrictions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: The Reserve Bank of India, the Securities and Exchange Board of India and The Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) have announced working guidelines for
their respective sandbox programmes.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/sebi-irdai-set-up-regulatory-sandbox-for-fintech-
innovations/article27195596.ece
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https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/insure/irdai-opens-application-
window-for-regulatory-sandbox-participation/articleshow/71117185.cms?from=mdr
Q12. With reference to Core Investment Companies (CICs), consider following statements
1. CICs are non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) holding not less than 80% of their net assets
in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in
group companies.
2. Unlike NBFCs which are required to constitute board level committees, no such standards are
mandated for CICs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: CICs are non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) holding not less than 90% of their net
assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans
in group companies
Source:https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/rbi-panel-suggests-stronger-corporate-
governance-in-core-investment-companies-11573038504883.html
Q13. Consider following statements:
1. Bharat Bond ETF would be the first corporate Bond ETF in the country.
2. It will invest in a portfolio of bonds of CPSE, CPSU, CPFI or any other Government or Private
organizations that matures on or before the maturity date of the ETF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Bharat Bond ETF would be the first corporate Bond ETF in the country.
Features of Bharat Bond ETF:
ETF will be a basket of bonds issued by CPSE/CPSU/CPFI/any other Government organization
Bonds (Initially, all AAA rated bonds)
• Tradable on exchange
• Small unit size Rs 1,000
• Transparent NAV (Periodic live NAV during the day)
• Transparent Portfolio (Daily disclosure on website)
• Low cost (0.0005%)
Bharat Bond ETF Structure:
• Each ETF will have a fixed maturity date
• The ETF will track the underlying Index on risk replication basis, i.e. matching Credit Quality
and Average Maturity of the Index
• Will invest in a portfolio of bonds of CPSE, CPSU, CPFI or any other Government organizations
that matures on or before the maturity date of the ETF
• As of now, it will have 2 maturity series - 3 and 10 years. Each series will have a separate index
of the same maturity series.
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Index Methodology:
• Index will be constructed by an independent index provider – National Stock Exchange
• Different indices tracking specific maturity years - 3 and 10 years.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1594815
Q14. With reference to Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) consider the following statements:
1. Minimum permissible investment is for 1 gram of gold.
2. The Bond is issued by SBI on behalf of Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding
physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash
on maturity. The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India. Minimum
permissible investment is for 1 gram of gold.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575483
Q 15. Consider the following statements:
1. A debenture is a loan issued by a firm.
2. It usually involves a fixed repayment schedule, in terms of both time and interest.
3. The person who owns the debenture will never have any claim on the company and has no voting
rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: A debenture is a loan issued by a firm. It usually involves a fixed repayment schedule, in terms
of both time and interest. If the firm keeps to the terms of the debenture, the person who owns the
debenture has no claim on the company and no voting rights. However, if the firm were to default on
their payment of a debenture. The holders of the debentures would have rights over the company.
They would have access to assets before even ordinary shareholders.
A convertible debenture occurs when at the end of a certain time frame a debenture can be converted
into shares.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1582337
Q16. Consider the following:
1. Revenue bonds where the funds raised are earmarked for one project are termed Municipal bonds.
2. Municipal bonds have been in existence in India since 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
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Exp: Municipal bonds where the funds raised are earmarked for one project are termed revenue
bonds. Municipal bonds have been in existence in India since 1997.
http://yojana.gov.in/FULLPDFYOJANAAUGUST2019.pdf
Q17. Consider the following statements:
1. Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) are government securities denominated in grams of gold.
2. The Bond is issued by State Bank of India on behalf of Government of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither1nor2
Ans: a
Exp: SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding
physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash
on maturity. The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1581208
Q18. Consider the following:
1. CPSEETF was launched by the government in March 2014 to help divest its stake in select public
sector undertakings through the ETF route.
2. The CPSEETF is managed by Reliance Mutual Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both1and 2
(d) Neither1nor2
Ans: c
Exp: CPSEETF, as the name suggests, is an exchange-traded fund (ETF) comprising public sector
enterprises (PSEs). The ETF was launched by the government in March 2014 to help divest its stake
in select public sector undertakings through the ETF route. The ETF is based on the Nifty CPSE index
that comprises 11 PSEs such as ONGC, NTPC, Coal India, Indian Oil Corporation, REC, Power
Finance Corporation, Bharat Electronics, Oil India, NBCC (India), NLC India and SJVN. The
parameters based on which companies have been made part of the index include a criteria that they
have paid at least 10% dividend in the last two consecutive years. The CPSEETF is managed by
Reliance Mutual Fund.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/cpse-etf-stakes-that-pay-rich-
dividends/article28978061.ece
Q19. Consider the following statements:
1. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has been established under the Ministry of Commerce.
2. The Central Govt. May assign the investigation into the affairs of a company to the Serious Fraud
Investigation Office in public interest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
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Exp: Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has been established under the Ministry of
Corporate Affairs.
(i) As per Section 212(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Central Govt. May assign the
investigation into the affairs of a company to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office–
1-on receipt of report of the Registrar or Inspector under section 208;
2- on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company requesting an investigation into
its affairs;
3- in public interest;
4- on the request of any Department of Central Government or State Government
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/hc-seeks-reply-from-ex-auditor-of-daewoo-motors-on-
sfio-petition/article29128968.ece
Q20. “Bharat-22” recently seen in news is ?
(a) Biodiesel
(b) Exchange Traded Fund
(c) Solar plane
(d) Gold Bond
Ans: b
Exp: The government has so far raised around ₹35,900 crore via through the Bharat-22 ETF-
Exchange Traded Fund.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/bharat-22-etf-fourth-tranche-on-october-
3/article29533619.ece
PUBLIC FINANCE
Q1. With reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission, consider the following
1. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017.
2. Its ‘Terms of Reference’ include recommending monitorable performance criteria for important
national flagship programmes and examining the possibility of setting up a permanent non lapsable
funding for India’s defence needs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Source: https://fincomindia.nic.in/
Q2.Consider the following statements:
1. National Pension Scheme for Traders, Shopkeepers and Self-Employed Persons, which is a
voluntary and contributory pension scheme launched in 2019.
2. The traders in the age group of 18-50 years with an annual turnover, not exceeding Rs.1.5 crore
and who are not members of EPFO/ESIC/NPS/PM-SYM or an income tax payer can join the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The traders in the age group of 18-40 years with an annual turnover, not exceeding Rs.1.5 crore
and who are not members of EPFO/ESIC/NPS/PM-SYM or an income tax payer, can join the scheme.
Under the scheme, 50% monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary and equal matching
contribution is paid by the Central Government. Subscribers, after attaining the age of 60 years, are
eligible for a monthly minimum assured pension of Rs. 3,000.
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Q3. With Reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2015.
2. Terms of reference includes recommending monitorable performance criteria for important
national flagship programmes.
3. Terms of reference includes examining the possibility of setting up a permanent non lapsable
funding for India’s defence needs.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: d
Exp: The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop
of the abolition of Planning Commission (as also of the distinction between Plan and non-Plan
expenditure) and the introduction of the goods and services tax (GST), which has fundamentally
redefined federal fiscal relations. The Terms of Reference of the current Commission have some
distinctive features, including recommending monitorable performance criteria for important national
flagship programmes and examining the possibility of setting up a permanent non lapsable funding
for India’s defence needs. The reorganisation of the State of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union
Territories – one of Jammu and Kashmir and one of Ladakh – presents a new dynamic. On the whole
the Finance Commission faces new challenges in the process of the evolution of our federal polity.
As an important Constitutional entity, the Commission is committed to balancing competing claims
and priorities among all three tiers of government in a credible manner.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573388
Q4. Consider the following:
1. Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) was adopted by India in 2009-10.
2. Overall, the Gender Budget Allocation for 2019-20 is close to 10 percent as a proportion of total
expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1and 2
(d) Neither1nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) was adoption by India in 2005-06. Overall, the Gender
Budget Allocation for 2019-20 is close to 5 percent as a proportion of total expenditure.
http://yojana.gov.in/FULLPDFYOJANAAUGUST2019.pdf
Q5. Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India: It was
launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and
above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme
enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension / return
linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of
India (LIC).Identify the scheme.
(a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana
(c) Liveability Index Programme
(d) Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
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Ans: b
Exp: The Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PNVVY) was launched in May 2017 to provide
social security during old age. This is a simplified version of the VPBY and will be implemented
by the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India. Under the scheme, on payment of an initial
lump sum amount ranging from Rs 1,50,000 for a minimum pension of Rs 1000 per month to a
maximum of Rs 7,50,000/- for a maximum pension of Rs 5,000 per month, subscribers will get an
assured pension based on a guaranteed rate of return of 8% per annum payable
monthly/quarterly/half- yearly/annually. The duration of the scheme will be for a period of ten years
and the scheme is opened for subscription for a period of one year i.e. from 4th May, 2017 to 3rd
May, 2018.
http://yojana.gov.in/19-3-19%20%20March%20Yojana%20Final.pdf
Q6. Which of the following indicates most approximate figure for Budget 2019-20 of Railways:-
(a) 55,000 Crore
(b) 65,000 Crore
(c) 75,000 Crore
(d) 85,000 Crore
Ans: b
Exp: In the Interim Budget 2019-20, the Railways has been allocated Rs.64,587 crore. The Railways’
overall capital expenditure programme is of Rs.1,58,658 crore. This was stated by the Union Minister
for Finance, Corporate Affairs, Railways & Coal, Shri Piyush Goyal, while presenting the Interim
Budget 2019-20 in Parliament today.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562148
Q7. ‘Non-Functional Upgradation (NFU)’ is related to
(a) Aircraft upgradation
(b) Seventh Central Pay commission
(c) Submarine upgradation
(d) Skills Training
Ans: b
Exp: The Armed Forces have been demanding the grant of NFU based on recommendations of the
Central Pay Commission like the Grade A Services and even the Central Armed Police Forces now
to have parity in pay scales.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1569457
Q8. Which of the following indicates most approximate figure for Budget 2019-20 of Defence:-
(a) 3,00,000 Crore
(b) 4,00,000 Crore
(c) 5,00,000 Crore
(d) 6,00,000 Crore
Ans: a
Exp: Rs. 3,05,296 crore have been provided in the Budget Estimates for 2019-20, compared to Rs.
2,82,733 crore provided in 2018-19 Budget Estimates. The figures were revised to Rs. 2,85,423 crore
in the Revised Estimates of 2018-19. While presenting the Interim Budget 2019-20 in Parliament
today the Union Minister for Finance, Corporate Affairs, Railways and Coal Sh. Piyush Goyal said
“Our Defence Budget will be crossing Rs.3,00,000 crore for the first time in 2019-20. For securing
our borders and to maintain preparedness of the highest order, if necessary, additional funds would
be provided.”
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562149
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TAXATION
Q1. With reference to Advance Pricing Agreement, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an ahead-of-time agreement between a taxpayer and a tax authority on an appropriate transfer
pricing methodology (TPM) for a set of transactions at issue over a fixed period of time
2. Taxpayers may enter into APAs with more than one tax authority – i.e., bilateral or multilateral
APAs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Ans: c
Exp:
Advance Pricing Agreement- In advance pricing agreement (APA) is an ahead-of-time agreement
between a taxpayer and a tax authority on an appropriate transfer pricing methodology (TPM) for a
set of transactions at issue over a fixed period of time
Taxpayers may enter into APAs with more than one tax authority – i.e., bilateral or multilateral APAs
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=189634
https://www.ey.com/gl/en/services/tax/international-tax/guide-to-advance-pricing-agreements--apa-
---apas--the-basic-elements
Q2. ‘Country-by-Country (CbC) Report’ recently seen in news is related to
(a) International Terrorism
(b) Sea Piracy
(c) Tax administrations
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
Exp: The BEPS Action 13 report (Transfer Pricing Documentation and Country-by-Country
Reporting) provides a template for multinational enterprises (MNEs) to report annually and for
each tax jurisdiction in which they do business the information set out therein. This report is called
the Country-by-Country (CbC) Report.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1568894
Q3. Consider following statements:
1. The accounting of GST collections in the Central Government is done on the cash basis.
2. A constitutional amendment to fix the proportion of shareable taxes going to states has been
enacted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The Centre should bring in a constitutional amendment to fix the proportion of shareable taxes
going to states, said former chairman of the Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council C.
Rangarajan. The accounting of GST collections in the Central Government is done on the cash basis.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/bring-in-constitutional-amendment-on-gst-revenue-sharing-
proportion-rangarajan/article26475474.ece
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Q4. Consider following statements:
1. The TIR Convention facilitates the international carriage of goods from one or more customs
offices of departure to one or more customs offices of destination.
2. The vehicle remains sealed throughout the TIR transport and goods are not inspected at border
crossings.
3. India gets its second TIR shipment via Chabahar Port from Afghanistan
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: The TIR Convention facilitates the international carriage of goods from one or more customs
offices of departure to one or more customs offices of destination. The vehicle remains sealed
throughout the TIR transport and goods are not inspected at border crossings. India gets first TIR
shipment via Chabahar Port from Afghanistan.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-gets-first-tir-shipment-via-chabahar-port-from-
afghanistan/article26525062.ece
Q5. Consider following statements-
1. Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union
and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
2. The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the
Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. The GST Council is chaired
by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or
Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/gst-council-to-discuss-realty-rates/article26314481.ece
Q6. ‘Angel Tax’, sometimes seen in news is
(a) Income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies via issue of shares where the share
price is seen in excess of the fair market value of the shares sold.
(b) Income tax rebate to Startups
(c) Income tax on companies with FDI investments above 25 percent
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: Angel tax is a term used to refer to the income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted
companies via issue of shares where the share price is seen in excess of the fair market value of the
shares sold.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/startups-to-be-listed-for-angel-tax-
exemption/article26218956.ece
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Q7. Country-by-Country (CbC) report sometimes seen in news is a key step in making India
compliant with the Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) project.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term?
Select one:
(a) It is the annual publication of OECD on tax evasion achieved by multinational enterprises by
shifting the profits
(b) A report required to be published by multinational enterprises annually and for each tax
jurisdiction in which they do business
(c) A report that contains the revised standards of transfer pricing documentation
(d) It is the guidelines by OECD for developing countries for securing revenues by realigning taxation
with economic activities and value creation
Ans: a
Exp:
o It is a report required to be published by multinational enterprises (MNEs) annually and for
each tax jurisdiction in which they do business.
o The template for the same was provided by the BEPS Action 13 report.
o The Income Tax Act requires Indian subsidiaries of multinational companiesto provide details
of key financial statements from other jurisdictions where they operate.
o This helps the IT department to better monitor such companies, and track its revenue and tax
compliance or evasion.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-in-pact-to-ease-us-firms-compliance/article26656510.ece
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. Angel Tax is the income tax payable on capital raised by listed companies.
2. Investments of up to 25 crore in an eligible company will be exempt from the angel tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp:
o Angel Tax is a term used to refer to the income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted
companies via issue of shares where the share price is seen in excess of the fair market value
of the shares sold.
o Investments of up to `25 crore (earlier `10 crore) in an eligible company will be exempt
from the angel tax and any scrutiny to do with its applicability.
o Investments made by a listed company of a net worth of at least `100 croreor a turnover of at
least Rs. 250 crore would also be exempt.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/startups-to-be-listed-for-angel-tax-
exemption/article26218956.ece
Q9. WRONG QUESTION – SO DELETED IT
Q10. Consider the following statements: -
1. The annual turnover limit under which companies would be exempt from GST has been increased
to Rs. 40 lakh for the North Eastern and hill states, from the earlier limit of Rs. 20
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lakh.
2. The threshold limit for Composition Scheme to small service providers has been increased from
an annual turnover of up to Rs. 20 Lakh to an annual turnover of up to Rs. 40 Lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: The Council also raised the annual turnover limit under which companies would be exempt
from GST to Rs. 40 lakh for most States and Rs. 20 lakh for the North Eastern and hill states,
from the earlier limit of Rs. 20 lakh and Rs. 10 lakh, respectively. Composition Scheme to small
service providers with an annual turnover of up to Rs. 50 lakh, at a tax rate of 6%.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/gst-burden-on-small-businesses-
eased/article25964627.ece
Q11. Consider the following statements: -
1. Income Tax Act is amended only during the main Budget.
2. Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill both are Money Bills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: as a matter of convention, the Income Tax Act is amended only during the main Budget.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/views-divided-on-vote-on-account-option-for-
central-government/article25975496.ece
Q12. The annual GST return form for normal taxpayers/ businesses registered under the Goods and
Services Tax (GST) regime is:
(a) GSTR-9
(b) GSTR-9A
(c) GSTR-9B
(d) GSTR-9C
Ans: a
Exp: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) on December 31, 2018, notified form
GSTR-9, GSTR-9A and GSTR-9C. GSTR-9 is the annual return form for normal taxpayers,
GSTR-9A is for taxpayers under composition scheme, while GSTR-9C is a reconciliation statement.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/govt-notifies-new-gst-return-
forms/article25885554.ece
Q13.Consider the following statements:
1. e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying
any consignment of goods of value exceeding fifty thousand rupees
2. Only registered person can enrol and generate the e-way bill for movement of goods for his/ her
own use
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The consignor or consignee, as a registered person or a transporter of the goods can generate
the e-way bill. The unregistered transporter can enrol on the common portal and generate the e-way
bill for movement of goods for his clients. Any person can also enrol and generate thee-way bill for
movement of goods for his/ her own use. e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person
in charge of the conveyance carrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding fifty thousand
rupees as mandated by the Government in terms of Section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act
read with Rule 138 of the rules framed there under. It is generated from the GST Common Portal for
e-Way bill system by the registered persons or transporters who cause movement of goods of
consignment before commencement of such movement.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q14. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas
(b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies
(c) exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies
(d) lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental
projects
Ans: b
Exp: Domestic tax base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) due to multinational enterprises exploiting
gaps and mismatches between different countries' tax systems affects all countries. Developing
countries' higher reliance on corporate income tax means they suffer from BEPS disproportionately.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/a-tax-policy-that-could-work/article29675502.ece
Q16.Goods and Service Tax Network (GSTN) is
(a) Public sector entity
(b) Private sector Entity
(c) Non-profit organization
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: ICICI Bank has exited the company following the government’s decision to make GST Network
into a public sector entity last year. The Centre will own 50 % stake in the GST Network and the rest
will be held by States on a pro-rata basis, in the new structure
https://www.thehindu.com/business/icici-bank-exits-gst-network/article29801409.ece
Q17.The GST Council consists of the:
1. Union Finance Minister
2. Union Minister of State (Finance)
3. The Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister, nominated by each state
government.
4. RBI governor
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: b
Exp: The GST Council consists of the following members: The Union Finance Minister (as
Chairman). The Union Minister of State in-charge of Revenue or Finance. The Minister in charge of
Finance or Taxation or any other Minister, nominated by each State Government to the GST Council.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/showdown-likely-at-gst-council-
meet/article30330794.ece
Q18.With reference to FASTag, consider the following:
1. It is issued separately for each vehicle, regardless of ownership.
2. It is valid for a period of four years.
3. NPCI does not issue FASTag.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: c
Exp: It is valid for a period of five years, after which you can apply for re-issuance. NPCI does not
issue FASTag. NPCI has developed NETC System which facilities to make the toll payment
electronically.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/about/what-is-fastag
https://www.npci.org.in/netc-consumer
Q19.With reference HSN Code, consider the following statements:
1. It is a five-digit identification code developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO)
2. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry recently allocated a separate Harmonised System (HS)
code for Khadi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Harmonised System, or simply ‘HS’ is a six-digit identification code developed by the World
Customs Organization (WCO). It is called the “universal economic language” for goods. It is a
multipurpose international product nomenclature. The system currently comprises of around 5,000
commodity groups → HS Code is also known as HSN Code in India. Goods are classified into
Harmonized System of Nomenclature or HSN. It is widely used for taxation purposes by helping to
identify the rate of tax applicable to aspecific product in a country that is under review. It canals obe
used in calculations that involve claiming benefits. It is used to monitor and control the import and
export of commodities.
Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-khadi-gets-hs-code-but-what-does-
that-mean-6113268/
Q20.Consider the following statements:
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1. GST is proposed to be a dual levy where the Central Government will levy and collect Central
GST and the State will levy and collect State GST on intra-state supply of goods or services.
2. GST Council dictates tax rate, tax exemption and tax laws, keeping in mind special rates and
provisions for some states.
3. The Centre does not levy and collect Integrated GST (IGST) on inter-state supply of goods or
services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: Goods and Services Tax (GST) is governed by the GST Council. Article 279 (1) of the amended
Indian Constitution states that the GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days
of the commencement of the Article 279A. According to the article, GST Council will be a joint
forum for the Centre and the States. It consists of the following members: Union Finance Minister
will be the Chairperson; as a member, the Union Minister of State will be in charge of Revenue of
Finance, the minister in charge of finance or taxation or any other minister nominated by each
State government, as members. The Centre also levies and collects Integrated GST (IGST) on inter-
state supply of goods or services.
Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-voting-at-the-gst-council-6206947/
https://cleartax.in/s/gst-council
Q21. ICEDASH and ATITHI are two new IT initiatives related to:
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Ans: b
Exp: Two new IT Initiatives-ICEDASH & ATITHI were launched by the Ministry of Finance for
improved monitoring and pace of Customs clearance of imported goods and facilitating arriving
international passengers. ICEDASH: Ease of Doing Business monitoring dashboard of the Indian
Customs helping publicsee the daily Customs clearance times of import cargo. ATITHI: Easy to use
mobile app for international travellers to file the Customs declaration in advance.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=194236
Q22. “GAFA tax" recently seen in news is related to
(a) Tax on large internet and technology companies
(b) Tax on food products with trans fats
(c) Tax on carbon emissions
(d) Tax on clearing forests by firms
Ans. a
Exp: France will introduce its own tax on large internet and technology companies from January 1.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/Politics/Zag39IyZPanr0mNFR0VFbL/France-to-introduce-tax-
on-global-internet-technology-firms.html
Q23. Consider following statements:
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1. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) determines the Rate of Exchange of
conversion of the Foreign Currencies specified into Indian currency or vice versa, relating to imported
and export goods.
2. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Expenditure under
the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (erstwhile Central Board of Excise & Customs)
is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It deals
with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise
duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST, prevention of smuggling and administration of
matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST and Narcotics to
the extent under CBIC's purview. The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate
organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate’s and
the Central Revenues Control Laboratory.
In exercise of the powers conferred by Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962), and in
supersession of the notification of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
No.37/2019-CUSTOMS (N.T.), dated 16th May, 2019 except as respects things done or omitted to
be done before such super-session, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) hereby
determines that the Rate of Exchange of conversion of each of the Foreign Currencies specified in
column (2) of each of Schedule I and Schedule II annexed hereto, into Indian currency or vice versa,
shall, with effect from 7th June, 2019, be the rate mentioned against it in the corresponding entry in
column (3) thereof, for the purpose of the said Section, relating to imported and export goods.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573583
Q24. Consider the following:
1. The National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) is the statutory mechanism under GST law to
check the unfair profiteering activities by the registered suppliers under GST law.
2. Any consumer or organisation experiencing the non-reduction in the price of the goods or service
despite reduction in the rate of tax can file the complaint with proper prima facie evidences.
3. Only Online complaint facility is available.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
Exp: The National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) is the statutory mechanism under GST law to
check the unfair profiteering activities by the registered suppliers under GST law. Any consumer or
organisation experiencing the non-reduction in the price of the goods or service despite reduction in
the rate of tax can file the complaint with proper prima facie evidences. There are multiple ways
through which aggrieved consumers or recipients of goods and services can register their complaints
against profiteering.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575285
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Q25. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas
(b) Curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies
(c) Exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies
(d) Lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of
developmental projects
Ans: b
Exp: The Union Cabinet, has approved the ratification of the Multilateral Convention to Implement
Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (MLI)
Impact: The Convention will modify India's treaties in order to curb revenue loss through treaty abuse
and base erosion and profit shifting strategies by ensuring that profits are taxed where substantive
economic activities generating the profits are carried out and where value is created.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1574095
Q26. Consider the following:
1. Unlike a tax, a cess is levied to meet a specific purpose; its proceeds cannot be spent on any kind
of government expenditure.
2. Recently flood cess was introduced by the state of Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The State government of Kerala has issued orders for introducing flood cess from June 1. Unlike
a tax, a cess is levied to meet a specific purpose; its proceeds cannot be spent on any kind of
government expenditure.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-forgotten-funds/article28078252.ece
INFLATION
Q1. Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for the Industrial
Workers’?
a) The Reserve Bank of India
b) The Department of Economic Affairs
c) The Labour Bureau
d) The department of Personnel and Training
Ans: c
Exp: Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour and Employment is responsible for the collation
and publication of statistics and related information on wages, earnings, productivity, absenteeism,
labour turn-over, industrial relations etc.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573232
Q2. Sudden disruption in oil supply to India can cause
1. disruption in economic growth
2. increase Current Account Deficit
3.Increase inflation
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
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(c) 2 and 3
(d) all
Ans: d
Exp: Adverse impact on economic growth-due to an extended period of high oil prices. Saudi Arabia
is India second biggest oil supplier after Iraq. Widen the current account deficit: A$ 10 rise in Brent
will lift India’s annualised import bill by $ 15 billion and a 10 % rise in oil prices widens India’s
current account deficit by 0.4-0.5 percent of GDP. It further leads to weakening of rupee, which
ultimately squeeze the government’s ability to spend on social sector schemes or sops to revive the
economy. Inflation: Oil rise here would also affect many industries, including manufacturing and
aviation, and can accelerate inflation.
https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/saudi-arabia-aramco-oil-facility-attacked-what-makes-drone-
attacks-so-dangerous-1600169-2019-09-17
Q3.Consider the following statements:-
1. Wholesale Price Inflation (WPI) number is a better measurement of what is largely happening with
consumer prices.
2. Reserve Bank of India uses WPI inflation to manage Monetary Policy in the country.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: d
Exp: While earlier the Reserve Bank of India used WPI inflation to manage monetary policy
expectations, it is now the CPI inflation which is largely taken into account. Consumer PriceInflation
number in mind. It is a better measurement of what is largely happening with consumer prices.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/inflation-conundrum/article26065472.ece
Q4. Through Asset liability management (ALM), which of the following central risks can be
managed:-
1. Interest Rate Risk
2. Liquidity Risk
3. Foreign currency risk
4. Currency risk
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: d
Exp: All the risks mentioned are managed.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/inflation-volatility-is-a-challenge-says-rbi-
governor/article26032628.ece
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UNEMPLOYMENT AND POVERTY
Q1. Regarding “Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban)” scheme, which of the following is not one of
its component?
(a) Slum rehabilitation of Slum Dwellers with participation of private developers using land as a
resource
(b) Promotion of Affordable Housing for weaker section through credit linked subsidy
(c) Affordable Housing in Partnership with Public sectors only
(d) Subsidy for beneficiary-led individual house construction /enhancement
Ans: c
Exp:
• The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Programme launched by the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), in Mission mode envisions provision of Housing for All by
2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence.
• The Mission seeks to address the housing requirement of urban poor including slum dwellers
through following programme verticals:
• Affordable Housing in Partnership with Public & Private sectors
• Slum rehabilitation of Slum Dwellers with participation of private developers using land as a
resource
• Promotion of Affordable Housing for weaker section through credit linked subsidy
• Subsidy for beneficiary-led individual house construction /enhancement
http://vikaspedia.in/health/sanitation-and-hygiene/social-welfare/urban-poverty-alleviation-
1/schemes-urban-poverty-alleviation/pradhan-mantri-awas-yojana-housing-for-all-urban
http://yojana.gov.in/Recent_archive_English_2018.asp
Q3. The Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS) were established by?
(a) IMF
(b) World Bank
(c) RBI
(d) WTO
Ans: a
Exp: Monthly measurement of the unemployment rate is one of the requirements of the Special Data
Dissemination Standard (SDDS) of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/surveying-indias-
unemploymentnumbers/article26218615.ece
Q4. ‘SWEEKAR’ and ‘SWAGAT’ recently in news are
(a) Indigenously developed payment system
(b) New variety of apples
(c) High Yielding Variety of Wheat
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: India’s First Indigenously Developed Payment Eco-system for transport consisting of NCMC
Card, SWEEKAR (Swachalit Kiraya: Automatic Fare Collection System) and SWAGAT (Swachalit
Gate) is based on NCMC Standards.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1567345
Q5. Consider following statements about Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM):
1. It ensures old age protection for Unorganised Workers.
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2. During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary will not get the
pension received by the beneficiary as family pension.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: It ensures old age protection for Unorganised Workers. During the receipt of pension, if the
subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received
by the beneficiary as family pension.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1567494
Q6.‘Hank Yarn Obligation’ is
(a) Subsidy to Silk Farmers
(b) Subsidy to Handloom Weavers
(c) Availability of coiled or wrapped yarn to handloom weavers
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
Exp: Now every producer of yarn who packs yarn for civil consumption will pack yarn in hank form
in each quarterly period commencing from January-March 2019 and every subsequent quarterly
period, in proportion of not less than 30% of total yarn packed by him during each quarterly period
for civil consumption. However, not less than 80% of the yarn required to be packed in hank form
shall be of counts 80s and below. Previously, this proportion was 40% of total yarn packed.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1568058
Q7. Consider following statements related to Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM)
Yojana:
1. It is Pension yojana for Unorganised Sector workers with monthly income of rupees 15000 or
below.
2. It will give assured monthly pension of rupees 5000 from the age of 60 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: It is Pension yojana for Unorganised Sector workers with monthly income of rupees 15000 or
below. It will give assured monthly pension of rupees 3000 from the age of 60 years.
http://yojana.gov.in/19-3-19%20%20March%20Yojana%20Final.pdf
Q8. The new concept of ‘learning poverty’ has been introduced by:
(a) UNDP
(b) UNICEF
(c) World Bank
(d) PISA
Ans: c
Exp: World Bank has released the report “Ending Learning Poverty”. Learning Poverty is defined as
the percentage of 10-year-olds who cannot read and understand a simple story.
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Source:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/blogs/toi-editorials/read-it-right-fix-learning-poverty-to-
tackle-actual-poverty/
Q9. The New Code on Wages will amalgamate which of the following acts:
1. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
2. Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
3. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
4. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 4 only
(b)1, 2 and 4 only
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: b
Exp: The Centre will soon notify the rules that will create the mechanisms to fix a floor wage that
would then under gird the minimum wages for different categories of workers— unskilled, semi-
skilled, skilled and highly skilled; that the States and Central government would have to set and
enforce. The new code will amalgamate the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/rajya-sabha-passes-wage-code-
bill/articleshow/70501009.cms?from=mdr
Q10.With reference to the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, consider the following:
1. Under the Act, both Centre and the State governments are responsible in respect of their scheduled
employments within their jurisdictions to fix and revise minimum wages.
2. The Act is legally non-binding but statutory.
3. Period to revise the minimum wages is five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: Under the Act, both Centre and the State governments are responsible in respect of their
scheduled employments within their jurisdictions to fix and revise minimum wages. The Act is legally
non-binding but statutory. Payment of wages below the minimum wage rate amounts to forced labour.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/decoded-what-code-on-wages-
mean-for-the-50-crore-workers-it-aims-to-benefit/articleshow/70515807.cms?from=mdr
https://legalbites.in/law-notes-object-validity-features-minimum-wages-act-1948/
Q11.Recently, JEEVANKAUSHAL– curriculum for life skills is launched by
(a) ministry of human resources and development
(b) ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship
(c) ministry of rural development
(d) Prime Minister’s Office
Ans: a
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Exp: Recently, the Ministry of Human Resource Development launched the Curriculum for Life
Skills (Jeevan Kaushal) designed by University Grants Commission (UGC), for the development of
life skills in every individual, as an essential part of wholesome learning.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1584801
Q12. SANKALP scheme is related to
(a) Skill development
(b) Rural development
(c) Women empowerment
(d) Agriculture
Ans: a
Exp: SANKALP is an outcome-oriented centrally sponsored programme of Ministry of Skill
Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) with a special focus on decentralised planning and quality
improvement. It focuses on the overall skilling ecosystem covering both Central & State agencies.
SANKALP aims to implement the mandate of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM).
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192464
Q13. Consider the following statements
1. SC/ST households
2. No literate adult above 25 years
3. Female headed household without a male member between the age of 16-59
4. Landless households as manual casual labour
5. Household without any adult member holding a government job
Which of the following fall under deprivation category of SECC 2011?
(a) 1,2,3,5
(b) 2,3,4,5
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) All
Ans: c
Exp: SECC 2011 has become the source to identify beneficiaries under many government schemes
like MGNREGA in order to provide services as per deprivation. In addition to above, houses with
kutcha walls and kutcha roofs, households with only disabled members without an adult member,
households without a literate also fall under deprivation category.
Source: Yojana September
Q14. “Time to Care” Report released by Oxfam International focuses on:
(a) Alleviation of global poverty
(b) Reducing maternal mortality rate
(c) Eradicating child labour
(d) Non-communicable diseases like mental illness
Ans: a
Exp:
The report is released by Oxfam International. It focuses on the alleviation of global poverty. The
world had 2,153 billionaires in the world in 2019. The number of billionaires has doubled in the last
decade, despite their combined wealth having declined in 2018→ World’s richest 1% have more than
twice as much wealth as 6.9 billion people.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/wealth-of-indias-richest-1-
more-than-4-times-of-total-for-70-poorest-oxfam/articleshow/73416122.cms?from=mdr
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Q15. Match the following state government schemes related to skill development.
Scheme- State
1. Samvardhan Yojana w-MadhyaPradesh
2. Kushal Yuva Programme x-Bihar
3. Kushalkar.com y-Karnataka
4. SEEKHO-SIKHAO z-Haryana
Select the correct answer from the following
(a) 1-w, 2-y, 3-x, 4-z
(b) 1-w, 2-x, 3-y, 4-z
(c) 1-x, 2-w, 3-z, 4-y
(d) 1-z, 2-w, 3-y, 4-x
Ans: b
Exp: Other state government schemes related to skill development
Kaushalya Vardhan Kendra–Gujarat
SURYA, SAKSHAM–Haryana
Mukhya Mantri Shram Shakti Yojana–Bihar
Source: Yojana September
Q16. Oxfam International is
(a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars
(b) a global Human Rights Movement
(c) a group of charitable organizations focusing on the alleviation of global poverty
(d) aninter-governmentalagencytocatertomedicalemergenciesinwar-ravagedregions
Ans: c
Exp: Oxfam is a confederation of 19 independent charitable organizations focusing on the alleviation
of global poverty, founded in 1942 and led by Oxfam International. It is a major non profit group
with an extensive collection of operations.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam-tea-estates-violating-labour-
laws/article29649803.ece
Q17. `SANKALP’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at
(a) Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
(b) Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
(c) District level skilling ecosystem
(d) Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free
Ans: c
Exp: Skill India’s SANKALP Scheme to focus on district level skilling ecosystem through seamless
convergence and coordination
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1581204
Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. The 45th World Skills Competition was held in Kazan, Russia in August 2019.
2. India is a member to World Skills International.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 no r2
Ans: c
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Exp: The 48-member Indian Team representing the country at World Skills Kazan 2019 was given a
grand send-off at a ceremony in the capital today, organized by National Skill Development
Corporation (NSDC) under the aegis of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(MSDE), to motivate the participants as they gear up to pit their skills against the best in the world.
India is the sixth largest team that will take part in the competition.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1582263
Q19. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is released by
(a) Labour bureau
(b) The Reserve Bank of India
(c) NSSO
(d) The Department of Economic Affairs
Ans: c
Exp: This Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation has launched a new regular
employment-unemployment survey, namely, Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) during April,
2017 with certain changes in survey methodology, data collection mechanism and sampling design
vis-à-vis the earlier quinquennial (once in every five years) Employment and Unemployment surveys
of NSSO. The PLFS has been launched with an objective of measuring quarterly changes of various
labour market statistical indicators in urban areas as well as generating annual estimates of these
indicators both for rural and urban areas, which can be used for policy making.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575853
Q20. Consider the following statements.
1. Inflation has declined in almost all the countries around the world.
2. However in India, inflation has been showing an uptick.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The global economy has been witnessing a steep decline in inflation over the past five decades
(World Bank, 2019). Inflation has declined in almost all the countries around the world. Emerging
market economies have also experienced a remarkable decline in inflation over the same period.
In India, inflation has been witnessing moderation since 2014. However, recently inflation has shown
an uptick.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q21. Consider the following statements.
1. Headline inflation based on CPI-C has been sliding on an upward path since 2014.
2. The average CPI-C headline inflation has increased continuously.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: Headline inflation based on CPI-C has been sliding on a downward path since 2014
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The average CPI-C headline inflation, which was 5.9 per cent in 2014- 15, has fallen continuously to
around 3.4 per cent in 2018-19.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q22. Consider the following statements.
1. CPI-Rural inflation has been consistently above CPI-Urban inflation
2. The divergence has been mainly on account of the differential rates of food inflation between
rural and urban areas witnessed during this period
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Since July 2018, CPI-Urban inflation, has been consistently above CPI-Rural inflation.
The divergence has been mainly on account of the differential rates of food inflation between rural
and urban areas witnessed during this period.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q23. Consider the following statements.
1. The overall inflation rate has been quite low in almost all the States.
2. Daman & Diu have the lowest inflation rate amongst all the States.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: CPI-C inflation has continued to be highly variable across States. Inflation ranged between (-
)0.04 per cent to 8.1 per cent across States/UTs in financial year (FY) 2019-20 (April-December)
compared to (-)1.3 per cent to 9.1 per cent in FY 2018-19 (AprilDecember). However, the overall
inflation rate has been quite low in almost all the States.
Nineteen States/UTs had inflation rate lower than All India average for FY 2019-20 (April-
December) with Daman & Diu having the lowest inflation followed by Bihar and Chhattisgarh
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q24. Consider the following statements about CPI-C inflation in 2019-20.
1. Food and beverages emerged as the main contributor to CPI-C inflation
2. The major driver of CPI-C inflation was the miscellaneous group.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: During 2018-19, the major driver of CPI-C inflation was the miscellaneous group. Compared to
2017-18, the contribution of food and beverages to total inflation was lower in 2018-19. However,
during 2019-20 (April- December), food and beverages emerged as the main contributor to CPI-C
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inflation, with 54 per cent of the inflation during this period attributable to this group. Miscellaneous
group was the second largest contributor to inflation during this period.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q25. Which of the following are reasons for a high spread between the wholesale and retail prices ?
1. high transaction costs
2. weak infrastructure
3. information systems
4. poor marketing facilities
5. huge margins of middleman
Select the correct code
a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Ans: d
Exp: The reasons for such a high spread between the wholesale and retail prices could be due to
several reasons such as high transaction costs, weak infrastructure and information systems, poor
marketing facilities, huge margins of middleman etc.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q10.Consider the following statements
1. Expenditure on social services, as a proportion of GDP, has increased by 1.5%.
2. Total formal employment in the economy increased to 9.98%
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: As a proportion of GDP, the expenditure on social services has registered an increase of more
than 1 percentage points during the period from 2014-15 to 2018-19 (BE), from 6.2 per cent in 2014-
15 to 7.3 per cent in 2018-19 (BE).
Total formal employment in the economy increased from 8% in 2011-12 to 9.98% in 2017-18, stated
the survey released today.
https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1577032
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/small-biz/sme-sector/formal-jobs-on-the-up-stands-at-9-98-
in-2017-18-economic-survey-2019-20/articleshow/73802278.cms?from=mdr
Q12.Consider the following statements
1. Least expenditure in the various components of education is for the course fees.
2. Students pursuing education in private aided institutions are spending significantly higher as
compared to government institutions
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans: b Exp: Of the total expenses incurred on the education of every student, over half of the amount is
spent on tuition and exam fees — and that excludes course material, books and uniform.
https://www.businessinsider.in/education/news/average-education-expenditure-in-india-increases-
fourfold-to-8331-per-
student/articleshow/72282009.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campa
ign=cppst
POPULATION AND DEMOGRAPHY
Q1. Consider the following:
1. World Population Prospects is released by United Nations.
2. Around 2050, India is projected to overtake China as the world’s most populous country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The world’s population is expected to increase by 2 billion persons in the next 30 years, from
7.7 billion currently to 9.7 billion in 2050, according to a new United Nations report launched today.
Around 2027, India is projected to overtake China as the world’s most populous country.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/a-stable-planet/article28102991.ece
INTERNATIONAL INSTITUTIONS
Q1. ‘Libor’ is
(a) Interbank Interest Rate
(b) London crude oil variety
(c) Coming Olympics mascot
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: The London Interbank Offered Rate (Libor)
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/libor-transition-opens-up-avenues-for-it-
majors/article26935586.ece
Q2. Consider following statements:
1. The SWIFT is a global member-owned cooperative.
2. It is headquartered in London.
3. It developed a secure electronic messaging service and common standards to facilitate cross- border
payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: The SWIFT is a global member-owned cooperative. It is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium.
It developed a secure electronic messaging service and common standards to facilitate cross-border
payments.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/the-lowdown-on-swift-and-bank-fraud/article22846010.ece
Q3.Consider following statements
1. WTO has an Appellate Body which hears appeals in disputes brought by WTO Members.
2. Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) is the supreme body for disputes settlement at WTO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The General Council convenes as the Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) to deal with disputes
between WTO members.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562519
Q4. Consider the following -
1. Minimum Regulatory Capital Requirements based on Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs)
2. Supervisory Review Process
3. Market Discipline
Which of the above are pillars of BASEL III for banking sector?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: All the above are three pillars of BASEL III.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/rbi-notifies-deferment-of-capital-buffer-
norms-as-per-boards-call/article25964632.ece
Q5. Consider the following statements:-
1. World Economy Outlook (WEO) is issued by World Bank.
2. India is projected to grow ahead of China as WEO-2019
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: b
Exp: World Economy Outlook is issued by International Monetary Fund (IMF). India is projected
to grow at 7.5 per cent in 2019 and 7.7 per cent in 2020, an impressive over one
percentage point ahead of China’s estimated growth of 6.2 per cent in these two years.
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Q5. Consider following statements
1. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is headquartered in Vienna,
Austria.
2. India is one of the 14 Members of the OPEC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries is an intergovernmental organization
of 14 nations, founded in 1960 in Baghdad by the first five members (Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia,
and Venezuela), and headquartered since 1965 in Vienna, Austria. The current OPEC members are
the following: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya,
Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia (the de facto leader), United Arab Emirates, and
Venezuela. Indonesia and Qatar are former members.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562541
Q6. In the BIMSTEC, an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are a participant/
participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Bhutan
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2,4 and 5
Ans: d
Exp: The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and
adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity. This sub-regional
organization came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It constitutes seven
Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri
Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand. Initially, the economic bloc
was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka
and Thailand Economic Cooperation). Following the inclusion of Myanmar on 22 December 1997
during a special Ministerial Meeting in Bangkok, the Group was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ (Bangladesh,
India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). With the admission of Nepal and
Bhutan at the 6th Ministerial Meeting (February 2004, Thailand), the name of the grouping was
changed to ‘Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation’
(BIMSTEC)
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-importance-of-being-neighbourly/article27819079.ece
Q7. Which one of the following issues the ‘World Economic outlook’ report periodically?
(a) International Monetary Fund
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(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank
Ans: a
Exp: The IMF in its latest World Economic Outlook projected India’s growth rate at 6.1% in 2019
and noted that the Indian economy is expected to pick up the next year at 7.0% in 2020.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/imf-cuts-indias-growth-projection-to-61-in-
2019/article29692020.ece
Q8. ‘Illuminating Inequalities’ released in 2019 is related to
(a) UN Development Programme
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) Amnesty International
(d)Oxfam India
Ans. a
Exp: The 2019 Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) data and publication "Illuminating
Inequalities" released on 11 July 2019 shed light on the number of people experiencing poverty at
regional, national and sub-national levels, and reveal inequalities across countries and among the poor
themselves. It is jointly developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) at the University of
Oxford, the 2019 global MPI offers data for 101 countries, covering 76 percent of the global
population.
Source:http://hdr.undp.org/en/2019-MPI
Q9. The term ‘Regulatory Consistency Assessment Programme (RCAP)’ is sometimes mentioned
in media with reference to
(a) Basel Norms
(b) FDI
(c) Insurance
(d) Participatory Notes
Ans. a
Exp: An assessment of compliance with Basel Norms was recently conducted by the Regulatory
Consistency Assessment Programme (RCAP). RCAP is part of the Basel committee
Source: https://www.bis.org/bcbs/implementation/rcap_role.htm
Q10.Recently India was part of the ‘Summit on Financial Markets and the World Economy’ (2019)
that took place in which of the following countries?
(a) India
(b) Brazil
(c) Japan
(d) France
Ans. c
Exp:The G20 Summit is formally known as the “Summit on Financial Markets and the World
Economy”. It was recently held at Osaka, Japan.
Source:https://www.japan.go.jp/g20japan/
Q11. Which one of the following issues the “Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS)”
(a) World Bank
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(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations
(d) The Asian Development Bank
Ans: b
Exp. India has subscribed to the Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS) of the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) and an Advance Release Calendar is decided for release of estimates. The IMF
had raised certain issues on the usage of double deflation in the Indian GDP series and India has
informed IMF that the existing data availability does not permit its application in India at present.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573808
Q12.Consider the following
1. PISA was introduced by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation Development (OECD) to test
the learning levels of 15-year-olds in reading, mathematics and science.
2. India is one of participant of the programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Government of India has decided to participate in the Programme for International Students
Assessment (PISA) to be conducted by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(OECD) in 2021. PISA — introduced by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation Development
(OECD) — tests the learning levels of 15-year-olds in reading, mathematics and science.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575471
Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. The Bank of International Settlement is owned by 60 central banks, representing countries from
around the world that together account for about 95% of world GDP.
2. Its head office is in Bern, Switzerland.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Established in 1930, the BIS is owned by 60 central banks, representing countries from around
the world that together account for about 95% of world GDP. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland
and it has two representative offices: in Hong Kong SAR and in Mexico City.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/sebi-simplifies-norms-for-foreign-
investors/article29214341.ece
Q14. Consider the following about Dispute settlement Body of WTO
1. The General Council is WTO’s highest decision-making body and it also meets as the DSB.
2. Decisions are taken here by the reverse consensus method.
3. Its decisions are final and binding
Which among the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
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(c) 1 and 3
(d) all
Ans: a
Exp: Dispute Settlement Body- The General Council is WTO’s highest decision-making body and it
also meets as the DSB. It is essentially a political body and it administers rules and procedure of the
DSU. Decisions are taken hereby the reverse consensus method. That is, the decision is adopted
unless there is consensus against it.
Appellate Body is a seven-member permanent organ that adjudicates appeals within the DSS.
Members are appointed by the DSB for four-year terms. It follows the positive consensus mechanism.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-problem-at-the-wto/article24609374.ece
Q15. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘Ease of doing
business' ?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank
Ans: d
Exp: Ease of doing business index (1=most business-friendly regulations) from The World Bank
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1586891
Q16. The “Global Risks Report” is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Ans: c
Exp:
The 15thedition of the World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report is published as critical risks are
manifesting. The global economy is facing an increased risk of stagnation, climate change is striking
harder and more rapidly than expected, and fragmented cyberspace threatens the full potential of next-
generation technologies—all while citizens world wide protest political and economic conditions and
voice concerns about systems that exacerbate inequality. The challenges before us demand immediate
collective action, but fractures within the global community appear to only be widening. Stake holders
need to act quickly and with purpose within an unsettled global landscape.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/in-charts-international-monetary-funds-world-
economic-outlook/article29734182.ece
Q17. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘Global social
mobility index'?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank
Ans: c
Exp: The World Economic Forum’s Global Social Mobility Index provides a new, holistic assessment
of 82 global economies according to their performance on five key dimensions of social mobility
distributed over 10 pillars: 1. Health; 2. Education (access, quality and equity, lifelong learning); 3.
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Technology; 4. Work (opportunities, wages, conditions); 5. Protection and Institutions (social
protection and inclusive institutions).
The Global Social Mobility Index, which benchmarks 82 global economies, is designed to provide
policymakers with a means to identify areas for improving social mobility and promoting equally
shared opportunities in their economies, regardless of their development.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-ranks-low-at-76th-place-on-global-social-mobility-
index/article30607184.ece
Q18. Lisbon Treaty is related to
(a) Extradition of prisoners
(b) European Union
(c) Climate change
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
Exp: The Treaty of Lisbon (initially known as the Reform Treaty) is an international agreement that
amends the two treaties which form the constitutional basis of the European Union (EU). The Treaty
of Lisbon was signed by the EU member states on 13 December 2007, and entered into force on 1
December 2009.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/britains-last-day-in-eu-here-is-the-chronology-of-
brexit/article30703156.ece
Q19. Consider the following statements:
1. The “New Development Bank” International organization was jointly founded by the IBSA
Countries.
2. All countries have equal shareholding and voting rights.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The NEW DEVELOPMENT BANK International organization jointly founded by the BRICS
Countries. All countries have equal shareholding and voting rights.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q20. New Southern Policy is strategy of foreign relations of which of the following countries?
(a) South Korea
(b) India
(c) China
(d) America
Ans: a
Exp: NSP is part of South Korean government’s broader strategy of promoting a ‘Northeast Asia
Plus Community for Responsibility-sharing’ (NEAPC). The New Southern Policy intends to build
stronger economic linkages with countries to Korea’s south in Southeast Asia and India. The New
Northern Policy, meanwhile, focuses on countries to Korea’s north including Russia, Mongolia and
Central Asian countries.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/s-korea-wants-to-elevate-ties-with-
india/article24988305.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-south-korea-seal-logistics-pact/article29354781.ece
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Q21. The term “Far East” often in news refer to
(a) Eastern part of Russia
(b) Eastern part of Pacific Ocean
(c) Eastern part of North East India
(d) None
Ans: a
Exp: Recently, the 20th India-Russia annual summit and the fifth meeting of the Eastern Economic
Forum (EEF) was held in Vladivostok, Russia. The focus of the visit was on the development of the
Far East for which India has extended a $ 1 billion line of credit.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/india-promotes-long-term-big-
ticket-investments-at-eastern-economic-forum/articleshow/70971960.cms?from=mdr
Q22. Global Microscope on Financial Inclusion Report is published by:
(a) IMF
(b) The Economist Intelligence Unit
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) INSEAD
Ans: b
Exp: It is released by the Economist Intelligence Unit. It features 11 new gender focussed indicators
that measure financial inclusion for both women as well as men. India is among top nations with most
conducive environment for financial inclusion in terms of allowing non-banks to issuee-money,
proportionate customer due diligence and effective consumer protection. South Africa, India, Mexico,
Tanzania and Uruguay were among the top countries that safeguarde-money via some sort of deposit
insurance or protection.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-among-top-nations-with-most-
conducive-environment-for-financial-inclusion-report/article29839466.ece
Q23. With reference to Tropical Forest Alliance 2020, consider the following statements:
1. It was founded in 2012 at Rio+20.
2. This project is part of the World Economic Forum’s Shaping the Future of Global Public Goods
Platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The Tropical Forest Alliance is a global public-private partnership dedicated to collaborative
action to realize sustainable rural development and better growth opportunities based on reduced
deforestation and sustainable land use management in tropical forest countries
Source: https://www.weforum.org/projects/tfa-2020
Q24. Global Investment Trend Monitor Report was recently released by:
(a) UNCTAD
(b) IMF
(c) WTO
(d) World Bank
Ans: a
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Exp: The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) said that India was
among the top 10 recipients of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in 2019, attracting $49 billion in
inflows, a 16 % increase from the previous year, driving the FDI growth in South Asia. The majority
went into services industries, including information technology. UNCTAD, in its Global Investment
Trend Monitor report said that the global foreign direct investment remained flat in 2019 at $1.39
trillion,a 1 % decline from a revised $ 1.41 trillion in 2018.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-attracted-49-billion-
fdi-in-2019-among-top-10-recipients-of-overseas-investment-unctad/articleshow/73441481.cms
Q25. India is set to sign ‘Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS)’ with which of the
following countries?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Japan
(d) Russia
Ans: d
Exp: India and Russia are expected to conclude a mutual logistics agreement and review the setting
up of joint ventures for manufacturing spares for Russian defence platforms in India. The ARLS is
an arrangement which will allow access to each other’s military facilities for supplies and fuel,
expanding the logistics support and operational turn around of the Indian military. This will be
especially beneficial for the Indian Navy, which has a large number of Russian origin ships, that will
get access to Russian ports for supplies and refueling. This will be crucial for joint exercises. The air
force too will benefit by finding it easier to deploy aircraft for the same purpose.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-russia-to-conclude-mutual-logistics-
agreement/article29881623.ece
Q26. Women, Business and the Law (WBL) is a project collecting unique data on the laws and
regulations that restrict women’s economic opportunities. It is an initiative of:
(a) OECD
(b) World Bank Group
(c) UN Women
(d) UNDP
Ans: b
Exp: Women, Business and the Law (WBL) is a World Bank Group project collecting unique data
on the laws and regulations that restrict women’s economic opportunities (in 190 countries). India
gained 4% year-on-year on its score on the World Bank study of WBL 2020. The country scored 74.4
out of the perfect score of 100 on the WBL Index.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-commands-the-top-
score-on-the-women-business-and-law-index-2020-in-south-
asia/articleshow/73517164.cms?from=mdr
Q27. Global Talent Competitiveness Index (GTCI) 2020 was published by:
(a) World Bank
(b) Oxfam
(c) INSEAD
(d) IMD World Competitiveness Center
Ans: c
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Exp: GTCI report compiled by INSEAD, in collaboration with human resource firm Addeco and
Google. India has climbed eight places to 72nd rank in the 2020 GTCI, which was topped by
Switzerland, the US and Singapore.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/india-climbs-eight-places-to-rank-72-among-132-
countries-in-global-talent-index-11579787080354.html
Q11.Human Development Index is published by
a. World Bank
b. UNESCO
c. WHO
d. UNDP
Ans: d
INDUSTRY
Q1. With which of the following country India has signed MoU on Cooperation in the field of
Geology and Mineral Resources
(a) Bolivia
(b) Argentina
(c) Peru
(d) South Africa
Ans: a
Exp: MoU on Cooperation in the field of Geology and Mineral Resources
• It will provide an institutional mechanism between India and Bolivia for cooperation in the field of
Mineral Resources.
• The MoU provides for exchange of information on resources, laws and policy, organization of
seminars to exchange views on development strategies, encouragement of transfer of technologies
between the two countries, promotion of value addition, which will enable taking up of activities like
documentation and dissemination etc.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=189750
Q2. Regarding Index of Industrial Production (IIP), which of the following statements are true?
1. It is an annual production index, which is also considered as a lead indicator of the industrial
performance.
2. It is compiled and published by the central statistical organization (CSO).
3. The current base year of IIP is 2011-2012.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: It is a monthly production index, which is also considered as a lead indicator of the industrial
performance.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=189879
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Index_of_Industrial_Production_(IIP)_-_2011-12_series
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Q3. With reference to “Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles II (FAME II)
scheme”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Under it, Emphasis is on electrification of the public transportation that includes shared transport.
2. The scheme proposes for establishment of charging infrastructure
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles II (FAME II) scheme
o Emphasis is on electrification of the public transportation that includes shared transport.
o Establishment of Charging stations are also proposed on major highways connecting major
city clusters.
o On such highways, charging stations will be established on both sides of the road at an interval
of about 25 km each.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=189644
Q4.Consider the following statements:
1. National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRiP), represents a unique
joining of hands between the Government of India, a number of State Governments and Indian
Automotive Industry to create a state of the art Testing, Validation and R&D infrastructure in the
country.
2. Indian Automotive Industry is a Sunshine industry in India contributing to over 7.5% to country’s
GDP
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Indian Automotive Industry: Sunshine industry in India contributing to over 7.5% to country’s
GDP
• Creation of new automotive test centres in the country under NATRIP project, is an important step
forward by the Government to support the need of the automotive industry in the backdrop of
tightening regulatory framework and technology shift driven by market forces.
https://www.natrip.in/
Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. FAGMIL is a Government of India Undertaking, under the administrative control of Department
of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
2. It is engaged in mining and marketing of mineral gypsum in Madhya Pradesh.
3. FAGMIL is Miniratna-II Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: FAGMIL is a Government of India Undertaking, under the administrative control of
Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. It is engaged in mining and
marketing of mineral gypsum in Rajasthan. FAGMIL is Miniratna-II Company.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1566246
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding “Turmeric Production in India”
1. India is the world’s second largest producer of turmeric
2. Maharashtra is the largest grower of turmeric in the country
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: Turmeric Production in India
India is the world’s largest producer of turmeric (Curcuma longa), a perennial herbaceous plant of
the ginger family.
Telangana is the largest grower of turmeric in the country (followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu).
• Recently Odisha’s Kandhamal Haldi (turmeric) has received GI tag.
https://www.thehindu.com/society/more-yellow-than-most/article26676344.ece
Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second largest producer of silk in the world.
2. Mulberry, Eri, Tussar and Muga are the main type of silk produced in the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: India is the second largest producer of silk n the world. Mulberry, Eri, Tussar and Muga are the
main type of silk produced in the country.
http://yojana.gov.in/details_leadarticle.asp?CoverId=101
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second largest producer of jute in the world.
2. India is the third largest manufacturer of cotton in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: India is the largest producer of jute in the world. India is the third largest manufacturer of cotton
in the world.
http://yojana.gov.in/details_leadarticle.asp?CoverId=101
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Q9. “Interconnect Usage Charge” recently seen in news is related to
(a) Train services
(b) Airport services
(c) Internet services
(d) Telecom services
Ans: d
Exp: Traffic symmetry indicates that telecom operator will not have any outstanding balance of
interconnect usage charges (IUC) against other networks.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/delay-in-implementation-of-zero-call-connect-
charges-to-hurt-service-affordability-jio/article29981799.ece
Q11.What does Viability Gap Fund mean?
(a) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
(b) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
(c) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
(d) Viability Gap Funding is a certain percentage of capital cost paid by the government
Ans: d
Exp: Viability Gap Funding (VGF) is an incentive scheme in which a certain percentage of total
capital cost is paid by the government to make the project economically viable.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1594751
Q12. Consider the following statements:
1. Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, adopted in 1883, applies to industrial
property in the widest sense, including patents, trademarks, industrial designs etc.
2. It is administered by the World trade Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp:The Paris Convention is a multilateral treaty dealing with the protection of industrial property
in the widest sense. It is administered by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO),
one of the specialised agencies of the United Nations dealing with the protection and promotion of
intellectual property rights.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/cons-products/garments-/-textiles/kvic-
seeks-international-trademark-for-khadi-items/articleshow/73507291.cms?from=mdr
Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises has launched mission purvodaya.
2. It aims to develop eastern India by accelerated development of roadways and energy sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:d
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Exp:Ministry of Steel has launched PURVODAYA: Accelerated development of eastern India
through integrated steel hub in Kolkata, West Bengal. It aims to develop eastern India by accelerated
development of steel sector through an integrated steelhub
Source:https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=197372
Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. The country is 4th largest consumers of finished steel in world.
2. India is the largest crude steel producer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: The country is 3rd largest consumers of finished steel in world. India was the 2nd largest crude
steel producer.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1597299
Q15. PMI or a Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity in
(a) Manufacturing sector
(b) Services sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
Exp: PMI or a Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity -- both in the
manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based measures that asks the respondents about
changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before. It is calculated
separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/manufacturing-pmi-remains-flat-at-514-in-
september/article29567701.ece
Q16. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have
a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
Exp: The 8 core industries are their relative weight in IIP is as below:
Coal (weight: 4.38 %); Crude Oil (weight: 5.22 %); Natural Gas (weight: 1.71 %); Refinery
Products (weight: 5.94%); Fertilizers (weight: 1.25%); Steel (weight: 6.68%); Cement (weight:
2.41%); Electricity (weight: 10.32%)
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/twin-troubles/article30300279.ece
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Q17. Which of the following are the objectives of National Broadband Mission
1. Develop a Broadband Readiness Index (BRI) to measure the availability of digital communications
infrastructure.
2. Broadband access to all villages by 2030
3. Develop innovative implementation models for Right of Way (RoW).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: Develop a Broadband Readiness Index (BRI) to measure the availability of digital
communications infrastructure and conducive policy ecosystem within a State/UT. Broadband access
to all villages by 2022 Develop innovative implementation models for Right of Way (RoW).
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-unveils-7-lakh-cr-national-broadband-
mission/article30332256.ece
Q18. ‘Project Zero’ recently seen in news is associated with:
(a) Land degradation and desertification
(b) Blocking the sale of counterfeit goods
(c) Decreasing carbon emissions
(d) Net neutrality
Ans: b
Exp: In a bid to ensure that customers receive authentic goods when shopping on Amazon, it has
announced to bring "Project Zero" to India. "Project Zero" introduces additional proactive
mechanisms and powerful tools to identify, block and remove counterfeits.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/industry/retail/amazon-launches-project-zero-in-india-to-block-
counterfeit-goods-11573582620572.html
Q19.With reference to the Mineral Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2020, consider the following
statements:
1. Through the ordinance India has opened up the coal sector completely for commercial mining for
all local and global firms after easing restrictions on end-use and prior experience in auctions
2. It has amended the Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015, as well as the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Union Cabinet has approved promulgation of Mineral Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2020 to
amend the Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015, as well as the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. The amendment to the latter was required to begin auctions
of iron ore mining leases before they expire in March this year. The ordinance puts an end to captive
coal block auctions infuture and will have to be adopted in the upcoming Budget session once it is
cleared by the President. The government proposes to kick-start commercial coal mining auction
process with release of bid rules and consultations with stakeholders.
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Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/govtapproves-
ordinance-to-auction-coal-mines/articleshow/73153778.cms?from=mdr
Q20. AGR (as per the definition of the Department of Telecom) often seen in news includes which
among the following:
1. Spectrum usage charges
2. Dividend
3. Interest on deposits
4. Profit on sale of assets
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: d
Exp: The Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) calculation is what the government and telecom majors
have had a disagreement over since 2005. The telecom companies argued that AGR should include
income only from telecom operations. The Department of Telecommmunications (DoT)- disagreed
and said it should also include non-telecom incomes such as the sale of assets, interest on deposits,
rents, etc. Telecom operators are required to pay licence fee and spectrum charges in the form of
‘revenue share’ to the Centre. The revenue amount used to calculate this revenue share is termed as
the AGR. According to the DoT, the calculations should incorporate all revenues earned by a telecom
company– including from non-telecom sources such as deposit interests and sale of assets. The
companies, however, have been of the view that AGR should comprise the revenues generated from
telecom services only and non-telecom revenues should be kept out of it.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-know-
about-agr/article30008124.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-agr-how-will-it-impact-airtel-
vodafone-idea-6086416/
Q21. Consider the following statements:
1. The recently setup National Start-up Advisory Council will be chaired by the Minster of Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship.
2. It aims to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students in particular.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Chairman of the National Start-up Advisory Council-Minister of Commerce & Industry. The
Council will suggest measures to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students in
particular, promote innovation in all sectors of economy across the country, including semi-urban and
rural areas, support creative and innovative ideas through incubation and research and development
to transform them into valuable products, processes or solutions to improve productivity and
efficiency and create an environment of absorption of innovation in industry.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=197539
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https://www.livemint.com/news/india/govt-sets-up-national-startup-advisory-council-
11579614976654.html
Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. To recognize young people as critical drivers of sustainable development, Atal Innovation Mission
(AIM), NITI Aayog and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India launched Youth
Co: Lab.
2. It aims at accelerating social entrepreneurship and innovation in young India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: In a latest initiative to recognize young people as critical drivers of sustainable development,
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
India launched Youth Co:Lab which aims at accelerating social entrepreneurship and innovation in
young India. He first phase of Youth Co:Lab will focus on six SDGs: SDG 5(Gender
Equality),SDG6(Clean Water and Sanitation),SDG 7(Affordable and Clean Energy), SDG 8(Decent
Work and Economic Growth), SDG 12(Sustainable Consumption and Production) and SDG 13
(Climate Action). Youth Co:Lab will convene social innovation challenges at the national and sub-
national level,which will invite young people in the age group of 18-29 years and start-ups to show
case their proposed ideas and solutions to tackle some of the region’s biggest social challenges.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=193626
Q23. Consider the following statements:
1.Hyperloop is the name given to a technology where in vacuum is used to transport people very fast.
2.High speed in a hyperloop is achieved as the pods, which carry passengers, move using magnetic
levitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: In July 2012, entrepreneur Elon Musk, co-founder of Tesla, Inc and several other firms, unveiled
his vision of the new transport system, which he called a ‘Hyperloop’. Musk envisioned a transport
system which would never crash and would be immune to weather’s vagaries. It would also be thrice
or four times as fast as a bullet train, with an average speed that would be twice of an aircraft. With
this system, the travelling time between Los Angeles and San Francisco could be reduced to 30
minutes ( it is currently three hours in high-speed trains). The high speed is achieved as the pods,
which carry passengers, move using magnetic levitation. The speed increases further due to the near-
vacuum conditions inside the tubes, which reduce resistance to the pod as it travels within the tube.
Musk open-sourced this idea and called upon companies and individuals, with the right resources, to
take it forward.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/business/richard-branson-to-meet-uddhav-thackeray-over-
mumbai-pune-hyperloop-project/article30277276.ece
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https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-after-hype-over-hyperloop-why-theres-a-
question-mark-over-ultra-modern-project-6223864/
Q24. Consider the following statements:
1. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) is to be set up with the participation of three Central Public
Sector Enterprises namely, National Aluminium Company Ltd. (NALCO), Hindustan Copper Ltd.
(HCL) and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd. (MECL).
2. KABIL is to ensure a consistent supply of critical and strategic minerals to Indian domestic and
international market.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither1nor2
Ans: a
Exp: A joint venture company namely Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) is to be set up with the
participation of three Central Public Sector Enterprises namely, National Aluminium Company Ltd.
(NALCO), Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL) and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd. (MECL). The
Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs said that the objective of constituting KABIL is
to ensure a consistent supply of critical and strategic minerals to Indian domestic market. While
KABIL would ensure mineral security of the Nation, it would also help in realizing the overall
objective of import substitution, he said.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1581058
Q25. In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eighth Core Industries have
combined weight of 37.90 %.Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural Gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 5only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
Exp: Core industries can be defined as main or key industries of the economy. In most countries,
these industries are backbone of all other industries. In India, there are eight core sectors comprising
of coal, crude oil, natural gas, petroleum refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement and electricity.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/infrastructure-sector-grows-at-slowest-pace-in-
four-years/article28773648.ece
Q26. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP) is implemented by the
(a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Enterprises
Ans. a
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Exp: National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP) aims to support MSMEs in
improving their competitiveness. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
implements Credit Linked Capital Subsidy-Technological Up-gradation Scheme (CLCS-TUS) to
support MSMEs in their technology up-gradation endeavours.
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=112836
Q27. Consider the following statements
1. In India, the GI tag is governed by the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act which came into being in 1999.
2. A GI tag is valid for twenty years.
3. Jeeraphool rice from Chhattisgarh became the country’s first product to bag a GI tag.
4. Ministry of commerce’s department for promotion of industry and internal trade is responsible for
registering GIs in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. b
Exp: The tag is valid for a decade, after which it can be renewed for another 10 years. Darjeeling tea
became the country’s first product to bag a GI tag.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/blink/know/india-plays-gi-tag/article29467112.ece#
Q28. National Productivity Council (NPC) comes under the
(a) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(d) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans. c
Source:https://dipp.gov.in/about-us/autonomous-institutionss/national-productivity-council
Q29. Consider the following:
1. Small start-ups with turn over upto Rs.2.5 crore will get the promised tax holiday.
2. They will be eligible for deduction of 100 percent of income of a negligible start-up for 3 years out
of 7 years from the year of its incorporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Small start-ups with turn over upto Rs.25 crore will get the promised tax holiday. They will be
eligible for deduction of 100 percent of income of an eligible start-up for 3 years out of 7 years from
the year of its incorporation.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1582654
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AGRICULTURE
Q1. With reference to National Agriculture Market (e-NAM), consider the following
1. It is an online trading portal that was launched by the Government of India on 14th April, 2015.
2. It aims to create an online transparent competitive price discovery system to facilitate farmers with
remunerative prices for their produce.
3. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. d
Exp: It is an online trading portal that was launched on 14th April, 2016. Small Farmers Agribusiness
Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
Source: https://enam.gov.in/web/
Q2. Consider the following
1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has distributed more than one lakh bee-boxes among
farmers and unemployed youths across the country under its 'Honey Mission' initiative.
2. 'Honey Mission' was launched in August 2017.
3. Honey exports from India grew 19% year-on-year in 2018-19 to $105 million and 13% in the
previous fiscal to $101 million amid increasing demand.
4. Punjab, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are among leading honey producing states in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
Ans. c
Exp: Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), under the Ministry of Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises has distributed more than one lakh bee-boxes among farmers and
unemployed youths across the country in less than two years under its 'Honey Mission' initiative.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/kvic-distributes-over-1-lakh-bee-
boxes-under-honey-mission-119050601239_1.html
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/honey-may-turn-steeter-for-
indian-exporters/articleshow/70804913.cms?from=mdr
Q3.Consider the following statements
Under Kisan Credit Card (KCC) facility,
1. Fisheries and animal husbandry farmers are also included
2. Interest subvention is available to eligible farmers @ 2% per annum at the time of disbursal of loan
and additional interest subvention @ 4% per annum in case of prompt repayment
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Exp:Under Kisan Credit Card (KCC) facility, interest subvention is available @ 2% per annum at
the time of disbursal of loan and additional interest subvention @ 3% per annum in case of prompt
repayment as Prompt Repayment Incentive.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1576660
Q4. “Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs)” recently seen in news is related to
(a) Technology to cut crop in cost effective manner
(b) Accurately estimate the yield of a crop or region during a given cultivation cycle
(c) Used for transgenic crops
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
Exp: Crop Cutting Experiments or CCE, refer to an assessment method employed by governments
and agricultural bodies to accurately estimate the yield of a crop or region during a given cultivation
cycle. The traditional method of CCE is based on the yield component method where sample locations
are selected based on a random sampling of the total area under study.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575248
Q5. Which of the following brings out the ‘Advance Estimates of production of major crops?
(a) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
(b) Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare
(c) Department of Consumer Affairs
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
Exp: The 3rd Advance Estimates of production of major crops for 2018-19 have been released by the
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare on 03rdJune, 2019. The assessment of
production of different crops is based on the feedback received from States and validated with
information available from other sources
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573283
Q6. Consider following statements:
1. FCI is a nodal Agency for procurement of Pulses and Oilseeds.
2. The Central Government extends price support for only procurement of wheat and paddy through
the FCI and State Agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The Central Government extends price support for procurement of wheat, paddy and coarse
grains through the FCI and State Agencies. All the food grains conforming to the prescribed
specifications are procured by the public procurement agencies at the Minimum Support Price (MSP)
plus incentive bonus announced, if any. As decided by the CCEA, FCI has also been nominated as
an additional nodal Agency for procurement of Pulses and Oilseeds. The Department of Agriculture
and Co-0operation is drawing up guidelines /MoU for FCI to procure the said items.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573682
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Q7.Consider the following:
1. Nitrogen
2. Phosphorus
3. Potash
4. Urea
5. Sulphur
For which of the above Department of Fertilizers fixes Nutrient Based Subsidy Rates?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: b
Exp: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi
has approved the proposal of the Department of Fertilizers for fixation of Nutrient Based Subsidy
Rates for P&K Fertilizers for the year 2019-20. The approved rates for NBS effective from the date
of notification will be as under:
Per Kg Subsidy rates (in Rs.)
N(Nitrogen) P(Phosphorus) K(Potash) S(Sulphur)
18.901 15.216 11.124 3.562
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/nutrient-based-subsidy-rate-for-suphur-hiked-by-
31-per-cent/article28773421.ece
Q8. With reference to “PM Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana” consider the following:
1. The scheme is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.
2. Monthly pension of Rs.5000/- will be provided to on attaining the age of 60 years.
3. The farmers will have to make a monthly contribution of Rs.55 to Rs.200, depending on their age
of entry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: The scheme is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years
and a monthly pension of Rs. 3000/- will be provided to them on attaining the age of 60 years. The
farmers will have to make a monthly contribution of Rs. 55 to Rs. 200 , depending on their age of
entry, in the Pension Fund till they reach the retirement date i.e. the age of 60 years. The Central
Government will also make an equal contribution of the same amount in the pension fund. The spouse
is also eligible to get a separate pension of Rs.3000/-upon making separate contributions to the Fund.
The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shall be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible
for Pension payout.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1581638
Q9. With reference to Price stabilization fund consider the following
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1. It is to promote direct purchase from farmers/farmers’ associations at farm gate / Mandi.
2. Safal will act as Fund Manager.
3. It will act to maintain a strategic bufferstock that would discourage hoarding and unscrupulous
speculation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: It is to promote direct purchase from farmers/ farmers’ associations at farm gate / Mandi. Small
Farmers Agri- Business Consortium (SFAC), will act as Fund Manager. It will act to maintain a
strategic buffer stock that would discourage hoarding and unscrupulous speculation.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1582500
Q10. Consider following statements:
1. PM KISAN is a Central Sector scheme with 50% funding from Government of India.
2. An income support of Rs.6000/- per year in three equal instalments will be provided to small and
marginal farmer families having combined land holding/ownership of upto 2 hectares.
3. Definition of family for the scheme is husband, wife and minor children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: PM KISAN is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India. An
income support of Rs.6000/- per year in three equal instalments will be provided to small and
marginal farmer families having combined land holding/ownership of upto 2 hectares. Definition of
family for the scheme is husband, wife and minor children.
Q11. Consider the following:
1. All farmers – individuals/Joint cultivator owners
2. Tenant farmers, oral lessees and share croppers
3. SHGs or Joint liability groups including tenant farmers
Which of the above is/are eligible for Kisan Credit Card?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: Eligibility- All farmers – individuals/Joint cultivator owners. Tenant farmers, oral lessees and
share croppers etc. SHGs or Joint liability groups including tenant farmers.
http://yojana.gov.in/19-3-19%20%20March%20Yojana%20Final.pdf
http://yojana.gov.in/19-3-19%20%20March%20Yojana%20Final.pdf
Q12. Consider following statements:
1. India is one of the first countries in the world to develop a comprehensive Cooling Action plan.
2. Its aim is to reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38.
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3. It will help in Doubling Farmers Income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: India is one of the first countries in the world to develop a comprehensive Cooling Action plan
which has a long term vision to address the cooling requirement across sectors and lists out actions
which can help reduce the cooling demand. Cooling requirement is cross sectoral and an essential
part for economic growth and is required across different sectors of the economy such as residential
and commercial buildings, cold-chain, refrigeration, transport and industries The following benefits
would accrue to the society over and above the environmental benefits: (i) Thermal comfort for all –
provision for cooling for EWS and LIG housing, (ii) Sustainable cooling – low GHG emissions
related to cooling, (iii) Doubling Farmers Income – better cold chain infrastructure – better value of
produce to farmers, less wastage of produce, (iv) Skilled workforce for better livelihoods and
environmental protection, (v) Make in India – domestic manufacturing of air-conditioning and related
cooling equipment’s, (vi) Robust R&D on alternative cooling technologies – to provide push to
innovation in cooling sector.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1568328
Q13. ‘Transport and Marketing Assistance (TMA)’ Scheme is related to
(a) Export under Make in India
(b) International component of freight and marketing of agricultural produce
(c) Export for Coir Industry
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
Exp: The “Transport and Marketing Assistance” (TMA) for specified agriculture products scheme
aims to provide assistance for the international component of freight and marketing of agricultural
produce which is likely to mitigate disadvantage of higher cost of transportation of export of specified
agriculture products due to trans-shipment and to promote brand recognition for Indian agricultural
products in the specified overseas markets.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1567543
Q14. Consider following statements about Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN):
1. Under this programme, vulnerable landholding farmer families, having cultivable land up to 2
hectares, will be provided direct income support.
2. This programme will be funded by State Governments and Government of India in the ratio of
50:50.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: This programme will be funded by Government of India. Under this programme, vulnerable
landholding farmer families, having cultivable land upto 2 hectares, will be provided direct income
support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year. This income support will be transferred directly into the bank
accounts of beneficiary farmers, in three equal instalments of Rs. 2,000 each. This programme will
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be funded by Government of India. Around 12 crore small and marginal farmer families are expected
to benefit from this. The programme would be made effective from 1st December 2018 and the first
installment for the period upto 31st March 2019 would be paid during this year itself. This programme
will entail an annual expenditure of Rs.75,000 crore”
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562184
Q15. Consider following statements w.r.t. “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN):
1. Under the scheme PM-Kissan only Marginal farmers (SMF) families having cultivable land upto
one hectare will be provided income support.
2. The income support of Rs.6000/- per year will be provided through account payee cheque in six
equal instalments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: Under the scheme PM-Kissan all Small and Marginal farmers (SMF) families having cultivable
land upto two hectares will be provided income support of Rs.6000/- per year directly into their bank
accounts, in three equal instalments.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1563259
Q16.Consider following statements w.r.t. agriculture Census:
1. Farmers having below 2-hectares land are categorised as Marginal Farmers.
2. Farmers having more than 5-hectares land are categorised as Large Farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp:
Q17. Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of Cooperative Management (VAMNICOM) is under
administrative control of :-
(a) Ministry of Human resource development
(b) Ministry of Agriculture
(c) Ministry of Rural development
(d) Ministry of finance
Ans: b
Exp: Option b is correct.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1560001
Q18. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM):
1. It is funded by the Central Government and State Governments in the ratio of 50:50.
2. It creates a national network of major mandis which can be accessed physically.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: d
Exp: Electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a Pan-India electronic trading portal
launched in 2016 completely funded by the Central Government and implemented by SmallFarmers’;
Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC). It creates a national network of physical mandis which can be
accessed online thus enabling buyers, situated even outside the State, to participate in trading at the
local level.
http://yojana.gov.in/Yojana%20January2019.pdf
Q19.Which of the following are mechanisms of agriculture credit in India
(a)Priority sector lending
(b) interest subvention scheme
(c) kisan credit scheme
(d)all
Ans: d
Exp: simplequestion
Priority Sector Lending: PSL was introduced to ensure that vulnerable sections of the society get
access to credit and that there is an adequate flow of credit to employment intensive sectors like
agriculture and MSME.
Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) was launched for short term crop loans in 2006-07. 2 % interest
subvention is given to farmers, which is reimbursed to banks (through RBI and NABARD).
Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme, introduced in 1998, aimed at providing adequate and timely credit
with flexible and simplified procedure for agriculture related and also consumption requirements of
farmer households
https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/Content/PDFs/84140.pdf
Q20. Which of the following can be the impact of farm loan waivers?
1. can boost agricultural productivity in short-term
2. can impact banking sector balance sheet
3. can decrease credit to agriculture R&D
(a) all
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: Economic rationale for loan waivers comes from alleviating debt over hang of beneficiaries thus
enabling them to undertake productive investment and boost real economic activity (investment,
production and consumption). Creates moral hazardas loan waivers lead to poor loan performance
and destroy honest credit culture, as it incentivizes borrowers to default strategically in anticipation
of future bailouts. Waivers skew credit allocation as banks reallocate lending to lower risk borrower
segments. Frequent write-offs impact financial health of banking sector. Prompts banks to invest in
Rural Infrastructure Development Fund rather than reaching out to cultivator to meet their PSL
targets, reducing credit access.
Q21.Operation Greens taken by government aims to control prices of
(a) Tomato, onion, potato
(b) tomato, pulses, potato
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(c) onion, rice, potato
(d) onion, pulses, potato
Ans: a
Exp: Operation Greens: For enhancing production & reducing price volatility of fruits & vegetables
(initially for tomatoes, onions and potatoes). It will also promote Farmer Producers Organisations
(FPOs), agri-logistics, processing facilities, thus to achieve the aim of doubling the farmer Income
2022. https://www.indiatoday.in/business/story/onion-price-delhi-mumbai-onion-price-rise-causes-
1602489-2019-09-24
Q22. Consider the correct statement about Pradhan Mantri Kisan Mandhan Yojana.
(a) It is an old age pension scheme for all farmers
(b) It is an old age pension scheme for land holding small and marginal farmers
(c) It provides financial assistance of 6000 rs/annum for all farmers
(d) It provides financial assistance of 6000 rs/annum for land holding small and marginal farmers.
Ans: b
Exp: PM-KMY is an old age pension scheme for all and holding Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs)
in the country with a view to provide social security net as they have minimal or no savings to provide
for old age and to support them in the event of consequent loss of livelihood.
Salient features: It is a voluntary and contribution-based pension scheme for farmers in the entry age
group of 18 to 40 years and a monthly pension of Rs. 3000 will be provided to them on attaining the
age of 60 years.
Financial assistance of 6000 rs/annum is provided under PM KISAN scheme.
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=193160
Q23.Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM
KISAN).
1. PM KISAN is a Central Sector scheme with 100 % funding from Government of India
2. Under this programme, vulnerable and holding farmer families, having cultivable land upto 2 acres,
will be provided direct income support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year.
3. Definition of family for the scheme is husband, wife and minor children.
4. All Institutional Land holders are eligible beneficiaries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d)1, 3, 4
Ans: b
Exp: PM KISAN is a Central Sector scheme with 100 % funding from Government of India. It has
become operational from 1.12.2018. Under the scheme an income support of Rs.6000/-per year in
three equal instalments will be provided to small and marginal farmer families having combined land
holding/ ownership of upto 2 hectares. Definition of family for the scheme is husband, wife and minor
children. State Government and UT Administration will identify the farmer families which are
eligible for support as per scheme guidelines. The fund will be directly transferred to the bank
accounts of the beneficiaries. All Institutional Landholders shall not be eligible for benefit under the
scheme.
https://www.pmkisan.gov.in/
Q24.Consider the following statements:
1. Cotton is a drought resistant crop ideal for arid climates.
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2. India under Cotton Technical Assistance Programme (TAP) for Africa cover 41 African countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Cotton is a drought–resistant crop ideal for arid climates. India will launch the second phase of
the Cotton Technical Assistance Programme (TAP) for Africa. In the five year long second phase,
the programme will be scaled up in size and coverage and will be introduced in five additional
countries, namely Mali, Ghana, Togo, Zambia and Tanzania. The Cotton TAP programme will now
cover 11 African countries including the C4 (Benin, Burkina Faso, Chad and Mali).
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=196149
Q25. Consider the following statements relating to Objectives of “Operation Greens”:
1. Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the Tomato,
Onion and Potato (TOP) clusters.
2. Reduction in post-harvest losses by creation of farm gate infrastructure and creation of appropriate
storage capacity linking consumption centres.
3. Setting up of a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on demand and
supply and price of TOP crops.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the Tomato,
Onion and Potato (TOP) clusters. Reduction in post-harvest losses by creation of farm gate
infrastructure and creation of appropriate storage capacity linking consumption centres. Setting up of
a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on demand and supply and price of
TOP crops.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q26.Consider following statements:
1. A new ration card will be required for availing the portability benefit under the government's
ambitious' one nation, one ration card' initiative
2. Under the initiative, eligible beneficiaries would be able to avail their entitled food grain under the
National Food Security Act (NFSA) from any Fair Price Shop in the country
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: No new ration card will be required for availing the portability benefit under the government's
ambitious' one nation, one ration card' initiative. Under the initiative, eligible beneficiaries would be
able to avail their entitled foodgrain under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) from any Fair
Price Shop in the country
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https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/inter-state-portability-for-ration-cards-
launched/article29577579.ece
Q27. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Aadhaar enabled Fertilizers Distribution System (AeFDS), it is mandatory for the retailers
to sell subsidized fertilizers through PoS devices.
2. The Fertilizer sales are not monitored online .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Under Aadhaar enabled Fertilizers Distribution System (AeFDS), it is mandatory for the
retailers to sell subsidized fertilizers through PoS devices. The Fertilizer sales are monitored online
through web based Integrated Fertilizer Management System (iFMS). A study conducted by NITI
Aayog through M/s Microsave revealed that AeFDS has increased accountability of stakeholders
including fertilizer manufacturers, wholesalers and retailers.
The NITI Aayog study in the pilot districts revealed that diversion of fertilizers has reduced. However,
the extent of diversion of fertilizers for non-agriculture activities has not been quantified.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1594672
Q28. Consider the following statements
1. India is self-sufficient in terms of fertilizer production and we do not Import fertilizers.
2. The MRP of urea is statutorily fixed by the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The gap between demand (requirement) and indigenous production of fertilizers is met through
imports. The import for the season is also finalized well in advance to ensure timely availability.The
MRP of urea is statutorily fixed by the Government.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1595326
Q29. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’
scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of
their produce.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: e-NAM, which aims at integrating mandis on a virtual platform, is a reform linked scheme.
States/ Union Territories (UTs) who have carried out three mandatory reforms namely (i) single
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trading license to be valid across the State (ii) single point levy of market fee across the State and (iii)
provision for e-auction / e-trading as a mode of price discovery; are eligible for integrating their
wholesale regulated markets with e-NAM platform. Based on the proposals received from requisite
reformed States/UTs, the wholesale regulated markets are approved and integrated with e-NAM
platform.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1596396
Q30. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price
and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Ans: c
Exp: The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price
and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus procurement incidentals and distribution cost.
https://www.kumarbookcentre.com/Magazines---Current-Affairs/Yojana-December-2019-id-
4114886.html
Q31. PM-AASHA scheme is related to
(a) ensuring remunerative prices to farmers for their produce
(b) community health worker
(c) women’s empowerment scheme
(d) free LPG scheme for women
Ans: a
Exp: PM-AASHA’s main feature was a price support scheme whereby Central agencies would
procure pulses and oilseeds directly from farmers.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/agri-business/government-procured-just-3-of-pulses-seeds-
targeted-under-pm-aasha-scheme/article30169667.ece
Q32. Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept?
(a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from
others
(b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality
seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
(c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
(d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to set up seed
companies Solution
Ans: b
Exp: A village, where in trained group of farmers are involved in production of seeds of various crops
and cater to their own needs, fellow farmers of the village and farmers of the neighbouring villages
in appropriate time and at an affordable cost is called “Seed Village”.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/a-potential-seedbed-for-private-profits/article30195634.ece
Q33. Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, the following schemes will be
implemented:
1. Setting up of SEZ’s and mega food parks
2. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
3. Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 ,2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana (Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and
Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) will be implemented by Ministry of Food Processing
Industries (MoFPI). Under PMKSY following schemes are implemented: Mega Food Parks;
Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure; Creation/ Expansion of Food Processing &
Preservation Capacities; Infrastructure for Agro-processing Clusters;
Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages; Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure; and
Human Resources and Institutions.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1575745
Q34. Consider the following statements:
1. Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF), which is a set of farming methods, and also a grassroots
peasant movement, has spread to various states in India.
2. Four pillars of ZNBF are Jivamrita, Bijamrita, Acchadana and Whapasa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: c
Exp: Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF), which is a set of farming methods, and also a grassroots
peasant movement, has spread to various states in India. It has attained wide success in southern India,
especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved. The four pillars of ZNBF are
Jivamrita/jeevamrutha, Bijamrita/beejamrutha, Acchadana–Mulching and Whapasa–moisture.
Source:http://www.fao.org/3/a-bl990e.pdf
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/india-file/ground-results-validate-zero-budget-
natural-farming-subhash-palekar/article29723018.ece
Q35. With reference to the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
(APEDA), consider the following statements:
1. It was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products
Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985.
2. It replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was
established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export
Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985. The Act (2 of 1986) came
into effect from 13th February, 1986 by a notification issued in the Gazette of India: Extraordinary:
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Part-II [Sec. 3(ii): 13.2.1986). The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council
(PFEPC).
http://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/about_apeda/about_apeda.htm
Q36. Consider the following statements
1. The share of agriculture and allied sectors in the total GVA of the country has been declining.
2. The share of agriculture and allied sectors in its contribution to national income has gradually
increased.
Select the correct code.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: The share of agriculture and allied sectors in the Gross Value Added (GVA) of the country at
current prices has declined from 18.2 per cent in 2014-15 to 16.5 per cent in 2019-20
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q37.Consider the following statements
1. Farm mechanization market in India has been decelerating.
2. Overall farm mechanization in India is lower compared to other countries.
Select the correct code.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Farm mechanization market in India has been growing at a CAGR of 7.53 per cent during 2016-
2018 due to thrust given by various government policies.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q38.The Economic Cost of foodgrains consists of
a. Pooled cost of grains
b. Procurement incidentals
c. Cost of distribution
d. All the above
Ans: d
Exp: The Economic Cost of foodgrains consists of three components, namely, pooled cost of grains,
procurement incidentals and the cost of distribution.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q39. Consider the following statements
1. The regional distribution of agricultural credit in India is highly skewed.
2. It is observed that credit is the least in North Eastern, Hilly and Eastern States.
3. It is observed that credit is the highest in Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct code.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
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d. All the above
Ans: c
Exp: The regional distribution of agricultural credit in India is highly skewed (Figure 3). It is observed
that credit is low in North Eastern, Hilly and Eastern States. The share of North Eastern States has
been less than one percent in total agricultural credit disbursement.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
Q40. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is amalgamation of which of the following
schemes?
1. Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP)
2. Har Khet Ko Pani (HKKP)
3. Per Drop More Crop (PDMC)
4. Watershed Development (WD)
5. Command Area Development (CAD)
Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: d
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is amalgamation of various schemes viz.
Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP), PMKSY –Har Khet Ko Pani (HKKP) including
Command Area Development (CAD), Surface Minor Irrigation (SMI) and Repair, Renovation and
Restoration (RRR) of Water Bodies [Implemented by MoWR, R&D; GR], PMKSY - Per Drop More
Crop (PDMC) [Implemented by Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare] and PMKSY –
Watershed Development (WD) [Implemented by Department of Land Resources].
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562545
INFRASTRUCTURE
Q1. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: NIIF has been structured as a fund of funds and set up as Category II Alternate Investment Fund
(AIF) under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Regulations. Total corpus of the fund
is Rs. 40000 Crore.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/roadis-niif-to-invest-2-billion/article26726029.ece
Q2. Consider following statements about National Rural Economic Transformation Project
(NRETP):
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1. It will help women in rural households shift to a new generation of economic initiatives by
developing viable enterprise for farm and non-farm products.
2. It is funded by World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The World Bank and the Government of India signed here today in New Delhi a $250 Million
Agreement for the National Rural Economic Transformation Project (NRETP) which will help
women in rural households shift to a new generation of economic initiatives by developing viable
enterprise for farm and non-farm products.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1567572
Q3. With reference to Bharat Mala Project, consider the following statements :
1. Under programme, roads will be built along borders with Bhutan and Nepal and bottlenecks on
existing Golden Quadrilateral highway network will be removed.
2. It envisages construction of roads along India’s borders, coastal areas, ports, religious and tourist
places as well as over 100 district headquarters.
3. The BharatMala project will include economic corridors, inter-corridor and feeder route, national
corridors efficiency improvement, border roads and international connectivity, coastal roads and port
connectivity and greenfield expressway
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: The BharatMala project will include economic corridors (9,000 km), inter-corridor and feeder
route (6,000 km), national corridors efficiency improvement (5,000 km), border roads and
international connectivity (2,000 km), coastal roads and port connectivity (2,000 km) and Greenfield
expressway (800 km).
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/highway-hurdle/article26836892.ece
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. NITI Aayog recently unveiled the Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) roadmap.
2. Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) are investment scheme similar to mutual funds that allow
investment from individuals and institutional investors in infrastructure projects to earn a portion of
the income as return.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp:National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) recently unveiled the Infrastructure Investment
Trust (InvITs) roadmap. Union Cabinet in December 2019 authorised NHAI to set up InvIT. The trust
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has enabled the NHAI to monetise completed national highways with toll collection record of atleast
one year and meet its funding requirements.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/gadkari-unveils-invit-road-map-for-nhai-initial-target-
20-000-cr-11580236271034.html
Q5. Consider the following statements related to “Bharatmala Project”:
1. Economic corridors
2. Inter-corridor and feeder roads
3. Border and International connectivity roads
4. Coastal and port connectivity roads
5. Expressways
Which of the above are included under the project?
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3and 4 only
(c) 1,2,3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
Exp: The Government of India had approved BharatmalaPariyojana Phase-I in October 2017 with
an aggregate length of about 34,800 km (including 10,000 km residual NHDP stretches) at an
estimated outlay of Rs. 5,35,000 crore for development of about 9,000 km length of Economic
corridors, about 6,000 km length of Inter-corridor and feeder roads, about 5,000 km length of National
Corridors Efficiency improvements, about 2,000 km length of Border and International connectivity
roads, about 2,000 km length of Coastal and port connectivity roads, and about 800 km length of
Expressways.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1595501
Q6.“Mattala Airport” is located in
(a) India
(b) Srilanka
(c) Maldives
(d) Seychelles
Ans: b
Exp: Sri Lanka’s civil aviation authority will develop the southern airport in Mattala, near the
strategically located Hambantota port, President Gotabaya Rajapaksa said on Thursday, ruling out
earlier proposals of a joint venture with India. However, he invited Indian companies, especially in
the IT sector, to invest in Sri Lanka.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/sri-lanka-not-india-will-develop-mattala-airport-
gotabaya-rajapaksa/article30351142.ece
Q7. India Smart Grid Forum (ISGF) is a public private partnership initiative of:
(a)Ministry of Coal
(b)Ministry of Communications
(c)Ministry of Power
(d)Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Ans:c
Exp: India Smart Grid Forum (ISGF) is a public private partnership initiative of Ministry of Power
(MoP), Government of India for accelerated development of smart grid technologies in the Indian
power sector. ISGF was set up in 2010 to provide a mechanism through which academia, industry,
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utilities and other stakeholders could participate in the development of Indian smart grid systems and
provide relevant inputs to the government’s decision-making.
Source:http://www.isgw.in/isgf/
Q8. “Chattogram” and “Mongla” recently seen in news are
(a) Coal mines
(b) Uranium mines
(c) Port
(d) Oil field
Ans: c
Exp: Foreign policy initiative regarding use of Chattogram and Mongla Ports in Bangladesh for
movement of goods to and from India will bring revolutionary cost-cutting in shipments to and from
the North Eastern States.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1586891
Q9.India recently inaugurated the infrastructure facilities constructed to support the proposed oil
refinery project in
(a) Mongolia
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Afghanistan
Ans: a
Exp: Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Steel Shri Dharmendra Pradhan today participated in
the ceremony for commissioning the infrastructure facilities constructed to support the proposed oil
refinery project in Mongolia. Prime Minister of Mongolia, H. E .Mr. Ukhnaagi in Khurelsukh, six
Cabinet Ministers & Governor of Dornogovi Province, Mr. T. Enkhtuvshin also participated in the
ceremony.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1586891
Q10. Consider the following:
1. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is an investor-owned fund manager,
anchored by the Government of India (GoI) in collaboration with leading global and domestic
institutional investors.
2. The funds are registered as angel funds with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2only
(c) Both1and 2
(d) Neither1nor2
Ans: a
Exp: National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is an investor-owned fund
manager, anchored by the Government of India (GoI) in collaboration with leading global and
domestic institutional investors. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with
the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
https://www.thehindu.com/business/niif-to-get-up-to-2-bn-from-australiansuper-ontario-
teachers/article28838821.ece
Q15. “FASTag” is a device that employs
(a) Radio Frequency
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(b) Microwave Frequency
(c) Infrared Frequency
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: NHAI has rolled out program for Electronic Toll Collection on Toll Plazas on National
Highways to be called FASTag.
FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making
toll payments directly from the prepaid account linked to it. It is affixed on the windscreen of your
vehicle and enables you to drive through toll plazas. FASTag has a validity of 5 years and after
purchasing it, you only need to recharge/top up the FASTag as per your requirement.
FASTag offers near non-stop movement of vehicles through toll plazas and the convenience of
cashless payment of toll fee with nation-wide interoperable Electronic Toll Collection Services.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/nhai-readies-infrastructure-to-accept-
tolls-only-throughfastag-from-december-1/article29680320.ece
SOCIAL SECTOR
Q1.Consider the following statements related to ‘RashtriyaVayoshri Yojana’ (RVY):
1. Only for senior citizens, belonging to BPL category.
2. To provide physical aids and assisted living devices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: A Central Sector Scheme namely ‘Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana’ (RVY) is being implemented by
D/o Social Justice and Empowerment (M/o SJ&E) with an objective to provide to senior citizens,
belonging to BPL category and suffering from age-related disabilities/ infirmities, with such physical
aids and assisted living devices which can restore near normalcy in their bodily functions.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1595713
Q2.With reference to Bharatiya POSHAN Krishi Kosh, consider the following statements:
1. It was announced by the Ministry of Women and Child Development along with Bill & Melinda
Gates Foundation (BMGF) in November, 2019.
2. It has two components–Development of a Food Atlas and Documentation of promising practices
for Jan-Andolan for POSHAN Abhiyaan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)2 only
(b)1 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Bhartiya Poshan Krishi Kosh” project has two components–Development of a Food Atlas and
Documentation of promising practices for Jan-Andolan for POSHAN Abhiyaan. The Agro-Food
Atlas is to act as a repository of diverse crops across 127 agro-climatic zones of the country having
three parts – crops currently being grown, agro-ecological conditions (soil, organic carbon content,
ground water availability etc) and guidance on how a greater diversity of crops could be encouraged
in a particular district or block to promote dietary diversity and nutrition. The project includes diverse
data sources like National Sample Survey, Agri-Census, Soil Health Cards, ISRO’s Advanced Wide
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Field Sensor (A WiFS) and National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA’s) Moderate
Resolution Imaging Spectro-Radiometer. The project also documents social, behavioural and cultural
practices that promote and reinforce healthy dietary behaviours. Identification of promising practices
with the help of a multi-disciplinary group of experts and developments of a tool kit to disseminate
best strategies for Social and Behavioural Change Communication, specific to population groups in
those regions is also a part of it.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1595250
Q3.Consider the following statements:
1. Jal Jeevan Mission aims to give functional tap-water to every household in the country by 2022.
2. Water is part of the concurrent list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: Jal Jeevan Mission aims to give functional tap-water to every house hold in the country by 2024.
Water is a State subject.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/jal-jeevan-mission-aims-to-give-tap-water-
to-all-households-by-2024/article29568145.ece
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/pm-modi-to-release-operational-
guidelines-for-jal-jeevan-mission/articleshow/72960681.cms
Q4.Consider the following statements
1. Internet connectivity
2. Water conservation
3. SHGs
4. Sports Youth club culture
Which of the following are covered under Mission Antyodaya clusters?
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) All
Ans: d
Exp: Mission Antyodaya is a convergence framework for measurable effective outcomes on
parameters that transform lives and livelihoods. Mission Antyodaya encourages partnerships with
network of professionals, institutions and enterprises to further accelerate the transformation of rural
livelihoods. Self Help Groups (SHG) are enablers to convergence approach due to their social capital
and their proven capacity for social mobilisation. The thrust is not only on physical infrastructure but
also on social infrastructure with strengthening of agriculture, horticulture, animal husbandry
activities with utmost priority given to SHG expansion in Mission Antyodaya clusters. Capacity for
financial and social audit would also be built at grass root level. This would be accomplished by
convergence of frontline worker teams, cluster resource persons (CRPs) and professionals at the
Gram Panchayats/ Cluster level. Cluster facilitation team would also be provided at the block level.
The aim is to make villages self-sufficient by focussing on almost all services-connectivity (road,
LPG, internet), women empowerment via SHGs, transport, Youth clubs, water conservation,
nutrition, financial credit etc.
Source: yojana September
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Q5. ‘The International Migrant Stock 2019’ report is released by
(a) UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA)
(b) UN Development Programme
(c) UN General Assembly
(d) Amnesty International
Ans: a
Exp: Recently, UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA) released ‘The International
Migrant Stock 2019’ report. In 2019, the number of international migrants worldwide has reached
nearly 272 million, up from 221 million in 2010. India was the leading country of origin of
international migrants in 2019 with a 17.5 million strong diaspora, while Mexico was at second place.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-is-the-top-source-of-immigrants-across-the-
globe/article29452221.ece
Q6.Consider the following about Global Liveability Index
1. It is given by Economist Intelligence Unit
2. New Delhi and Mumbai ranked at 55 and 85 respectively among 140 cities
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans:a
Exp: The index is released by the Economist’s Intelligence Unit. It assesses 140
Cities and ranks them according to their performance in over 30 qualitative and quantitative factors
across five broad categories-Stability, Healthcare, Culture and Environment, Education, and
Infrastructure. New Delhi and Mumbai ranked 118th and 119th out of 140 cities in the Global
Liveability Index, 2019. No Indian city ranked below 100.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/these-two-indian-cities-are-in-global-liveability-index-2019-
1567582279267.html
Q7. With reference to Arogya Sanjeevani Policy, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Standard Health Insurance Product (SHIP) to be rolled out from April 1, 2020, onwards.
2. It primarily focuses on women of BPL households.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: IRDAI has mandated all general and health insurance companies to offer a Standard Health
Insurance Product (SHIP). The SHIP is aimed at taking care of basic health needs, carrying similar
policy wordings and enabling seamless portability among the insurers. The SHIP of each insurer will
have the nomenclature of Arogya Sanjeevani Policy followed by the insurer’s name. For example,
Arogya Sanjeevani Policy SBI General insurance, Arogya Sanjeevani Policy Apollo Munich etc.
IRDAI has already issued guidelines and the insurers have to roll out Arogya Sanjeevani Policy from
April1, 2020, onwards.
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Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/insure/health-insurance/what-is-arogya-
sanjeevani-health-insurance-policy/articleshow/74254954.cms?from=mdr
Q8. Consider the following
1. Vidya Lakshmi Portal provides single window for Students to access information and make
application for Educational Loans provided by Banks and Govt Scholarships.
2. A student can apply to a maximum of two Banks through Vidya Lakshmi portal using CELAF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Vidya Lakshmi Portal provides single window for Students to access information and make
application for Educational Loans provided by Banks and Govt Scholarships.
A student can apply to a maximum of three Banks through Vidya Lakshmi portal using CELAF.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575474
Q9. Consider the following:
1. Health & Nutrition
2. Education
3. Artificial Intelligence
4. Financial inclusion
5. Skill development
6. Basic Infrastructure
Which of the above are focus area for Transformation of Aspirational District Programme?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
Exp: Focus area for Transformation of Aspirational District Programme are- Health & Nutrition,
Education, Financial inclusion & Skill development, Basic Infrastructure, Agriculture & Water
resources.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1574715
Q13.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The share of regular wage/salaried employees has decreased as per usual status.
2. The proportion of women workers in the regular wage/salaried employees category has
increased.
3. Among the self-employed category, while the proportion of own account workers and
employers increased.
4. The distribution of workers in the casual labour category increased.
Select the correct code
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
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d. 2 and 4 only
Ans: b Exp: The share of regular wage earners and salaried employees in the total urban workforce increased
marginally between April-June 2018 and January-March 2019 — from 48.3% to 50% — with women
faring better than men, the latest Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) released by the National
Statistical Organisation (NSO) showed.
On the flip side, there was a decrease in the proportion of the self-employed – from 38.9% in April-
June 2018 to 37.7% in the latest period surveyed.
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/72215099.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_
medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
Q14.Consider the following statements
1. Female labour force participation rate for productive age-group shows a declining trend.
2. The rate of decline was also sharper in urban areas compared to rural areas
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a Exp: According to NSO-EUS and PLFS estimates, female labour force participation rate (LFPR) for
productive age-group (15- 59 years) as per usual status (ps+ss) shows a declining trend.
Though female LFPR is higher in rural areas as compared to urban areas, the rate of decline was also
sharper in rural areas compared to urban areas
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter_vol2.pdf
SERVICE SECTOR
Q1.Which of the following statements about the service sector are true?
a. It accounts for around 55% of the total size of the economy and GVA growth.
b. It accounts for two-thirds of total FDI inflows into India.
c. It accounts for about 38% of total exports.
d. All the above
Ans: d
Exp: The services sector’s significance in the Indian economy has continued to increase, with the
sector now accounting for around 55 per cent of total size of the economy and GVA growth, two-
thirds of total FDI inflows into India and about 38 per cent of total exports.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap09_vol2.pdf
Q2.Consider the following statements
1. FDI equity inflows accounted for about two-thirds of the total gross FDI equity inflows into
India.
2. Bank credit to the services sector has continued to decelerate.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
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c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Gross FDI equity inflows jumped by 33 per cent YoY during AprilSeptember 2019 to reach
US$ 17.58 billion, accounting for about two-thirds of the total gross FDI equity inflows into India
during this period
Even the growth in rail freight, which was contracting in the past few months, has picked up in
November 2019. In contrast, bank credit to the services sector has continued to decelerate. The growth
in bank credit to services sector was 4.8 per cent as on November 2019 as compared to 28.1 per cent
a year ago
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap09_vol2.pdf
Q3.Consider the following statements
1. India now ranks 1st among the world’s largest commercial services exporters.
2. Despite India’s strong performance in services exports, India’s financial services exports have
remained stagnant
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: India now ranks 8th among the world’s largest commercial services exporters and continues to
register strong growth performance relative to the other major services-exporting countries as well as
world services export growth
India’s financial services exports have remained stagnant, averaging about US$ 5 billion in the recent
years. As a result, the share of financial services exports in overall services exports has almost halved
from 4.2 per cent in 2011-12 to 2.3 per cent in 2018-19
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap09_vol2.pdf
Q4.Consider the following statements
1. The top five states attracting foreign tourists are Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh,
Delhi and Rajasthan.
2. The top five states attracting domestic tourists are Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka,
Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:c
Exp: Looking at tourism trends at the state level, the top five states attracting domestic tourists are
Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra, accounting for nearly 65
per cent of the total domestic tourist visits in the country in 2018.
The top five states attracting foreign tourists are Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and
Rajasthan, accounting for about 67 per cent of the total foreign tourist visits in the country in 2018.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap09_vol2.pdf
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SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
Q1. SATAT is an initiative aimed at
(a) Alternative towards Affordable Transportation
(b) Doubling farmers income
(c) Electricity to all
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: SATAT is an initiative aimed at providing a Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable
Transportation as a developmental effort that would benefit both vehicle-users as well as farmers and
entrepreneurs.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1566541
Q2. Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen), (SBM-G ) assumes significance in the wake of cleanliness
in India. Which of the followings are key components of the implementation of SBM-G :
1. Construction of household toilets
2. Construction of community sanitary complexes
3. A revolving fund at the Village level
4. Funds for rural sanitary marts, where materials for the construction of toilets, etc., may be
purchased
5. Funds for solid and liquid waste management.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: d
Exp:A revolving fund at the district level
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=189803
Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Trade Related Analysis of Fauna andFlora in
Commerce (TRAFFIC)
1. It is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. It works globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity
conservation and sustainable development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp:TRAFFIC is a leading non-governmental organization working globally on trade in wild animals
and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation andsustainable development.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/social-media-used-for-illegal- wildlife-
trade-conservationists/article8309884.ece
Q4. Which of the following state recently set up the country's first International Women's Trade
Centre (iWTC), inconsonance with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
(a) Telangana
(b) Gujarat
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(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
Ans: d
Exp: Kerala will set up the country's first International Women's Trade Centre (iWTC), in
consonance with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), in Kozhikode. It is a
key project of the state's Gender Park “Vision 2020” under the Department of Social Justice. The first
phase is scheduled to be completed by 2021. The facility will have women's start-up and incubation
centre, business centers and offices, retail fashion and technology outlets, health and wellness centers,
performing arts centre, residential suite and day-care for seniors and children. iWTC will also have a
dedicated space for cultural expressions of women to promote and showcase performing arts and
cultural forms like dance, music and theatre.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/global-trade-centre-for-women-
soon/article29377470.ece
Q5.Which among the following international organisations has launched a global initiative to grow,
restore and conserve 1 trillion trees around the world?
(a)World Economic Forum
(b)UNEP
(c)IUCN
(d)World Wide Fund for Nature
Ans:a
Exp: World Economic Forum (WEF) at its Davos meeting has launched a global initiative to grow,
restore and conserve 1 trillion trees around the world-in a bid to restore biodiversity and help fight
climate change.
Source:https://in.reuters.com/article/davos-meeting-trump-climatechange/trump-says-u-s-to-join-
one-trillion-trees-initiative-idINKBN1ZK19M
https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2020/01/one-trillion-trees-world-economic-forum-launches-plan-
to-help-nature-and-the-climate/
Q6.Consider the following statements:
1.Green Credit scheme allows “forests” to be traded as a commodity.
2.It allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-
government agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)Both 1 and 2
(b)1 only
(c)2 only
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:a
Exp: Forest Advisory Committee has approved the implementation of Green Credit scheme.
It allows “forests” to be traded as a commodity. It allows the Forest Department to outsource one of
its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies. The scheme allows agencies—they
could be private companies, village forest communities—toidentify land and begin growing
plantations. After three years, they would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if
they met the Forest Department’s criteria. An industry needing forest land could then approach the
agency and pay it for parcels of such forested land, and this would then be transferred to the Forest
Department and be recorded as forestland.
The participating agency will be free to trade its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project
proponents who need forest land.
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Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/forest-committee-approves-scheme-to-trade-in-
forests/article30527065.ece
Q7. With reference to the State Energy Efficiency Index 2019, consider the following:
1. The index is developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with Alliance for an
Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE)
2.Haryana, Karnataka and Kerala have topped the State Energy Efficiency Index 2019.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)2 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)1 only
(d)None of the above
Ans: b
Exp: This index tracks the progress of Energy Efficiency (EE) initiatives in 36 states and union
territories based on 97 significant indicators. It categorises states as ‘Front Runner’, ‘Achiever’,
‘Contender’ and ‘Aspirant’ based on their efforts and achievements towards energy efficiency
implementation. “The topper forming states in the State EE Index 2019-Haryana, Kerala and
Karnataka-are in the ‘Achiever’ category. Since there isn’t any ‘front runner’ state, it can be inferred
that a lot more can be done at the state level to realise energy savings from energy efficiency,” there
port on the index said.
Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/bee-launches-state-energy-efficiency-
index-2019/article30533640.ece
Q8. With reference to UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN), consider the following statements:
1. The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with
and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban and rural
development.
2. Mumbai, Hyderabad and Chennai are the only Indian cities that have been designated as members
of UCCN so far.
3.Categories for recognition under UCCN include Crafts and Folk Arts, Design, Film, Gastronomy,
Music, Media Arts and Literature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)3 only
(d)2 only
Ans:c
Exp:The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation
with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban
development. UNESCO has designated Mumbai as a member of UCCN in the field of FILM and
Hyderabad in the field of GASTRONOMY. Previously, 3 Indian cities were recognized as members
of UCCN, namely- Jaipur- Crafts and Folk Arts (2015), Varanasi-Creativecity of Music (2015) and
Chennai- Creativecity of Music (2017).
Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=194177
https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/mumbai-hyderabad-join-unesco-network-of-
creative-cities-119103101477_1.html
Q9.“Green Channel” ,recently in the news recently is related to
(a) Environment clearance for a project
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(b) Mergers and acquisition
(c) A TV channel launched by BBC
(d) None of the above
Ans:b
Exp: Competition Commission of India (CCI), in August announced a “greenchannel” to expedite
approval of mergers and acquisitions (M&As) that fall into certain categories. The Competition
Commission of India (CCI) received the first green channel combination filed undersub-section (2)
of Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 (Act) read with regulations 5 and 5A of the Competition
Commission of India (Procedure in regard to the transactions of business relating to combinations)
Regulations, 2011 (Combination Regulations), 3rd October, 2019.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1586891
Q10.Consider following statements:
1. Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a set of farming methods, and a grass roots peasant
movement, which has spread to various states in India.
2.It was the southern Indian state of Kerala where ZBNF first evolved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF)is a set of farming methods, and a grassroots peasant
movement, which has spread to various states in India. It was the southern Indian state of Karnataka
where it first evolved.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/stirring-up-the-truth-about-zbnf/article29620843.ece
http://www.fao.org/agroecology/detail/en/c/443712/
Q11.Consider the following statements:
1. BS-VI mass emission standard for vehicles are mandatory throughout the country from April 1,
2022 to curb pollution across the country.
2. National Electronic Toll Collection (FASTag) programme can also be used for parking purposes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: BS-VI mass emission standard for vehicles are mandatory throughout the country from April 1,
2020 to curb pollution across the country. National Electronic Toll Collection (FASTag) programme
can also be used for parking purposes.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1595553
Q12.Consider the following statements related toIREDA:
1. IREDA is India’s financial institution dedicated to clean energy expansion.
2. IREDA has financed the largest share of renewable energy projects in India.
3. It was founded under MNRE in 2009.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 2 and 3 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp:IREDA is India’s financial institution dedicated to clean energy expansion. IREDA has financed
the largest share of renewable energy projects in India. It was founded under MNRE in 1987.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1595888
Q13.Consider the following statements:
1. The Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Partnership(REEEP) develops innovative, efficient
financing mechanisms to strengthen markets for clean energy services in low- and middle-income
countries.
2. REEEP's work is made possible by generous donors and are funded primarily by sovereign
governments, multilateral and international organizations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:c
Exp: The Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Partnership(REEEP) develops innovative,
efficient financing mechanisms to strengthen markets for clean energy services in low- and middle-
income countries. REEEP's work is made possible by generous donors and are funded primarily by
sovereign governments, multilateral and international organizations.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1598040
Q14.Which among the following plans to phase out fossil fuel financing?
(a)Nordic Investment Bank(NIB)
(b)Asian Development Bank(ADB)
(c)European Investment Bank(EIB)
(d)New Development Bank(NDB)
Ans:c
Exp: The European Investment Bank has agreed to phase out its multibillion-euro financing for
fossil fuels within the next two years to become the world’s first “climate bank”. The bank will end
its financing of oil, gas, and coal projects after 2021, a policy that will make the EU’s lending arm
the first multilateral lender to rule out financing for projects that contribute to the climate crisis.
Source:https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2019/nov/15/european-investment-bank-to-
phase-out-fossil-fuels-financing
Q15.Consider the following statements:
1.GCF helps developed and developing countries limit or reduce their green house gas (GHG)
emissions and adapt to climate change.
2.It was set up by the 194 countries who are parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2009, as part of the Convention’s financial mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)2 only
(b)1 only
(c)Both1 and 2
(d)Neither1 nor 2
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Ans:d
Exp: GCF helps developing countries limit or reduce their green house gas (GHG) emissions and
adapt to climate change. It was set up by the 194 countries who are parties to the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010, as part of the Convention’s financial
mechanism.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/world-news/green-climate-fund-
hosts-two-day-fundraising-conference-in-paris/articleshow/71764171.cms
https://www.greenclimate.fund/who-we-are/about-the-fund
Q16. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme(UNEP).
2. The emission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the
conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
Ans:b
Exp: Wildlife trade is one of the world's most pressing conservation challenges, affecting hundreds
of millions of people and thousands of wildlife species. TRAFFIC is a leading non-governmental
organisation working globally on trade in wild
animalsandplantsinthecontextofbothbiodiversityconservationandsustainabledevelopment.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indian-seeks-change-of-status-of-
several-species-like-star-tortoise-otters-in-cites/article28917079.ece
Q17.Consider the following statements:
1. Green climate fund is accountable to the World Bank.
2. The Fund’s investments can be in the form of grants, loans, equity or guarantees.
3. The Fund is headquartered in Songdo, in the Republic of Korea.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:b
Exp: GCF is accountable to the United Nations. It is guided by the principles and provisions of the
UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
The Green Climate Fund is the only stand-alone multilateral financing entity whose sole mandate is
to serve the Convention and that aims to deliver equal amounts of funding to mitigation and
adaptation.
The Fund’s Governing Instrumentsets out its mandate and working methods.
GCF is governedby a 24-member Board, comprised equally of developed and developing countries,
representing the United Nations Regional Groups. It makes decisions based only on the consensus
agreement of all Board members. Board documentsare available online.
The Fund is headquartered in Songdo, in the Republic of Korea.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1582241
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Q18.Consider the following statements
1. The forest and tree cover 24.56% of the geographical area of the country.
2. India reduced its emission intensity by 21% from 2005 to 2014.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: . India is among a few countries in the world where forest and tree cover have increased
considerably. The forest and tree cover have reached 80.73 million hectare which is 24.56 per cent of
the geographical area of the country.
India’s sustained actions on addressing climate change have helped her to achieve great strides which
are reflected in reduction in the emission intensity of India’s GDP by 21 per cent during 2005-2014.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap06_vol2.pdf
Q19. Consider the following statements
1. There has been an increase of forest and tree cover compared to the previous assessment.
2. In terms of canopy density classes, the area covered by Very Dense Forest is the highest.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: There has been an increase of 3,976 sq. km (0.56 per cent) of forest cover, 1,212 sq. km (1.29
per cent) of tree cover and 5,188 sq. km (0.65 per cent) of forest and tree cover put together, at the
national level as compared to the previous assessment 2017.
In terms of canopy density classes, area covered by Very Dense Forest (VDF) is 99,278 sq. km (3.02
per cent), Moderately Dense Forest (MDF) is 3,08,472 sq. km (9.39 per cent) and Open Forest (OF)
is 3,04,499 sq. km (9.26 per cent)
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap06_vol2.pdf
Q20.Global Forest Resource Assessment is released by
a. UNICEF
b. FAO
c. IUCN
d. WWF
Ans: b
Q21.Consider the following statements
1. Net change in carbon stock in India shows that net change is highest in litter carbon.
2. Net change in carbon stock in India shows that net change is least in soil organic carbon.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
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Exp: Net change in carbon stock in India shows that net change is highest in soil organic carbon
followed by Above Ground Biomass (AGB) and Dead wood. Litter carbon registered negative growth
rate as compared to 2017 assessment.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap06_vol2.pdf
Q22.Consider the following statements
1. The Shannon-Wiener Index for Diversity is used for measuring species richness and
abundance.
2. The index also compares diversity of species among various habitats.
Select the correct code
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: India is one of the 17 mega diverse countries in the world. This is evident in the Shannon-Weiner
Index for Diversity which is used for measuring species richness and abundance. The index also
compares diversity of species among various habitats. India State of the Forest Report 2019 assessed
Shannon-Weiner Index for 16 biodiverse areas.
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/vol2chapter/echap06_vol2.pdf
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES
Q1.Consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Food Safety Mitra (FSM)’ scheme will support medium and large scale food businesses to
comply with the food safety laws.
2. The ‘Eat Right Jhola’, are usable cloth bag shall replace plastic bags for grocery shopping in various
retail chains.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The ‘Food Safety Mitra (FSM)’ scheme will support small and medium scale food businesses
to comply with the food safety laws and facilitate licensing and registration, hygiene ratings and
training. The ‘Eat Right Jhola’, a reusable cloth bag shall replace plastic bags for grocery shopping
in various retail chains.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q2.Who among the following can join the National Pension System(NPS)?
(a)Resident Indian citizens only
(b)Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c)All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective
State Governments
(d)All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or
after 1St April, 2004
Ans: c
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Exp: PFRDA in its endeavour to promote and develop NPS has taken several initiatives towards
increasing the pension coverage in the country. Now, any Indian citizen, resident or non-resident and
OCIs are eligible to join NPS till the age of 65years.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q3.With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), consider the following
statements:
1.It is a flagship scheme of the Government for pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2.It is a direct benefit transfer scheme under which cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in
their bank account directly to meet enhanced nutritional needs and fully compensate for wage loss.
3.The eligible beneficiaries also receive cash incentive under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva
Abhiyan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 only
(c)2 only
(d)1 and 3 only
Ans: b
Exp: It is a direct benefit transfer scheme under which cash benefits are provided to pregnant women
in their bank account directly to meet enhanced nutritional needs and partially compensate for wage
loss. The eligible beneficiaries also receive cash incentive under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
Q4.Consider the following statements:
1.UJALA is a flagship project of the government where it wants every BPL household in India to use
LED bulbs.
2.Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), a joint venture of PSUs under the Union Ministry of
Power.
3.Street Light National Programme (SNLP) was launched in 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1 and 3 only
Ans:b
Exp: Launched on January 5th, 2015, the Government of India’s zero subsidy Unnat Jyoti by
Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) and LED Street Lighting National Programme (SLNP), mark edits
fifth anniversary today. SLNP is the world’s largest street light replacement programme and UJALA
is the world’s largest domestic lighting project. Both have been spearheaded and implemented by
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), a joint venture of PSUs under the Ministry of Power,
Government of India. UJALA is a flagship project of the government where it wants every home in
India to use LED bulbs.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=197275
Q5. Consider the following statements related to Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY):
1. Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY) is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship
Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help Groups.
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2. TRIFED has also partnered with UNESCO for promoting Van Dhan program through the tribal
Culture, Craft, Cuisine and Commerce.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY) is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship
Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help Groups.TRIFED has also partnered
with UNICEF for promoting Van Dhan program through the tribal Culture, Craft, Cuisine and
Commerce.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1595421
Q6. Consider the following statements
1. National Skill Development Fund was set up in 2009 by the Government of India for raising funds
both from Government and Non Government sectors for skill development.
2. The Fund meets its objectives through National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) which is
an industry led ‘Not For Profit Company’ set up for building skill development capacity and forging
strong linkages with the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Source: https://www.msde.gov.in/nationalskilldevelopmentfund.html
Q7.New Swarnima Scheme for Women is associated with
(a) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(d) Ministry of Women and Child Development
Ans. b
Exp: National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation (NBCFDC), an
organization under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has this women
specific scheme for targeted women whose annual family income is less than Rs. 3.00 lakh per annum:
Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=191766
Q8.Consider the following statements
Under Pradhan Mantri KisanSamman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
1. All Institutional land holders and vulnerable landholding farmer families, having cultivable land
upto 1.5 hectares, will be provided direct income support.
2. Common Service Centres (CSCs) have also been authorized to do registration of the farmers for
the Scheme upon payment of fees.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Exp: Under Pradhan Mantri KisanSamman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) vulnerable landholding farmer
families, having cultivable land upto2 hectares, will be provided direct income support. All
Institutional Land holders are not eligible for the PM-Kisan Scheme.
Source:https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187932
https://www.pmkisan.gov.in/
Q9. Consider following statements about PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana?
1. The Farmer should be a citizen of India.
2. Those Small and marginal farmer families who have combined land holding or ownership of up to
2 hectares are eligible to apply.
3. The Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year are also eligible to apply
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: a
Exp:Eligibility for PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana
The Farmer should be a citizen of India.
Those Small and marginal farmer families who have combined land holding or ownership of up to 2
hectares are eligible to apply.
All the Institutional Land holders are not eligible to apply for this scheme.
Central or State Government officers and employees who are serving or retired except Multi Tasking
Staff /Class IV/Group D employees are not eligible to apply.
All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is above Rs.10,000/- except MTS/ Class
IV/Group D employees are not eligible to apply.
The Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year are not eligible to apply.
Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, Architects, etc are higher
economic status persons so there are not eligible to apply for this scheme.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573091
http://pmkisansammanyojana.com/#Eligibility
Q10. Consider the following:
1. All landholder farmers’ families in the country are eligible for the PM-Kisan Scheme.
2. Under the PM-Kisan Scheme an income support of Rs.6000/- per year is provided to all farmer
families across the country in three equal instalments of Rs.2000/- each every four months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: All landholder farmers’ families in the country are eligible for the PM-Kisan Scheme, except
those covered under the following exclusion criteria:
(I) All Institutional Land holders; and
(II) Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories :
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Former and present holders of constitutional posts
Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of Lok Sabha/ Rajya
Sabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councils, former and present Mayors of
Municipal Corporations, former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats.
All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries
/Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous
Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies (Excluding Multi-
Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees)
All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is Rs.10,000/-or more (Excluding
Multi-Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees)
All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year.
vi) Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects registered
with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1575610
Q11.Which of the following is/are the aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1.Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2.Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data
to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3.Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places
and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Ans:b
Exp: The Digital India programme is centred on three key vision areas:
Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, Governance and Services on Demand, Digital
Empowerment of Citizens.
Source: yojana September
Q12.Consider the following statements
1. Better health outcomes
2. Achieving INDC targets
3.Women empowerment
4.Alternate livelihood opportunities
Which of the following statements are the positive outcomes of UJJWALA Yojana?
(a)1,2,3
(b)2, 3, 4
(c)1, 3, 4
(d)All
Ans:d
Exp:Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: It aims to provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connection
stopo or households. Under the scheme, an adult woman member of a below poverty line family
identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is given a deposit-free LPG connection
with financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre. The scheme is being implemented
by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Key objectives of the scheme are:
1.Empowering women and protecting their health.
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2.Reducing the serious health hazards associated with cooking based on fossil fuel.
3.Reducing the number of deaths in India due to un clean cooking fuel.
4.Preventing young children from significant number of acute respiratory illnesses caused due to
indoor air pollution by burning the fossil fuel.
It is found that the positive outcomes have a spiralling effect on women empowerment as time saved
to search and carry firewood from near by forests is saved and used to spend on other alternate
livelihood opportunities particularly in SHGs.
Source: Yojana September
Q13. Consider the following statements with respect to Atal Bhoojal Yojana
1. The emphasis of the scheme will be on recharge of ground water sources and revival of surface
water bodies by involving people at the local level.
2. The half of the fund will be supported by a World Bank loan and the rest will be funded by state
government.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp:
Atal Bhoojal Yojana is aimed at efficient management of available water resources.
The emphasis of the scheme will be on recharge of ground water sources and revival of surface
water bodies by involving people at the local level.
It will focus on demand side management (how to meet requirements by minimum use of water).
The half of the fund will be supported by a World Bank loan of 3000 crore and the rest will be
funded by central government.
It would initially be implemented with community participation in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana,
Karnataka, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
It focuses primarily on involvement of communities and convergence with different water scheme.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/world-bank-nod-for-6000-cr-groundwater-recharge-
plan/article24097117.ece
Q14. Consider the following statements with respect to Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan
Mahabhiyan (KUSUM) Scheme
1. The Scheme aims to provide last mile electrical connectivity to all rural and urban households.
2. The scheme required the consumer to mandatorily have a bank account linked with Aadhaar
number for availing LPG Subsidy.
3. It is implemented by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Ans: a
Exp:
Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM) is a farmer-oriented solar power
scheme that will allow setting up grid-connected solar plants in rural areas and off-grid solar pumps.
It involves decentralized solar power production of up to 28,250 Megawatt (Mw) over five years.
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It aims at boosting farmers’ income by allowing them to sell additional power to the grid through
solar plants.
It is implemented by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/cabinet-approves-phase-ii-of-rooftop-solar-
programme/article26314512.ece
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) (SBM-G )
1. Construction of toilets in government schools will be done by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development
2. Construction of toilets in Aganwadis will be done by the Ministry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: Construction of toilets in government schools will be done by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development.Construction of toilets in Aganwadis will be done by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=189803
Q16.With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) Scheme in
India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Electricity connections will be given to APL families for Rs 500, which will be payable in 10 equal
monthly instalments
2. It also includes the Repair and Maintenance (R&M) for 5 years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana - Saubhagya is to provide energy access to all by
last mileconnectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural
as well asurban areas to achieve universal household electrification in the country.The electricity
connection to households include release of electricity connections by drawing a service cable from
the nearest pole to the household premise, installation of energy meter, wiring for a single light point
with LED bulb and a mobile charging point. In case the electricity pole is notavailable nearby from
household for drawing service cable, the erection of additional pole alongwith conductor and
associated accessories shall also be covered under the scheme.
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/pradhan-mantri-sahaj-bijli-har-ghar-yojana-saubhagya
http://yojana.gov.in/Recent_archive_English_2018.asp
Q17.Regarding the features of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY) - urban, which of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) It is implemented by Ministry of Housing & Urban Poverty Alleviation
(b) Normally, Funding will be shared between the Centre and the States in the ratio of 75:25.
(c) Cost of construction of shelters for urban homeless is fully funded under the Scheme.
(d) None of the above
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Ans: d
Exp: Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY) with an aim to uplift the urban poor folks by
enhancingsustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development. Keeping in view the
objective ofMake in India, Skill Development is essential for socio economic betterment. Deen Dayal
AntyodayaYojana was launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
(HUPA).Government of India has provisioned Rs.500 crore for the scheme. The scheme is integration
of the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) and National RuralLivelihoods Mission
(NRLM).
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/deen-dayal-antyodaya-yojana
http://yojana.gov.in/Recent_archive_English_2018.asp
Q18. Consider following statements related to Mid-Day Meal-
1. Cooking cost is linked to Inflation Index.
2. Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDMS) covers all school children studying in Classes I-VIII of
Government, Government-Aided Schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Cooking cost for MDM is linked to Inflation Index.Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDMS) covers all
school children studying in Classes I-VIII of Government, Government-Aided Schools.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1565284
Q19. Consider following statements:
1. Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is a joint venture of only two national Public-Sector
Undertakings.
2. It is implementing agency for Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is a joint venture of four national Public-Sector
Undertakings. It is implementing agency for Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA).
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/eesl-interview/article26425163.ece
Q20. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is
(a) a pension scheme for workers in the unorganised sector
(b) a pension scheme for workers in the organised sector
(c) Both of the above
(d)None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, a pension scheme for workers in
the unorganised sector.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/defence-minister-launches-pm-sym-pension-
scheme/article26441711.ece
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Q21.Consider the following statements related to Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY):
1. LPG connections will be provided to BPL families with a support of Rs.2000 per connection.
2. As per a WHO report, smoke inhaled by women from unclean fuel is equivalent to burning 400
cigarettes in an hour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: LPG connections will be provided to BPL families with a support of Rs.1600 per connection.
2. As per a WHO report, smoke inhaled by women from unclean fuel is equivalent to burning 400
cigarettes in an hour.
http://yojana.gov.in/19-3-19%20%20March%20Yojana%20Final.pdf
Q22. With reference to the ‘"Housing for All by 2022" Mission- URBAN, which of the
following statements is/are correct ?
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Poverty Alleviation
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, except the credit linked subsidy component, which will be
implemented as a Central Sector Scheme
3. Ownership of houses will be in the name of woman and never jointly with husband
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp:
It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Poverty Alleviation. It is a Centrally
Sponsored Scheme, except the credit linked subsidy component, which will beimplemented as a
Central Sector Scheme Ownership of houses will be in the name of woman OR jointly with husband.
http://yojana.gov.in/Recent_archive_English_2018.asp
Q23. Consider following statements:
1. Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) is scheme administered by The Ministry of Women and Child
Development.
2. Under the Scheme, physical aids and Assisted Living Devices are provided free of cost to the
beneficiary Women belonging to BPL category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Exp: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has introduced a scheme for providing
physical aids and Assisted Living Devices for Senior Citizens belonging to BPL category named
“Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY)”. Under the Scheme, assisted living devices such as Walking
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Sticks, Elbow Crutches, Walkers/ Crutches, Tripods/ Quadpods, Hearing Aids, Wheelchairs,
Artificial Dentures and Spectacles are provided free of cost to the beneficiary senior citizens.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1562683
Q24. Consider the following statements:
1. Uchhatar Avishkar Yojana (UAY) is 100% industry sponsored Scheme.
2. One of the objectives of UAY scheme is to promote innovation in IITs.
Which statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: b
Exp: Uchhatar Avishkar Yojana (UAY) UAY promotes industry sponsored, outcome-oriented
research projects with an outlay of Rs. 475.00 crore for a period of two years beginning 2016-17. The
project cost is met to the extent of 50 per cent by MHRD and 25 per cent each by the Industry and
host Institute. The objectives of UAY scheme are to promote innovation in IITs, connect with
manufacturing industries, spur innovative mindset and promote collaboration and cooperation
between academia and industry.
http://yojana.gov.in/Yojana%20January2019.pdf
Q25. Which of the following is a ‘Scheme for Life Insurance’:-
(a) The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
(b) The Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
(c) The Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
(d) The Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
Ans: b
Exp: The Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a one-year life insurance scheme,
renewable from year to year, offering coverage for death due to any reason and is available to people
in the age group of 18 to 50 years (life cover upto age 55) having a savings bank account who give
their consent to join and enable auto-debit Life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs is available for a one year period
stretching from June 1 to May 31 at a premium of Rs.330/- per annum per member and is renewable
every year which means premium of less than Re 1 per day.
http://yojana.gov.in/Yojana%20January2019.pdf
MISCELLANEOUS
Q1. With reference to IRSED, consider the following
1. The third meeting of the IRSED focussed on six core areas of cooperation, namely, Development
of Transport Infrastructure and Technologies; Development of Agriculture and Agro-Processing
sector; Small and Medium Business support; Digital Transformation and Frontier Technologies;
Cooperation in Trade, Banking, Finance, and Industry; and Tourism & Connectivity.
2. The IRSED was established following a bilateral MoU signed between NITI Aayog and the
Ministry of Economic Development of the Russian Federation during the 19th edition of the Annual
India-Russia Bilateral Summit.
3. The meeting was attended by finance ministers and senior leaders of both the countries to help
enhance strategic economic cooperation between our countries
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans.d
Exp:First India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue was held in St. Petersburg between November
25-26, 2018.Second India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED) was recently held in New
Delhi.
The Second India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED) was held today in New Delhi, under
the chairmanship of Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice-Chairman, National Institution for Transforming India
(NITI) Aayog and Mr. Timur Maksimov, Deputy Minister of the Economic Development of the
Russian Federation.
Participants included government officials, business leaders and experts, bringing in diverse
perspectives for ideation.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=191522
Q2. ‘Indian Performing Rights Society(IPRS)’recently seen in news is a/an:
(a) Representative body of artists and music owners
(b)Theatre network
(c)International child rights network
(d)Anti-drug trafficking organisation
Ans:a
Exp: The IPRS is a representative body of artists and music owners, including composers, lyricists,
authors and the publishers of music. The group has initiated the process of seeking royalties from
Indian telecom companies and platforms such as Apple and YouTube for the use of their works,
including songs and music made available for streaming and downloads.
Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/media/entertainment/indian-performing-
rights-society-wants-royalties-for-music-used-by-telcos/articleshow/62941437.cms
Q3.The author of book “Good economics for hard times” is
(a) Esther Duflo
(b) CRangarajan
(c)AmartyaSen
(d)Elinor Ostrom
Ans: a
Exp: Poor Economics: A Radical Rethinking of the Way to Fight Global Poverty (2011) is a non-
fiction book by Abhijit V. Banerjee and Esther Duflo, both professors of Economics at MIT.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/economics-of-poverty/article29683404.ece
Q4.Which one of the following is a partner with World Food Programme to develop the new global
hunger monitoring system called “Hunger Map LIVE”?
(a) Amazon
(b) Google
(c) Alibaba Cloud
(d) Walmart
Ans. c
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Exp: WFP has developed a new global hunger monitoring system called “Hunger Map LIVE” in
partnership with Alibaba Cloud, to help assess, monitor and visualize the severity and scope of hunger
in over 90 countries.
Source: http://mvam.org/2019/10/22/introducing-hunger-map-live/
Q5. The ‘Kimberley Process (KP)’ recently in the news, is related to
(a) Dispute resolution between parties
(b) Conflict diamonds
(c) Coal mining
(d) Gold standard
Ans: b
Exp: The Kimberley Process is a joint initiative involving Government, international diamond
industry and civil society to stem the flow of Conflict Diamonds. Conflict Diamonds means rough
diamonds used by rebel movements or their allies to finance conflict aimed at undermining legitimate
governments. It is also described in United Nations Security Council (UNSC) Resolutions.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1574572
Q6. Ease of living index is released by
(a) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) NSSO
(d) Labour Bureau
Ans:a
Exp: Government’s aim to improve ease of living for the citizens. MoHUA released the first ever
‘Ease of Living Index’ in 2018 covering 111 Cities, and has recently launched assessment frameworks
for Ease of Living Index 2019. As per World Bank’s, Doing Business Report-2019, India’s rank in
Ease of Doing Business in Construction Permits has improved from 181 in 2018 to 52, i.e. a record
jump of 129 places. Online Building Permission System (OBPS) has been implemented in 1,705
cities including 439 AMRUT cities so far.
http://yojana.gov.in/FULLPDFYOJANAAUGUST2019.pdf
Q7.The 2019 Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences was conferred on
(a)Abhijit Banerjee
(b)Amartya Sen
(c)Jean Dreze
(d)None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: The Prime Minister has congratulated Abhijit Banerjee on being conferred the 2019 Sveriges
Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q8.Consider the following statements:
1. Institute for Competitiveness , India is the Indian knot in the global network of the Institute for
Strategy and Competitiveness at London School of Economics.
2.Institute for Competitiveness, India conducts & supports indigenous research; offers academic &
executive courses; provides advisory services to the Corporate & the Government.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Institute for Competitiveness, India is the Indian knot in the global network of the Institute for
Strategy and Competitiveness at Harvard Business School. Institute for Competitiveness, India
conducts & supports indigenous research; offers academic & executive courses; provides advisory
services to the Corporate & the Governments and organises events.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1587688
Q9. Consider following statements w.r.t. NITI Aayog :-
1. The Vice President is the Ex-officio chairman.
2. Its Governing Council consists of Chief Ministers of all the States and Union territories with
Legislatures and lieutenant governors of Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The Prime Minister is the Ex-officio chairman. A Governing Council composed of Chief
Ministers of all the States and Union territories with Legislatures and lieutenant governorsof Union
Territories (except Delhi and Pondicherry)
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/ensure-borrowerdiscipline/article26727973.ece
Q10. Kafala system sometimes seen in the news recently was followed by which of the following
countries?
(a) Qatar
(b) Zambia
(c) Indonesia
(d) Maldives
Ans: a
Exp:
Qatar is set to abolish its controversial exit visa system for all foreign workers by the end of 2019
the UN’s International Labour Organization has recently said.
The Kafala (Sponsorship) System emerged in the 1950’s to regulate the relationship between
employers and migrant workers in many countries in West Asia.
It remains the routine practice in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries of Bahrain,
Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE),
and also in the Arab states of Jordan and Lebanon.
Under the Kafala system a migrant worker’s immigration status is legally bound to an individual
employer or sponsor (kafeel) for their contract period.
The migrant worker cannot enter the country, transfer employment nor leave the country for any
reason without first obtaining explicit written permission from thekafeel.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/qatars-exit-visa-system-to-end-this-year-
un/article26958686.ece
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Q11. ‘The Theory of Moral Sentiments’ book is written by:-
(a) John Maynard Keynes
(b) Friedrich August von Hayek
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Adam Smith
Ans: d
Exp: Smith’s The Theory of Moral Sentiments and An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the
Wealth of Nations make it clear that he was not a laissez faire or free market capitalismapologist.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/why-adam-smith-favoured-public-
education/article25954760.ece
Q12. The coin of Rs 350 denomination has been released by Government recently to mark the Birth
Anniversary of :-
(a) Guru Nanak Dev
(b) Guru Govind Singh
(c) Baba Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(d) Mahatma Buddha
Ans: b
Exp: a coin of Rs 350 denomination to mark the 350th Birth Anniversary of Shri Guru Gobind Singh
Ji.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1559767
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