cisco 350-080 exam questions & answers...enabling jumbo frame support on a cisco nexus 5500...

CISCO 350-080 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

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CISCO 350-080 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam

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QUESTION 1FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are theadvantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)

A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learningB. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame fieldC. STPl independenceD. 10 Gbps bandwidthE. Layer 2 extensions between data centers

Correct Answer: ABCSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 2A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module ispowered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?

A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the

system.

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true?(Choose two.)

A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the

channel group.D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer

ports in an ISL.E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.

Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 4

Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core?(Choose three.)

A. virtualizationB. unified I/OC. support for 48-port Gb/s line cardD. support for Data Center Service ModulesE. high performanceF. high availability

Correct Answer: BEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct?

A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoE NPV mode.B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch.C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function as a

complete Fibre Channel Forwarder.D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such as IVR.E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder and Fibre

Channel Bridge functions.

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 6Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager?

A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switchesB. save and copy configuration files and software imagesC. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channelsD. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEXE. configure FCoE



QUESTION 7What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)

A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switchesB. Faster throughputC. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environmentD. Support for increased number of VSANsE. Support for SAN port channels

Correct Answer: ACSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a module thatdoes not match the resource type is installed?

A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state.B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.



QUESTION 9Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)

A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: EnabledB. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: DesiredC. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: DisabledD. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: DesiredE. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired

Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 10In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure full remoteaccess via management 0?

A. two IP addresses, one for each supervisorB. three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisorC. one IP address that is shared among supervisorsD. none--management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created



QUESTION 11Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which method?

A. changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216B. using the command system jumbomtu 9216C. using the command interface MTU 9216D. configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS policy map

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 12DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary areas of thisoperation?

A. analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoringB. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device managerC. definition of flows, information collection, and data presentationD. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation



QUESTION 13DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of these?(Choose three.)

A. collecting the running configurationB. raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirementC. discovering all devices by defaultD. discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accountsE. using LLDP to discover network adaptors

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 14You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows ServerB. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise ServerC. Oracle Enterprise LinuxD. Red Hat Enterprise LinuxE. VMware ESX

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 15Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features, including whichtwo of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.)

A. GLBPB. HSRPC. IRDPD. VRRP

Correct Answer: ABSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 16Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environmentsand supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools.

Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces?(Choose two.)

A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLIB. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XMLC. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmtD. SoL and NX-OSE. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI



QUESTION 17A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices toappear as a single port channel to a third device.

Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)

A. Enable feature vPCB. Define domainsC. Establish peer keepalive connectivityD. Create a peer linkE. Configure the peer link as a trunk portF. Create port channels and vPCsG. Define port channel load-balancing methodH. Make sure configurations are consistent

Correct Answer: ABCDFHSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Answer: A,B,C,D,F,HExplanation:

QUESTION 18When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations thata role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.)

A. port-profileB. commandC. access-listD. feature-groupE. OID



QUESTION 19Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting,causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)

A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the

HSRP active router.D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the

HSRP active router.E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 20Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send itto the Layer 3 domain of the data center network.

Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)

A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physicalinterface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface.

B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one.

Correct Answer: ABCSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 21The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What are thedifferences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)

A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain.C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath).E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 22Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formatsare available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XML- based automated parsingapplications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these arepredefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX- OS Software? (Choose three.)

A. short-text-destinationB. prerecorded audio alertsC. CiscoTAC-1D. dial911E. full-text-destination

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 23Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications?

A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous

ports.D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.



Explanation:

QUESTION 24Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)

A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are

down.



Explanation:

QUESTION 25What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC?

A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpointB. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture

enablementC. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configurationD. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 26What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?

A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.



QUESTION 27On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and what is the mainpurpose of virtual output queues?

A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basis

B. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queuesC. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other egress portsD. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual output queuesE. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 28On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component?

A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUB. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUC. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUD. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU



QUESTION 292012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hello- message from10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message discarded

2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18 from 10.1.1.1,holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1

You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the command show ip pimneighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the interface.What is the problem based on the debug output?

A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to

Ethernet1/18.C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18.D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface connecting to

Ethernet1/18.E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18.



QUESTION 30What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy?

A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checksB. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methodsC. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topologyD. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) configuration



QUESTION 31Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on Cisco Nexusswitches?

A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors.B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration.C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the

configuration against the hardware and software resources available before applying it.D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading NX-OS Software on

the switch with ISSU.E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus 7000.



QUESTION 32Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform which tasks?

A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can transmitmulticast and broadcast.

B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network.C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given VLAN within a

site.D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.



QUESTION 33Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose three.)

A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp- snoopingcommand.

B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the DHCPsnooping binding database.

C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping binding database tovalidate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP snooping is enabled globally and for eachspecific VLAN.

D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch.E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or the configuration

of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature.

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 34Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and removingCisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on managed devices.

B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to manageddevices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has the network operator role.

C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LAN serversettings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices.

D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use defaultcredentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device.

E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported.



QUESTION 35Nexus# conf t

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10

% Permission denied

Nexus(config)# ?

no Negate a command or set its defaults

username Configure user information.

end Go to exec mode

exit Exit from command interpreter

What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?

A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode.B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation of Layer 3

interfaces.C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator.D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode.E. The AAA server is currently not responding.



QUESTION 36Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN? (Choosethree.)

A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supported with any CiscoNX-OS Software managed device.

B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by the DCNM server,and the administrator can supply the device management IP address and credentials.

C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device.D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configuration change

management.E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version.

Correct Answer: CDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 37Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.)

A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers willforward data traffic. No additional configuration is required.

B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers willforward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled.

C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts whileproviding the default router redundancy.

D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration.E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also removed.

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 38Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters are collected

and reported individually per VDC.B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is possible.C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled.D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.



QUESTION 39Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is only compatible withother Cisco routers.

B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart. WhenOSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes a grace period that tells NSF helpers tokeep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface.

C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it experiences a coldreboot.

D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, or if thenetwork experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down adjacency with the restartingOSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart.

E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU.



QUESTION 40Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE.close- session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config.

B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE.close- session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session.

C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions.D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software.E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for communication with

the device.



QUESTION 41

Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol bridges?

A. C84C.75FA.6000B. 0100.5E11.02FDC. C84C.76FA.6000D. 4000.0000.0001



QUESTION 42Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange MACreachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the feature isis command before OTVadjacencies can be established.

B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with other OTVedge peers.

C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join the overlaynetwork.

D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast packets that arethen sent to the other sites.



QUESTION 43How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers?

A. IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peersB. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer linkC. IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMPD. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC peers



QUESTION 44Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches?

A. admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operatorB. admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operatorC. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator

D. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and network- admin andnetwork-operator (for other Nexus switches)

E. admin and read-only



QUESTION 45What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vPC configuration?

A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutesB. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondaryC. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restoredD. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency



QUESTION 46Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120

IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120

IGMP snooping disabled

Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled

IGMP querier none

Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running

IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled

IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled

IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled

IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled

Link Local Groups suppression enabled

Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries

Number of router-ports: 0

Number of groups: 0

Active ports:

Po100 Po111

Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?

A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switchwith the feature igmp command.

B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interfaceconfigured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.

C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.



QUESTION 47What is the default Time to Live (TTL) valuse in Cisco FabricPath?

A. 128B. 32C. 64D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology



QUESTION 48Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these isused to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?

A. feature pim!interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

B. feature pim!interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0

ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.1 2.2.2.2ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.2 2.2.2.2ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

C. interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

D. feature pimfeature msdp!interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip msdp originator-id loopback1ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword!ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4



QUESTION 49When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the overlay?

A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control-group multicastaddress for transport

B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlayC. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group multicast

address for transport

D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs



QUESTION 50Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center? (Choosethree.)

A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast

configuration is possible on the switch.C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature with the

feature pim command.D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance.E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.



QUESTION 51On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command?

switch# config terminal

switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10

switch(config)#

A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series moduleB. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 110C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs.D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module



QUESTION 52Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after therequest is confirmed, what is updated?

A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree isupdated.

B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.

C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated.D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.



QUESTION 53In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPathswitches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.)

A. Root priorityB. System IDC. Bridge IDD. Switch IDE. Port IDF. Subswitch ID

Correct Answer: ABDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 54By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. DSA key generated with 512 bitsB. RSA key generated with 768 bitsC. RSA key generated with 1024 bitsD. DSA key generated with 1024 bitsE. RSA key generated with 2048 bits




Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.)

A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which traffic is

to be forwarded.C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.



QUESTION 56In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent unnecessaryGLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?

A. GLBP redirect timerB. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timerC. GLBP hold timerD. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timerE. GLBP extended hold timerF. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer




vPC+ is configured between which switches?

A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12C. Switch-ID 100 onlyD. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100



QUESTION 58SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Whichauthentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3? (Choose two.)

A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocolB. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocolC. Community String Match protocolD. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocolE. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 59Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separateLayer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, andload-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection.

Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.)

A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency

Server.D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency

Server.



QUESTION 60Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose two.)

A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs.B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed.C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs.D. Only options drop and forward are permitted.

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 61Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a Virtual PortChannel (vPC) is created.During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer in order toverify that vPC member ports can actually form a PortChannel.

Which statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true? (Choose two.)

A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check

command under VPC domain configuration mode.D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are

suspended.



QUESTION 62Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled?

A. Cisco AV-pair

B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attributeC. DH-CHAP challenge attributeD. privilege level attribute



QUESTION 63Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACPport priority? (Choose three.)

A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535.B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP.C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot

standby links within the port channel.D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier.E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed



QUESTION 64Nexus7000# config t

Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11

Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host

Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50

Nexus700(config-if)# exit

Nexus700(config)#

What will this command sequence achieve?

A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50



QUESTION 65Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to eachQoS group?

A. show interface priority-flow-controlB. show interface queuingC. show queuing interfaceD. show policy-map system type queuingE. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing




During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state.What's the cause of this issue?

A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch.D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.



Explanation:

QUESTION 67With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, andCPU state?

A. show memory detailedB. show process cpu sortedC. show system resourcesD. show hardware capacity



QUESTION 68What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?

A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-

plane traffic.C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.



QUESTION 69Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appearto a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a single port channel. Which of thefollowing are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four)

A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vPCdomain.

B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenariosC. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other

when neededD. vPC member ports forming the PortChannelE. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peersF. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios.

Correct Answer: ABCDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 70

Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choosetwo.)

A. port securityB. fabric bindingC. IVRD. port trackingE. FICON

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation



Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN isin the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.

Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to thestorage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link?

A. show fspf traffic vsan 10B. show vsan 10C. show trunk protocolD. show fcroute unicast vsan 10



QUESTION 72What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment?

A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC commandB. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC commandC. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC

D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command



QUESTION 73Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?

A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is runninga version of code that supports Adapter FEX.

B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links orchannels.

C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF.D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active is

supported.



QUESTION 74Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch?

Flow ID. 44

Initiator VSAN: 200

Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db

Target VSAN: 200

Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef

Target LUN: ALL LUNs

Flow Verification Status:

-------------------------

Initiator Verification Status: success

Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server

Initiator Linecard Status: success

Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked

Feature Status:

---------------

Write-Acceleration enabled

Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024

Configuration Status: flow verification failed

A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not existB. The zone set has not been activatedC. The target is not logged into the fabricD. The pWWN used for the target is invalid



QUESTION 75Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a lossless class ofEthernet traffic?

A. LLDPB. LACPC. PFCD. FIP



QUESTION 76Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?

A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabledB. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre ChannelD. It's hard-set but can disable all but one classE. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight



QUESTION 77When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 SeriesSwitches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can exist in the team?

A. 1

B. 2C. 4D. 5E. 16



QUESTION 78Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel?

A. Cannot be disabledB. Cannot have the CoS changedC. Can have "Packet Drop" enabledD. Is multicast optimizedE. Can have the MTU changed



QUESTION 79Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.)

A. Priority flow controlB. Buffer-to-buffer creditsC. TCP retransmissionD. Ethernet checksumE. QoS policies

Correct Answer: AESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 80Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?

A. show flogi databaseB. show system fc loginC. show npv flogi-tableD. show npv fcns databaseE. show interface vfc X flogiF. show interface flogi



QUESTION 81Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?

A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.C. The system is running with the default QOS policies.D. The link is oversubscribed.




QUESTION 82On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)

A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabledB. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storageC. FIP negotiation timingD. Peer does not support LLDPE. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled



QUESTION 83When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module.B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module.C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module.D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.

Correct Answer: CD



QUESTION 84Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?

A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments.C. It is not used to build the FCoE links.D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.



QUESTION 85Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame?

A. Ethernet FCSB. Source addressC. Destination addressD. EtherTypeE. Protocol type



QUESTION 86What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.)

A. Up to 25 m bus lengthB. Only one device per SCSI busC. Up to 16 devices per SCSI busD. Half-duplex operationE. Full-duplex operation



QUESTION 87Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the

directly connected FCoE host?

A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over

its Fibre Channel uplink port.C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Fibre

Channel target over its Fibre Channel port.D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port.



QUESTION 88A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given theoutput of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue?

switch# show npv status

npiv is enabled

External Interfaces:

===============

InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other

Number of External Interfaces: 4

A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch?B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down stateC. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN?D. The local host interface is not able to login



QUESTION 89Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.)

A. use summary view in the device managerB. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down listC. for each port channel, select Monitor ContinuallyD. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMONE. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance

collections

Correct Answer: ABE



QUESTION 90A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4



QUESTION 91When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?

A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group

<number> mode active.C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group

<number> mode passive.D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group

<number> mode on.



QUESTION 92

How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4F. 5



QUESTION 93Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)

A. accountingB. authenticationC. authorizationD. network monitoringE. network planning

Correct Answer: ADESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 94Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS?

A. channel-group auto mode onB. channel-group auto mode activeC. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdpD. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manualE. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning



QUESTION 95vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose two.)

A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSGB. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEMC. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC

D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow managerE. deep packet inspection



QUESTION 96n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status

Current Status : Enabled

Running Config Status : Enabled

Saved Config Status : Disabled

What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.)

A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch.C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM.D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM.E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.



QUESTION 97The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent softwareswitch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operatingsystem. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link servervirtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware Viewcomponents, including the DHCP snooping feature. DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default.

When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for thevEthernet and uplink ports?

A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.



QUESTION 98When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these?

A. Upstream switchB. Virtual Supervisor ModuleC. VMware distributed switchD. VMware vSwitchE. Service virtual machine



QUESTION 99Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will besent out upon?

Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data

Switchport mode trunk

Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210

Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning

State enabled

Vmware port-group

No shut

Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200

Switchport mode access

Switchport vlan 200

State enabled

Vmware port-group

No shut

A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunkB. show module 3 internal pinningC. module vem X execute vemcmd show portD. show module vem mappingE. show interface vethX pinning



Explanation:

QUESTION 100What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)

A. perform flow lookupsB. intercept packets on service enabled portsC. run packets through the vPath flow managerD. classify the packetsE. flow manager emits an action for the packetsF. enforce the action determined by the flow manager

Correct Answer: BCEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 101A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intendedfor use with an N1Kv.

Interface fastethernet 1/10


Switchport trunk allowed vlan all

Channel-group 10 mode on

No shut

Interface fastethernet 1/11


Switchport trunk allowed vlan all

Channel-group 10 mode on

No shut

Interface port-channel10


Switchport allowed vlan all

No shut

Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile?

A. MAC pinningB. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinningC. Mode OnD. Mode Active

E. No port channel configuration



QUESTION 102DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts andtrusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.)

A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response messages fromDHCP servers

B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted portsC. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted

hosts with leased IP addressesD. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hostsE. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table entry or

static IP source entry



QUESTION 103A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine named VM001 usingSPAN. The customer has another virtual machine configured as a sniffer host called VM002. Whatconfiguration is required, and what other changes will need to be made? (Choose two.)

VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 5

Vethernet5 is up

Port description is VM001, Network Adapter 2

HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e)

Owner is VM "VM001", adapter is Network Adapter 2

Active on module 5

VMware DVS port 484

Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10

Port mode is access

VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 6

Vethernet6 is up

Port description is VM002, Network Adapter 1

HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020)

Owner is VM "VM002", adapter is Network Adapter 1

Active on module 5

VMware DVS port 485

Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10

Port mode is access

A. Monitor session 1 type spanSource interface veth5 bothDestination interface veth6No shut

B. monitor session 1source vlan 10destination interface veth6no shut

C. monitor session 1 type er-spansource interface vlan 10destination ip 10.1.1.10no shut

D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1VE. Move VM002 to Module 5F. Restart the VEM on module 5



QUESTION 104Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type of configuration(Choose three.)

port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data

vmware port-group

switchport mode trunk

switchport allowed vlan 400-410

channel-group auto mode active

no shut

state enabled

A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnectsB. Pair of N5K's in VPC.C. Standalone N5KD. Pair of N5K's in non-VPC

E. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS



QUESTION 105Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Source and destination interface must be on the same hostB. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hostsC. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the sourceD. Destination interface can be a physical portE. Destination interface cannot be a physical port



QUESTION 106What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv?

A. Send monitored traffic to a VLANB. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interfaceD. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination



QUESTION 107Given the following configuration:

port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINK

vmware port-group

switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093

channel-group auto mode on

no shutdown

state enabled

port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINK

vmware port-group

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12

channel-group auto mode on

no shutdown

state enabled

VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve this issue?

A. Remove second NIC from each port profileB. Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsertC. Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlappingD. Reinstall VEME. Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1"



QUESTION 108The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does

not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter.

The administrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot:

VSM# show svs connections

connection VC:

ip address: 10.10.10.30

remote port: 80

protocol: vmware-vim https

certificatE. default

datacenter namE. DC1

DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99

config status: Disabled

operational status: Disconnected

sync status: -

version: -

When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen:

VSM-PRI-188# conf

VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC

VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect

ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use

What is the cause of the error?

A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configurationB. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configurationC. VSM has no network connection to vCenterD. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenterE. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM




An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given below configurationfrom VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.)

VSM# show svs domain

SVS domain config:

Domain iD. 111

Control vlan: 500

Packet vlan: 501

L2/L3 Control modE. L2

L3 control interfacE. NA

Status: Config push to VC successful.

A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches



QUESTION 110Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs?

A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported.B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow.C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB.D. The memory bus would be too long.E. The blade would run too hot.



QUESTION 111On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640 CPU, what is thefastest speed the memory can run at?

A. 800 MHzB. 900 MHzC. 1066 MHzD. 1333 MHzE. 1666 MHz



QUESTION 112

Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)

A. B200B. C210C. B250D. C260E. C460

Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 113Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.)

A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation.B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices.C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package.D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches.E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 114On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM?

A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 6E. 12



QUESTION 115Which statement about NPIV is true?

A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port.B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.

E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.



QUESTION 116When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS WWN pool caninclude only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges?

A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFB. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFC. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFD. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF



QUESTION 117Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two statements aboutUCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.)

A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint.B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling.C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains.D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain.E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group.



Explanation:

QUESTION 118Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon disassociation? (Choosetwo.)

A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased.B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed.C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved.D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration.E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration.

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 119In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade system (that is,new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades), what type of backup would provide themost complete set of information?

A. logical configurationB. all configurationC. full stateD. system configuration



QUESTION 120When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified? (Choose four.)

A. nameB. best-effortC. burstD. rateE. host control

Correct Answer: ACDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 121Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during the discoveryprocess and when the server is disassociated from a service profile?

A. boot policy and BIOS policyB. disk scrub and boot policyC. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policyD. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub



QUESTION 122Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity?

A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplinkUCS-A /fc-uplink # set mode end-hostUCS-A /fc-uplink* # commit-buffer

B. UCS-A# scope eth-uplinkUCS-A /eth-uplink # set mode end-hostWarninG.When committed, this change will cause the switch to reboot UCS-A /eth-uplink* # commit-buffer

C. UCS-A# scope fabric-interconnect aUCS-A /fabric-interconnect # set mode end-hostUCS-A /fabric-interconnect* # commit-buffer

D. UCS-A# scope systemUCS-A /system* # set mode end-hostUCS-A /system* # commit-buffer



QUESTION 123Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA.B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS environment send and

receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send buffer for a port fills.C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used.D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort, Fibre Channel.E. When configuring a system class, the type of adapter in a server may limit the maximum MTU supported.



QUESTION 124Where are Cisco UCS vNICs created?

A. In the blade BIOSB. In the operating systemC. In the service profileD. In the card option ROM



QUESTION 125Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment are true?(Choose two.)

A. End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode.B. In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed.C. Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host mode is nondisruptive.D. End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode.



QUESTION 126What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. Fibre Channel storageB. UCS C-Series serversC. NFS storageD. UCS chassisE. Other fabric interconnect



QUESTION 127Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs.B. The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number of chassis uplinks.C. vNICs are created using software on the host operating system.D. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device.E. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC.F. The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs.



QUESTION 128In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host mode used for?

A. Sending all broadcastsB. Receiving all traffic from upstream switchesC. Receiving broadcast trafficD. Negotiating spanning tree with upstream switchesE. Learning MAC addres?ses from upstream switch?es



QUESTION 129Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?

A. ServerB. End deviceC. NodeD. HostE. Virtual



QUESTION 130Given the following output:

san-port-channel 12 is up

Hardware is Fibre Channel

Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d:ec:d3:5c:00

Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is on

Port mode is NP

Port vsan is 1

Speed is 8 Gbps

Member[1] : fc2/3

Member[2] : fc2/4

What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate?

A. The speed of the slowest interface in the port channelB. The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channelC. The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are upD. The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used



Explanation:

QUESTION 131Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?

A. TrunkB. PhysicalC. UplinkD. SwitchE. End host



QUESTION 132Where are SAN Port Channel is created in UCS Manager?

A. Under the Admin tab on the FIB. Under the Server tab in the service profileC. Under the SAN tab on each VSAND. Under the Admin tab on the chassisE. Under the SAN tab on the Fabric Interconnect



QUESTION 133In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to?

A. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switchesB. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV modeC. To any Fibre Channel switchD. Directly to storage arraysE. Only to Nexus Switches



QUESTION 134When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?

A. During the initial configuration from the consoleB. Once the basic configuration has been applied

C. To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnectD. To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect



QUESTION 135Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?

A. They are created automatically and stored on the FIB. They are created manually and exported to a remote serverC. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hoursD. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI



QUESTION 136What is the use of an "all configuration" backup in Cisco UCS?

A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profilesB. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was createdC. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster informationD. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration



QUESTION 137An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature enabled.Which statement is true?

A. A unique vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric BB. A vEthernet interface will be created only on Fabric AC. A vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A, and move across to Fabric B in the event of failureD. Fabric B will learn the vEthernet interface from Fabric A through a GARPE. The same vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B



Explanation:

QUESTION 138What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager?

"ether VIF x / xxx down, reason: ENM source pinning failed"

A. The associated VLANs of a vNIC are not found on an uplink.B. Overlapping VLAN IDs exist on upstream disjoint networks.C. The vNIC was not configured for fabric failover.D. The vNIC is pinned to the wrong fabric.E. Overlapping VSAN IDs exist on upstream SAN switches.F. The vHBA was not configured for failover.


Explanation/Reference:Explanation

QUESTION 139Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.)

A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a serverinterface failover.

B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on

uplink ports.



Explanation:


All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host mode. Host Atransmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4.

Which statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports to FabricInterconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B.

B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects from receiving multiplecopies of the broadcast frame.

C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame.D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no broadcasts on any other

VLAN.E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the

broadcast frame.



QUESTION 141What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXesB. Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXesC. Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnectsD. Two RJ45 Ethernet cablesE. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode

Correct Answer: BCDSection: (none)Explanation



Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the configuration in theprovided exhibit.

Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnectsB. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric ExtenderC. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric ExtendersD. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface CardE. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander

Correct Answer: AEFSection: (none)Explanation



The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices that no traffic istraversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C).

Which actions might be used to change this behavior?

A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the port channel IDsdo not match.

B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always be the rootbridge.

C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root bridge.D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are a higher priority

than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D).E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected.



Explanation:


On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this Cisco UCS domain?

A. VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports.B. A, D, E, and F. Ports B and C are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.C. A, E, and F. Ports B, C, and D are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.D. A and F only. No other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually.E. A only. VLANs are configured on uplinks and are automatically available on any other port with no

configuration necessary.F. F only. VLANs are only modified in the service profile.




You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the MAC pool named"vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be assigned to the vNICs? (Choose two.)

A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01



QUESTION 146

Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring healthprobes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). A probe can be one of many types. Which are validACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. HTTPB. Java scriptingC. TCL scriptingD. RADIUSE. TACACS



QUESTION 147Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being used as theDNS?

A. Client IPB. Proxy IPC. Client and proxy IPD. Neither client nor proxy IP



QUESTION 148In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true?

A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSSB. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS clusterC. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queriesD. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new master GSS



QUESTION 149A Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support "sticky" configuration.What is the reason for this issue?

A. ACE sticky license is not installedB. ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin contextC. ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin context

D. Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context



QUESTION 150Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.)

A. Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNSB. Responds to a DNS query with A-recordC. Forwards queries to a name serverD. Multiple A-recordsE. DHCP functionality for the local hosts

Correct Answer: BCDSection: (none)Explanation



cisco 350-080 exam questions & answers...enabling jumbo frame support on a cisco nexus 5500...

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